PRAXIS Practice

A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Teasdale and Jennett (1974) helped bring uniformity to how level of consciousness is measured by introducing which evaluation tool? A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B. Computerized tomography (CT) C. Western Neuro Sensory Stimulation Profile (WNSSP) D. The Comprehensive Level of Consciousness (CLOCS)

d. liquids

The /r/ and /l/ sounds may both be categorized as: a. rhotics b. glides c. laterals d. liquids

b. Broca's area

The 3rd frontal gyrus, also known as Brodmann area 44, correlates with what anatomical area or structure? a. Basal ganglia b. Broca's area c. Wernicke's area d. Heschl's gyrus

A. ASHA does not allow infant feeding by speech-language pathologists (SLPs).

The American Speech-Language-Hearing Association (ASHA) regulates professional practice in speech-language pathology and audiology by specifying the scope of practice. According to the existing scope-of-practice documents, which of the following statements is false A. ASHA does not allow infant feeding by speech-language pathologists (SLPs). B. Memory and such other cognitive aspects of communication disorders are within the SLP's scope of practice. C. Counseling is not just the province of psychologists; SLPs, too, can counsel their clients. D. Sensory awareness training related to swallowing disorders is within the SLP's scope of practice.

C.are kept in the sole possession of the SLP

The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) guarantees parents access to their child's educational records. However, this mandate does not apply to the daily records kept by an SLP working in a school setting if these records A.are not used for treatment-related reimbursement from state or local government B.remain within the school district in which the SLP works C.are kept in the sole possession of the SLP D.are not distributed to anyone outside of the child's school

b. semantics

The SLP has noted that when Danny does speak, he appears to have word retrieval difficulties. The SLP decides to target this in therapy. In targeting word retrieval skills, she is working on the area of: a. morphology b. semantics c. pragmatics d. phonology

A.85 dB HTL

The acoustic reflex is triggered in a person with typical hearing when the listener is exposed to a sound above approximately A.85 dB HTL B.130 dB HTL C.1000 Hz D.6500 Hz

a. corpus callosum and basal ganglia

The anterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the a. corpus callosum and basal ganglia b. corpus striatum c. caudate nucleus and globus pallidus d. lateral surface of the cortex

a. McDonald'd sensorimotor approach

The articulation therapy approach that emphasizes the syllable as the basic unit of speech production and heavily uses the concept of phonetic environment is: a. McDonald'd sensorimotor approach b. the maximal contrast approach c. the metaphon approach d. Van Riper's traditional approach

B. Frontal and central opercula

Rongomaiwhenua was diagnosed with apraxia of speech (AOS). She displays an inability to follow commands and perform voluntary speech movements. Recently, she has been diagnosed with nonverbal oral apraxia (NVOA), a diagnosis that often co-occurs with AOS. With this diagnosis, it can be expected that a lesion would most likely exist in the: A. Posterior portion of the insula B. Frontal and central opercula C. Third temporal convolution D. Piriform cortex

a. presbycusis, Meniere's disease

Sensorineural hearing loss can be caused by many things. ___________, a hearing impairment in older people, results in a sloping, high-frequency loss. __________, which also causes sensorineural hearing loss, is accompanied by vertigo and tinnitus a. presbycusis, Meniere's disease b. Meniere's disease, otosclerosis c. presbycusis, otosclerosis d. central auditory processing disorder, presbycusis

B.fluctuating levels of hearing loss

Sensorineural hearing loss resulting from Ménière's disease causes A.a sudden hearing loss without warning B.fluctuating levels of hearing loss C.complete hearing loss at all frequencies D.bilateral progressive hearing loss

B. First sign of impaired righting reflexes

Shamim, your 74-year-old patient, has just been diagnosed with idiopathic Parkinson's disease. The patient's disability seems mild to moderate; however, there is unsteadiness as she turns or when pushed from a stable standing position with her feet together and eyes closed. On the Parkinson's Disease Disability Scale, how would you categorize Shamim's disability? A. Bilateral or midline involvement B. First sign of impaired righting reflexes C. Unilateral involvement only D. Fully developed, severely disabling disease

D. Digitized speech

Speech generating devices can be set to use a voice reflective of a user's age and gender. Which type of speech output uses recorded speech that is stored on an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device and allows individuals to produce messages using appropriate inflection and intonation? A. Dynamic speech B. Preference speech C. Synthesized speech D. Digitized speech

C. Speech impairment

Speech is a dynamic process requiring precisely coordinated articulatory movements for the sequencing of sounds to ultimately produce words. What is common among children with cerebral palsy? A. Apraxia B. Flaccidity C. Speech impairment D. Hyponasality

d. the lowest or softest level of hearing at which a person can understand 50% of the words presented

Speech reception thresholds (SRTs) are: a. determined by the patient's response to a list of monosyllabic words presented at a low level of hearing b. determined by looking at the patient's pure-tone test results at the frequencies most important to speech c. the lowest or softest level of hearing at which a person can understand 100% of the words presented d. the lowest or softest level of hearing at which a person can understand 50% of the words presented

b. a strong negative (or inverse) correlational relationship

Studying the speech of a group of children who have developmental apraxia of speech, the researchers finds that the faster the children speak, the less intelligible they are. The researcher obtains a Pearson r correlation relationship of -0.92. One could say that this shows that there is __________ between rate of speech and intelligibility. a. a positive correlational relationship b. a strong negative (or inverse) correlational relationship c. a canonical correlational relationship d. a cause-effect relationship

b. function words

Stuttering in preschool children is more likely on: a. content words b. function words c. final words in a sentence d. vowels

b. the fluency shaping technique

Such skills as airflow management, gentle phonatory onset, and reduced rate of speech are targets in: a. the fluent stuttering technique b. the fluency shaping technique c. counseling to reduce psychological conflicts d. direct stuttering reduction strategies

D. Vagus nerve

The physical characteristics of Moebius syndrome may include involvement of any of the following cranial nerves, except the: A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Vagus nerve

a. the proportion of people who stutter at any point in time.

The prevalence of a stuttering disorder is defined as: a. the proportion of people who stutter at any point in time. b. the number of people who stutter over a lifetime. c. the proportion of people who are likely to be diagnosed with stuttering. d. the number of people who are diagnosed with stuttering during a calendar year.

a. orbicularis oris

The primary muscle of the lips is a. orbicularis oris b. buccinator c. risorius d. levator labii superioris

b. Have permission to evaluate and treat, referral needed, record keeping including history, current concern, eval results, daily summary and discharge summary

What is required with regard to permissions, referrals, and record keeping to follow the ASHA Code of Ethics? a. Signed permission not needed b. Have permission to evaluate and treat, referral needed, record keeping including history, current concern, eval results, daily summary and discharge summary c. We can serve anyone, any time d. Referrals not needed

a. the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a distribution

The range in a distribution can be defined as: a. the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a distribution b. the middle 50% of scores of a distribution c. the middle 50% of scores in a distribution divided by 2 d. the variance plus the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution

d. Angular gyrus.

The region of the brain involved in language and cognitive processes which lies in the parietal lobe near the superior edge of the temporal lobe and posterior to the supramarginal gyrus is called the: a. Broca's area. b. Supramarginal gyrus. c. Primary auditory cortex. d. Angular gyrus.

d. Family history, hearing loss, neglect/abuse (There can be many risk factors at work if a child develops a speech/language disorder.There can be premature birth; low birth weight; failure to thrive; neurological issues; medical problems; family history of disorder; environmental stress; lack of stimulation; abuse and/or neglect; hearing loss and others. Any one of us who reads this, can probably name even more risk factors.)

There are numerous risk factors for the development of speech/language disorders. What are three of these risk factors? a. Contagious disease, doctor's visit, dental visit b. Excess stimulation, allergies, bug bites c. Swimming. skiing, soccer d. Family history, hearing loss, neglect/abuse

C. Extralinguistic communication

There are two broad levels of human communication: verbal communication and nonverbal communication. Verbal communication uses words as symbols to exchange ideas. Nonverbal communication includes many behaviors that communicate with or without the associated production of symbols. Which of the following is not an example of verbal communication? A. American Sign Language B. Written language C. Extralinguistic communication D. Pictographic communication

c. Prior to entering kindergarten

There is a point in a child's life when, even though development has been monitored, a child will have a speech/language screening. When does this typically occur? a. First grade b. Fifth grade c. Prior to entering kindergarten d. Beginning of high school

d. aryepiglottic folds

These are composed of a ring of connective tissue and muscle extending from the tips of the arytenoid cartilages to the epiglottis. They separate the laryngeal vestibule from the pharynx and help preserve the airway. a. ventricular folds b. true vocal folds c. lamina propria d. aryepiglottic folds

A.greater amounts of bilateral activation of prefrontal brain regions

To compensate for the effects of normal aging on cognitive functions, older adults will naturally demonstrate A.greater amounts of bilateral activation of prefrontal brain regions B.significant reduction in the activation of the hippocampus C.increased activation in areas of the cortex responsible for visual-spatial processing D.an increase in semantic abilities that do not rely on long-term memory abilities

e. all of the above

What aspects of the communication situation do young children use to help them acquire word knowledge? a. speaker's pointing b. eye gaze c. word stress d. phonological cues e. all of the above

a. Use of data related to treatment goals (We need to be able to determine whether or not progress is being made during a treatment program. We can use data recorded during sessions to determine if an individual is responding to the treatment, if the changes are important and if the treatment is responsible for any changes. We can measure data quantitatively or qualitatively.)

What methods can be used to measure progress during ongoing treatment? a. Use of data related to treatment goals b. SOAP notes c. Retest d. Narrative summaries

c. Hypokinetic dysarthria

Which of the following dysarthria is associated with Parkinson's disease? a. Spastic dysarthria b. Flaccid dysarthria c. Hypokinetic dysarthria d. Hyperkinetic dysarthria

A.Nasopharyngoscopy

Which of the following instrumental assessment tools provides the most direct dynamic view of velopharyngeal movement during speech? A.Nasopharyngoscopy B.Lateral-view x-ray C.Nasometry measurements D.Aerodynamics

b. man-ban

Which of the following is a homophenous pair? a. sheep-beep b. man-ban c. pan-fan d. honey-money

A. Neck brace or cervical collar

Which of the following is a prosthetic effort that is appropriate for patients with ataxic dysarthria? A. Neck brace or cervical collar B. Nose clip or nasal obturator C. Palatal lift D. Vocal amplifier

A.Overshooting or undershooting an intended target

Which of the following is a typical symptom of cerebellar involvement? A.Overshooting or undershooting an intended target B.Rigidity during voluntary motions C.Spasticity during involuntary action D.Word-finding difficulty

d. hemianopia

Which of the following is associated with a posterior cerebral artery (PCA) stroke? a. apraxia b. non-fluent aphasia c. fluent aphasia d. hemianopia

d. premature spillage over the base of the tongue

Which of the following is not a disorder of the pharyngeal phase of the swallow? a. decreased laryngeal elevation b. reduced tongue base retraction c. decreased upper esophageal sphincter (UES) opening d. premature spillage over the base of the tongue

D. Delayed morphosyntactic skills

Which of the following is not a general language deficit of children with autism spectrum disorder? A. Inadequate response to speech B. Perseveration on certain words or phrases C. Slow acquisition of speech sound production and language D. Delayed morphosyntactic skills

B. Velopharyngeal insufficiency

Which of the following is not a typical age-related change in the larynx? A. Hardening of the laryngeal cartilages B. Velopharyngeal insufficiency C. Degeneration and atrophy of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles D. Degenerative changes in the lamina propria

d. Phonology

Which of these concern(s) the patterns, systems, and rules of speech sounds in a language? a. All of these b. Phonemics c. Phonetics d. Phonology

d. Analog/Adjustable. (Analog/Adjustable: The Audiologist determines the volume and other specifications required for the patient's hearing aid, and then a laboratory builds the aid to meet those specifications. The Audiologist retains some flexibility to make adjustments. This type of circuitry is generally the least expensive and also the least effective.)

Which type of hearing aid retains flexibility to make adjustments, is the least effective, and the least expensive? a. Analog/Programmable. b. Digital/Programmable. c. Bone anchored hearing aid. d. Analog/Adjustable.

B. Total laryngectomy

Which type of laryngectomy physically separates the gastrointestinal tract from the respiratory tract? A. Partial laryngectomy B. Total laryngectomy C. Horizontal laryngectomy D. Subglottic laryngectomy

A. Primary reinforcer

Which type of reinforcer does not rely on past learning and fulfills biological needs? An example is food or drink. A. Primary reinforcer B. Secondary reinforcer C. Conditioned reinforcer D. Social reinforcer

C.Phonological system

Which of the following areas needs to be evaluated first for a 5 year old who says [pun] for "spoon" and [top] for "soap"? A.Auditory discrimination B.Dialectal differences C.Phonological system D.Receptive language

D.1.5

Which of the following assessment descriptions represents an s/z ratio that is indicative of a vocal pathology? A.1.0 B.1.1 C.1.3 D.1.5

B. Select appropriate goals to work on in therapy

When assessing a child with a speech sound disorder, the major purpose of stimulability assessment is to: A. Predict how much progress the child will make in therapy in a given time period B. Select appropriate goals to work on in therapy C. Assess the child's willingness to cooperate with the clinician D. Evaluate whether nonspeech oral motor exercises are necessary

B.The SLP and general education teacher plan weekly language activities that they deliver jointly to the classroom.

