Practice Exam 3 Round 2

Which of the following is not categorized as an Anxiety Disorder in the DSM-5? Select one: A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder B. Separation Anxiety Disorder C. Panic Disorder D. Agoraphobia Incorrect

A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is included in DSM-5 w Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders, Includes - Body Dysmorphic Disorder, - Hoarding Disorder, Trichotillomania, and - Excoriation Disorder. - OCD Anxiety Disorders - Mutism, Phobias, Anx dis - Separation Anxiety Disorder - Selective Mutism -Specific Phobia - Social Anxiety Disorder - Panic Disorder - Agoraphobia - Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

Which of the following tests would be most useful for assessing the intelligence of a 12-year-old child with limited English language proficiency? Select one: A. Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices Correct B. Slosson Intelligence Test C. Bayley Scales D. Cognitive Abilities Test

A. Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices Correct RAVEN'S TWEET & DONT SPEAK Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices can be administered W/O use of Language, doesn't req language to respond to test items. Approp for 6yo & +. Non-Verbal intelligence test used to assess - Observational skills, - Problem-solving and overall - Ability to Learn.

Why is it necessary to carefully monitor a heroin addict who is being administered methadone while going through withdrawal? Select one: A. To maintain a constant therapeutic level within the bloodstream Correct B. To make certain that overdosing does not occur ending in the patients death C. To ensure that the patient is receiving the maximum dosage level at all times D. To minimize any drop in therapeutic drug level as long as it fell within acceptable parameters

A. To maintain a constant therapeutic level within the bloodstream HEROIN - METHADONE - Measure for Constant Concentration for therapeutic benefit While administering drug such as methadone to addict going through withdrawal, important to measure specific drugs at designated intervals to maintain Constant Concentration in bloodstream, to optimize dosage regimens.

Based on their longitudinal study of at-risk children residing on the Hawaiian Island of Kauai, Werner and Smith (1992) concluded that the most important protective factor is: Select one: A. a consistent trusting relationship with a parent, grandparent, or other person. Correct B. a higher-than-average IQ. C. a lack of serious pathology in first-degree relatives. D. non-exposure to drugs or malnutrition during prenatal development.

A. a consistent trusting relationship with a parent, grandparent, or other person. Correct HAWAIIANS ARE RESILIENT & PROTECTED BY TRUSTING RELATIONSHIPS E. Werner and R. Smith found that Resilient High-Risk children have several characteristics that distinguish them from their LESS-Resilient peers. - Resilient children have "cluster of protective factors". One element in cluster of all children was Consistent Relationship w parent, grandparent, older sibling, etc.

Without rehearsal, information is held in short-term memory for a brief period of time. According to interference theory this is due to which of the following? Select one: A. a limited capacity Correct B. insufficient consolidation C. inadequate memory cues D. the decay of memory traces over time

A. a limited capacity INTERFERENCE THEORY = LIMITED CAPACITY - Info in STM DISPLACED when new info comes in because of Limited Capacity to hold things in mind. With regard to STM, interference refers to Displacement of items in memory by more Recently Perceived info & attributable to Limited Capacity of STM. AKA: "interference through Displacement." Consolidation- used to describe process by which STM Converted to LTM. Inadequate Memory Cues -cause of inability to retrieve info from LTM. Trace Decay Theory- Loss of both STM & LTM. Refers to GRADUAL FADING of memories over TIME.

Our peripheral vision is mediated by the: Select one: A. anterior occipital lobe. B. posterior occipital lobe. Incorrect C. anterior temporal lobe. D. posterior temporal lobe.

A. anterior occipital lobe. Peripheral Vision mediated by Anterior Occipital Lobe, Central Vision - mediated by Posterior Occipital Lobe. PERIPHERAL - ANTERIOR OCCIPITAL CENTRAL - POSTERIOR OCCIPITAL I SEE ANTS APPROACHING IN MY PERIPHERAL MY POSTER IS CENTRAL TO MY APPEARANCE

According to Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963), Career Development involves two phases - anticipation and preoccupation - which each consist of several stages. During these stages, the individual: Select one: A. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and differentiation. B. compares his/her own abilities and performance to an external standard to help decide future goals. C. makes choices that are based primarily on his/her level of self-awareness. D. makes choices based on his/her needs, which are determined primarily by family and other environmental factors. Incorrect

A. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and differentiation. TIEDMAN & O'HARA - CAREER DEV = ANTICIPATION & PREOCCUPATION (INTEGRATION of career & DIFFERENTIATION of own uniqueness). Tiedeman and O'Hara - career development involves building Vocational Identity that combines a career w one's Individuality. Achieving balanced Vocational Identity involves both 1. INTEGRATION - becoming part of career field 2. DIFFERENTIATION - Retaining one's Uniqueness.

Lawrence Kohlberg describes reasoning in his sixth (last) stage of moral development as involving consideration of universal ethical principles. In contrast, the last stage in Carol GILLIGAN'S MODEL of moral development emphasizes: Select one: A. avoiding harm to oneself and to others. B. sacrificing ones own desires to those of others. C. a desire to uphold social contracts. Incorrect D. the ability to take the perspective of others.

A. avoiding harm to oneself and to others. Gilligan's Theory of Moral Development 1. Pre-conventional Stage: goal of woman is to survive. Meet Personal Needs. Care for SELF. 2. Conventional Stage: Woman recognizes self-sacrifice can be source of "goodness". Focus on helping others to survive. OTHERS. 3. Post-conventional Stage: W recognizes "ends no longer justify the means" to have needs met. Care for self & others. SELF & OTHERS. KOHLBERG Level 1 - Preconventional morality - Consequence of following or breaking rules. - Instrumental Hedonism - reward/personal needs REWARDS/PUNISHMENT Level 2 - Conventional Morality - Good Boy/Good Girl. Right based on Social Approval. - Law & Order Orientation - Laws/Rules set by authority - Good Relationships & Maintaining Social Order. SOCIAL APPROVAL. LAWS & RULES Level 3 - Postconventional morality - Social Contract and Individual Rights. Universal Principles - Heinz's dilemma. INDIV RIGHTS/UNIVERSAL PRINCIPLES

Participants in a research study are asked to tap with a finger to keep time with a metronome. After several taps, the metronome is turned off and participants are asked to continue with the same beat. Participants with damage to which of the following areas of the brain will have the most difficulty with this task? Select one: A. cerebellum B. suprachiasmatic nucleus Incorrect C. cortex D. hippocampus

A. cerebellum Cerebellum -TIMING & COORDINATION of MVMNTS. Impairment in cerebellar damage is a loss of Timing in their study. Pts w cerebellar damage had trouble.

Quality assurance is least concerned with: Select one: A. cost-effectiveness of services. B. availability of services. Incorrect C. client satisfaction with services. D. the outcomes of services.

A. cost-effectiveness of services. Although quality assurance means different things to diff ppl, in general, it refers to Quality of services. QUALITY NOT WORRIED ABOUT COST/QUANTITY OF $ UTILIZATION REVIEW - WORRIES ABOUT $$ Cost effectiveness is target of Utilization Review rather than quality assurance (although, in the long-run, improved quality may also reduce costs). QUALITY ASSURANCE includes: 1. Availability of Services. 2. Client Satisfaction with services. 3. Outcomes of Services. AVAILABILITY, SATISFACTION, OUTCOMES

The beneficial effects of a phenothiazine would most likely be apparent first for which of the following symptoms? Select one: A. hallucinations B. social withdrawal Incorrect C. anergia D. thought disorder

A. hallucinations Phenothiazines are "typical" ANTIPSYCHOTIC drugs, which are better at alleviating POSITIVE sx -delusions, hallucinations, and agitation. Hes a Typical Schizophrenic PHENE w Delusions, Hallucinations, and Agitation.

One criticism of BARS is that: Select one: A. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed. Correct B. it requires raters to recall the frequency of critical behaviors over an extended period of time in the past. C. there is too much ambiguity with regard to the performance dimensions being measured. D. it overemphasizes the subjective features of job performance.

A. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed. Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) present raters w specific behavioral statements related to different levels of job performance. A characteristic of BARS is behavioral anchors usually worded in terms of what Could be expected VS what actually Occurred.

Singh and Young (1995) found that, when men were asked to rate women in terms of attractiveness, health, and desirability as a romantic partner, they gave the highest ratings to females with: Select one: A. large breasts and narrow hips. B. large breasts and broad hips. Incorrect C. small breasts and narrow hips. D. small breasts and broad hips.

A. large breasts and narrow hips. Singh and R. K. Young found that 1. Large Breasts, 2. Narrow Hips and 3. Low Waist-to-Hip Ratio were consistently rated by men as more Attractive, Healthy, & Desirable for a romantic relationship.

Surveys of heterosexual men and women have found that, with regard to sexual satisfaction in mid- to late-adulthood: Select one: A. men report being more physically and emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships than women do. Correct B. women report being more physically and emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships than men do. C. men and women report nearly identical levels of physical and emotional satisfaction with their current sexual relationships. D. men report being more physically satisfied but women report being more emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships.

