Practice Test 1
All of the following are cost-estimating techniques, EXCEPT A. SIPOC-R B. Bottom-up estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Analogous estimating
A. SIPOC-R is a process improvement method, and the acronym stands for Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers, and Requirements. It is not used for cost estimating.
A scope management plan contains which of the following elements? (Choose three.) A. Process for creating, maintaining, and approving the WBS B. Process for creating the budget C. Definition of how the deliverables will be verified D. Process for creating the schedule E. Process for creating the scope statement
A, C, E. The scope management includes the process for creating the scope statement, the definitions of how the deliverables will be verified, and the process for creating, maintaining, and approving the WBS. It will also define the process for controlling scope change requests, including the procedure for requesting changes.
Which of the following are used to conduct virtual meetings? (Choose two.) A. Voice conferencing B. Face-to-face C. Videoconferencing D. Impromptu visits
A, C. A virtual meeting is where everyone is not in the same location, and the use of technology, such as video or audio conferencing, allows the meeting to occur.
The types of organizational structures include which of the following? (Choose three.) A. Functional B. Agile C. Co-location D. Projectized E. Matrix
A, D, E. The three types of organizational structures are Functional, Matrix, and Projectized. Agile is a project management methodology, and co-location is a logistical setup of a project team rather than an organizational structure.
Which of the following factors present challenges for a global project team located on different continents? (Choose three.) A. Language barriers B. Level of report detail C. Technological factors D. Time zones E. Cultural differences F. Criticality factors
A, D, E. When dealing with any team on different continents, or even on opposite sides of the same continent, time zones will impact communication. The project team also needs to account for language barriers and cultural differences when planning communication.
What are the two forms of acceptance when considering risk response strategies? A. Active B. Unintentional C. Deliberate D. Passive
A, D. Active acceptance includes developing contingency reserves to deal with risk should it occur. Passive acceptance is when the project team is not able to eliminate all of the threats to a project.
What type of project management tool is depicted here? A. Pareto chart B. Project schedule C. Histogram D. Gantt chart
A. A Pareto chart contains both a line graph and bars where the individual values are represented in descending order by the bars, and the cumulative total is represented by the line.
At the beginning of a work period, or sprint, there is a sprint planning meeting. What does this meeting accomplish? A. Set a realistic backlog of items to be completed during this iteration B. Set the communication and quality plans for the project C. Prepare the project charter and kickoff meeting D. Get a head start of the work needed on the project
A. A Scrum Master typically coordinates this meeting, which is a collaborative effort to detail all of the work that needs to be completed and each item's respective acceptance criteria.
Once a change request is submitted, where should it be recorded and assigned an identification number for tracking purposes? A. Change request log B. Risk register C. Business process repository D. Issue log
A. A change request log can be a simple spreadsheet that has the ID number, date, name, and description of the change.
When a project team is assigned to work solely on a project, it is an example of what type of resource? A. Dedicated B. Collocated C. Shared D. Physical
A. A dedicated project team will not have to compete with functional assignments in the course of the project, allowing team members to focus exclusively on project work.
What aspect of project management is shared with Agile and a traditional waterfall approach? A. Iterative approach B. Adaptive to new/changing requirements C. Sprint planning D. Self-organized and self-directed teams
A. A traditional waterfall methodology can be progressively iterative, similar to the sprints used with the Agile methodology, which creates a backlog of work to be completed in a specific time period; that process is repeated until the product is completed.
A local cable company accidentally cuts the fiber-optic cables going into the project site, thereby disrupting communication. The team requests technicians from the company to repair the damage quickly. What is the trigger for this communication? A. Incident response B. Task initiation C. Risk register updates D. Business continuity response
A. An incident response has similarities to a business continuity response, but is smaller in scale and localized to a particular part of the business.
What are project assumptions? A. Factors considered to be true for planning purposes B. Factors considered to be true for control purposes C. Internal or external factors affecting the project team D. Factors that restrict the project
A. Assumptions are events, actions, or conditions that are believed to be true. Another way to look at it is that they are things that must be true in order for the project to be a success but that are outside the control of the project team.