Which of the following best represents an interprofessional treatment model? A.The SLP designs an intervention plan to be implemented by an SLP assistant. B.The SLP and general education teacher plan weekly language activities that they deliver jointly to the classroom. C.The SLP conducts the evaluation and the team designs the treatment program. D.Two district SLPs design language screening tools for the Response to Intervention (RTIR T I) team.

A.Craniosynostosis

Which of the following conditions is primarily characterized by premature closure of the sutures of the skull? A.Craniosynostosis B.Craniopharyngioma C.Deformational plagiocephaly D.Positional plagiocephaly

a. fronting

A 3 yr old child is receiving therapy for remediation of several phonological patterns. She very frequently says things like tar/kar, do/go, and ti/ki. These productions show that she is using the phonological pattern of: a. fronting b. glottal replacement c. stopping d. prevocalic voicing

C. Surface alexia

A 48-year-old stroke patient was misreading words that were irregularly spelled (e.g., Wednesday) but had no problems with non-words that they had never encountered before (e.g., Diggle). This patient probably presents with: A. Functional alexia B. Deep alexia C. Surface alexia D. Phonological alexia

B. Multiple input phoneme therapy (MIPT)

A clinician is conducting an in-service in a hospital and is recommending treatment designed for patients with severe aphasia and apraxia whose repetition abilities are severely impaired. The clinician mentions that the purpose of this approach is to shape a variety of utterances that may eventually be used volitionally. She is referring to the following approach to therapy: A. Script training B. Multiple input phoneme therapy (MIPT) C. Prompts for reconstructing oral muscular phonetic targets (PROMPT) D. Melodic intonation therapy (MIT)

C.The nature and frequency of the child's disfluencies

A disfluent 4-year-old child is referred to an SLP for assessment. Which of the following is most important for the SLP to consider in deciding whether the child is developmentally nonfluent or stuttering? A.The length of time the child has been disfluent B.The rate at which the child talks C.The nature and frequency of the child's disfluencies D.The child's comments to the clinician about the disfluencies

D. Substitution of t/k (e.g., tea/key)

A kindergarten teacher refers Tomiko to you for a speech-language screening. Tomiko's first language is Korean, and she has been exposed to English for 8 months in school. The teacher is concerned because he thinks that Tomiko "has a speech problem." Which one of the following patterns (in English) would you not expect to find in a student who speaks Korean? A. Substitution of a/ae (e.g., bock/back) B. Final consonant deletion (e.g., be-/bed) C. Confusion of r/l (e.g., glow/grow, lay/ray) D. Substitution of t/k (e.g., tea/key)

a. speaking valve

A speech language pathologist is treating a patient who just underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is not an appropriate speaking option for the patient? a. speaking valve b. electrolarynx c. TEP d. esophageal speech

c. Criterion-referenced.

A type of test which measures how well a child has learned a particular body of knowledge without regard to how well other students have learned it is called: a. Norm-referenced. b. Standardized. c. Criterion-referenced. d. Multiple-choice.

b. possession

A young child who often says things like "my doggy" or "her ball" is using the relation of: a. recurrence b. possession c. location d. denial

b. psychogenic stuttering

An employee in a tech company was able to routinely excuse himself from making oral presentations to his team because of his stuttering: provided oral factors also support it, what would be your likely diagnosis of this client? a. typical stuttering b. psychogenic stuttering c. malingered stuttering d. neurogenic stuttering

a. the boy who got a haircut looks nice

An example of a sentence using an embedded form would be which of the following? a. the boy who got a haircut looks nice b. the girl ate a cookie, three rackers, and some fruit c. mom and dad are going to the store to buy some groceries d. because he was on time, they were happy with him

D. Sensory stimulation

Even though there is limited to no evidence of its effectiveness, what is a common form of treatment for comatose or semi-comatose patients? A. Orientation training B. Medications C. Behavioral training D. Sensory stimulation

a. react to messages

Facial expressions of speakers are used by listeners to: a. react to messages b. perceive truthfulness c. comprehend irony d. process the verbal message e. perceive additional information from the speaker

d. Inflectional or fusional

Primarily, what is the basic structure of the English language? a. Agglutinating or synthetic b. Amalgamating or polysynthetic c. Isolating or analytic d. Inflectional or fusional

a. globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, and putamen

The corpus striatum is composed of three nuclear masses, which are the a. globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, and putamen b. putamen, caudate nucleus, and basal ganglia c. supramarginal gyrus, angular gyrus, and putamen d. substantia nigra, angular gyrus, and globus pallidus

d. 2.4

You obtain 50 utterances from Mario. Your analysis of the language sample shows that Mario used 100 words and 120 morphemes. Thus, his average MLU is: a. 5.0 b. 4.5 c. 2.0 d. 2.4

b. longer and higher in pitch

compared to unstressed syllables, stressed syllables are typically: a. softer in intensity b. longer and higher in pitch c. lower in pitch d. shorter in duration

b. useful in making narrow phonetic transcription that gives more detailed information on a speaker's phonetic characteristics

diacritical marks are: a. useful in making broad phonetic transcription b. useful in making narrow phonetic transcription that gives more detailed information on a speaker's phonetic characteristics c. not useful in transcribing disordered speech d. used only in the analysis of speech with a foreign accent

c. harmonics

in a periodic complex sound, tones that occur over the fundamental frequency and can be characterized as whole-number multiples of the fundamental frequency are called: a. complex sinusoidal wave forms b. autocorrectional periodic wave forms c. harmonics d. tonal configuration forms

c. collaborative play

in a preschool setting, a typically developing child walks up to a child with SLI and says "Let's play house. You be the mommy, and I'll be the daddy, and we'll make dinner. Then the grandma will put the baby to bed." The typically developing child is suggesting that they engage in which type of play? a. parallel play b. associative play c. collaborative play d. side-by-side symmetrical play

C. Declarative

memory consists of remembering facts and events, and refers to the memories that can be consciously recalled? A. Procedural B. Short term C. Declarative D. Implicit

a. nothing unusual

parents generally report that the onset of stuttering in their children is associated with: a. nothing unusual b. stressful family situations c. accidental head injuries d. severe illness

a. do not have unique personality traits that explain stuttering

people who stutter and their families: a. do not have unique personality traits that explain stuttering b. are diagnosed with clinically significant anxiety disorders c. have unique treatment related to stuttering d. have obsessive compulsive traits

a. oscillation

the back-and-forth movement of air molecules because of a vibrating object is referred to as: a. oscillation b. amplitude c. velocity d. displacement

b. the fundamental frequency of first harmonic

the lowest frequency of a periodic wave is also known as: a. the fundamental frequency or second harmonic b. the fundamental frequency of first harmonic c. the formant frequency of first harmonic d. the first octave or the fundamental frequency

a. the degree of type of constriction of the vocal tract during consonant production

the manner of articulation refers: a. the degree of type of constriction of the vocal tract during consonant production b. the actions of the primary articulators c. the vocal fold vibrations during speech d. a distinction between consonants and vowels

c. the consonant at the end of the syllable

the term coda refers to: a. the nucleus of the syllable b. the initial sound in a syllable c. the consonant at the end of the syllable d. open syllables

B. The size of the selection display will need to be reduced.

Clyde, a 72-year-old man with Parkinson's disease has a reduced range of movement of his upper limbs due to rigidity. How will his reduced range of movement affect the size of the selection display of an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device? A. The size of the selection display will need to be increased. B. The size of the selection display will need to be reduced. C. The size of the selection display will stay the same. D. The size of the selection display will not be impacted because this individual does not qualify for AAC.

a. The first six months.

Cognitive deficits are sometimes associated with traumatic brain injury. Recovery from cognitive deficits is most dramatic within what time frame after the TBI? a. The first six months. b. There is no recovery from cognitive deficits since the damage is irreversible. c. The first year. d. The first eighteen months.

C. Dysarthria

Communication deficits are common in TBI. Which disorder occurs in one third of the TBI population? A. Aphasia B. Apraxia C. Dysarthria D. Dementia

D. Pressure is at a maximum

Constrictions are created by the articulators. A constriction near a node or an antinode will change the frequency of the formant and is a perturbation of the standing wave in the vocal tract. A constriction near an antinode will manifest all of the following except: A. Volume velocity is at a maximum B. Pressure is at a minimum C. Formant frequency will be lowered D. Pressure is at a maximum

B. A constriction near a volume velocity maximum

Constrictions in the vocal tract will raise or lower the formant frequency. How is the first formant frequency, which is also known as F1, lowered? A. A constriction near the velum B. A constriction near a volume velocity maximum C. A constriction near a pressure maximum D. A constriction in the pharynx

c. hypodentia or missing teeth

Children with bilateral cleft lip or palate may have problems with their teeth. A common problem for these children is: a. supernumerary teeth b. teeth erupting out of the hard palate c. hypodentia or missing teeth d. teeth that are too small

d. ID and delays in pragmatic, semantic, phonologic, and syntactic aspects of language, with syntax being especially affected

You are serving in a juvenile detention facility and receives a referral of Max, a 16 yr old with documented Fragile X syndrome. Which of the following will you expect to find when you evaluate Max? a. attention deficits, a large tongue, sleep disturbances, and a high, protruding forehead b. speech sound disorders, normal intelligence, expressive language delays, and micrognathia c. gargoylism, tracheal stenosis, bradycephaly, and hypertonia d. ID and delays in pragmatic, semantic, phonologic, and syntactic aspects of language, with syntax being especially affected

d. a review of the plan at 12-month intervals or more frequently if needed

PL 99-457 established mandated development of IFSPs. Which one of the following is NOT required to be included in a child's IFSP? a. the child's present level of development b. the family's needs and strengths relating to the child's development c. the major goals for the child and family, and services to be provided d. a review of the plan at 12-month intervals or more frequently if needed

a. communication in natural or everyday situations

Functional communication assessment targets: a. communication in natural or everyday situations b. grammatically correct and complex communication c. comprehension of both daily and academic vocabulary necessary for effective functioning in the "real world" d. phonemically correct communication

D. Ataxic, athetoid, spastic types

How do most professionals generally categorize cerebral palsy? A. Prenatal, perinatal, postnatal B. Hemiplegia, monoplegia, diplegia C. Hemiplegia, athetoid, postnatal D. Ataxic, athetoid, spastic types

b. 8 (should be 9 !!!) (There are 8 areas that may be included in a thorough speech/language screening. These include: articulation, phonology, comprehension, expression, voice, resonance, fluency, and pragmatics. In addition, an SLP may also complete a hearing screening.)

How many areas are likely to be included in speech/language screening? a. 5 b. 8 c. 6 d. 4

C.Protesting

Early intentional communication typically emerges in the months leading up to a child's first birthday. Which of the following communicative functions typically emerges first in this period? A.Requesting B.Commenting C.Protesting D.Greeting

d. Respiration

Fiber-optic instrumentation is appropriate for evaluation of which of the following types of disorder? a. Articulation b. Phonation c. Proprioception d. Respiration

B.Ability of patient to pass air to the oral cavity while exhaling with the tube cannula occluded by the SLP

Following placement of a tracheostomy tube, a patient recovering from cardiothoracic surgery is successfully weaned from mechanical ventilation. A day later the SLP receives a consult to assess patient candidacy for using a one-way tracheostomy valve. Which of the following observations is the most important contraindication for safe and successful patient tolerance of the one-way valve? A.Oxygen saturation below 95% B.Ability of patient to pass air to the oral cavity while exhaling with the tube cannula occluded by the SLP C.Patient ability to expectorate lung secretions without suctioning D.Patient tolerance of the deflated cuff

C.Flaccid paralysis of the soft palate

For which of the following conditions is it most appropriate for the SLP to recommend that the patient's primary-care physician refer the patient to a prosthodontist for construction of a palatal-lift appliance? A.Submucous cleft palate B.Unrepaired cleft of the secondary palate C.Flaccid paralysis of the soft palate D.Congenitally short palate

a. unilateral weak pharyngeal constriction

For which of the following disorders of swallowing would it be inappropriate to recommend tilting the head to the strong side? a. unilateral weak pharyngeal constriction b. decreased laryngeal elevation c. decreased upper esophageal sphincter (UES) opening d. incomplete epiglottic inversion

d. 7 months to 1 year

Babies typically imitate various adult speech sounds around which ages? a. Birth to 3 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 1 year to 18 months d. 7 months to 1 year

d. Linguistic performance lags behind linguistic competence

If a child's language exhibits the phonological process of gliding, the child might say [wed] for [red]. When asked, "Do you mean wed?" the child may respond, "No! [wed]!" Such a response demonstrates which of the following? a. Phonological development lags behind semantic development b. Semantic development lags behind phonological development c. Linguistic competence lags behind linguistic performance d. Linguistic performance lags behind linguistic competence

B. It may overidentify the cases of the disorder.

If a screening test for a specific disorder has high sensitivity and low specificity, what does this reveal about the test? A. It may omit the condition in favor of individuals who are free of the disorder. B. It may overidentify the cases of the disorder. C. It may not identify individuals who truly have the disorder. D. The test correctly measures the chances that an individual has the disorder.