A. men report being more physically and emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships than women do. MEN MORE SATISFIED SEXUALLY & EMOTIONALLY IN Mid to Late Adulthood. Large-scale international study of sexual attitudes & behaviors of men and women ages 40 - 80. In all geographic regions, Men reported higher levels of physical & emotional sexual satisfaction than women.

As described by Mildred Parten (1932), children's social play includes all of the following types of play except: Select one: A. onlooker. B. associative. Incorrect C. parallel. D. cooperative.

A. onlooker. Nonsocial play includes 1. unoccupied, 2. onlooker, and 3. solitary play Social play includes - CAP 1. Parallel 2. Associative, and 3. Cooperative play. BOBBY PLAYED SOCIALLY with kids after putting on his CAP. ALL THE KIDS PLAYED WITH BOBBYS CAP

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following interventions? Select one: A. overcorrection Correct B. differential reinforcement C. negative practice D. implosive therapy

A. overcorrection Correct Overcorrection - form of PUNISHMENT. Involves applying penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.. Two phases - 1. Restitution - FIX what did wrong 2. Positive Practice - repeated practice of an appropriate behavior for that same situation.

The stages of change (transtheoretical) model identifies two factors as the primary predictors of successful transition from one stage to the next. These are: Select one: A. perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance. B. locus of control and level of commitment. C. motivation and persuasibility. Incorrect D. outcome expectancies and outcome value.

A. perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance. TRANSTHEORETIC MODEL - SELF EFFICACY BELIEFS OF BEING ABLE TO CHANGE & DECISIONAL BALANCE BTWN PROS/CONS Stages of change model identifies several factors that impact a person's willingness to alter a problematic behavior. 1. Perception of Self-Efficacy -belief one is capable of taking steps needed to change, 2. Decisional Balance - balance btwn Perceived Pros & Cons of changing. - Cons outweigh pros during Precontemplation & Contemplation stages; - Cons & Pros Equal during Preparation stage; - Pros outweigh Cons in Action & Maintenance stages.

For her math class assignment, a high school student decides to compare the average number of hours that students in her school view TV each day to the national average. To analyze the data she collects, the student will use which of the following statistical tests? Select one: A. single-sample t-test Correct B. independent samples t-test C. single-sample chi-square test D. multiple-sample chi-square test

A. single-sample t-test Data analysis will involve comparing Mean # of TV viewing hrs for high school students to national mean. T-test used to compare 2 means. When one is Sample Mean & other is known Population mean, appropriate t-test is the Single-Sample T-Test. Independent samples t-test - approp t-test for comparing means from 2 independent samples. Single-Sample Chi-Square test - used to compare Number (Frequency) of cases in each category when study includes a Single variable. Multiple-sample chi-square test - used to compare Number (Frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes 2 or More variables.

The neurotransmitter glutamate is believed to be responsible for: Select one: A. the effects of alcohol on cognitive abilities. B. the increased sociability that sometimes accompanies alcohol use. Incorrect C. alcohol cravings in alcohol abusers. D. dietary changes associated with chronic alcohol use.

A. the effects of alcohol on cognitive abilities. GLUTATE = LEARNING, MEMORY, LONG TERM POTENTUATION (formation of LTM) - Cognition Glutamate plays role in Learning & Memory, more specifically, in LONG TERM POTENTUATION which is believed to mediate formation of LTM. Alcohol alters glutamate level in brain, causing memory imprmnt. May play role in alcohol-related blackouts. GABA - inhibitory neurotransmitter; alcohol enhances GABA activity which may contribute to increased sociability assoc w alcohol consumption. Serotonin - involved in alcohol craving.

Fiedler and Garcia's (1987) cognitive resource theory predicts that the relationship between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness is moderated by: Select one: A. the leader's stress level. Correct B. the leader's self-efficacy beliefs. C. the employees' motivation. D. the employees' experience.

A. the leader's stress level. F. E. Fiedler and J. E. Garcia's cognitive resource theory (CRT) attempts to explain low correlations found btwn leader Intelligence & leader Performance ( According to CRT, impact of a leader's EXPERIENCE & INTELLIGENCE on leader's Performance Moderated by leader's level of STRESS. Predicts that (1) leader's INTELLECTUAL Ability correlates -Positively w performance in LOW STRESS situations but - Negatively in high-stress situations and (2) a leader's EXPERIENCE correlates - Negatively w performance in LOW-Stress situation but - Positively in HIGH-stress situations. IQ - helpful in LOW STRESS EXPERIENCE - helpful in HIGH STRESS LOW STRESS = IQ HIGH STRESS = EXPERIENCE

As described by Bandura (1968), inhibition and disinhibition are two of the possible effects of: Select one: A. vicarious learning. Correct B. instrumental learning. C. insight learning. D. overlearning.

A. vicarious learning. Bandura proposed vicarious learning (aka Modeling & Observational Learning) has several effects including -acquisition of New Response & - Inhibition or Disinhibition of an Existing response. Can acquire a new response, become inhibited or disinhibited by through either - having self receive reward or punishment - watch someone else (model) get rewarded or punished. Bobo study - can acquire new behavior even WITHOUT REWARD/PUNISHMENT. Kids were aggressive even when model didn't get reinforced. BANDURA-PARTICIPANT MODELING for PHOBIAS

With regard to IQ, the average reported correlation coefficient for identical (monozygotic) twins reared together is .85, while the coefficient for a parent and biological child when the child is reared by the parent is approximately: Select one: A. .68. B. .40. Correct C. .25. D. .18.

B. .40. Parent & Biological child (reared together) of .39 to .43. .68 is - correlations for Identical Twins Reared Apart. .25 - biological siblings Reared Apart. .18 - JUadoptive parent and child.

_______________ is the likely DSM diagnosis for a mother when her child's persistent vomiting stops whenever the child is removed from the mother's care for several days. Select one: A. Malingering B. Factitious Disorder Correct C. Ganser syndrome D. folie a deux

B. Factitious Disorder Major feature of Factitious Disorder is Intentional production or feigning of Physical or Psychological sx in oneSelf or Another. Info provided in question suggests that mother is inducing her child's symptoms. (When sx are produced in another person, diagnosis is Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another.)

Research on characteristics associated with successful smoking cessation suggests that which of the following individuals is most likely to relapse following an attempt to stop smoking cigarettes? Select one: A. a 51 year old married man who started smoking at age 32 B. a 25 year old single man who started smoking at age 16 C. a 34 year old married woman who started smoking at age 25 D. a 42 year old divorced woman who started smoking at age 20

B. a 25 year old single man who started smoking at age 16 Researchers identified number of factors that predict successful smoking cessation. Successful quitters are more likely to be 1. Male, 2. 35 or Older, 3. Married or Live w partner 4. started smoking at a Later age. - Greater Failure for W, 34 or Younger, Single/Lives w/o Partner, started smoking Younger. Of indiv's described, 25-yo man who is single & started smoking at 16 is least likely to be successful quitter.

From the perspective of traditional psychoanalysis, transference is: Select one: A. an impediment to therapy progress. B. a form of resistance. C. a form of catharsis. D. an ego defense mechanism. Incorrect

B. a form of resistance. PSYCHOANALYSIS -Transference is RESISTANCE - FANTASY WANTING TO BE GRATIFIED From perspective of psychoanalysis, core of transference is resistance, or unwillingness to relinquish one's fantasy that one's infantile wishes will be gratified. Individual Psychology (Adler) Healthy Style of Life = confidence, optimism, & concern about welfare of others. so Mistaken style = personal power, competitive. Teleological Approach - beh motivated by Future goals vs past. Collaborative approach. Personality Theory - Inferiority feelings due to perceived biological, psychological, or social weakness in childhood.

Bandura's (1977) notion of "reciprocal determinism" applies to interactions between which of the following? Select one: A. a person's thoughts, feelings, and actions B. a person's behavior, personal factors, and environment Correct C. the therapist, therapy client, and therapy outcomes D. the person's attention, retention, and production

B. a person's behavior, personal factors, and environment Bandura's notion of reciprocal determinism is key concept in his Social Learning theory. Reciprocal determinism - Reciprocal (Interactive) Relationship btwn person's Behavior, Personal Factors (Cognition, Affect, Biological events), & environment.

According to Kohlberg, moral development is directly related to: Select one: A. changes in cognitive skills. B. changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking. Correct C. changes in cognitive skills and socioemotional status. D. changes in identity status.

B. changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking. These Kohls are made of Heinz Ketchup Kohlberg -relationship btwn COGNITIVE & MORAL Development. - Social Perspective-Taking - aspect of Cognitive Development that influences Moral judgments. Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Developmnt -Heinz's Dilemma 1. Preconventional Morality: Good/Bad dep on Consequences & avoiding Punishment. - Instrumental Hedonism - focus on reward/personal needs 2. Conventional Morality - Good Boy/Good Girl. Right based on Social Approval. - Law & Order Orientation - Laws & Rules set by authority 3. Postconventional Morality: Morality of Contract, Indiv Rights, Democratically Accepted Laws. Basic Human Rights. - Morality of Indiv Principles of Conscience - Right/Wrong based on Broad, Self-Chosen Universally applicable Ethical Principles.