A systematic and independent examination of project procedures, documentation, spending, statutory compliance, and reporting is known as which one of the following? A. Audit B. Gate review C. SCRUM retrospective D. Project change
A. Audits are reviews to obtain evidence to ensure that good practices are followed, that the project team is behaving in an ethical and legal fashion, and to ensure that there is no fraud, waste, and abuse occurring.
A government agency has hired a firm to perform work on its sewer system. As a part of the RFP, the agency requires the successful vendor to carry insurance for errors and omissions. What type of risk strategy is this? A. Transfer, negative risk strategy B. Exploit, positive risk strategy C. Accept, negative risk strategy D. Share, positive risk strategy
A. By requiring the successful vendor to carry the insurance, it allows the consequences of negative risk to be transferred to the third party.
Which conflict resolution technique produces win-lose results for the parties? A. Forcing B. Attacking C. Avoiding D. Confronting
A. Forcing is where one party gets their way, and the other party's interest is not represented.
A company has procurement teams at each of their 22 locations, leading to potentially purchasing the same products from 22 different suppliers. To help save money, the company decides to centralize and standardize the reporting function. What type of business change is this? A. Internal reorganization B. Staff turnover C. Business process change D. Outsourcing
A. Internal reorganizations can disrupt a project if resources are no longer available to work on the project, or if there are new or changed stakeholders with whom the project team will need to work to achieve project success.
There is a question about a project decision made earlier in a project. Where should the project manager look to help recall the decision and the circumstances that were discussed? A. Meeting minutes B. Project charter C. Action items list D. Meeting agenda
A. Meeting minutes help to memorialize details of conversations and decisions that were made in the moment. Often during the course of a project, so much time passes with so many other decisions made that it can be difficult to recall what was done and why. Meeting minutes are a useful tool to help address those challenges.
The Closing phase includes all of the following, EXCEPT A. Monitoring the risks and issues log B. Release of project members C. Archiving of project documents D. Review of lessons learned
A. Monitoring the risks and issues log occurs during the Monitor and Control phase and is not an activity of the Closing phase.
Why would a buyer issue a purchase order? A. To describe the quantity of goods and services needed and what price will be paid. B. To outline the intent or actions of both parties before entering a contract. C. To stop another company from using their intellectual property and to inform them not to do it again. D. The situation requires more flexibility and simplicity than a contract.
A. Once accepted by the seller, this becomes a legally binding document for goods and services to be provided, and for compensation to be given at the listed price.
The approved budget for given work to be completed within a specific timeframe is called which one of the following? A. Planned value B. Cost variance C. Earned value D. Actual costs
A. Planned value is the total cost of work planned as of the reporting date, and it is calculated by multiplying the hourly rate by the total planned or scheduled hours.
Cheryl is a technical lead on a project that is wrapping up remote work at a customer site. What is the best method to communicate the work efforts and next steps with the customer? A. Closure meeting B. Virtual meeting C. Kickoff meeting D. In-person meeting
A. The closure meeting will allow for the status of all activities; for the project team to return any property, such as ID badges or key cards; and for bringing that phase of the work effort to an end.
A construction company is in the middle of a project to build a bridge. The earned value for the project is $9,500, and the actual cost for the project is $7,000. Select the correct cost variance for the project and its meaning: A. $2,500 and the project is under budget B. $-2,500 and the project is over budget C. $2,500 and the project is over budget D. $-2,500 and the project is over budget
A. The formula for cost variance (CV) is CV = EV - AC. The calculations would produce a value of $2,500, indicating the project is under budget. A positive cost variance (CV) means that the project is under budget, and a negative CV means that the project is over budget. $9,500 - $7,000 = -$2,500; therefore, the project is under budget.
Developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, should they occur, is known as which one of the following? A. Active acceptance B. Passive acceptance C. Exploit D. Transfer
A. The key is actually setting money aside to deal with the risk should it occur during the course of the project. Failing to plan in this way can lead to project disruption or cancelation.
In which document would a project manager refer in order to review the high-level scope, high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints, and to find out who the key stakeholders are? A. Project charter B. Scope statement C. Project management plan D. Meeting agenda
A. The project charter also gives formal authority to begin the project, and it allows the project manager to begin applying resources to the project.