D. reduce their own rate of speech.

In administering indirect therapy to reduce stuttering, parents are encouraged to A. give a signal to stop and then ask the child to start talking again. B. give a signal to stop, ask the child to describe the problem, and then let the child continue to talk. C. ask the child to keep quiet for 20 seconds before resuming speech. D. reduce their own rate of speech.

a. functional and criterion-referenced assessment

In assessing the language skills of Rica, an 8 yr old speaker of Cantonese and English, the clinician, with the help of a Cantonese interpreter, obtained extensive samples of both the languages. After consulting with Rica's teacher and interviewing her parents, the clinician selected additional vocabulary items and common expressions to be included in systematic assessment. This type of assessment is known as: a. functional and criterion-referenced assessment b. norm-referenced and criterion-referenced assessment c. standardized assessment without being norm-referenced d. functional and standardized assessment without being norm-referenced

a. the child's actual, daily environment and life experience

A test's ecological validity refers to the extent to which it reflects: a. the child's actual, daily environment and life experience b. culture-fair assessment practices c. grade-level appropriate content d. procedures which have been proven nondiscriminatory for ELs

a. Criterion-referenced (Criterion referenced tests are tests designed to measure how thoroughly a student has learned a particular body of knowledge without regard to how well other students have learned it. Most nationally standardized achievement tests are norm-referenced, meaning that a student's performance is compared to how well students in the norming group did when the test was normed.)

A type of test which measures how well a child has learned a particular body of knowledge without regard to how well other students have learned it is called: a. Criterion-referenced b. Norm-referenced. c. Standardized. d. Multiple-choice.

A. cognition problems than language problems

In the early stages of Alzheimer's disease, the patient has more: A.cognition problems than language problems B.language problems than cognition problems C.muteness D.disorientation

B.ear malformation

Individuals diagnosed as having hemifacial microsomia are also most likely to have A.laryngeal dysfunction B.ear malformation C.webbed fingers and toes D.widely spaced eyes

d. order of mention

Jeannette is a 4 yr old with specific language impairment. At preschool, the teacher says "Before you put on your jacket to go outside, be sure to get your snack." Jeannette puts her jacket on first and then tried to get her snack. The teacher becomes angry and believes Jeannette is not following orders. Jeannette is showing difficulty with: a. phonological awareness b. pragmatics c. syntax d. order of mention

C.Language

An SLP is evaluating a preschool child referred for concerns regarding stuttering. In which of the following areas is performance likely to be weaker in a preschooler who stutters than in a typical preschooler? A.Hearing acuity B.Voice C.Language D.Swallowing

B. Impedance bridge

An audiologist is testing a client for acoustic immittance. She places a sound stimulus in her client's external ear canal with an airtight closure and measures changes in the acoustic energy as the sound stimulates the auditory system. What instrument is the audiologist using for this particular procedure? A. Otoscope B. Impedance bridge C. Audiometer D. Tympanic meter

D. Direction

An important part of treating patients with traumatic brain injuries is providing support, reassurance, information, and direction to family members. Which is most important in the middle and later stages of recovery? A. Support B. Reassurance C. Information D. Direction

a. lesions in Broca's area

Apraxia of speech is often associated with: a. lesions in Broca's area b. lesions in Wernicke's area c. lesions in subcortical structures d. lesions in the occipital area

B.Esophageal speech

A patient is referred to speech therapy after a total laryngectomy. The SLP teaches the patient to speak by taking air in through the mouth, trapping it in the throat, and then releasing it. Which of the following treatments is the SLP primarily implementing with the patient? A.Tracheoesophageal puncture B.Esophageal speech C.Neck electrolarynx D.Intraoral artificial larynx

b. Severe traumatic brain injury.

A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 5 indicates what? a. Mild traumatic brain injury. b. Severe traumatic brain injury. c. Malingering. d. Normal brain functioning.

b. Severe traumatic brain injury (Neurological features associated with TBI are standardized using the Glasgow Coma Scale. This test is scored from 1 to 15 points. Each of three measures (eye opening, best verbal response, and best motor response) is scored separately, and the combined score helps determine the severity of TBI. A total score of 3 to 8 reflects a severe TBI, 9 to 12 a moderate TBI, and 13 to 15 a mild TBI.)

A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 5 indicates what? a. Normal brain functioning. b. Severe traumatic brain injury. c. Mild traumatic brain injury. d. Malingering.

B. cachexia.

A patient with end-stage cancer was experiencing loss of weight, fatigue, weakness, and a significant reduction in appetite. The oncologist mentioned to the speech-language pathologist that even though the patient was not actively trying to lose weight, his loss of body mass would be difficult to reverse nutritionally because he had aggressive cancer. This condition of weight loss that is a common complication associated with cancer is called A. gluconeogenesis. B. cachexia. C. anorexia. D. lipolysis.

a. Alzheimer's disease.

A patient with pervasive loss of short-term memory, aphasia, disorientation, disinhibition with behavioral changes is likely suffering from what disease? a. Alzheimer's disease. b. Wilson's disease. c. Parkinson's disease. d. Muscular Dystrophy.

d. Alzheimer's disease. (The usual first symptom noticed is short term memory loss which progresses from seemingly simple and often fluctuating forgetfulness to a more pervasive loss of short-term memory, then of familiar and well-known skills or objects or persons. Aphasia, disorientation, and disinhibition often accompany the loss of memory. Alzheimer's disease may also include behavioral changes, such as outbursts of violence or excessive passivity in people who have no previous history of such behavior. In the later stages, deterioration of musculature and mobility, leading to inability to feed oneself, and incontinence. Average duration of the disease is approximately 7-10 years, although cases are known where reaching the final stage occurs within 4-5 years, or in some reported cases up to 22 years.)

A patient with pervasive loss of short-term memory, aphasia, disorientation, disinhibition with behavioral changes is likely suffering from what disease? a. Muscular Dystrophy. b. Parkinson's disease. c. Wilson's disease. d. Alzheimer's disease.

D. frontotemporal dementia associated with Pick's disease.

A physician refers a 50-year-old male patient with dementia to you for assessment and treatment. The referring physician suggests the strong possibility of dense intracellular formation in the neuronal cytoplasm and ballooned and inflated neurons. Your assessment reveals that the patient has had a progressive loss of vocabulary, paraphasia, circumlocution, and dominant language problems, with somewhat better preserved memory and orientation. The most likely diagnosis you would make on this patient is A. dementia of the Alzheimer's type. B. dementia associated with Parkinson's disease. C. dementia associated with Huntington's disease. D. frontotemporal dementia associated with Pick's disease.

C.consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client's treatment

A physician told the spouse of a client that melodic intonation therapy (MIT) would improve the client's speech considerably. The most appropriate next action by the SLP would be to A.provide MIT, as recommended B.tell the physician that it is inappropriate for the physician to make recommendations for a speech treatment C.consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client's treatment D.explain MIT to the client's spouse to assist in the decision-making process about the type of therapy to use

B. a dialect

A regionally or socially distinct variety of a language identified by distinct set of words and structures is called: A. code switching B. a dialect C. bilingualism D. socioeconomic bilingualism

a. the amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter before and after the siblings increase their rate of speech

A researcher investigates the effect of rate of speech upon stuttering during sibling interaction. She gathers conversational samples from children who stutter and their siblings. She asks the siblings in the control group to speak as they normally would at home. Siblings in the experimental group are asked to speak much more quickly than they would at home. The investigator wishes to answer the question whether increased rate of sibling speech causes children to stutter more. In this study, the dependent variable is: a. the amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter before and after the siblings increase their rate of speech b. the rate of speech of the siblings in the experimental group c. the rate of speech of the siblings in the control group d. the combined amount of stuttering done by the children in both the experimental and the control groups

D. A-B-BC-B-BC.

A researcher is interested in completing a single-subject design experiment to study the additive and subtractive effects of individual components of treatment rather than the comparison of two treatments. He decides to use an interaction design to study the interactive effects of two or more variables. The researcher is also interested in examining the effects of both variables alone and in combination. He is interested in isolating the components that are effective to any extent from those that are not at all effective and controls for phase lengths during the treatment. He also counterbalances the order of treatment in the experiment. The most appropriate design for this experiment would be A. ABAB. B. BAB. C. A-B-A-BC. D. A-B-BC-B-BC.

d. there is no significant relationship between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills

A researcher teaches a new book reading program to caregivers of low-income children and evaluates the language skills of the children one year later to evaluate whether or not there is a relationship between caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills. The researchers find that there is an r = 0.10 correlational relationship between caregivers' reported implementation of the program and children's language skills. The researcher can safely conclude that: a. there is a strong positive correlation between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills b. there is a strong negative correlation between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills c. there is a moderately significant cause-effect relationship between the caregivers' implementation of the program and the children's language skills d. there is no significant relationship between the caregivers' implementation of the program and children's language skills

b. prevalence

A researcher wants to study the occurrence of stuttering in a given city. She wants to know how many adults and children in Middletown City have officially been diagnosed with stuttering. She does not necessarily want to give a predictive statement; rather, she wants to know the number of individuals in Middletown who stutter. The researcher wants to study the: a. incidence b. prevalence c. matched samples d. population statistics

d. going into the classroom and helping language impaired students, individually or in a small group format, to achieve classroom curriculum goals

A school-based SLP is conducting classroom-based intervention with several students diagnosed with specific language impairment. This means that SLP is: a. conducting pull-out intervention, in which she brings the student to her therapy room and uses classroom materials as part of a small-group therapy session b. conducting pull-out intervention, in which she brings a student to her c. teaching language skills to the whole class; the students with SLI are part of this class d. going into the classroom and helping language impaired students, individually or in a small group format, to achieve classroom curriculum goals

A.Individuals who hold the Certificate of Clinical Competence shall evaluate the effectiveness of services provided, technology employed, and products dispensed, and they shall provide services or dispense products only when benefit can reasonably be expected.

A school-based SLP wants to discharge a fifth-grade student. The student has mastered all his goals except /r/forward slash r forward slash in conversational speech. The SLP worked with the student for the entire school year, and the student is able to use /r/forward slash r forward slash accurately 75 percent of the time. However, the goal is to reach 90 percent accuracy. Because the student worked on the skill all year and still has not met the established goal, the SLP feels the student performs at his highest possible level. The SLP does not think it is in the student's best interest to continue pulling the student out of class to address the goal. The parents are upset and are questioning the SLP's decision. Which of the following statements from the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association (ASHA) Code of Ethics can be used to back up the SLP's decision? A.Individuals who hold the Certificate of Clinical Competence shall evaluate the effectiveness of services provided, technology employed, and products dispensed, and they shall provide services or dispense products only when benefit can reasonably be expected. B.Individuals shall honor their responsibility to hold paramount the welfare of persons they serve professionally or who are participants in research and scholarly activities, and they shall treat animals involved in research in a humane manner. C.Individuals shall use every resource, including referral and/or interprofessional collaboration when appropriate, to ensure that quality service is provided. D.Individuals shall provide all clinical services and scientific activities competently.

d. had a ratio of .87

A school-based clinician is assessing the velopharyngeal adequacy of Janie K., a 17 yr old immigrant high school student from the Philippines. Janie was born with a cleft of the palate and lip; there was no repair until her family came to the US when Janie was 16 yrs old. In the Philippines, Janie and her family lived on Tablas, a small and rural island, where surgery was unavailable. Though the repair surgery in the US a year ago was successful and Janie now has a more aesthetically pleasing appearance and better speech, there is still audible nasal emission and hypernasality when she speaks. The clinician plans to refer her to a local craniofacial team, but he also wants to conduct as thorough an examination as he can despite the lack of instrumentation available at his school site. He doe have access to an oral manometer. He uses this to provide a beginning point from which to refer Janie to the craniofacial team. After obtaining a ratio by comparing pressures achieved in nostrils-occluded and the nostrils-open conditions, the clinician concludes that Janie especially needs to be referred to the craniofacial team for possible further surgery or a pharyngeal flap. When he used oral manometry, the clinician probably found that Janie: a. had a ratio of 1.0 b. had a ratio of 1.2 c. had a ratio of .96 d. had a ratio of .87

d. strategies to improve vocal fold adduction

A singer comes to you for therapy. She has had bypass surgery, and in the process, there was damage to her recurrent laryngeal nerve. In the course of intervention, you will most likely focus on: a. blowing exercises for more precise direction of her airstream b. abdominal exercises to strengthen the foundation for respiration c. chewing exercises to improve overall oral coordination d. strategies to improve vocal fold adduction

C.Stimulability information

A speech and language assessment was conducted on a 6-year-old child. Results indicated normal receptive, expressive, and pragmatic language skills. The child used stopping, fronting, deaffrication, and final consonant deletion. The SLP will likely find which of the following to be the most useful in planning for the child's treatment program? A.Mean length of utterance B.Diadochokinetic rate C.Stimulability information D.Literacy information

a. ataxic dysarthria, cerebellum

A speech language pathologist evaluates a woman who presents with slurred speech, excess and equal stress, distorted vowels, and irregular articulatory breakdowns. Which type of dysarthria is described? Where is the probable site of lesion? a. ataxic dysarthria, cerebellum b. spastic dysarthria, basal ganglia c. ataxic dysarthria, basal ganglia d. spastic dysarthria, cerebellum

d. including an ethnographic approach

A speech language pathologist is evaluating a child who only speaks Spanish. Which of the following is not an erroneous assessment strategy for the SLP to utilize for the linguistically diverse patient? a. translating the standardized test to Spanish b. modifying the standardized test to make more relevant for the specific culture c. relying on language sampling/observation d. including an ethnographic approach

d. elongated face, prominent ears

A speech language pathologist is evaluating a child with Fragile X Syndrome. Which of the following characteristics can the clinician expect to observe? a. smooth philtrum b. wide mouth, full lips c. macroglossia d. elongated face, prominent ears

a. equipment check

A speech language pathologist is treating a patient with hearing loss. Which of the following should the clinician always do before beginning every session? a. equipment check b. Ling-9 sound test c. invite the patient's siblings into the room to provide peer models d. turn on the Ipad to create a visual distraction to improve generalization

b. conflict of interest

A speech language pathologist will receive compensation for utilizing a specific brand of thickener in her private practice. Which ethical dilemma is present in this scenario? a. negligence b. conflict of interest c. fraud d. misrepresentation

A. Provide a situation or a topic in a very structured environment to obtain a spontaneous speech sample.

A speech--language pathologist is having difficulties understanding an unintelligible child. What is an appropriate way for the clinician to obtain a spontaneous speech sample? A. Provide a situation or a topic in a very structured environment to obtain a spontaneous speech sample. B. Do not worry about the utterances the child says during a spontaneous speech sample because if they are unintelligible all sounds must be addressed in therapy. C. Do not obtain a spontaneous speech sample. Begin treatment at the vowel level and ensure that the vowels are intelligible before moving on to consonants. D. Teach the child how to use an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device to communicate with teachers and peers.