According to Kelman (1961), __________ occurs when a person changes his/her behavior as the result of social influence in order to obtain reinforcement or avoid punishment. Select one: A. conformity Incorrect B. compliance C. internalization D. exernalization

B. compliance Kelman (1961) proposed that social influence can have one of three effects on a person's behavior Kelmans SOCIAL INFLUENCE THEORY 1. Compliance -adopt induced beh for reward/avoid punishment. Dont actually agree. Cog Dissonance. 2. Identification - adopt induced beh to maintain relationship to another person or grp. 3. Internalization - adopt beh after reviewing, finding rewarding & in line w values. W/o coercion. At personal level. I COMPLY for reward/no punishment I IDENTIFY w messenger. I INTERNALIZE & believe. Compliance - person adopts induced beh, not because persuaded, but to gain reward or avoid punishment.

You would use which of the following to estimate what a predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0? Select one: A. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula Incorrect B. correction for attenuation formula C. coefficient of concordance D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

B. correction for attenuation formula Correction for attenuation formula is used for the purpose described in this question.

A handwriting disability that is characterized by difficulties in learning to write, and writing that is accurate but painstakingly slow or of poor quality is referred to as: Select one: A. anosognosia. B. dysgraphia. Correct C. agnosia. D. dyslexia.

B. dysgraphia. - Inability to Write that's NOT due to Motor impairment. Agnosia - inability to recognize familiar objects/sounds. Anosognosia - inability to recognize own neurological symptoms or other disorder. Dyslexia -READING dis w Neurological basis. Can cause handwriting prob but not limited to this impairment.

Mental health professionals are sometimes called upon to assist the court in assessing a person's potential for violent behavior. In general, the predictions made by psychologists and psychiatrists yield an abundance of: Select one: A. false negatives. B. false positives. Correct C. true negatives. D. true positives.

B. false positives. According to several authorities, MH professionals tend to overpredict potential for violence; i.e., tend to predict person will be violent when, in fact, will not. Individuals who are identified as violent but, in reality, are not violent are referred to as "false positives."

Regular use of morphine or other opioid can quickly result in the development of tolerance and dependence. When this occurs, abrupt cessation of the drug produces a withdrawal syndrome that is characterized by: Select one: A. blackouts and seizures. B. flu-like symptoms. Correct C. rebound anxiety and rebound insomnia. D. delirium tremens.

B. flu-like symptoms. OPIOD/MORPHINE WITHDRAWAL - FLU Morphine withdrawal closely resembles a moderately severe case of the flu. Common withdrawal sx - nausea, vomit, diarrhea, abdominal & muscle cramps, runny nose & eyes, chills, insomnia.

A systemic family therapist uses "circular questioning" in order to: Select one: A. obtain unbiased information from family members. B. help family members recognize differences in their perceptions. Correct C. refocus the attention of family members to the here-and-now. D. obtain information about the family's transactional patterns and style.

B. help family members recognize differences in their perceptions. SYSTEMIC FAMILY THERAPY- CIRCULAR QUESTIONS MURRAY BOWEN Goal of many of techniques used by Systemic Family Therapists is to provide family members w info they need to identify SOLUTIONS to their problems. Circular questions help members identify Similarities & Differences in Perceptions about events & relationships. Bowen believed personalities, emotions, & beh result of BIRTH ORDER, ROLE within family & COPING Mechanisms developed for dealing w issues. Family must be viewed as whole while watching INTERACTIONS - Circular Questions. WHOLE SYSTEM

Research on visual imagery has linked it to which of the following structures of the brain? Select one: A. putamen B. hippocampus C. reticular formation Incorrect D. basal ganglia

B. hippocampus Research has linked visual imagery to Medial Temporal Lobe structures. Medial temporal lobe includes 1. Hippocampus, 2. Amygdala, 3. Entorhinal cortex, and 4. ParaHippocampal Gyrus. VISUAL IMAGERY - MEDIAL TEMPORAL LOBES - AMY SEES THE HIPPO CAMPING IN HER MIND IN THE MIDDLE OF THE WOODS

Major Depressive Disorder has been linked to all of the following sleep disturbances except: Select one: A. reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep. B. increased slow-wave (non-REM) sleep. C. decreased REM latency. D. decreased sleep continuity. Incorrect Feedback Major Depressive Disorder is associated with several abnormalities in the sleep cycle.a. Incorrect Reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep is characteristic of depression.b. CORRECT Depression is associated with decreased (not increased) slow-wave sleep.c. Incorrect Decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is characteristic of depression.d. Incorrect Decreased sleep continuity is common in individuals with Major Depressive Disorder.

B. increased slow-wave (non-REM) sleep. MDD assoc with several abnormalities in sleep cycle. a. Incorrect Reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep is characteristic of depression. Depression assoc w DECREASED slow-wave sleep. MDD also assoc w: - Reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep - Decreased REM Latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) - Decreased sleep continuity MDD - REDUCES ALL AREAS OF SLEEP - REDUCED/DECREASED

Research on maternal employment has found that it is associated with: Select one: A. lower school grades for both boys and girls. B. lower school grades for middle- and upper middle-class boys. Correct C. lower school grades for lower-class boys. D. lower school grades for middle-class boys and girls.

B. lower school grades for MIDDLE & UPPER-middle-class BOYS. Research suggests that effects of maternal employment on academic achievement are affected by SES. Middle- and upper middle-class boys are most negatively affected by maternal employment, at least in terms of school grades and other measures of academic achievement. This is particularly true when mothers work full-time throughout the boy's life.

Chomsky's position on language acquisition is best described as: Select one: A. psychodynamic. B. nativist. C. behaviorist. D. interactionist. Incorrect

B. nativist. CHOMSKY CHOMPS ON NATIVE FOOD Chomsky -humans born w innate capacity to acquire language due to an innate Language Acquisition Device. His theory is classified as nativist. Behaviorist position - language acquisition due to Environmental factors. Interactionist theories - Environment & Social context on language acquisition.

: Research comparing day, swing, and night shifts has found that: Select one: A. the night shift clearly has the most detrimental impact on both the social life and health of workers. B. the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health and may or may not be similar to the swing shift in terms of it negative effects on the social life of workers. C. the night shift has the most detrimental impact on the social life of workers but is no different than day and swing shifts in terms of health problems. Incorrect D. the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health but is no different than day or swing shifts in terms of the social life of workers.

B. night shift has the most detrimental impact on health and may or may not be similar to the swing shift in terms of it negative effects on the social life of workers. Research on effects of shift work has found most of prob exper by workers are related to loss of sleep. NIGHT SHIFT -linked to most HEALTH PROBLEMS. Literature inconsistent w regard to effects on Social life: VARIOUS STUDY RESULTS OF SOCIAL LIFE - SOME - effects on social life worse for SWING shift. OTHERS - worse for NIGHT shift or SIMILAR for both.

Ensuring that employment decisions and practices are free from bias, that errors are quickly corrected, and that stakeholders are involved in important decision-making contributes to which of the following types of organizational justice? Select one: A. interactional Incorrect B. procedural C. distributive D. retributive

B. procedural Individuals interested in fairness in organizations distinguish between three types of justice -- procedural, distributive, and interactional. Interactional Justice - how people FEEL about Quality & Content of INTERPERSONAL Interactions. Procedural Justice- FAIRNESS of way Procedures & Policies are implemented. DECISION-MAKING PROCESS. Distributive Justice - FAIRNESS of OUTCOMES of Organizational Procedures & Policies. (Economic justice), concern w giving all members of society "fair share". DISTRIBUTION

Which of the following research designs would be useful for controlling the effects of a potential confounding organismic variable on the results of a research study when participants' scores on that variable are known at the beginning of the study? Select one: A. counterbalanced Incorrect B. randomized block C. Solomon four-group D. nonequivalent groups

B. randomized block CONFOUNDING VARIABLE - RANDOMIZED BLOCK CONFOUNDED IN THE BLOCK Randomized Block Design used to control effects of (CONFOUNDING) Extraneous variable by ensuring groups are equivalent w regard to that variable prior to beginning of study. - Involves "blocking" (grouping) participants in terms of status on that variable then randomly assigning participants in each block to one of tx grps. When using this method, Extraneous variable treated as another IV & data analyzed using randomized block ANOVA.

A primary goal of Minuchin's structural family therapy is to: Select one: A. increase differentiation in family members by identifying and restructuring family triangles. B. replace rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries. Correct C. balance separation and togetherness. D. align boundaries with family systems and subsystems.