Which project role is responsible for arranging resources between multiple projects? A. Project management office B. Project scheduler C. Project manager D. Project coordinator
A. The project management office performs the function of coordinating resources across the organization.
Who is responsible for high-level risk identification? A. Project team B. Project champion C. Project manager D. Key stakeholders
A. The project team is closest to the work that needs to get done, should bring some expert judgment to the project, and will be on the hook for project success.
Measuring the spending to date, determining the burn rate, and accounting for purchases is known as which one of the following? A. Expenditure tracking B. Expenditure reporting C. Estimate to Complete (ETC) D. Cost accounting
A. This is the activity that compares costs and expenses to date against the cost baseline so that a stakeholder can see the variance between what was planned and what actually occurred.
A vendor is very strict on insisting upon formal change control on a project for a customer and few changes are actually getting approved. Which contract vehicle would cause a vendor to behave in this way? A. Fixed-price B. Request for proposal C. Time and materials D. Cost-reimbursable
A. With a fixed-price contract, the risk is on the seller. When changes to a project increase their costs but not their revenue, they stand to lose money. Accordingly, they would likely allow very few changes to the scope.
What type of project management tool is depicted here? A. Fishbone diagram B. Gantt chart C. Collaboration tools D. Process diagram
B. A Gantt chart is a type of bar chart that illustrates a project schedule.
What type of dependency is the obtaining of sign-off on the design of a product? A. Mandatory B. Discretionary C. External D. This is not a dependency
B. A discretionary dependency is defined by the project management team, and they are normally process or procedure driven. This is typically a logical relationship between two activities.
Which of the following are types of mutually binding documents? (Choose three.) A. SCRUM retrospective B. Agreements/contract C. Memorandum of understanding D. Issues log E. Purchase order F. Histogram
B, C, E. Documents that are binding between two parties, meaning that they can be legally enforced to deliver service, payment, or other attribute, include agreements or contracts, memorandums of understanding (MOU), and purchase orders. Other forms include nondisclosure agreements, cease and desist letters, letters of intent, service-level agreements, and warranties.
What are two defining characteristics of a project? (Choose two.) A. Reworking an existing project B. An organized effort to fulfill a purpose C. Has a specific end date D. Routine activities to an organization E. Blueprints needed to construct a building
B, C. A project is an organized effort to fulfill a purpose and has a specific end date. Additional project properties include that it is temporary in nature, has a specific start and end date, and it exists to provide a unique product or service.
When considering the base communication model, what are the basic elements that are needed? (Choose three.) A. Transmission B. Receiver C. Inbox D. Sender E. Nonverbal communication F. Decoder G. Message
B, D, G. The basic communication model is sender-message receiver.
A major car company just completed the launch of a new vehicle. They have discovered a major safety flaw in the new product, and they need to communicate with the general public regarding a product recall. The following methods would be appropriate methods to use. (Choose two.) A. Text messaging B. Social media C. Instant message D. Distribution of printed media E. Fax
B, D. Of the options listed, the only methods that are appropriate for mass dissemination to the public are social media and printed materials. The other forms represent a more of a one-on-one form of communication.
Crashing is a project management technique involving which one of the following? A. Moving later deliverables to earlier phases to appease stakeholders B. Looking at cost and schedule trade-offs, such as adding more resources C. Removing critical path activities that are unnecessary D. Performing two tasks in parallel that were previously scheduled to start sequentially
B. Crashing involves adding more resources to a project so that it can be completed faster.
Interpersonal conflicts are starting to develop on a project. What is the best communication method to use when confronting the problem? A. Instant messaging B. Face-to-face meetings C. Email D. Videoconferencing
B. Face-to-face meetings, or in-person meetings, are the superior choice for working on conflict resolution, giving performance appraisals, and working on team building.
What is the best tool for sharing information across an entire organization but shielding that information from those outside the organization? A. Collaboration tools B. Intranet sites C. Wiki pages D. Internet sites
B. Intranet sites are protected by a password or network firewall, and they can contain information and functionality for the business to operate such as project status updates, time keeping, and employee self-service.