C. Isolated goal

A speech-language pathologist in a rehabilitation setting is treating an adult. The goal of the clinician is to have the adult use a communication device to make sentences with the correct use of various basic grammatical concepts when describing a set of pictures. This is an example of which of the following goals? A. Long-term goal B. Unrealistic goal C. Isolated goal D. Integrated goal

C. Displacement

A speech-language pathologist is holding a conference with the family of a 16-year-old girl with severe language-learning disabilities. The girl reads at a third-grade level and has been in special education placements since first grade. The speech-language pathologist tells the family, in a kind way, that their goal of their daughter attending medical school is unattainable. The family lashes out in anger against the speech-language pathologist, saying that he is wrong, pessimistic, and negative about their daughter and her abilities. In this situation, the family is utilizing which defense mechanism? A. Repression B. Reaction formation C. Displacement D. Suppression

c. Smith-Magenis Syndrome (Smith-Magenis syndrome (or SMS) is a chromosomal disorder characterized by a recognizable pattern of physical, behavioral, and developmental features. Common features include: characteristic facial appearance, infant feeding problems, low muscle tone, developmental delay, variable levels of intellectual disability, early speech/language delay, middle ear problems, skeletal anomalies and decreased sensitivity to pain. The syndrome also includes a distinct pattern of behavioral features characterized by chronic sleep disturbances, arm hugging/hand squeezing, hyperactivity and attention problems, prolonged tantrums, sudden mood changes and/or explosive outbursts and self-injurious behaviors.)

A student you evaluate at your clinic presents with speech and language delay, poor attending skills, delayed cognitive development and low muscle tone. Her mother reports that this child had difficulty feeding as an infant, had chronic middle ear infections, does not sleep well and has sudden and severe tantrums. You believe that this child could have which genetic syndrome? a. Rett Syndrome. b. Fragile X Syndrome. c. Smith-Magenis Syndrome. d. Apraxia

a. Smith-Magenis Syndrome.

A student you evaluate at your clinic presents with speech and language delay, poor attending skills, delayed cognitive development and low muscle tone. Her mother reports that this child had difficulty feeding as an infant, had chronic middle ear infections, does not sleep well and has sudden and severe tantrums. You believe that this child could have which genetic syndrome? a. Smith-Magenis Syndrome. b. Fragile X Syndrome. c. Apraxia. d. Rett Syndrome.

C. a pH probe or intraluminal pH monitoring study.

A study that is used to quantify the time and frequency of gastroesophageal reflux into the esophagus is called A. an esophageal reflux monitoring study. B. a GER monitoring study. C. a pH probe or intraluminal pH monitoring study. D. a UGI series.

b. production of "axe" instead of "ask"

A teacher has referred Isaiah Brown to you for an evaluation. Isaiah is an African American kindergartener who is reportedly doing well in class academically. When you observe him on the playground with his peers, you see that he has many friends and does not appear to have problems interacting appropriately with other children. Isaiah's friends do not appear to have any difficulty understanding what he says. However, the teacher is concerned because, she says "I think Isaiah pronounces some of his sounds wrong. I think he needs speech therapy." When you conduct a speech screening with Isaiah, you will remember: Which of the following is a typical variation of African American English and is not a sign of a disorder? a. v/f substitution b. production of "axe" instead of "ask" c. w/r substitution in all word positions d. initial consonant deletion

a. Dynamic assessment, language samples in Cambodian, and observations of his interaction with family members and other Cambodian children

A teacher has referred a 3rd grade boy to you for a speech-language assessment. She is concerned because she feels that he is academically "behind his peers." He and his family are Cambodian refugees, and they have been in the US for 8 months. Because the boy has been in refugee camps most of his life, his schooling in Cambodia was quite limited. His parents tell you that they estimate that he has had approx. 1.5 years of schooling in Cambodia. The teacher is concerned that the boy may have an underlying language impairment, and she wonders if he is eligible for speech-language services. What would be the best combination of assessment techniques to use with him? a. Dynamic assessment, language samples in Cambodian, and observations of his interaction with family members and other Cambodian children b. use of the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test- 4th edition and the Test of Language Development-Primary: 4th edition, translated into Cambodian; dynamic assessment; and language samples in Cambodian c. use of a district-developed test for Cambodian students in your geographic area and administration of questionnaires to the boy's teachers and family d. use of formal, standardized tests in English combined with observations of the boy's interactions, in Cambodian, with peers and family members

d. use a dynamic assessment model to evaluate Jose's language-learning ability and combine this with classroom observations over the next 2-3 months to evaluate his progress

A teacher refers Jose E. to you for a speech-language evaluation. Jose, a Puerto Rican American second grader who speaks Spanish and English with equal fluency, transferred to your school district 3 months ago from another district in your state. In his previous district, he was in a bilingual classroom where his primary language of Spanish was maintained and he was exposed to English, also. According to his report card from the previous district, "Jose does well speaking both Spanish and English. I [the teacher] think he is beginning to show a preference for English. Jose is performing adequately in all academic areas." The second-grade teacher at your school, who teaches only English, feels that after 3 months in her classroom, "Jose is catching on slowly. I wonder if he needs special education." Your best course of action would be to: a. ask Jose's parents to sign a permission form so that he may be assessed immediately in English using only English tests, since English is apparently beginning to be his preferred language b. use a variety of English screening instruments to screen Jose's English ability because these instruments are ecologically valid for him c. do nothing at the present time and tell the teacher that you will wait for 6 months to see how Jose progresses in his classroom d. use a dynamic assessment model to evaluate Jose's language-learning ability and combine this with classroom observations over the next 2-3 months to evaluate his progress

A.The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design B.The absence of a control group C.The inability to rule out the possibility that the children's language scores improved for reasons other than the treatment

A team of SLPs is evaluating whether a new language intervention is suitable for use with children who are on their caseload. The clinicians read an article documenting research on the effect of a novel treatment on the language performance of 30 children with specific language impairment. The researchers administered a standardized language test to the children before and after the treatment program. The children's posttreatment scores on the test were significantly higher than their pretreatment scores. This led the researchers to conclude that the treatment was highly effective. Based on the preceding description, which of the following appears to be a significant limitation of the design of the study? Select all that apply. A.The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design B.The absence of a control group C.The inability to rule out the possibility that the children's language scores improved for reasons other than the treatment D.The use of random assignment to place the children into the treatment group E.The number of participants in the study

c. she is low in her lexical skills or the number of words she uses expressively

A third-grade teacher refers 8 yr old Allyson to you. The teacher is concerned because "Allyson's verbal expression skills just are not what they should be. When she talks, she speaks in real simple sentences. Sometimes I feel like I'm dealing with a kindergartener, not a third grader." When she speaks with Allyson's parents they say "Allyson never was much of a talker. She talked late - later than her brothers and sisters. But she was always well behaved, and we never thought she had a problem." You decide that as part of your assessment of Allyson's language skills, you will gather and analyze a language sample using TTR. When you eventually calculate TTR based on her language sample, you find that her TTR is 0.31. You conclude that: a. She is normally developing her syntactic skills b. she is delayed in pragmatic skills c. she is low in her lexical skills or the number of words she uses expressively d. she has receptive morphological problems

B.in the student's native language

A transfer student is referred for a language evaluation. The student has spoken English for less than a year, and English is not the primary language used at home. To provide the student with culturally and linguistically appropriate service delivery, the student should be evaluated A.using norms for standard English speakers B.in the student's native language C.with the student's parents present D.based on formal assessments

b. ex post facto research

A type of research involving the effect of independent variables that have occurred in the past and the investigator is making a retrospective search for causes of events is called: a. single-subject design research b. ex post facto research c. survey research d. ethnographic research

C.Coughing after swallowing

A videofluoroscopic study of a client with dysphagia revealed post-swallow vallecular residue occupying more than 50 percent vallecular height. Which of the following is the most likely overt symptom that the client will experience? A.Watery eyes during swallowing B.Oral pocketing of foods C.Coughing after swallowing D.Esophageal reflux

c. locative action

A young child who says "down" when a cup of juice spills off of the dinner table is using the relation of: a. action b. possession c. locative action d. attribution

c. ordinal scale

A group of clinicians wish to conduct research in a hospital setting. These clinicians work with clients who have voice disorders. Many of the clients are hoarse because they work in noisy factories where they shout a great deal during the work week. The clinicians devise a rating scale to evaluate the hoarseness of these clients during evaluation sessions. The scale looks like this: 1 - almost no hoarseness 2 - slight hoarseness 3 - moderate hoarseness 4 - great amount of hoarseness This type of scale would be called a(n): a. ratio scale b. nominal scale c. ordinal scale d. logarithmic scale

D. an ordinal scale.

A group of clinicians working with voice disorders wish to conduct research in a hospital setting. Many of their clients are hoarse because they work in noisy factories where they shout a great deal during the work week. The clinicians devise a rating scale to evaluate the hoarseness of these clients. The scale looks like this: Almost no hoarseness Slight hoarseness Moderate hoarseness Great amount of hoarseness This type of scale is called A. a ratio scale. B. a nominal scale. C. an interval scale. D. an ordinal scale.

b. ASHA Code of Ethics.

ASHA-certified audiologists are bound to provide services that are consistent with the scope of their competence, education, and experience as stipulated by: a. ASHA Scope of Practice. b. ASHA Code of Ethics. c. NCLB. d. IDEA.

d. ASHA Code of Ethics (ASHA members and ASHA-certified professionals are bound by the ASHA Code of Ethics to provide services that are consistent with the scope of their competence, education, and experience. There are other existing legislative and regulatory bodies that govern the practice of audiology.)

ASHA-certified audiologists are bound to provide services that are consistent with the scope of their competence, education, and experience as stipulated by: a. IDEA. b. NCLB. c. ASHA Scope of Practice. d. ASHA Code of Ethics.

A.3 months of age

According to ASHA and the Joint Committee on Infant Hearing (JCIHJ C I H) recommendations of 2007, for babies who fail the newborn hearing screening, the follow-up diagnostic audiologic evaluation should be completed no later than A.3 months of age B.6 months of age C.9 months of age D.12 months of age

d. Before discharge from the hospital

According to ASHA recommendations, the child who is admitted to the neonatal intensive care until should receive a hearing screening a. At 3 months b. At 1 year c. At 2 years d. Before discharge from the hospital

c. prescribing hearing aids for children and adults with hearing losses

According to ASHA standards, which one of the following activities WOULD NOT be within the scope of practice of an SLP? a. assessing and treating swallowing and upper aerodigestive disorders (ex., infant feeding) b. developing and implementing AAC and prescribing AAC devices and systems c. prescribing hearing aids for children and adults with hearing losses d. screening hearing and offering auditory training and speech-language services to the deaf and the hard of hearing

A.It is usually earlier for girls than for boys. C.It most often occurs in the range of 2 to 5 years old.

According to empirical research with people who stutter, which TWO of the following are true regarding the age of symptom onset for most cases? A.It is usually earlier for girls than for boys. B.It is similar for girls and boys. C.It most often occurs in the range of 2 to 5 years old. D.It most often occurs in the range of 6 to 9 years old.