B. replace rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries. - Family dysfunction can be traced to boundaries that are overly rigid or diffuse. MINUCHIN STRUCTURAL fAMILY tHERAPY = BOUNDARIES - DISTURB HOMEOSTASIS TO RESTRUCTURE POOR BOUNDARIES - Done by creating stress DIFFERENTIATION = BOWENS EXTENDED FAMILY SYSTEM

Kirkpatrick (1983) identifies four levels of rigor in the evaluation of training programs. According to his model, which of the following represents the highest level of evaluation? Select one: A. reaction criteria B. results criteria Correct C. behavioral criteria D. learning criteria

B. results criteria 1. Reaction criteria 2. Learning criteria, 3. Behavioral criteria 4. Results criteria. Measures Results as indicating contribution of training to organization's objectives - Cost and Turnover Reductions, - increases in overall Productivity, and - increases in Profits. Reduced Turnover, Increased Productivity & Profits TPP

Social psychologists define __________ as knowledge about particular situations and how events in those situations ordinarily unfold. Select one: A. prototype B. script Correct C. heuristic D. propositional network

B. script Script AKA "event schema" - refers to knowledge about sequence of events or actions in a particular situation (e.g., how to order food in a restaurant). Prototype - set of features commonly associated w MEMBERS of a particular CATEGORY.

When using an ABAB research design, Causality is suggested when: Select one: A. the target behavior changes only when the treatment is applied to each baseline. Incorrect B. the target behavior reverts to original baseline levels when the treatment is withdrawn. C. the target behavior is not altered by the second baseline manipulation. D. the target behavior changes in the treated conditions only. Feedback Answer B is correct: An ABAB single-subject design involves four phases: baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment. The advantage of having a second baseline (A) phase is that it helps determine whether an observed change in the DV during the treatment phase was in fact due to the IV. If the DV returns to its original baseline level, the researcher can be more certain that the observed effect is actually the result of the IV (rather than a confounding factor).

B. target behavior reverts to Original Baseline levels when treatment is Withdrawn. ABAB single-subject design involves four phases: baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment. - Advantage of having second baseline (A) phase is it helps determine whether Observed Change in DV during Treatment phase was in fact due to IV. - If DV returns to original baseline level, more certain observed effect is actually result of IV (rather than Confounding Factor).

A practitioner of motivational interviewing would most likely emphasize use of which of the following in therapy? Select one: A. paradoxical techniques that foster resistance B. techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy C. confrontational techniques that address the client's excuses and irresponsibilities D. techniques that help the client identify "problem exceptions" Incorrect

B. technique that help therapist communicate EMPATHY MI= EMPATHIZE, REFLECT, SUMMARIZE Goal of MI - help ct resolve Ambivalence about change. Relies on a CLIENT-CENTERED Approach. EMPATHY- key element. Methods used to communicate empathy include: - Simple Reflection - Double-sided Reflection - Amplified Reflection, and - Summary Statements. Paradoxical techniques foster Resistance-often used by practitioners of STRATEGIC Family Therapy. Identifying EXCEPTIONS to prob = Solution-Focused therapists.

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the phenomenon known as the "serial position effect"? Select one: A. the levels of processing model of memory Incorrect B. the multi-store (three-box) model of memory C. the distinction between implicit and explicit memory D. the concept of overlearning

B. the multi-store (three-box) model of memory Serial Position Effect - ppl asked to recall list of words immediately after remembering them tend to recall words at beginning & end of list better than middle. MULTISTORE OF SERIAL POSITION - SENSORY, STM, LTM GO TO STORE TO BUY SERIAL Most widely accepted explanation for Serial Position Effect is words in Beginning of list transferred to LTM, while those at the end of list still in Short-Term memory. Three distinct memory systems - 1. Sensory Register, 2. STM 3. LTM Levels of Processing Model predicts that memory is maximized when info is encoded semantically. - Sturctural - Phonetic - Semantic - deepest level/meaning. MEMORIZE AT SEMANTIC LEVEL c. Incorrect Implicit and explicit memory have not been used to explain the serial position effect. d. Incorrect Overlearning refers to rehearsing or studying past the point of mastery and is not relevant to the serial position effect.

Social Cognitive Theory of Motivation

Bandura Self-Regulation of Behavior - four processes 1. Goal Setting 2. Self Observation 3. Self-Evaluation 4. Self-Reaction

social cognitive theory

Bandura's theory that social and cognitive factors, as well as behavior, play important roles in learning.

According to Piaget, a child cannot gain a true understanding of addition and subtraction until he/she is ___ years of age. Select one: A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 Correct D. 11

C. 7 Piaget proposed that it is not until the concrete operational stage that children are capable of mental operations, which are logical rules for transforming and manipulating information. Concrete operational stage characteristic of children ages 7-11. Piaget believed children younger than 7 could be taught to memorize simple math facts (2+2=4) but must be in concrete operational stage before they able to understand addition and subtraction.

Following the death of her pet cat, Puff, six-year-old Jane constantly follows and clings to her mother and becomes extremely upset whenever her mother leaves the house. Jane says she can't go to school because she has a stomachache or other physical ailment. The most likely diagnosis for Jane is: Select one: A. Adjustment Disorder. B. Reactive Attachment Disorder. C. Separation Anxiety Disorder. Correct D. Acute Stress Disorder.

C. Separation Anxiety Disorder. Core symptom is anxiety related to separation. Girl's anxiety tied to separation from attachment figure (Mother), primary characteristic of dx. - triggered by Stressor - death of a relative or pet & - manifested as SOMATIC SX & SCHOOL PHOBIA Adjustment Disorder - ONLY DX when sx DONT MEET CRITERIA FOR ANOTHER DISORDER!!!! Reactive Attachment Disorder -markedly disturbed & developmentally inappropriate social relatedness. Acute Stress Disorder - req exposure to extreme stressor & PTSD Sx - e.g., avoidance of reminders, distressing memories of event, derealization.

In the development of a job performance measure, the "ultimate" criterion is: Select one: A. a measure of performance that has a perfect (or near perfect) correlation with the predictor. B. a measure of performance that is unaffected by measurement error. Incorrect C. a measure of performance that is theoretical and cannot actually be measured. D. the actual measure of the empirically identified conceptual criterion.

C. a measure of performance that is theoretical and cannot actually be measured. ULTIMATE CRITERION - THEORETICAL MEASURE OF PERFORMANCE THAT CANT ACTUALLY BE MEASURED An ULTIMATE (Conceptual) criterion is a construct that CANT BE MEASURED Directly but, instead, is Measured INDIRECTLY ("effective employee" would be Ultimate criterion, while "dollar amount of sales during a three-month period" would be actual criterion).

Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when: Select one: A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified. B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule. C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. Correct D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established.

C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. OPERANT CONDITIONING - EXTINCTION INITIALLY HAS EXTINCTION BURST W INCREASE IN BEHAVIOR. Extinction accomplished by withholding ALL Reinforcement from behavior that was previously reinforced. Extinction often produces an initial "EXTINCTION BURST" (temporary INCREASE in the target behavior).

A test developer uses a multitrait-multimethod matrix to organize the data she has collected in a validation study of her newly developed self-report measure of self-esteem. The matrix indicates that the correlation between her self-report measure of self-esteem and an established (previously validated) teacher rating of self-esteem is .91. This correlation coefficient suggests that the self-report measure of self-esteem has: Select one: A. high reliability. Incorrect B. low incremental validity. C. adequate convergent validity. D. adequate discriminant validity.

C. adequate convergent validity. Multitrait-multimethod matrix organizes info about test's Convergent validity & Discriminant (Divergent) Validity which, in turn, provide info about construct validity. Correlation btwn newly developed test (test being validated) & measure of Same or Related trait provides info about the Convergent validity. When correlation is large ( .91 is considered large correlation), suggests test has adequate level of Convergent validity.

To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need information about which of the following? Select one: A. predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate B. base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio C. base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient D. base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff Incorrect

C. base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient Taylor-Russell tables used to estimate predictor's "Positive Hit Rate." TAYLOR RUSSEL - Need BASE RATE, SELECTION RATIO, VALIDITY COEFFICIENT - Taylor BASES his SELECTION on how VALID your points are.

In their reformulation of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989): Select one: A. de-emphasize the role of punishment and emphasize the role of reinforcement. B. de-emphasize the role of helplessness and emphasize the role of attributions. Incorrect C. de-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness. D. de-emphasize the role of subjective feelings and emphasize the role of actual stressful events.

C. de-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness. ABRAMSON REVISED HOPELESSNESS MODEL - DE-EMPHASIZE ATTRIBUTIONS, IMPORTANCE OF HELPNESSNESS. ABRAMSON = HELPLESSNESS MOST CRITICAL According to Abramson, one type of depression is due primarily to feelings of Hopelessness. For this type of depression, Attributions are relevant only to degree that they contribute to feelings of Hopelessness.