A project coordinating the event for a product launch suffered a setback when a plumbing problem flooded the convention hall. Five thousand people are expected to be in attendance at the event, which is scheduled to start in four hours. What factor would influence the communication method? A. Relationship building B. Criticality factors C. Language barriers D. Time zones
B. It is critical to communicate safety issues, public relations issues, and certain risk factors to key stakeholders so that responses can be coordinated and executed.
The joining of two businesses to come together and operate as one, single entity is known as which one of the following? A. Business acquisition B. Business merger C. Business process change D. Business split
B. Know the difference between a merger and an acquisition. The latter is where one organization takes over the other one.
What are milestones? A. Characteristics of deliverables that must be met B. Major events in a project used to measure progress C. Checkpoints on a project to determine go/no-go decisions D. A measure of the distance traveled on a project
B. Milestones are used in project management to mark a specific point along a project timeline, such as the project start and end date, completion of a phase, or gate checks.
A company is struggling with timely billing of their customers, so they hire a consultant to help determine all of the steps and workflow needed to send a bill. Which tool would the consultant most likely use? A. Pareto chart B. Process diagram C. Project charter D. Project scheduling software
B. Process diagrams, often called workflow diagrams, show all of the steps from start to finish in a process. Another process improvement tool a consultant could use would be SIPOC-R to identify the suppliers, inputs, processes, outputs, customers, and requirements.
What factors should be considered when scheduling a video or telephone conference? A. Determining whether team members are introverted or extroverted B. Recognizing the different time zones and schedules being used C. Ensuring writing materials are available in the room D. Ensuring that the meeting room has sufficient seating
B. Recognize the different time zones and schedules being used. If your project spans multiple time zones or there are a variety of schedules being used, take these factors into consideration in scheduling the meeting.
In what project phase is the influence of stakeholders the least effective? A. Execution B. Monitor and Control C. Initiation D. Planning
B. The Monitor and Control phase sees a decrease in stakeholder influence. Although stakeholders start out with a lot of influence, it decreases as the project advances because activities are underway or completed and the ability to change one's mind is diminished.
What is the indication of how fast a project is spending its budgeted money? A. Planned value B. Burn rate C. Cost variance D. Expenditure tracking
B. The burn rate is how fast the project is spending its allotted budget, or the rate that money is being expended over a period of time.
Scrum is which one of the following? A. A phrase referring to the overcomplication of a project B. An Agile technique where backlogs are used C. Creating better, more detailed explanations for senior management D. The continuous modification and detailing of the project plan
B. The elements of the project plan, including the schedule, estimates, and responses to risk, will get more detailed and updated as the project team works through the planning steps of a project.
The communication plan calls for weekly status updates to be emailed, monthly status meetings, and semiannual printed newsletters. This plan is laying out which one of the following? A. Criticality factors B. Level of report detail C. Tailor communication style D. Types of communication
B. The plan lays out the communication methods as well as the frequency and audience.
Which document describes the goods or services an organization is interested in procuring from outside the organization? A. RFI B. SOW C. RFP D. RFQ
B. The statement of work (SOW) specifies in detail the goods or services that you are purchasing from outside the organization.
What is the activity that determines how soon potential risks might occur and determines responses for those risks? A. Risk categorization B. Risk urgency assessment C. Impact and probability matrix D. Risk data quality assessment
B. The urgency assessment uses risk triggers, time to develop and implement a response, and overall risk ranking as inputs for the analysis.
When the schedule slips on a project because the work is taking longer than planned, what type of common project change does this represent? A. Funding change B. Timeline change C. Risk event D. Requirements change
B. This is especially true when tasks are along the critical path, or when there is no float for that activity. Float is the amount of additional time a task has to complete before it begins to disrupt the critical path of a project.
The process of assigning numerical probabilities to each risk and the impacts on project objectives is known as which one of the following? A. Identify risk B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Risk categorization
B. This process takes the more subjective results from the qualitative risk analysis and ties them to more numerical measures for evaluation and prioritization purposes.