C.Semantic and syntactic complexity

According to research on the development of Brown's morphemes in young children, which of the following is a determinant of acquisition order? A.Phonological ease of production B.Figurative-language ability C.Semantic and syntactic complexity D.Sequencing and segmentation strategies

D. The brick-wall filter removes all of the energy above the Nyquist frequency.

According to the Nyquist theorem (1928), to represent a signal faithfully, it must be sampled at a rate equal to twice its highest frequency. Brick-wall filtering works with the Nyquist theorem when analyzing data. What is the purpose of Brick-wall filtering? A. The brick-wall filter removes all of the energy below the Nyquist frequency. B. The brick-wall filter doubles all of the energy above the Nyquist frequency. C. The brick-wall filter doubles all of the energy below the Nyquist frequency. D. The brick-wall filter removes all of the energy above the Nyquist frequency.

a. implementing treatment plans developed by the supervising SLP, checking and maintaining equipment, and collecting and documenting data for quality improvement

Activities that may be carried out by a trained SLPA (according to ASHA) include: a. implementing treatment plans developed by the supervising SLP, checking and maintaining equipment, and collecting and documenting data for quality improvement b. demonstrating swallowing strategies or precautions, collecting and documenting data for quality improvement, and assisting with speech-language and hearing screenings c. writing and modifying treatment plans, assisting with clerical duties and in-service training, and checking and maintaining equipment d. signing treatment plans or assessment report when the SLP is not available, assisting with speech-language and hearing screenings, and assisting with clerical duties

c. right-hemisphere syndrome

A 54 yr old paster, Rev. Johnson, has a stroke and takes a leave of absence from his job while he recovers. After a 3-4 month period, he goes back to work, which includes preaching sermons on Sunday morning and visiting church members who are sick. He says that he is "100% back;" however, his parishioners and family notice that he tends to bump into people who walk on his left; when he writes, he does not use the left side of the page. He does not recognize parishioners who he has known for 30 or more years until they begin to speak. When people tell jokes, he does not laugh or appear to understand the jokes as he used to. He does not detect sarcasm in other people's speech. Rev. Johnson probably has: a. dementia b. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome c. right-hemisphere syndrome d. apraxia of speech

d. refer him to a neurologist for an evaluation

A 67 yr old man comes to you for a voice evaluation. He was referred by his primary care doctor. He states that his voice has been getting "weaker" for the past 5-6 months. Upon oral peripheral examination, you find that he has fasciculations (tremors) of the tongue and some general facial weakness. The first thing you would do is: a. refer him to a psychologist for an evaluation b. take detailed notes and tell him to come back in 6 months c. begin voice therapy, focusing on strengthening exercises d. refer him to a neurologist for an evaluation

1. D.Anosognosia 2. B.Communication Activities of Daily Living-Second Edition 3. A.Errorless learning

Alan, a 62-year-old, right-handed African American male, sustained a traumatic brain injury mostly affecting his right hemisphere and bi-lateral frontal lobes. Alan was hospitalized for 24 days before being discharged to an inpatient brain injury rehabilitation program. His spouse attends his initial evaluation sessions. The SLP reports impairments in memory, poor awareness of deficits, and some changes in his communication skills. The SLP already has current information about Alan's performance on a standardized language battery suggesting minimal impairments. Therefore, the SLP completes an evaluation of Alan's functional communication skills. The SLP's assessment involves testing his functional use of humor, facial expressions, nonverbal communication strategies, and understanding functional written materials. The SLP hopes to use this information to determine the impact of Alan's impairments on his daily life. The SLP determines that Alan would benefit from an external memory aid, specifically a memory notebook. The SLP wants to be sure that Alan can learn to use the aid but is concerned that because of his memory impairment, he will struggle to retain the basic information about how to use the aid. The SLP discourages Alan from guessing and intervenes with support before Alan can make a mistake when using the device. 1. Alan's performance profile reveals which impairment typical to right hemisphere dysfunction? A.Aprosodia B.Unilateral spatial neglect C.Hyperresponsiveness D.Anosognosia 2. Which of the following tools is most appropriate to evaluate Alan's functional communication skills? A.Western Aphasia Battery-Revised B.Communication Activities of Daily Living-Second Edition C.Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination-Third Edition D.Test of Everyday Attention 3. Which of the following cognitive rehabilitation practices is most appropriate for the SLP to use to help increase Alan's success in learning basic information about his external memory aid? A.Errorless learning B.Attention process training C.Method of vanishing cues D.Expanded rehearsal

1. a. use multimodal cueing and tasks that move up in a hierarchical manner 2. c. She has impaired motor programming of the velum resulting in incompetent velar movement 3. d. substitution

Amanda is a 7 yr old with childhood apraxia of speech (CAS). She is frustrated in school because it is hard for her to be understood in class and on the playground; you estimate that she is approximately 60% intelligible. You just finished graduate school, and Amanda is your first client with CAS. 1. When conducting therapy with her, it will be important to remember to: a. use multimodal cueing and tasks that move up in a hierarchical manner b. focus primarily on phonological awareness and auditory discrimination skills c. teach her sign language to supplement speech d. focus most of intervention on listening skills 2. When you are listening to Amanda speak, you notice the presence of intermittent hypernasality that is somewhat unpredictable. There is also nasal emission on some consonants. These phenomena occur because: a. She probably has a shortened velum secondary to CAS b. Her velum is weak and you will need to conduct oral motor exercises to strengthen it c. She has impaired motor programming of the velum resulting in incompetent velar movement d. She may have a partial submucous cleft palate 3. Amanda has come back from a beach vacation with her parents, and excitedly tells you that she build a "thand castle" on the beach. Amanda has just manifested which type of articulation error? a. addition b. distortion c. coalescence d. substitution

a. dynamic assessment

Among the traditional and alternative assessment approaches, the one that requires the clinician to offer some treatment before making a full diagnosis and test again to make a final decision is known as: a. dynamic assessment b. authentic assessment c. criterion-referenced and client-specific approach d. standardized-test-based assessment

b. Flaccid-spastic dysarthria

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis results in which kind of mixed dysarthria? a. Spastic-ataxic dysarthria b. Flaccid-spastic dysarthria c. Hypokinetic-spastic dysarthria d. Flaccid-ataxic dysarthria

1. C.TBI 2. C.Responding to open-ended questions 3. B.Severity of the stroke

An 81-year-old female presents to a rehabilitation hospital following a severe L MCA stroke. The patient has poststroke right-sided weakness, right neglect, and suspected nonfluent aphasia. Receptive language appears to be mildly impacted. The patient has a complex medical history, including TBI following a car accident two years ago, obesity, diabetes, seizure disorder, congestive heart failure, and hypertension. Socially, the patient has lived alone for the past three years following her husband's death. Since her car accident she mainly watches TV at home and leaves her house only for dialysis. She has meals on wheels and home health aides to assist her with showering. Because of her TBI, her behavior is often variable and erratic. The highest level of education she attained was seventh grade. She stayed home to take care of her children and did not have a career. 1. Which of the following medical conditions, in combination with her stroke, is likely to have the greatest impact on the patient's communication abilities? A.Seizure disorder B.Diabetes C.TBI D.Obesity 2. Which of the following tasks is most appropriate to include when assessing the patient's phrase length? A.Completing divergent naming tasks B.Maintaining a conversation with a known partner C.Responding to open-ended questions D.Repeating sentences of varying lengths 3. Which of the following medical factors should the SLP give the most weight when determining the patient's communication prognosis? A.Frequency of seizures B.Severity of the stroke C.Level of obesity D.Severity of diabetes

1. A.Engaging in spaced retrieval 2. B.Other symbolic dysfunction 3. B.neurologist

An 82-year-old female patient is admitted to a skilled nursing facility following an acute hospital stay. Her diagnoses include urinary tract infection, frequent falls with subsequent hip fracture, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). No surgery was required for the hip fracture. Before admission to the hospital, she was living independently and able to complete all activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) on her own. She is referred to the facility SLP for cognitive screening because she has difficulty carrying over new information, confusion regarding weight-bearing status, and difficulty processing directions. The SLP administers the Montreal Cognitive Assessment, and the patient scores 17/30. The patient's main deficits are in the areas of short-term memory, executive functioning, and planning. After the patient is appropriately treated both medically and therapeutically, cognitive deficits remain and the interdisciplinary team does not recommend that the patient return home independently. The patient's family is frustrated with this recommendation and seeks input from other sources. 1. Which of the following treatment procedures is most appropriate for the patient? A.Engaging in spaced retrieval B.Naming divergent items C.Following specific directions D.Completing word searches 2. Which of the following diagnoses is most appropriate for this patient? A.Cognitive communication deficit B.Other symbolic dysfunction C.Age-related cognitive decline D.Mild cognitive impairment 3. After the patient completes treatment, the most important referral for the SLP to make is to a A.psychiatrist B.neurologist C.gastroenterologist D.gerontologist

d. athetoid

A child who shows slow, writhing, involuntary movements has which type of cerebral palsy? a. spastic b. mixed c. ataxic d. athetoid

C. Head down (chin tuck)

An 84-year-old woman is having difficulties swallowing. She had a stroke 2 months ago and is now being seen as an outpatient. She complains that "food keeps getting stuck in her throat." Her husband mentions that when she swallows a large bolus, she coughs often. He mentions that his wife is very frustrated and cannot eat steaks and other solid foods." He also mentions that she gets very embarrassed when they go out to restaurants to eat dinner because she can only order soups, apple sauce, and other soft foods, as she is afraid of coughing if she eats solid foods. During the study in the radiology department, the clinician mentioned to her student intern that the following technique would result in widening of the vallecula space: A. Thermal stimulation B. Labial exercises C. Head down (chin tuck) D. Head back

C. narrowing of the airway entrance, as well as pushing the epiglottis posteriorly.

An 86-year-old patient has been diagnosed with a delayed swallowing reflex post CVA. The modified barium swallow study indicates that there is pooling in the vallecula until the swallowing reflex has been triggered. The clinician decides to give the patient a mechanical soft bolus and ask her to swallow while putting her head down (chin tuck). This technique will result in A. increasing the change of aspiration. B. narrowing or closure of the vallecula space. C. narrowing of the airway entrance, as well as pushing the epiglottis posteriorly. D. pushing the tongue base forward.

B.The school's kindergarten population differs from the standardization population in the language skills measured.

An SLP administers a language test to all kindergarten children in a particular school and finds that 40 percent fall below the tenth percentile of the normative sample. Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this finding? A.Forty percent of the kindergarten children in the school have language disorders. B.The school's kindergarten population differs from the standardization population in the language skills measured. C.The SLP administered the test incorrectly. D.The standardization population is not representative of the nation as a whole.

B.Displaying inconsistencies in articulation performance D.Speaking with a disrupted rate, rhythm, and stress of speech

An SLP assesses a 3-year-old child with poor intelligibility. The SLP attempts to determine whether the child has a severe phonological disorder or childhood apraxia of speech (CASC A S). Which TWO of the following characteristics are primarily indicative of CASC A S? A.Presenting with decreased strength and muscle coordination B.Displaying inconsistencies in articulation performance C.Making the same errors independent of length of speech utterance D.Speaking with a disrupted rate, rhythm, and stress of speech

A. Regular plural inflection -s

A child with a language delay is in Brown's Stage V of morpheme mastery. Which of the following would not be appropriate to target in intervention? A. Regular plural inflection -s B. Irregular third person C. Contractible auxiliary D. Contractible copula

D.Cohesive devices

A child with discourse problems is most likely to need remediation directed at which of the following? A.Morphology B.An initial lexicon C.Gestural communication D.Cohesive devices

d. impaired word retrieval and comprehension, lack of attention, and memory problems

A child with traumatic brain injury would most likely manifest which of the following? a. a higher familial incidence b. echolalia and obsessive talking c. hypersensitivity to touch, insistence on routines, lack of interest in human voices d. impaired word retrieval and comprehension, lack of attention, and memory problems

d. There is no sufficient evidence to support the use of a direct intervention approach over an indirect intervention approach

An SLP can use a direct intervention approach or an indirect intervention approach in providing fluency treatment for a preschool child who stutters. Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the current evidence regarding the effectiveness of these two approaches to fluency treatment for children younger than 5? a. Evidence clearly indicates more favorable outcomes using direct intervention b. Evidence clearly indicates more favorable outcomes using indirect intervention c. Evidence clearly supports using a combination of direct and indirect interventions with the same child d. There is no sufficient evidence to support the use of a direct intervention approach over an indirect intervention approach

C.Maximal-oppositions approach

An SLP designs a series of treatment activities for Jake, a 4 year old who presents with severely delayed phonological development. During one of the activities, the SLP asks Jake to say various word pairs in which two phonologically dissimilar target sounds are contrasted (for example, "chip" and "rip"). Which of the following choices best describes the treatment approach that is being used? A.Multiple-oppositions approach B.Minimal-pairs approach C.Maximal-oppositions approach D.Metaphonological approach

b. Reliability of the scores

An SLP determines the MLU of a language sample from a 3 year old child. Two weeks later, the SLP reevaluates the same sample and again determines the MLU. The extent to which the two scores are similar is most directly a function of the a. Validity of the scores b. Reliability of the scores c. Skewness of the score distribution d. Speededness of the measure

d. Shook

An SLP has targeted the phonological processes of stopping on initial fricatives for remediation and is using the word "shoes" to establish a new behavior. The SLP now wishes to investigate whether the speaker can generalize the newly learned pattern to untrained words. If it is assumed that generalization will occur on words whose phonetic characteristics are most like the trained word "shoes", which of the following words should be selected? a. Shouting b. Fished c. Ocean d. Shook

c. Offers general information of an educational nature by correspondence

An SLP is behaving ethically if he or she does which of the following? a. Offers to provide speech or language services solely by correspondence for an individual whose disability prevents easy access to the professional's office b. Diagnoses a speech disorder solely through correspondence as long as the correspondence is thorough and careful c. Offers general information of an educational nature by correspondence d. Indicates the specific duration of the therapeutic program

d. Delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal pair contrasts

An SLP is planning treatment for a 5-year old child with multiple speech production errors. The most effective strategy the clinician can use to treat the child is to: a. Arrange error patterns by developmental pattern and correct them sound by sound b. Start with sounds the child can make and use them as bridges to error sounds c. Teach sound in isolation, then use nonsense syllables, and then build to words d. Delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal pair contrasts