Scores on a predictor that will be used to estimate job performance rating range from 0 to 200. If the predictor's cutoff score is raised from 130 to 150, this will have which of the following effects? Select one: A. increase the number of true positives Incorrect B. increase the number of true positives and true negatives C. decrease the number of false positives D. decrease the number of false positives and false negatives

C. decrease the number of false positives All positives (true & false) are decreased & all negatives (true & false) are increased by raising predictor cutoff. RAISE PREDICTOR CUT OFF = LESS OF ALL POSITIVES/MORE NEG DECREASE PCO = LESS OF ALL NEGATIVES/MORE POS

As conceptualized in Bronfenbrenner's (1995) ecological systems theory, the exosystem includes which of the following? Select one: A. elements in the childs environment that change as the result of the passage of time chrono B. elements in the most remote layer of the childs environment that influence interactions in all other layers macro C. elements in the larger social system that the child does not have direct contact with but that affect his/her immediate environment Correct exo D. elements in the childs immediate environment that he/she has direct contact with micro

C. elements in the larger social system that the child does not have direct contact with but that affect his/her immediate environment Bronfenbrenner's (1995) ecological systems theory 1. Microsystem -immediate environment -face-to-face relationships 2. Mesosystem - interaction btwn microsystems 3. Exosystem - broader social envmnt - extended family, parents work, community & local agencies, mass media. 4. Macrosystem -envrnmntl influences -cultural beliefs & practices, economic conditions, & political ideologies. Most remote layer influencing interactions in all other layers 5. Chronosystem. - change over time impacting dev. Mike Messed w my Ex who wore Mac lipstick & sounded like a Chro

During a therapy session, Dad, who is normally soft-spoken and mild-mannered, becomes very agitated and starts yelling. The oldest daughter becomes upset and says, "Please stop, you're scaring Johnny" (the 6-year old son). Dad stops yelling and becomes calm again. This is an example of: Select one: A. positive feedback. B. scapegoating. C. family homeostasis. Correct D. the double-bind.

C. family homeostasis. Co Daughter's reaction to her father's uncharacteristic behavior serves to return situation to its Usual State. Homeostasis - tendency of systems to maintain status quo. In this situation, daughter's reaction is acting as NEGATIVE FEEDBACK, which causes father to act more characteristically. NEGATIVE FEEDBACK - Maintain Homeostasis. NEGATIVE = NO Change. POSITIVE FEEDBACK - Disrupt Homeostasis. Change/disrupts family's status quo. Create POSITIVE CHANGE. Scapegoat - family member blamed for family's problems. Johnny is not being blamed. Double-bind Communication-Mixed (Contradictory) msg. implicated in development of schizophrenia.

As reported by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), the largest number of reported cases of chlamydia and gonorrhea is for: Select one: A. males ages 15 to 19. B. males ages 20 to 24. C. females ages 15 to 19. Correct D. females ages 20 to 24.

C. females ages 15 to 19. Largest number of reported cases of these two sexually transmitted diseases is for females ages 15 to 19, followed by females ages 20 to 24. CDC notes higher rates for females may be due to several factors, including biological diff that place females at greater risk for sexually transmitted diseases & that females more likely to seek medical testing.

When using empirical criterion keying to construct a structured personality test, items included in the test are those that: Select one: A. have high correlations with some items but low correlations with other items. B. have been identified by subject matter experts as measuring the traits identified by a specific personality theory. C. have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest. D. have been systematically evaluated and chosen on the basis of a set of predetermined rules. Incorrect

C. have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest. "Criterion" in empirical criterion keying refers to criterion grps, which are Ppl who DO & DONT possess TRAIT being Measured. Items that discriminate btwn grps are included in test's scales or subtests.

After several sessions with her therapist, a client starts acting toward the therapist as though he were the client's father. Assuming that the therapist is a practitioner of Gestalt therapy, he is most likely to respond to this transference by: Select one: A. ignoring it. B. temporarily assuming the role of the client's father. C. helping the client see the difference between her transference and reality. Correct D. helping the client understand how her past relationship with her father is affecting her current relationships with men.

C. helping the client see the difference between her transference and Reality. GESTALT Therapy, unlike psychoanalytic psychotherapy, focuses on Here-and-Now rather than past. - Gestalt therapist not likely to encourage a ct's transference which brings an outside & often past relationship into current therapeutic situation. When a ct exhibits transference, therapist helps ct "come to his Senses" by enabling him to "see and experience in vivid concrete detail the discrepancies between transference FANTASY & REALITY... to cut for a moment through filtering fog of fantasy which he maintains around himself and experience the reality of the person who sits across from him".

Lewinsohn (1974) originally focused on which of the following as a treatment for depression? Select one: A. attribution re-training B. self-instructional training C. increasing activity levels Correct D. improving problem-solving and coping skills

C. increasing activity levels Correct Lewinsohn's Model of depression - BEHAVIORAL. Lewinsohn's BEHAVIORAL Model attributes Dep to a LOW RATE of RESPONSE CONTINGENT REINFORCEMENT. - Therefore, focus of therapy was on increasing opportunities for reinforcement by increasing activity levels.

As described by Krumboltz (1996), career counseling involves: Select one: A. assessing the individual's self-concept and then identifying careers that match his/her self-concept. B. helping the individual transition from the anticipation/preoccupation phase to the implementation phase of career development. C. instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in the future. Correct D. helping the individual successfully accomplish the tasks of his/her current stage of career development.

C. instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to CHANGING WORK REQUIREMENTS in the future. KROMBOLTZ - CHANGE/GROW (Attitude & Skills) TO ADAPT TO WORK ENVIRONMENT. Based on Social Learning theory. Krumboltz's theory does not focus on matching indiv characteristics to job characteristics or organization. Instead, argues purpose of career counseling is to help indiv - develop ATTITUDES & SKILLS that will help ADAPT to CHANGING WORK ENVIORNMENT

A researcher wants to investigate the effects of a brief treatment for a group of 10 therapy clients before and after the treatment is applied. She will measure symptom severity three times at regular intervals before administering the treatment to the clients and then three times at regular intervals after the clients complete the 10 sessions. The researcher is using which of the following research designs? Select one: A. multiple baseline B. ABAB Incorrect C. interrupted time-series design D. nonequivalent control group

C. interrupted time-series design Researcher is measuring effects of tx over time for Single-group of participants. Single-group design which DV measured at Regular Intervals Before & After TX applied.

The owner of several used-car lots wants to determine the effectiveness of sales training for his salespeople. He randomly assigns one of his lots to Training Program #1, another to Training Program #2, and a third to a no-treatment condition. It turns out that one of the training group lots is in a low-income neighborhood, while the other two lots are in a middle-income neighborhood. The owner will compare the gross sales of the three lots during a randomly-chosen week in the middle of the summer after the training programs have been completed. The effects of the location of the car lots: Select one: A. is a source of unreliability. B. is a source of reactivity. C. is a threat to internal validity. Correct D. is a threat to statistical validity.

C. is a threat to internal validity. Correct Income-level of neighborhoods where car lots are located will affect results in a way that will make it diff to determine if any differences btwn lots are due to intervention or to income level. Internal validity - ability to determine whether an Observed Difference BTWN GRPS is due to Independent variable or to error. - Cant tell if due to IV, since diff in SES/Area

Which of the following would NOT be useful for determining whether it is more appropriate to use a parametric or a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data you collect in a research study? Select one: A. knowing that the distribution of scores for the dependent variable is negatively skewed Incorrect B. knowing that the scores to be analyzed have equal intervals between adjacent units and an absolute zero point C. knowing that the subjects have not been randomly selected from the population D. knowing that the purpose of the analysis is to determine if an observed frequency distribution differs from an hypothesized distribution

C. knowing subjects have not been randomly selected from the population Use of both parametric & non-parametric tests is based on assumption sample has been Randomly Selected from population. PARAMETRIC & NONPARAMETRIC TEST - NEED RANDOM SELECTION FROM POP.

Left-right confusion is most likely to be caused by a lesion in the: Select one: A. corpus callosum. Incorrect B. basal forebrain. C. left parietal region. D. right occipital region.

C. left parietal region. Left-right confusion (disorientation) is one of sx of GERTSMANN'S Syndrome, also includes - acalculia, - agraphia, and - finger agnosia. GERTSMANN confused btwn L/R, cant do math, write, or recognize his fingers. Left-right confusion ordinarily caused by lesions in Left Angular Gyrus, located near boundary btwn Parietal & Temporal lobes.

Bronfenbrenner's (2004) ecological model describes the ________ as consisting of cultural values, beliefs, and customs. Select one: A. mesosystem Incorrect B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. mezzosystem

C. macrosystem MACRO - C for CULTURAL VALUES, CUSTOMS, BELIEFS Bronfenbrenner's (2004) ecological model describes development as interactions btwn indiv & Environment, Five environmental systems or levels: - Microsystem, - Mesosystem -Interaction of microsystems-work, home - Exosystem-parents work, community industries - Macrosystem- C Culture, Customs, Beliefs, law, politics - Chronosystem - SocioHistorical events

Skinner found that __________ can lead to "superstitious" behaviors. Select one: A. higher-order conditioning Incorrect B. two-factor learning C. noncontingent reinforcement D. noncontingent punishment

C. noncontingent reinforcement SUPERSTITIOUS SKINNER - NONCONTINGENT REINFORCEMENT Noncontingent on being reinforced/rewarded Skinner concluded that unusual behaviors may be result of accidental, noncontingent reinforcement. When Skinner delivered reinforcement on Random schedule, found behaviors the pigeons were engaged in just prior to being reinforced were often repeated. Referred to these as superstitious behaviors.