A project team based in Europe needs to conduct a job interview with a candidate in India. What is the best communication method to conduct the interview? A. In-person meeting B. Virtual meeting C. Social media D. Email
B. Using some form of teleconferencing like videoconferencing or a phone call would make the most sense from an economic perspective. An in-person meeting would be cost prohibitive for a candidate who may not join the team. Email would not allow for verbal communication to be assessed, and it would drag the interview out over an unacceptable amount of time. Social media would not keep the discussion confidential, so it isn't a good fit.
When should an employee's performance expectations be set for a project? A. When the functional manager sets annual goals B. During the first meeting with a new team member C. During the stakeholder identification meeting D. During the employee performance review
B. Whenever a team member joints a project, or at the beginning of the project when multiple people join a project, is when expectations should be set, including their role, due dates for tasks, norms, and team interactions. Because this question addresses "project work," the annual goal expectation session would not be correct, since it would not account for the specific expectations on the project. This could be influenced by what type of organizational structure is being used (functional, projectized, or matrixed).
Members of a project team were recently replaced with consultants with more expertise in the subject matter. What type of organizational change disrupted this project? A. Internal reorganization B. Business split C. Outsourcing D. Relocation
C. Outsourcing involves the contracting out of work to another party.
What type of project management tool is depicted here?
C. A process diagram is a visual representation of the steps in a process. Other names for process diagrams include process maps or work flow diagrams.
A project stakeholder has which of the following responsibilities? A. Documentation and administrative support, estimation of task duration, solicit task status from resources, expertise B. Documentation and administrative support, provides input and requirements, project steering, expertise C. Vested interest, provides input and requirements, project steering, expertise D. Vested interest, provides input and requirements, crossfunctional coordination, expertise
C. A project stakeholder understandably has a vested interest in the outcome of the project and therefore needs to provide input and requirements to the project. Other roles for stakeholders might include project steering and providing subject matter expertise.
As a part of a daily scrum meeting, the team seeks to share information in three areas. Which set of questions represents the topics of this knowledge sharing? A. What did I accomplish today? Who will you be working with today? What obstacles are preventing progress? B. What did I accomplish yesterday? What will I do today? What are the necessary next steps? C. What did I accomplish yesterday? What will I do today? What obstacles are preventing progress? D. What did I accomplish yesterday? Who will you be working with today? What obstacles are preventing progress?
C. A scrum meeting is typically held in the morning at the same time, in the same place, and it sets the context for the team's work.
Which document will ensure the capture of all needed change request information so that it can receive proper consideration? A. SIPOC-R B. Project charter C. Template D. Meeting minutes
C. A template allows for a standard submittal in the change control process that includes all of the information needed on the purpose and impact of the change.
A project manager has been asked to report on all expenditures to date on the project. What has the project manager been asked to provide? A. Expenditures and receipts B. Balanced scorecard C. Actual cost D. Cost variance
C. Actual cost represents the true total and final costs accrued during the process of completing project work for a specific time period. It is important to include the direct and indirect costs, since they correspond to budgeted activities.
Which vendor solicitation method is best to use when more data is needed about the goods and services that need to be procured? A. Request for proposal (RFP) B. Request for quotation (RFQ) C. Request for information (RFI) D. Statement of work (SOW)
C. An RFI will give a sense of the number of providers or contractors who can provide the goods and services in question. An RFI will also help provide a ballpark for the costs.
In what organizational structure does a project manager have limited authority over people's time and what they are assigned? A. Strong-matrix B. Weak-matrix C. Functional D. Projectized
C. In a functional organization, the authority resides with the functional manager, not the project manager. This can create difficulty for project assignments and task completion.
An animated movie project requires the following ordered steps: story idea, script, storyboard, voice talent, models, and sets construction, to name just a few. Storyboard has what relationship to script? A. It is a predecessor task. B. It is a discretionary task. C. It is a successor task. D. It is a mandatory task.
C. It is a successor task, because storyboarding would come after the development of the script. In the creation of an animated movie, many more steps than these are required to create the final product.