D.delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs

An SLP is planning treatment for a 5-year-old child with multiple speech-production errors. The most effective strategy the clinician can use to treat the child is to A.arrange error sounds by developmental pattern and correct them sound by sound B.start with sounds the child can make and use them as bridges to error sounds C.teach sounds in isolation, then use nonsense syllables, and then build to words D.delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs

a. John, who has a brain injury resulting in a slight concussion

An SLP is providing services to adults with neurogenic disorders of communication. Which of the following clients will likely have the most favorable management prognosis? a. John, who has a brain injury resulting in a slight concussion b. Jim, who has a traumatic brain injury resulting in paralysis c. Juan, who as ALS d. Helen who has Huntington's chorea

A.the use of pretend play, such as brushing a doll's hair or feeding a doll with a bottle

An SLP is working with a 30-month-old child who is at the one-word production level. The goal of treatment is to facilitate growth in play as a precursor to the acquisition of two-word semantic relationships. To achieve the goal, the SLP can best begin by facilitating A.the use of pretend play, such as brushing a doll's hair or feeding a doll with a bottle B.the purposeful exploration of toys C.exploration, by mouthing of toys D.mean-end behaviors, such as pulling a string to get a toy

D.Continuous-ratio schedule followed by fixed-ratio schedule

An SLP plans to give Cody, an 8-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder, tangible reinforcement in conjunction with the use of manual signs during an object labeling task. At first, reinforcement will be presented every time Cody produces a sign correctly. After several sessions, however, reinforcement will be given after every third instance of correct labeling. Which of the following choices best describes the SLP's reinforcement schedule? A.Fixed-ratio schedule followed by variable-ratio schedule B.Fixed-ratio schedule followed by continuous schedule C.Continuous-ratio schedule followed by fixed-interval schedule D.Continuous-ratio schedule followed by fixed-ratio schedule

A.try anagramming the words using letter tiles to form the target word

An SLP provides home practice for a patient with aphasia as part of discharge plans. The patient is approximately six-months post left-hemisphere stroke that resulted in aphasia. Verbal output has improved significantly since the stroke; however, the patient is still very concerned that written expression is moderately impaired at the single-word level. The homework assignment is to implement copy-and-recall treatment to improve written expression, which involves practicing writing target words (from photographs) and then copying those words multiple times. However, during a follow-up phone call, the SLP determines that the patient is struggling to write the assigned target words because the patient "can't think of the correct letters." Although a model is provided on the back of each target photograph, the patient wants to find a way to practice without looking at the answer. The SLP's best course of action is to suggest that the patient A.try anagramming the words using letter tiles to form the target word B.practice writing the alphabet in order multiple times before beginning the homework again C.use a cell phone voice-to-text application as a compensatory strategy D.use drawing to convey messages instead of using written expression

A.Training in speech reading

An SLP receives a referral from an audiologist for a 72-year-old woman who demonstrates a moderate to severe bilateral sensorineural hearing loss preventing her from participating in social activities. Which of the following best identifies the SLP's role? A.Training in speech reading B.Prescribing hearing aids C.Performing an auditory evaluation D.Using auditory integration training

B.Sea

An SLP tries to elicit correct production of the target sound /s/forward slash s forward slash. Which of the following words provides the best coarticulatory conditions to meet the SLP's goal? A.Spoon B.Sea C.Sob D.Soup

A.Acculturation

An SLP uses evidence-based practice by integrating the perspectives and values of the client, patient, or caregivers into the treatment plan. Which of the following best reflects simultaneous incorporation of the host culture's perspectives and values and maintenance of the native culture's perspectives and values? A.Acculturation B.Assimilation C.Enculturation D.Ethnocentrism

a. there is low interjudge reliability

An SLP who has been working on improving speech intelligibility of non-native speakers of English wanted to collect objective evidence that his client's speech intelligibility was improving. She recruits four speech-language pathology graduate students at the local university to watch "before-and-after" videos of his accent clients and independently rate each client's speech intelligibility. He finds that for the same client, the intelligibility ratings varied from a 30% to 60% across the four students. In this situation, one can say that: a. there is low interjudge reliability b. there is high interjudge reliability c. there is low intrajudge reliability d. there is high intrajudge reliability

A.Life Participation Approach to Aphasia (LPAA)

An SLP working with a 45-year-old patient with acquired expressive communication deficits is emphasizing reengagement by focusing on realistic short-term goals of the patient's choice. The SLP is primarily using which of the following approaches to therapy? A.Life Participation Approach to Aphasia (LPAA) B.Visual Action Therapy (VAT) C.Supported Communication Intervention (SCI) D.Prompts for Reconstructing Oral Muscular Phonetic Targets (PROMPT)

A.Showing congruence

An SLP works with a patient who has severe dysphagia. The patient is on a pureed diet and honey-thick liquids. During treatment, the patient becomes tearful and expresses frustration. The patient says, "I feel like I'm not making any progress and I'm never going to eat normal food again. I hate this diet, and I hate doing therapy. I just want to give up." The SLP responds by saying, "What you're feeling is normal, and I understand. You're doing everything you can right now to get better, and giving up isn't the answer." The SLP reaches across the table and places a comforting hand on the patient's arm and has a caring facial expression. Which of the following principles of counseling is the SLP primarily demonstrating? A.Showing congruence B.Having unconditional positive regard C.Offering the patient sympathy D.Providing emotional support

B.A dietitian, for nutrition management

An elderly patient with multiple diagnoses including Parkinson's disease (PD) presents to a home health SLP for treatment. The SLP recommends that the patient follow a mechanical soft diet with thin liquids, alternate bites and sips, take small bites, and have supervision when eating. Throughout the course of treatment, the patient exhibits a 12 percent weight loss with variable intake levels. To which of the following professionals is it most appropriate for the SLP to refer the patient? A.A gastroenterologist, for possible feeding tube placement B.A dietitian, for nutrition management C.An ENTE N T specialist, for possible esophageal deficits D.A neurologist, for assessment of progression of PD

c. single-subject design

An experimental design involving only a few participants and focusing on individual performance would be called a: a. case study design b. ex post facto design c. single-subject design d. single correlational design

b. diencephalon

An important structure adjacent to the brainstem that contains the hypothalamus (which controls emotions) and the thalamus (which relays sensory impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex is called the a. mesencephalon b. diencephalon c. superior cerebellar peduncle d. postcentral gyrus

A. Hypothalamus

An individual who sustained a traumatic brain injury, presented with articulatory and phonological deficits. In this case, the injury was probably sustained in all of the following, except: A. Hypothalamus B. Cerebellum C. Peripheral nerves D. Brainstem

c. eustachian tube dysfunction

An infant with cleft palate will most likely have hearing problems because of: a. aural atresia b. an incompletely formed cochlea c. eustachian tube dysfunction d. malformed ossicles

c. Child's responses are essentially random

An intervention to improve receptive vocabulary involves a computer program that presents 3 pictures on the screen and requests that the child point to the picture that the computer indicates via digitized speech. The child's intervention goal is 80 percent correct responding A response rate of 30 percent correct most likely indicates that the a. Software has been moderately effective in helping the child reach his goal b. Child's visual discrimination surpsasses his auditory discrimination c. Child's responses are essentially random d. Child is ready to process to an on screen array of 4 pictures

D. The amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter when the siblings increase their rate of speech

An investigator carries out a study in which the effect of rate of speech upon stuttering during sibling interaction is being investigated. The investigator gathers conversational samples from children who stutter and their siblings. In the control group, siblings are asked to speak as they normally would at home. In the experimental group, siblings are asked to speak much more quickly than they would at home. The investigator wishes to measure the effect of rate of siblings' speech upon the amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter. In other words, the investigator is asking if increased rate of siblings' speech causes children to stutter more. In this study, what is the dependent variable? A. The amount of stuttering done by children who stutter when siblings speak at a slowed rate B. The rate of speech of the siblings in the experimental group C. The rate of speech of the siblings in the control group D. The amount of stuttering done by the children who stutter when the siblings increase their rate of speech

A. Rates of stuttering in the children in both groups

An investigator carries out a study to answer the question of whether an increased rate of sibling speech causes an increase in the frequency of stuttering in children. After pretesting rates of stuttering in selected children and the speech rate of their siblings, the investigator tells the siblings in the control group to speak as they normally would at home. She tells the siblings in the experimental group to speak much more rapidly than they would at home. In this study, what is the dependent variable? A. Rates of stuttering in the children in both groups B. The rate of speech of the siblings in the experimental group C. The rate of speech of the siblings in the control group D. The combined amount of stuttering by the children in both the experimental and the control groups

a. a group of design with four groups

An investigator is interested in evaluating the relative effects of three treatments on the production of grammatical morphemes in children with autism spectrum. The investigator also wishes to see if each treatment is effective in its own right. The most appropriate experimental design for this study is: a. a group of design with four groups b. a pretest-posttest control group design c. multiple baseline design across subjects d. an ABAB design

B. Beginning stuttering

Ana is a 4-year-old preschooler who displays rapid and irregular repetitions when communicating with her peers and teachers. She appears to be aware of her disfluencies and expresses frustration when her friends do not understand her. She occasionally blinks during a moment of disfluency, which seems to help her escape disfluent speech. What developmental level of stuttering is Ana exhibiting? A. Borderline stuttering B. Beginning stuttering C. Intermediate stuttering D. Normal disfluency

D. Behavior disorder

Anjali, a 7-year-old, was referred for speech therapy by her classroom teacher. Anjali uses inappropriate behaviors such as loud screaming or physical violence when presented with a problem and has difficulty understanding idioms. When a confrontation with another student arises, she is unable to explain actions or feelings to the teacher. Which of the following best describes Anjali's diagnosis? A. Hearing loss B. Expressive aphasia C. Autism D. Behavior disorder

B. Brainstem

Anthony, a 40-year-old, has been diagnosed with Wallenberg syndrome after suffering from a cerebral vascular accident. Based on the diagnosis, you should expect Anthony to have damage to which part of his brain? A. Frontal lobe B. Brainstem C. Temporal lobe D. Cerebellum

D. Vascular lesions

Apraxia of speech (AOS) can be caused by any process that damages structures involved in motor speech programming. Which of the following etiologies is the most common cause of AOS? A. Degenerative diseases B. Traumatic injury C. Left hemisphere tumor D. Vascular lesions

B.Concurrent validity

As part of a study, the speech of several subjects with Wilson's disease is evaluated using an acoustic analysis system. The same subjects are assessed again, but with a different system from another manufacturer. Which of the following can be assessed by comparing the two data sets? A.Content validity B.Concurrent validity C.Test-retest reliability D.Interjudge reliability

b. Landua-Kleffner syndrome

As part of your job in a public-school district, you serve preschools. You get an urgent call from a parent at one of the schools. She states that her daughter Michelle (age 4), who previously has typical language skills, has suddenly "lost her words," and is having seizures. She shares that they have an appointment with Michelle's pediatrician to find out more about what is happening. You support this decision, especially because you suspect that Michelle has: a. Williams syndrome b. Landua-Kleffner syndrome c. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Pierre-Robin syndrome

A. 18-24 months

At what age should a typically developing child be able to understand and use agent-action relationships? A. 18-24 months B. 24-48 months C. 48-64 months D. After 64 months

B. Happy

Attachment is a close, nurturing, long-term relationship that develops between the caregiver and infant. Interaction between caregiver and infant strengthens this attachment. When speaking to the caregiver before therapy, it is important to establish the infant vocalizations and Motherese between the caregiver and the infant. All of the following are examples of basic cries except: A. Hunger B. Happy C. Pain D. Anger

b. Austin is using supplementary gestures.

Austin is a 24-month-old toddler who is utilizing gestures to provide additional meaning to his utterances. For example, he will point to the back door while saying, "go!". Which of the following is true regarding Austin's use of gestures? a. Austin's use of gestures does not predict his use of multi-word utterances. b. Austin is using supplementary gestures. c. Austin's caregivers should ignore his gestures and reinforce spoken words. d. Austin is using complementary gestures.