A strategic family therapist is most likely to use which of the following therapeutic techniques in dealing with a husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other? Select one: A. obtain a detailed family history from each partner B. ask the couple to identify the benefits they obtain from arguing C. tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening Correct D. work individually with the partner who is most "differentiated"

C. tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening Strategic family therapy- Jay Haley, Communication School of family therapy & work of Milton Erickson. Haley relies heavily on PARADOXICAL Techniques. a. Incorrect Haley focuses on present, especially communication patterns occurring in present. b. Incorrect Not characteristic of strategic family therapy. d. Incorrect. BOWENIAN EXTENDED family therapy works w MOST DIFFERENTIATED family member.

If the relationship between level of anxiety (the independent variable) and number of words recalled (the dependent variable) is nonlinear, which of the following would be most useful for statistically evaluating the relationship between the two variables? Select one: A. ANCOVA Incorrect B. MANOVA C. trend analysis D. factorial analysis

C. trend analysis In this situation, there is a Quantitative IV, & relationship btwn IV & DV is Nonlinear. - Trend analysis useful for determining nature of relationship btwn quantitative IV & DV and indicates if theres a Significant iLnear, Quadratic, Cubic, or Quartic trend. ANCOVA -statistically remove effects of Extraneous Variable. MANOVA -used to assess effects of one or more IVs on two or more DVs. Factorial analysis (e.g., factorial ANOVA) - when study has two or more IV's

A researcher investigating implicit memory will most likely use which of the following tasks? Select one: A. free recall Incorrect B. paired-associate C. word-stem completion D. verbal recognition

C. word-stem completion WORD STEM COMPLETION = IMPLICIT MEM Implicit memory- effortless or automatic memory. Researcher using Word-Stem Completion task presents subject w first few letters of word & (e.g., SCH- _ _ _) asks to complete word that begins with those letters.

The notion that there are three major life tasks - friendship, occupation, and love - is MOST consistent with the philosophy of: Select one: A. Perls. Incorrect B. Berne. C. Rogers. D. Adler.

D. Adler. 3 tasks listed in question (friendship, occupation, love) all involve SOCIAL Interactions. Of indiv's listed, ADLER most assoc w emphasis on social factors (social interest). Adler- ppl motivated primarily by INNATE SOCIAL INTEREST. LIFE GOAL- act in ways that fulfill SOCIAL Responsibilities.

Albert Bandura's initial Bobo doll experiment found that: Select one: A. boys (but not girls) imitate an aggressive model. B. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model only when the model has been reinforced for acting aggressively. Incorrect C. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model only when they are told they will receive a reward for doing so. D. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model even when there is no reinforcement for them or for the model for doing so.

D. BOYS & GIRLS imitate Aggressive Model EVEN WHEN THERE IS NO REINFORCEMENT! Bandura Bobo doll experiment - identify factors affecting impact of Observational Learning on Agg. - Compared effects of Model Gender on aggressive behaviors of boys & girls - GIRLS & BOYS More Likely to act aggressively when model was of SAME GENDER (EFFECTS OF GENDER stronger for BOYS). Although Boys performed More aggressive Acts after viewing model, BOYS & GIRLS still both imitated model to some extent. In Initial studies, participants & model not reinforced for acting aggressively.

Which of the following would be most useful when a test administrator wants to use test scores to determine how much a person has learned during the course of a six-week training program? Select one: A. expectancy tables B. stanine scores Incorrect C. percentile ranks D. percentage scores

D. percentage scores When goal of testing is to determine amount of content indiv mastered, CRITERION-REFERENCED (or CONTENT-Referenced) SCORES most useful. Percentage Score indicates percentage of test content examinee mastered, Assuming test content is good sample of what is taught in training program.

The use of anatomically correct dolls with children who are believed to have been sexually abused: Select one: A. is contraindicated because the dolls elicit sexualized play from both abused and non-abused children and, therefore, do not help identify children who have actually been abused. B. is contraindicated because the dolls increase sexualized responses to both non-leading and leading questions from non-abused children who may, therefore, be misdiagnosed as abused. C. is considered effective for helping children recover otherwise repressed memories of abuse that could not be elicited in other ways. D. is considered effective for helping children who have been sexually abused but whose embarrassment or limited verbal skills limit their ability to describe what happened to them. Correct

D. Considered effective for helping children who have been sexually abused but Embarrassment or limited Verbal Skills limit ability to describe what happened. Most experts agree that best use of anatomically correct dolls is to help children demonstrate their experiences. - Particularly important for children w limited Verbal skills or who are Embarrassed to describe what happened to them.

During your first session with Mr. and Mrs. Desvelo, Mr. Desvelo says his wife has insisted that he get "some help" with his sleep problems. Mrs. Desvelo states that she's awakened by his frightening screams at least once a week, usually a few hours after they go to sleep, and that this is having a negative effect on her mood and their relationship. Mr. Desvelo has no history of trauma or substance abuse, and he says he recently had a physical and his health is good. In response to your questions, Mrs. Desvelo tells you that her husband sometimes wakes up when he screams and seems agitated but usually goes right back to sleep and doesn't respond to her attempts to calm him; and Mr. Desvelo says that, in the morning, he has no memory of the episode and usually can't recall having had any dreams. Mr. Desvelo's symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses? Select one: A. Nightmare Disorder B. Sleep Terror Disorder Incorrect C. Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder D. Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder

D. Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder Person w Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type experiences sleep terror episodes that usually accompanied by Panicky Scream. Shows signs of Autonomic Arousal, usually doesnt fully awaken, is Unresponsive to efforts to comfort her, rarely remembers dreams may have had, & has amnesia for episode on awakening in morning. Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type = SLEEP TERRORS. NO SUCH THING AS SLEEP TERROR DISORDER.

Sedation (drowsiness) is most likely to be a side effect of which of the following antidepressants? Select one: A. Prozac B. Wellbutrin Incorrect C. Zoloft D. Pamelor

D. Pamelor Pamelor (nortriptyline) is Tricyclic - most likely to produce Sedation. TRYCLIC's more sedating than other antidepressants. a. Incorrect Prozac (fluoxetine) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation. b. Incorrect Wellbutrin (bupropion) is an NDRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation. c. Incorrect Zoloft (sertraline) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.

A clinician notices that her client, age 28, experiences frequent periods in which she is very irritable, sensitive, anxious, and self-deprecating; but that, between these times, the client seems to be fairly well-adjusted and even-tempered. When the clinician asks the client about these mood changes, the client says she has always become very moody during the week before her menstrual period. The client's symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 disorders? Select one: A. Dysmenorrhea B. Cyclothymic Disorder C. Premenstrual Syndrome D. Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome Correct

D. Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome Correct PREMENSTRUAL DYSPHORIC SYNDROME - MUST INCLUDE DYSPHORIC - NO SUCH THING AS JUST PMS SYNDROME Dysmenorrhea - medical condition characterized by physical pain during menstruation. Answer B: While the client's symptoms are cyclical, they do not meet the diagnostic criteria for Cyclothymic Disorder, which involves alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms. Premenstrual Syndrome is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a culture-fair test of intellectual ability? Select one: A. Leiter-3 B. KABC-II C. Ravens Progressive Matrices D. Woodcock-Johnson III Correct Feedback Note that this question is asking which test is NOT considered to be a culture-fair test. a. Incorrect The Leiter-3 assesses cognitive abilities and is considered to be culture fair because it does not require verbal instructions or responses and because an examinee's performance does not depend on his/her educational, social, or family experiences. b. Incorrect The KABC-II is considered to be culture fair because verbal instructions and responses are minimal and cultural content has been removed from most items. c. Incorrect Raven's Progressive Matrices is a nonverbal measure of intelligence and is considered culture fair because performance on the test is relatively independent of specific educational and cultural learning. d. CORRECT The Woodcock-Johnson III consists of a measure of cognitive abilities (WJ III COG) and a measure of language and academic achievement (WJ III ACH). It is not considered to be a culture-fair test.

D. Woodcock-Johnson III Correct THE CULTURALLY UNFAIR COCK WOODCOCK JOHNSON - CULTURALLY UNFAIR Leiter-3 -cognitive ability- doesnt req Verbal instruction or Response & doesnt depend on educational, social, or family experiences. NONVERBAL, not influenced by EDUCATION/ENVIRONMENT Raven's Progressive Matrices - nonverbal measure of IQ. Independent of educational and cultural learning. NONVERBAL, CULTURE/EDUCATION FREE KABC-II -verbal instruction & response are minimal & cultural content has been removed from most items. Limited VERBAL Req & no CULTURAL content KABC, LEITER, RAVEN - Culturally Fair Woodcock-Johnson -cognitive abilities, measure of language & academic achievement. Culturally Unfair.