A large, well-established organization that has been in business for many decades would likely have which organizational structure? A. Weak-matrix B. Strong-matrix C. Functional D. Projectized
C. More established organizations with mature processes and tenured staff would most likely have a functional organizational structure centered around specialties like human resources, finance, research and development, and so on.
At the beginning of a movie project at a production facility, what document would an employee likely be asked to sign? A. Cease and desist letter B. Service-level agreement C. Nondisclosure agreement D. Request for proposal
C. NDAs are common contract vehicles for jobs in both the government and private sector that would require a security clearance or where information needs to be protected from competition.
All of the following are common types of project changes, EXCEPT A. Scope changes B. Requirement changes C. Organizational changes D. Timeline changes
C. Organizational changes would come from the functional side of the organization, not the project side.
All of the following are forms of organizational change, EXCEPT A. Relocation B. Business demerger C. Organic shifts D. Business merger
C. Other types of organizational change recognized by CompTIA include business process change, internal reorganization, and outsourcing.
The architectural design team has completed the blueprints for a new building and communicates this to the project manager. What type of communication trigger is this? A. Incident response B. Resource changes C. Task completion D. Task initiation
C. Task completion is communicated to project managers and/or coordinators so that they can signal the next activities or project phase to begin.
Which project role promotes the need and urgency of a project, as well as advertising the project's success? A. Project scheduler B. Project manager C. Project sponsor or champion D. Project coordinator
C. The "champion" role of the sponsor is very important both initially and as the project commences to keep the energy and focus of the whole organization committed to the project's success.
The EV for a project is 800, and the AC is 1200. The CPI for the project would be which one of the following? A. 1.5 B. 400 C. .667 D. 2000
C. The Cost Performance Index is Earned Value/Actual Cost. Therefore 800 / 1200 = .667.
The project team is required to attend a daily stand-up meeting to discuss the project activities and roadblocks. Which document lets the project team know that they need to attend this meeting? A. Project schedule B. Scope statement C. Communication plan D. Project charter
C. The communication plan documents the types of information needed by the stakeholders, when the information should be shared, and the method of delivery.
The activity that involves determining the usefulness of data gathered to evaluate risk is called which one of the following? A. Impact and probability matrix B. Risk urgency assessment C. Risk data quality assessment D. Risk categorization
C. This assessment checks to ensure that the data is unbiased and accurate.
To which project-centric document would you refer to get a description of the project, find out the key deliverables, and gain an understanding of the success and acceptance criteria for the project? A. Project charter B. Project schedule C. Scope statement D. Meeting minutes
C. This is a more detailed explanation of the project's scope as compared to the project charter, which contains a high-level scope definition.
All of the following are phases of a project, EXCEPT A. Planning B. Closing C. Development D. Execution
C. This may be an activity during either the Planning or Execution phase, depending on the nature of the industry the project is in.
Which type of document would be given to a committee during a gate check? A. Pareto chart B. Communications plan C. Status report D. Change control plan
C. To help determine if the project should move forward, a status report would give a snapshot of the work done to date, status of the budget and schedule, and issues facing the project.
Total expenditures for completed project work within a specific timeframe is known as which one of the following? A. Earned value B. Planned value C. Cost variance D. Actual cost
D. Actual cost may include both direct and indirect costs, but it must correspond to the budget for the activity. This can include labor costs, cost of materials, and use of equipment.
What is the entity that reviews change requests, evaluates impacts, and ultimately approves, denies, or defers such requests? A. CAB B. MOU C. NDA D. CCB
D. A change control board (CCB) is the body that evaluates and approves changes. The specifics are defined in the change control process that would be set up as a part of a project.
An offshore team has issued a holiday schedule consistent with their customs to the project manager. The holiday schedule issued by the team differs from the company's established holiday schedule. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Criticality factors B. Language barriers C. Time zones D. Cultural differences
D. Different cultures will take time out to reflect on certain occasions, which will vary greatly from one another. It is important to take these differences into account when you have an international team, whether or not they are offshore.
In what step would the make-or-buy decision occur? A. During the kickoff meeting B. During the design of the product or service C. In the execution of the project plan D. In the creation of the procurement plan
D. During the creation of the procurement plan is where this document is developed, and it explains how decisions will be made and what will be purchased by the organization.