B. Subdural hemorrhage

Barry, a 42-year-old male, slips on ice and hits his head on a concrete sidewalk. He does not lose consciousness but has some swelling and a small laceration at the back of his head. He appears to be fine and has been moving around. Later, he complains of a severe headache and takes some aspirin. Forty-five minutes after taking the aspirin, he still has a headache and is feeling nauseous. Shortly after this he vomits and is complaining of a stiff neck. What neurologic event might explain Barry's symptoms? A. Epidural hemorrhage B. Subdural hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Intracerebral hemorrhage

a. help establish the initial (natural) level of clients' behaviors

Baselines: a. help establish the initial (natural) level of clients' behaviors b. help measure responses that are generalized to natural settings c. may replace probes d. are not necessary for EBP

c. a seemingly excellent vocab; seemingly normal syntactic skills; and speech that often seems to be a "monologue," in which Justin does not allow his conversational partner to take turns

Because of his diagnosis of Asperger's syndrome, you can assume that Justin will probably have characteristics, such as: a. generally below-average intelligence (IQ 70 or below), a lack of responsiveness to and awareness of other people, and stereotypical body movements, such as constant rocking b. a preference for solitude and objects rather than people, a lack of interest in nonverbal and verbal communication, tantrums, head banging, and insistence on routines c. a seemingly excellent vocab; seemingly normal syntactic skills; and speech that often seems to be a "monologue," in which Justin does not allow his conversational partner to take turns d. an IQ of 70 or below, speech characterized by monologues, and head banging

C. Cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve

Before a surgeon performs a Type V total glossectomy, she mentions to the speech-language pathology that all of the mobile tongue including the base of the tongue will be transected at the level of the valleculae. She also informs the clinician that the _______ nerve will be transected. A. Cranial nerve X, vagus nerve B. Cranial nerve IX, glossopharyngeal nerve C. Cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve D. Cranial nerve VII, facial nerve

A. Getting Billy to respond to sound, touch, or smell

Billy is a 16-year-old who recently suffered a traumatic brain injury as a result of a car accident. Billy remained in a coma for several days, and recently became minimally alert. During the early stages of treatment, the speech-language pathologist should focus on: A. Getting Billy to respond to sound, touch, or smell B. Helping Billy understand what day it is C. Finding ways to improve Billy's memory D. Working on Billy's social skills

c. developmental scale

Blake, a speech language pathologist, is creating his assessment plan for a pediatric evaluation he has later this week. Which of the following is an example of a formal measure used during assessment? a. language sample b. criterion referenced test c. developmental scale d. behavioral observation

B. Speaks in longer, complex sentences

Brady is a 3-year-old whose mother is concerned about his language development. She reaches out to a speech-language pathologist to obtain information about normal language development. Based on normal language development in children, which of the following features is typical of a child who is 3 years old? A. Not easily understood by strangers B. Speaks in longer, complex sentences C. Put two words together to form a short sentence D. Uses jargon when speaking to adults

B. Controlled-situation communicator

Brandon, a 72-year-old client with aphasia, can indicate his needs by pointing to items and objects. He does not initiate communication and requires extra support in routine conversation. What type of communicator will he be considered? A. Augmented-input communicator B. Controlled-situation communicator C. Comprehensive communicator D. Basic-choice communicator

D. Provide intervention for the student, because this is a sign of an articulatory-phonological disorder involving substitutions of nasals with other sounds.

A classroom teacher refers a 10-year-old African American male student to you because she is concerned about his intelligibility. This teacher is anxious to avoid the mistake of mislabeling the student as having a "speech disorder" if he is merely manifesting characteristics of AAE. When you screen the boy, you find that he makes the following substitutions: d/m, f/n, and m/n. A. Provide therapy for the student because, even though these are typical patterns for speakers of AAE, the boy needs to learn Standard American English articulation patterns. B. Do nothing, knowing that boys mature slower than girls do. C. Do nothing, realizing that this is typical for speakers of African American English. D. Provide intervention for the student, because this is a sign of an articulatory-phonological disorder involving substitutions of nasals with other sounds.

A. Spastic

A client is being instructed by a clinician to use breathy onsets when speaking during a therapy session. This is an appropriate phonation approach specific to what type of dysarthria? A. Spastic B. Hypokinetic C. Ataxic D. Unilateral upper motor neuron

b. one of the experimental designs

A clinical researcher, who has been using Van Riper's fluent stuttering approach to treating stuttering in adults, realizes that its effectiveness is unknown. He plans to design a study to find out if the method is effective. To make a valid conclusion, the researcher must use: a. the survey method in which he would seek the opinions of other clinicians who use the method b. one of the experimental designs c. the case study method d. the retrospective research method

b. 75% of the children in the LAT's normative sample did better than Brett

A clinician administers the Language Achievement Test (LAT) to Brett, who is described as "low" in oral and written language skills. On LAT, Brett's overall score falls in the 25th percentile rank. This means that: a. out of 100 children, 75 did better than Brett on the LAT and 25 children did worse b. 75% of the children in the LAT's normative sample did better than Brett c. of children in the LAT's normative sample performed about the same as Brett did, but they scored 2-3 points higher on the test overall d. Brett scored about the same as 75% of fifth grades in the LAT'S normative sample

C. Time sampling measures

A clinician is measuring communicative behaviors in a child with a cleft palate. The clinician measures the time intervals during which the speech behaviors selected for observation occurred. What are the methods of measurement called? A. Latency measures B. Self-report measures C. Time sampling measures D. Covert measures

A. disorders of the esophageal phase of swallow.

A clinician who works in a skilled nursing facility has been referred a patient with swallowing disorders. The referring physician states that the patient has a weak cricopharyngeus, causing difficulties in passing the bolus through the cricopharyngeus muscle and past the 7th cervical vertebra. Most likely this patient has A. disorders of the esophageal phase of swallow. B. difficulties in propelling the bolus through the pharynx and into the P-E segment. C. difficulty in forming and holding the bolus, accompanied by slippage of food into the lateral sulcus. D. food residue in the vallecula, on top of the airway, and in the pyriform sinuses.

b. differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior

A clinician working a 3 yr old girl, Josie, who has a severe speech sound disorder, found the child very uncooperative. She hid under the table, threw therapy materials, and cried. Ignoring the behaviors and admonishing her to sit quietly did not work. The clinician then began to praise Josie for sitting quietly for one minute and naming pictures; she also gave Josie a sticker for being a "good girl" during the preceding one minute. In gradual steps, the clinician extended the duration between verbal praise and presentation of stickers and eventually praised Josie only occasionally. The clinician has just used a procedure known as: a. corrective feedback b. differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior c. time-out d. extinction

b. submucous or occult cleft palate

A condition in which the surface tissues of the soft or hard palate fuse but the underlying muscle or bone tissues do not is called: a. fusion disorder b. submucous or occult cleft palate c. class II palatal cleft d. submucosal cleft class IV

A. Multiple system atrophy

Carla is a 50-year-old mother of three who just started attending therapy sessions at an outpatient rehabilitation center. When looking at her medical history, the speech-language pathologist notices that Carla has been experiencing moments of incoordination and complications with her autonomic nervous system, specifically blood pressure. In addition, she experiences stiffness throughout her body. Carla's symptoms are progressing rapidly, and she has not been responding to common Parkinson's disease medications. Based on this information, what is Carla's diagnosis most likely to be? A. Multiple system atrophy B. Drug-induced Parkinsonism C. Corticobasal syndrome D. Dementia with Lewy bodies

C. An associate's degree from a technical training program with course of study directed in speech-language pathology along with fieldwork and on-the-job training

Certified speech-language pathologists are involved in hiring speech-language pathology assistants. What are the minimum proper training requirements for speech-language pathology support personnel as recommended by ASHA? A. Completion of a speech-language pathology training program with integrated fieldwork and on-the-job training B. A bachelor's degree from a 4-year institution with the course of study directed in speech-language pathology along with fieldwork and on-the-job training C. An associate's degree from a technical training program with course of study directed in speech-language pathology along with fieldwork and on-the-job training D. A bachelor's degree from a 4-year institution with at least 20 semester credit hours at the graduate level along with fieldwork and on-the-job training

B.take the perspective of the communication partner

Children with semantic-pragmatic language disorders often have difficulty learning deictic words because such terms A.require an understanding of indirect directives B.take the perspective of the communication partner C.refer to object permanence D.have many alternate forms

D. Contrastive phoneme utilities have not been realized if two or more phonemes are characterized by the same production.

Choose the statement that correctly describes an aspect of a client with a phonological disorder that pertains to phonemic contrasts. A. Meaning distinguishing contrasts have been established. B. The accurate production of sounds is emphasized. C. The contrastive use of phonemes is realized. D. Contrastive phoneme utilities have not been realized if two or more phonemes are characterized by the same production.

a. During the first six to eight weeks of pregnancy (During the first six to eight weeks of pregnancy, the shape of the embryo's head is formed. Five primitive tissue lobes grow: a) one from the top of the head down towards the future upper lip; b-c) two from the cheeks, which meet the first lobe to form the upper lip; d-e) and just below, two additional lobes grow from each side, which form the chin and lower lip. If these tissues fail to meet, a gap appears where the tissues should have joined (fused). This may happen in any single joining site, or simultaneously in several or all of them. The resulting birth defect reflects the locations and severity of individual fusion failures (e.g., from a small lip or palate fissure up to a completely deformed face).)

Cleft palate is a birth defect which occurs during what part of development of the embryo? a. During the first six to eight weeks of pregnancy. b. During weeks 12 to 16 of pregnancy. c. During the last trimester of pregnancy. d. No one knows for sure.

d. During the first six to eight weeks of pregnancy.

Cleft palate is a birth defect which occurs during what part of development of the embryo? a. During weeks 12 to 16 of pregnancy. b. No one knows for sure. c. During the last trimester of pregnancy. d. During the first six to eight weeks of pregnancy.

A.Self-evaluation

Clinician:"What do you have there?" Child:"I had a big bus." Clinician:"Is that right?" Child:"Uh, I have a big bus." Clinician:"Now, is that right?" Child:"Yeah." What language-stimulation technique is the clinician using in the above exchange? A.Self-evaluation B.Rephrasing C.Reauditorization D.Parallel talking

d. The first six months (Recovery from cognitive deficits is most dramatic within the first six months after TBI, and less apparent after this time frame. Long-term survivors of TBI may suffer from persistent problems with behavior, thinking, and communication disabilities, as well as epilepsy; loss of sensation, hearing, vision, taste, or smell; tinnitus, coordination problems, and/or paralysis.)

Cognitive deficits are sometimes associated with traumatic brain injury. Recovery from cognitive deficits is most dramatic within what time frame after the TBI? a. The first year. b. The first eighteen months. c. There is no recovery from cognitive deficits since the damage is irreversible. d. The first six months.

C.Supraglottic swallow maneuver

Compensatory swallowing maneuvers and interventions are designed to mitigate a biomechanical impairment during the swallow; however, some of them have unintended consequences that have been documented in scientific literature. Which of the following swallow maneuvers has been found to produce cardiac arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat) in patients with stroke or cardiovascular diseases? A.Mendelsohn maneuver B.Chin-down posture C.Supraglottic swallow maneuver D.Head rotation toward the weak side

b. in the region between Broca's area and Wernicke's area, especially in the supramarginal gyrus and the arcuate fasciculus

Conduction aphasia is caused by lesions: a. in the areas supplied by the MCA and the anterior and posterior arteries b. in the region between Broca's area and Wernicke's area, especially in the supramarginal gyrus and the arcuate fasciculus c. in Brodmann's areas 44 and 45 in the posterior-inferior gyrus of the left hemisphere d. in the angular gyrus, the second temporal gyrus, and the juncture of the temporoparietal lobe

C. Tympanic membrane

Congenital myopathies and muscular dystrophy can affect all of the following except: A. Respiration B. Feeding development C. Tympanic membrane D. Swallowing

c. v/f substitutions in word-initial and word-final positions (vine/fine, roove/roof)

Consuelo is a Mexican America, Spanish-speaking, 6 yr old first grader, who is in the process of learning English. Her parents emigrated from Mexico 3 yrs ago; thus, she was exposed first to Spanish at home and to English in kindergarten at the age of 5 yrs 3 months. Consuelo's mother tells you that during the summer before kindergarten, Consuelo attended an English-speaking preschool. The first-grade classroom teacher shares that she thinks Consuelo may have a speech sound disorder but is not sure. The teacher provides you with some examples of things Consuelo has said in the past few weeks. Some of these examples are due to interference or transfer from Spanish. As you look at the examples, which one of the following would NOT be based on interference from Spanish and thus atypical for her in terms of predictable productions based on Spanish influence? a. t/th substitutions in word-initial positions (tin/thin) b. devoicing of final consonants (beece, bees) c. v/f substitutions in word-initial and word-final positions (vine/fine, roove/roof) d. j/dg substitutions (yava/java)

D. psychogenic problems

Contact ulcers may be caused by all of the following except: A. chronic throat clearing B. hard-glottal attack C. intubation D. psychogenic problems

D. 90-100% intelligible

A father brings his 4-year-old daughter, Danielle, to you. He is concerned because her peers in preschool make fun of her speech. The pediatrician told him that she will probably outgrow a speech problem spontaneously, and indicated that Danielle's father "shouldn't worry about it till she's in first grade." Danielle has normal receptive language and enjoys conversing with others. You share with Danielle's father that a 4-year-old child should be: A. 60-70% intelligible B. 70-80% intelligible C. 80-90% intelligible D. 90-100% intelligible

b. aural/oral method

A father comes to you regarding his daughter, who is 8 months old. When the baby was 4 months old, he and his wife noticed that she did not respond to noise. Even when the dog barked loudly or the TV was turned up, the baby did not respond. They took her to an audiologist and found out that the baby had a bilateral hearing loss and that she was profoundly deaf. The father states that he wishes for his daughter, as she grows older, to "fit in with children with normal hearing." He is interested in any possible amplification and says that he wants his daughter to lead a life that is "as normal as possible." Which training approach would best fit this father's wishes? a. Total communication b. aural/oral method c. manual approach d. Rochester method

C. ataxia

Damage to the cerebellum may cause a movement disorder called: A. athetosis B. flaccidity C. ataxia D. all of the above

b. frontotemporal dementia

Dementia associated with Pick's disease is part of: a. Alzheimer's dementia b. frontotemporal dementia c. semantic variant of primary progressive aphasia d. the nonfluent variant of the primary progressive aphasia

c. neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques

Dementia of the Alzheimer's type is caused by: a. thiamine deficiency b. pathological changes of the corpus callosum c. neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques d. deterioration of neurons in the brainstem

D. Transcortical sensory aphasia patients have fluent speech, normal prosody, and good articulation, whereas transcortical motor aphasia patients have nonfluent, paraphasic, and agrammatic speech.