Irvin Yalom (1985) described the group therapist's role primarily as which of the following? Select one: A. a "blank screen" B. a neutral observer C. a coach D. a participant/model CorrectAccording to the APA's Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when the linguistic skills of a psychologist do not match the client's language, the psychologist: Select one: A. must make a referral. B. may ask the client to bring an interpreter. C. should retain the services of a translator who has the appropriate cultural/linguistic knowledge and professional training. D. should make a referral or, if not feasible, should retain an appropriate translator. Correct

D. a participant/model Yalom views the therapist as both a 1. "technical Expert" and an 2. "active Participant/Model." Yalom advocates Responsible Self-Disclosure by therapist, because facilitates therapist's participation in group & allows to act as model of Desirable Behavior.According to the APA's Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when the linguistic skills of a psychologist do not match the client's language, the psychologist: Select one: A. must make a referral. B. may ask the client to bring an interpreter. C. should retain the services of a translator who has the appropriate cultural/linguistic knowledge and professional training. D. should make a referral or, if not feasible, should retain an appropriate translator. Correct Feedback Paragraph 6 of the Guidelines addresses this situation. a. Incorrect This isn't a completely accurate description of the requirements of the Guidelines. b. Incorrect This is not recommended in the Guidelines. c. Incorrect This is partially correct. d. CORRECT When language is a problem, a referral is the best course of action. When this is not feasible (there is no one to refer the client to), a psychologist can retain the services of an appropriate translator.

Tolman's demonstration of latent learning suggests that: Select one: A. a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry. B. a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it. C. a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided. D. a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test. Correct

D. a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test. Correct Tolman demonstrated latent learning experiments w rats & mazes. Some rats allowed to freely explore mazes for ten days, but didnt display proficiency in solving maze until Reinforcement offered for doing so. Suggests Reinforcement is more of factor in Performance than learning of response. In this case, student has learned algebra but not displaying knowledge until reinforcement (good grade) is provided for doing. Latent learning -type of learning which is not apparent in learner's behavior at time of learning, but manifests later when suitable Motivation & Circumstances appear.

In an organization, an assessment center is most likely to include which of the following? Select one: A. a measure of psychomotor ability B. a lie detector C. a "vestibule" D. an "in-basket test" Correct

D. an "in-basket test" Assessment Center is comprehensive technique used for Selection, Promotion, or Placement of Managers. IN BASKET TEST = SITUATIONAL TEST FOR MANAGERS Assess ability to perform manager's job from administrative perspective. Confronted w issues that accumulated in manager's "in-basket" after returning to work from extended absence. Might include memos, e-mails, directives, reports, etc., from mngmnt, staff, supervisors, inmates, a& stakeholders. - Must review & take action. - Assesses competencies through formal Q&A by grp of trained raters. - Standardized criteria & predefined rating scales

A psychologist should be aware that client records: Select one: A. are protected by law and can never be disclosed without the client's consent. B. are the property of the psychologist and cannot be disclosed without his/her consent. C. are the joint property of the psychologist and client and cannot be disclosed without the consent of both. D. are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist. Correct

D. are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist. Correct - Physical Record - ordinarily property of PSYCHOLOGIST (or org where psychologist works). - Info contained IN RECORD is property of CLIENT. There are situations that require psychologist to disclose info contained in client's record (e.g., known or suspected child abuse), even W/O Client's Consent.

In the context of training programs, utility analysis would be used to: Select one: A. identify organizational needs with regard to training. Incorrect B. identify the effective components of a training program. C. assess the satisfaction of participants with the training program. D. assess the return-on-investment of the training program.

D. assess the return-on-investment of the training UTILITY ANALYSIS = ROI HOW MUCH DO MY UTILITIES COST EVERY MONTH Utility Analysis: AKA Cost-Benefit Analysis. Utility analysis relies on Accounting procedures to evaluate Costs & Benefits of Training Programs, Selection Procedures, & Personnel Interventions. Might involve considering - costs of developing & implementing training program - estimate of productivity of trained vs untrained staff - time that training expected to affect productivity.

A 33-year old married woman with one biological child receives a diagnosis of Schizophrenia. Her husband has no symptoms or family history of the disorder. Which of her relatives is at greatest risk for receiving the same diagnosis? Select one: A. parent B. biological sibling C. adopted sibling D. child

D. child Concordance rate for - Biological Offspring/Child of one schizophrenic parent is 13%. -Biological Siblings is about 9%. - parent of an indiv w dx 6%. - adopted sibling - same as general population - 1%.

Studies on effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa have found that: Select one: A. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective but, in most cases, combining the two treatments does not improve outcomes. B. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective and, in many cases, combining the two treatments improves outcomes. Incorrect C. treatment with an SSRI alone is superior to cognitive behavior therapy alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes. D. cognitive behavioral therapy alone is superior to treatment with an SSRI alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.

D. cognitive behavioral therapy alone is superior to treatment with an SSRI alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes. Feedback Bulimia Nervosa, 1. CBT MOST EFFECTIVE 2. SOME PTS - COMBINING CBT w SSRI. SSRI alone not as effective as CBT alone. - SSRI may be useful when in conjunction w CBT & CBT alone has not been sufficiently effective.

Traditional American Indian social organization and decision-making is best described as: Select one: A. linear. Incorrect B. bilateral. C. nuclear. D. collateral.

D. collateral. AMERICAN INDIANS - CONSENSUAL COLLATERAL Among American Indians, family & social network includes both Biological and Nonbiological members. As a group, American Indians place greater emphasis on Family & Tribe than on Self and this is reflected in their social organization and decision-making process, which have been described as "consensual collateral."

As the result of brain damage, a 37-year-old woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as: Select one: A. dysarthria. B. dysosmia. C. dyspraxia. D. dysprosody. Correct

D. dysprosody. Damage to certain areas in brain can disrupt pattern & flow of speech. Dysarthria - problems in articulation. Dysosmia - disorder in the sense of Smell. Dyspraxia - prob writing, drawing, fine motor skills. Prosody - pattern of Stress & Intonation in speech. Dysprosody - characteristic of Broca's Aphasia & other Nonfluent Aphasias. - Although dysprosody linked to R hemisphere damage, presence in Broca's aphasia suggests also governed, to some degree, by L hemisphere.

The best conclusion about the etiology of Major Depressive Disorder is that: Select one: A. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a dominant gene being the most likely causal agent. B. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a recessive gene being the most likely causal agent. C. genetic factors play a substantial role in only a small number of cases of this disorder. D. genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder. Correct

D. genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder. DEPRESSION - GENETIC AND ENVIRONMENT -BOTH Family, twin, and adoption studies have confirmed a genetic contribution. However, these studies shown Heritability is in 31-42% range, which indicates that Environmental factors ALSO play role. S Based on research, Sullivan concluded MDD is complex & Heterogeneous condition that results from Combo of Genetic & Environmental factors. - Genetic Vulnerability might be Expressed only when indiv also exposed to certain Environmental events.

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in both long-term potentiation and the "excitotoxcity" that is believed to underlie several neurodegenerative disorders? Select one: A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. glutamate

D. glutamate Correct Glutamate acts as Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain & spinal cord. Plays role in - Learning & - Memory- Long-Term Potentiation (LTP) (responsible for formation of LTM). Excessive Glutamate Receptor Activity ("Excitotoxicity") contributes to - Stroke-related brain damage, - Huntington's disease, - Alzheimer's disease, and other - neurodegenerative disorders.

Lisa Baumgartner's longitudinal research (2001) identified a six-phase process for incorporating a diagnosis of HIV/AIDS into one's identity. The final phase in this process is: Select one: A. post-immersion turning point. B. stabilization. C. immersion. D. integration.

D. integration. Baumgartner's six phases are: 1. Diagnosis 2. Post-Diagnosis Turning Point 3. Immersion 4. Post-Immersion Turning Point 5. Integration Disclosure (not stage but occurs throughout five stages). Baumgartner describes incorporation of HIV/AIDS dx as a Transformational Learning Process. Final phase - incorporate dx into identity & balance HIV/AIDS status w other life activities, commitments, etc.

With regard to ethical guidelines, exposing animal subjects in a research study to stress or pain: Select one: A. is prohibited under any circumstances. B. is prohibited except in the "most unusual circumstances." C. is permitted when the stress or pain is minimized and applied in a humane way. D. is permitted when alternative procedures are unavailable and the stress or pain is justified by the prospective value of the study's results.

D. is permitted when - alternative procedures are Unavailable and the - stress/pain Justified by prospective value of study's results.

Research on the development of DEPTH Perception in infants has shown that sensitivity to depth cues emerges in which of the following sequences (from first to last)? Select one: A. binocular, pictorial, kinetic B. kinetic, pictorial, binocular C. binocular, kinetic, pictorial D. kinetic, binocular, pictorial

D. kinetic, binocular, pictorial KINETIC - MVMNT -3 WKS - Sensitive to kinetic cues (mvmnt of objects closer to eyes). BINOCULAR - 2-3 MO, begin to use of binocular cues to judge DISTANCE of objects. PICTORAL - 7 MO, perceive picture depth cues.