In what stage of team development do team members begin to confront each other and vie for position and control? A. Adjourning B. Norming C. Forming D. Storming E. Performing
D. In the storming stage, the process of establishing who is the most influential occurs and there is jostling for position.
Your friend has hinted that she would like a special gift for her birthday. The following steps are needed for the gift exchange: Enjoyment of her gift Put card on the gift Wrap present Choose gift Give her the present Make purchase Fill out the card What is the correct sequence for project Happy Birthday? A. Choose gift; Make purchase; Put card on gift; Wrap present; Fill out card; Enjoyment of her gift; Give her the present B. Give her the present; Put card on gift; Wrap present; Make purchase; Fill out card; Enjoyment of her gift; Choose gift C. Put card on gift; Give her the present; Fill out card; Make purchase; Enjoyment of her gift; Choose gift; Wrap present D. Choose gift; Make purchase; Wrap present; Fill out card; Put card on gift; Give her the present; Enjoyment of her gift
D. On the exam, it is likely that there will be a scenario-based question that will test your critical thinking skills to reason through the correct activity sequencing of a project. This question should help give you a taste of what you might encounter.
Which parts of a SWOT analysis are focused on issues external to the organization? A. Strengths and weaknesses B. Opportunities and weaknesses C. Strengths and threats D. Opportunities and threats
D. Opportunities and threats are conditions like weather or political climate that affect the organization or project but are not within the control of the organization.
All of the following would be updates to the risk register following the qualitative risk analysis, EXCEPT A. Watch list of low-priority risks B. Risks requiring near-term responses C. Causes of risks D. Numerical evaluation of each risk
D. Quantitative risk analysis would add more concretely measured items like the numerical score for each risk, whereas qualitative risk analysis uses expert judgment to prioritize the project risks using a predefined rating scale.
A large company is struggling with inconsistent results in hiring and retention because of a decentralized HR model. What type of organizational change could help this problem? A. Business split B. Outsourcing C. Relocation D. Internal reorganization
D. Reorganizing by centralizing this function would increase consistency and control for the organization on HR practices such as hiring and retaining employees.
All of the following are examples of deliverables, EXCEPT A. Blueprints B. User documentation C. Finished product D. Signoff on the project charter
D. Signoff on the project charter would be a milestone, not a deliverable.
After a change in leadership, the new project manager wants to get a sense of the structure and reporting relationships of the project. Which document would give the manager this information? A. Lessons learned B. Project chart C. Meeting minutes D. Organizational chart
D. The best document to gain an understanding of the project structure would be the project's organizational chart.
What are the three types of estimates used in three-point estimates? A. Fastest-Schedule, Least Resources, Most Desirable B. Fastest-Schedule, Optimistic, Most Desirable C. Most Likely, Least Resources, Fastest Schedule D. Most Likely, Optimistic, and Pessimistic
D. The formula used is (Most Likely + Optimistic + Pessimistic) / 3.
The project manager just completed a meeting with the steering committee and announces to the team that the project can move forward to the next phase. Which of the following initiated the communication? A. Milestones B. Business continuity response C. Resource changes D. Gate reviews
D. The key to this answer is the approval to move forward with the project. Gate reviews are check-in points where authorization to proceed must be given.
What does SWOT stand for? A. Situation, work, open source, traceability B. Strengths, work, opportunities, traceability C. Situation, weaknesses, open source, threats D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
D. This is a tool used to perform a moment-in-time environmental scan, looking both within and external to the organization.
The work breakdown structure is created during which project phase? A. Monitor and Control B. Closing C. Execution D. Initiation E. Planning
E. Creation of the work breakdown structure involves organizing the team's work by breaking it down into manageable chunks or sections. This effort needs to happen before work begins, and therefore it occurs in the Planning phase.
In which project phase would the brainstorming, evaluation, and impact of risk be assessed? A. Execution B. Closing C. Monitor and Control D. Initiation E. Planning
E. Risk identification, probability and impact analysis, and risk response would all take place during the Planning phase of the project.