As defined by Piaget, a child is exhibiting "horizontal decalage" when he/she: Select one: A. reasons from one particular event to another particular event. Incorrect B. can perform a task with assistance but not alone. C. gradually makes finer and finer distinctions between stimuli over time. D. manifests inconsistency in exhibiting a particular type of ability.

D. manifests INCONSISTENCY in exhibiting a particular TYPE OF ABILITY. Horizontal Decalage - gradual development occuring within a stage -e.g., gradual mastery of operations in concrete operational stage.

Children normally begin to talk somewhere around their first birthday. Studies investigating the nature of a child's language development have shown that a large proportion of a child's first words refer to: Select one: A. objects that the child wants. Incorrect B. objects that the child can hold. C. objects that are static and invariable. D. objects that move or change.

D. objects that move or change. CHILDS FIRST WORDS - OBJECTS THAT MOVE OR CHANGE. KIDS ATTEND TO MVMNT & CHANGE. - Ball, Car, Shoe

A young man who hates his mother consistently lavishes her with praise and gifts. A Freudian would interpret this behavior as a manifestation of which of the following defense mechanisms? Select one: A. sublimation B. displacement C. psychological reactance D. reaction formation Correct

D. reaction formation Reaction formation- converting dangerous feelings or impulses into their opposite. Psychoanalysts distinguish btwn number of defense mechanisms. Sublimation - energy connected to unacceptable impulse is redirected into socially acceptable actions. - Sublimation = SUBSTITUTION Displacement - dangerous or threatening impulse is redirected toward a safer source or object. DISPLACED TOWARD ANOTHER Object/Person Psychological Reactance -not defense mechanism. Brehm - when act in direct Contradiction to Rule or Request because feel personal Freedom is Threatened.

You are asked by the court to evaluate a 70-year old woman to help determine her competence. She is apparently disoriented and confused and has substantial memory loss. You have recently taken a weekend workshop on the use of a new computerized assessment technique for people with symptoms like those exhibited by this woman, and you feel this method of assessment would be especially valid in this situation. Further, you had taken the workshop specifically because you want to expand your practice by being qualified to conduct competency-related evaluations for the court. Your best course of action would be to: Select one: A. use the program to assess the woman. B. use the program to assess the woman but, when testifying in court, discuss the potential limitations of your conclusions. C. use the program to assess the woman but confirm your conclusions before testifying by consulting with the developer of the assessment technique. D. refer the woman to someone who is more familiar with this type of evaluation.

D. refer the woman to someone who is more familiar with this type of evaluation. During course of career, psychologists add new skills & techniques. Special precautions must be taken when first applying them to clients. Until had exp using technique, wouldn't be best to use it to evaluate for a Competency Proceeding.

According to the APA's Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when the linguistic skills of a psychologist do not match the client's language, the psychologist: Select one: A. must make a referral. B. may ask the client to bring an interpreter. C. should retain the services of a translator who has the appropriate cultural/linguistic knowledge and professional training. D. should make a referral or, if not feasible, should retain an appropriate translator. Correct

D. should make a referral or, if not feasible, should retain an appropriate translator. When LANGUAGE is a problem, REFFERAL IS BEST course of action. - When not feasible (no one to refer ct to), can THEN retain services of an appropriate Translator.

Work by Perry and colleagues (1986) suggests that highly aggressive children: Select one: A. were exposed prenatally to high levels of androgens. B. are less sensitive to physical discomfort than less aggressive children. C. exhibited a disoriented/disengaged attachment pattern as young children. Incorrect D. show little remorse after hurting another child.

D. show little remorse after hurting another child. Feedback HIGHLY AGGRESSIVE KIDS HAVE NO REMORSE! Perry & colleagues recognize role of Parenting Practices in Development of Aggression in children. However, much of their research has looked at cognitive Characteristics of aggressive children. Highly aggressive children tend to show LITTLE REGRET OR REMORSE following aggressive acts.

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of: Select one: A. two days to four weeks with an onset immediately after exposure to the trauma. B. three days to one month with an onset within four weeks after exposure to the trauma. C. two days to two months. D. three days to one month.

D. three days to one month. Correct Acute Stress Disorder, 3 days to 1 month. - PTSD - MORE THAN 1 MONTH

Fiedler's LPC theory of leadership proposes that: Select one: A. leaders can alter their leadership style to fit the demands of the situation. B. the most effective leaders are person- (versus task-) oriented. C. to be most effective, a leader should match his/her leadership style to the characteristics of the employee. D. to be most effective, a leader's personality should match the demands of the situation. Correct

D. to be most effective, a leader's personality should match the demands of the situation. Fiedler's LPC Theory categorizes leaders in terms of how they rate "LPC" & describes situation in terms of Favorableness for leader to lead. "High LPC" (person-oriented) or "Low LPC" (task-oriented). - High LPC leaders -most effective when SITUATION is Moderately favorable. - Low LPC leaders are best when SITUATION is HIGHLY Favorable or UNFavorable. FIEDLER LPC Leader- FAVORABLENESS OF SITUATION

Research comparing younger and older workers has found that: Select one: A. younger workers tend to be more satisfied than older workers are. Incorrect B. younger workers have more realistic expectations about their jobs than older workers do. C. younger workers are more concerned about pay and job security than older workers are. D. younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do.

D. younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do. Research has generally shown that JOB SATISFACTION tends to INCREASE W AGE, especially among WHITE employees. Lower satisfaction of younger employees has been attributed to their greater expectations for personal fulfillment from their jobs. OLDER - PERSONAL FULLFILLMENT ATTAINED FROM OTHER AREAS - MORE REALISTIC a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. c. Incorrect This is not what has been found by the research. d. CORRECT

All of the following are categorized as operant methods for REDUCING OR ELIMINATING undesirable behaviors except: Select one: A. extinction. Incorrect B. response cost. C. negative reinforcement. D. differential reinforcement. Feedback All of the techniques listed in the responses - except one - are used to decrease or eliminate a behavior. a. Incorrect Extinction is used to eliminate a previously reinforced behavior.b. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment and is used to decrease behavior. c. CORRECT Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior. It involves removing a stimulus following the behavior in order to increase that behavior. d. Incorrect Differential reinforcement is used to simultaneously eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish alternative (desirable) behaviors.

READ THE QUESTIONS THOROUGHLY! C. negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement used to increase behavior. It involves removing stimulus following behavior in order to increase that behavior.

An item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates:

Relationship btwn likelihood that examinee will endorse item & examinee's actual level on attribute measured by test.

Schizoaffective Disorder

Schizoaffective Disorder - HX of CONCURRENT Schizophrenia sx AND Manic or MAJOR DEPRESSIVE Episode - Min 2 WKS W/O Mood symptoms. MOOD SX ONLY HAPPEN DURING PSYCHOSIS. 2 WKS W/O DEPRESSION/MANIA

The concept of triangulation is central to general systems theory and can be found in the work of Bowen, Minuchin, Satir, and others. Although these theorists differ somewhat in their definition of triangulation, in general, it is said to be occurring when:

To reduce tension between them, a two-person system draws in a third party.

A structural family therapist's interventions when working with a triangulated family will be designed to: Select one: a. foster insight in order to establish more appropriate hierarchies and boundaries. b. create stress in order to unbalance the family's homeostasis. Correct c. dilute the tension between family members in order to reduce triangulation. d. alter the family's implicit and explicit rules in order to increase differentiation.

b. create stress in order to unbalance the family's homeostasis. CREATE STRESS. BREAK STRUCTURE & REBUILD STRUCTURE. Concerned with RESTRUCTURING family. - Before structure can be altered, Homeostatic state must be Unbalanced so members more Susceptible to Change. Done by interjecting stress into family.

vicarious learning

learning the consequences of an action by watching others being rewarded or punished for performing the action

n its statement on Legal Liability Related to Confidentiality and the Prevention of HIV Transmission, the American Psychological Association (1991) recommends that: Select one: A. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS. B. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS as long as psychologists are also protected from civil and criminal liability for doing so. Incorrect C. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS but only after they obtain the patients permission to do so. D. psychologists not be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS.

psychologists NOT BE Legally Required to protect partners of patients w HIV/AIDS. APA - PSYCHOLOGIST NOT BE RESPONSIBLE FOR REPORTING HIV CONTAMINATION- MAINTAIN CT CONFIDENTIALITY APA's position on partner notification is consistent with its emphasis on MAINTAINING CT CONFIDENTIALITY. APA's (1991) position is that "a legal duty to protect third parties from HIV infection should not be imposed." However, if such legislation is passed, it should permit disclosure only when (1) psychologist knows of identifiable third party at significant risk for infection; (2) knows third party is unaware of the risk; (3) has urged client to notify patient but ct refused (4) psychologist legally protected from civil or criminal liability for doing so.