Different aphasia types share common features of communication impairments. Therefore, a clinician who is interested in making a typological diagnosis needs to fully understand the unique features of each type. Among the following statements, which correctly helps distinguish the two types contrasted? A. Auditory comprehension in patients with conduction aphasia is poor, whereas it is excellent in patients with transcortical sensory aphasia. B. Mixed transcortical is the most severe form of aphasia, whereas global aphasia affects only word output. C. Grammatical structures are impaired in patients with Wernicke's aphasia, whereas they are intact in patients with Broca's aphasia. D. Transcortical sensory aphasia patients have fluent speech, normal prosody, and good articulation, whereas transcortical motor aphasia patients have nonfluent, paraphasic, and agrammatic speech.

C. basal ganglia

Disorders of the _______________ result in rigidity, jerky and purposeless movements (chorea), and slow writhing, snakelike movements (athetosis): A. thalamus B. corpus collosum C. basal ganglia D. medulla

B.Modified barium swallow study

During a clinical swallow assessment by an SLP, a patient was noted to have the following symptoms. An immediate cough after swallowing thin liquids Prolonged mastication with regular-consistency foods No coughing when fed thickened liquids Postswallow residue Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate for the patient in this situation? A.Neuromuscular electrical stimulation B.Modified barium swallow study C.High-resolution pharyngeal manometry D.Cervical auscultation of swallowing

B.Autism spectrum disorder

During an evaluation, a 2½‑year‑old boy exhibits a lack of social reciprocity, an averted eye gaze, and repetitive motor mannerisms. The child's behavior is most typical of which of the following? A.Social‑pragmatic disorder B.Autism spectrum disorder C.Generalized developmental delay D.Rett syndrome

B.CN VII

During an examination of his oral mechanism, an adult male is asked to pucker his lips and then to spread them into a wide smile. This ability depends on the bilateral integrity of which of the following cranial nerves? A.CN V B.CN VII C.CN IX D.CN XII

B.The patient exhibits unilateral left lingual weakness.

During an examination of the oral peripheral mechanism of an adult who has had a right hemisphere stroke in the territory of the middle cerebral artery, testing for lingual motor function reveals protrusion of the tongue to the left of midline. Which of the following is true? A.The patient has a lesion affecting the left hypoglossal nucleus. B.The patient exhibits unilateral left lingual weakness. C.Left vocal fold paralysis should be expected because of the site of the lesion. D.The right hypoglossal nerve is damaged.

c. CN VII

During an oral motor exam, you notice flattened nasolabial folds. Which of the following cranial nerves (CN) is most likely damaged? a. CN VIII b. CN XII c. CN VII d. CN X

A. Elasticity and inertia

During vocal fold vibration, what are the two forces needed for vibration? A. Elasticity and inertia B. Elasticity and energy C. Inertia and power D. Power and energy

B.flaccid dysarthria

Dysarthria in a patient with lower motor neuron damage generally manifests as A.spastic dysarthria B.flaccid dysarthria C.ataxic dysarthria D.hyperkinetic dysarthria

d. a speech disorder associated with muscle weakness or paralysis

Dysarthria is: a. a speech disorder in the absence of muscle weakness or paralysis b. a speech disorder never associated with aphasia c. a single disorder with a unitary etiology d. a speech disorder associated with muscle weakness or paralysis

b. Every Student Succeeds Act

ESSA stands for: a. Elementary Student Success Act b. Every Student Succeeds Act c. English Speaking Student Act d. English Studies Success Act

B. Mendelsohn maneuver

Ellen, an 80-year-old patient, was being seen for swallowing problems. She presents with minimal arousal and is unable to follow simple one-step commands to complete an oral mechanism examination. The clinician initiates ice chip trials as a part of the evaluation and notes oral acceptance and manipulation that is within normal limits; however, no pharyngeal swallow is noted as per palpation. The clinician, therefore, decides to trial exercises that stimulate the swallow reflex and determine Ellen's stimulability for trials. The following exercises are designed to stimulate the swallow reflex, except: A. Thermal stimulation B. Mendelsohn maneuver C. Practicing liquid swallow after stimulation D. Asking the patient to swallow after stimulation without food

D.depend on adequate vibration of the pharyngoesophageal (P EP E) segment

Esophageal and tracheoesophageal (TEPT E P) techniques for producing alaryngeal voice are similar in that both A.redirect expiratory airflow from the lungs to the esophagus B.result in a vocal fundamental frequency similar to that of laryngeal phonation C.require the speaker to occlude the stoma with either a thumb or a valve D.depend on adequate vibration of the pharyngoesophageal (P EP E) segment

b. Interjudge reliability

Establishment of which of the following is most important in ensuring that the results of any diagnostic test of speech and language are replicable? a. Content validity b. Interjudge reliability c. Split-half reliability d. Face validity

C. quivering of the nostrils

Examples of secondary stuttering include: A. whispering B. part-word repetitions C. quivering of the nostrils D. all of the above

A.It will likely foster better communication with Fela's linguistically and culturally diverse peers. B.It will likely improve Fela's code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE. C.It may expand Fela's later academic and vocational opportunities.

Fela is a third-grade student in a public school. She is a speaker of African American Vernacular English (AAVE) who has difficulty with the Standard American English (SAE) dialect used in her classroom. Her teacher believes that Fela's language skills are affecting her academic performance and has referred her to the school's speech-language pathologist. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for providing language intervention for Fela? Select all that apply. A.It will likely foster better communication with Fela's linguistically and culturally diverse peers. B.It will likely improve Fela's code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE. C.It may expand Fela's later academic and vocational opportunities. D.It will likely lead Fela to adopt SAE as her primary dialect.

B.Fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES)

For a patient with potential pharyngeal phase dysphagia and pooling of secretions following open-heart surgery with suspected recurrent laryngeal nerve damage, which of the following instrumental examinations for swallowing provides the most direct view for evaluating the patient based on history and suspected difficulties? A.Upper gastrointestinal (GIG I) series B.Fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES) C.Videofluoroscopic swallowing study (VFSS) D.Videostroboscopic examination of vocal folds

C.stop

For a patient's use of consonant cluster reduction, the SLPS L P would most appropriately recommend intervention, including words such as A.knight B.laugh C.stop D.wish

D.agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number

For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiring A.use of the auxiliary verb "be" in the present progressive tense B.use of the past-tense ending "-ed" C.use of sentences with multiple negation D.agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number

d. Agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number

For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiring a. Use of auxiliary verb "be" in the present progressive tense b. Use of the past-tense ending -ed c. Use of sentences with multiple negation d. Agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number

b. is used differently in different cultures

Gesture in communication: a. is universally recognized b. is used differently in different cultures c. involves use of the hands only d. is used for emphasis e. is used only by young children

D. "Why doggy bark?"

Halliday described seven functions of communicative intent that develop at between 9 and 18 months of age. Which of the following is an example of the heuristic function? A. "More." (said by a child with an empty juice glass) B. "I want cookie." C. "Grandpa white car." D. "Why doggy bark?"

C. spirometry

Hilda Sorenson, a 28-year old college student is having difficulties with breathing. She complains of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. The physician recommends ____________ which is a pulmonary function test that measures how much air she can breathe in and out of the lungs. The physician mentions to Hilda that the test also measures how fast and easily she is able to blow air out of the lungs. A. bronchoscopy B. pulse oximetry C. spirometry D. bronchoprovocation

d. 8

How many areas are likely to be included in speech/language screening? a. 6 b. 4 c. 5 d. 8

C.30 contact hours

How many continuing education hours are required across a three-year certification renewal period to maintain a Certificate of Clinical Competence in Speech-Language Pathology? A.10 contact hours B.20 contact hours C.30 contact hours D.40 contact hours

a. Might include brief history, specific parent concerns. Will include articulation, phonology,language, fluency, voice and perhaps hearing.

How might a speech/language screening be conducted and recorded? a. Might include brief history, specific parent concerns. Will include articulation, phonology,language, fluency, voice and perhaps hearing. b. We may use pass/fail to record or write brief summary. c. Delay screenings until first gradeAccept parent report of child's ability d. Do complete evaluation immediately if student fails a screen

c. split-half reliability

If a test is being evaluated to see whether responses to the items on the first half of the test correlate with responses to the items on the second half, then that test is being evaluated for: a. test-retest reliability b. interjudge reliability c. split-half reliability d. parallel form reliability

d. the test scores are consistent with theoretical concepts

If this test has adequate construct validity, then: a. several judges have agreed that the test has been constructed appropriately and measures what it purports to measure b. the test items are relevant to measuring what the test purports to measure c. the test accurately predicts future performance on a related task d. the test scores are consistent with theoretical concepts

D. Marginally incorporated immigrants are those who are only in the U.S. temporarily and plan to return to their countries of origin.

Immigrants who come to the U.S. can show several patterns of adjustment to U.S. culture. Which one of the following is FALSE? A. Acculturation refers to the process by which immigrants assume American cultural attributes (e.g., cultural norms and values). B. Assimilation is the process of immigrants' incorporation into the cultural and social networks of the host society. C. Immigrants who are bicultural are fully involved in both their own and the host cultures. They are comfortable going back and forth between the two cultures. D. Marginally incorporated immigrants are those who are only in the U.S. temporarily and plan to return to their countries of origin.

D. Integrated goal

In a university clinic, a clinician is working with an adult client. She would like the client to use an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) device to prepare a letter to a person of the client's choice while correctly using of various types of verbs. What type of goal is this an example of? A. Long-term goal B. Unrealistic goal C. Isolated goal D. Integrated goal

a. I been had a marble collection when I was 7

In an adolescent speaker of AAE, which of the following utterances would be an example of the perfective construction, with "been" used to indicate an action that took place in the distant past? a. I been had a marble collection when I was 7 b. Our family been gonna do it c. i might been coulda done it d. He been done it again

c. tensor veli palatini muscle

In infants and children with cleft palates, Eustachian tube dysfunction is probably mostly related to the lack of contraction of the: a. levator veli palatini muscle b. veli palatini muscle c. tensor veli palatini muscle d. palatopharyngeus muscle

c. a state-issued credential from an agency such as the Department of Education

In most states, to work in the public schools, SLPs and audiologists are required to possess: a. a state license b. ASHA certification c. a state-issued credential from an agency such as the Department of Education d. state license and ASHA certification

a. 50

In order to begin producing two-word combinations, how many words does a toddler need to have in his expressive vocabulary? a. 50 b. 20 c. 100 d. 10

D. Occlude the patient's tracheostomy during and immediately after the swallow, as the exhalatory airflow after the swallow may contribute to clearance of residual food from the top of the airway, reducing the chance of aspiration after the swallow.

In preparing for feeding and swallowing with a patient with a tracheostomy tube, which of the following is recommended while conducting therapy? A. Have the patient sit in the bed at a 120-degree angle before occluding the patient's tracheostomy. B. Use cervical auscultation to determine if there is any aspiration. C. There is no need to occlude the tracheostomy during and immediately after the swallow, as there is no chance of aspiration. D. Occlude the patient's tracheostomy during and immediately after the swallow, as the exhalatory airflow after the swallow may contribute to clearance of residual food from the top of the airway, reducing the chance of aspiration after the swallow.

a. formal and informal

In the literature, "style of speech" refers to: a. formal and informal b. teenagers' way of speaking c. differences in way of speaking among different cultural groups d. suprasegmental differences among speakers e. dialect variation among different speakers

B. Asks questions like "Tell me what you want" and models or prompts the correct response if necessary

In the mand-model method of teaching language skills to children, the clinician does which of the following? A. Prompts an elaboration of a verbal response, and requires the child to imitate B. Asks questions like "Tell me what you want" and models or prompts the correct response if necessary C. Adds comments to the child's production, with no response requirement D. Repeatedly and consecutively models a particular structure but does not require the child to imitate it

C. Inductive method

In the scientific method, what is the experiment-first-and-explain-later approach? A. Deductive method B. Null hypothesis method C. Inductive method D. Alternative hypothesis method

B. Vocal fold vibration

In the source-filter theory, the source and the filter are assumed to be independent. It is implied that you can change the output of the source without changing the filter and vice versa. Which anatomical structure represents the source? A. Lungs B. Vocal fold vibration C. Vocal tract D. Vocal folds

C. Mud-moon

In therapy, you decide to use minimal pairs as part of your treatment plan to increase a child's intelligibility. Which one of the following is NOT a minimal pair? A. Me-meat B. Duck-luck C. Mud-moon D. Pen-ten

A. Penetrating/Open head injury

In this type of brain injury, the scalp/skull is broken or fractured: A. Penetrating/Open head injury B. Diffuse axonal injury C. Concussion D. Intracranial hematoma

a. time-out

In treating older students and adults who stutter, a clinician decides to use the direct stuttering treatment (reduction) procedure; specifically, the clinician then selects: a. time-out b. the fluency shaping approach c. approach-avoidance reduction treatment d. the fluent stuttering approach

c. velopharyngeal closure

In your private practice, a father brings his 5 yr old song, Jordan, to see you. The kindergarten teacher has noticed that Jordan "talks kind of funny," and sometimes other children make fun of him. Justing was born with a cleft palate and has had repair surgery, and he has a history of conductive hearing loss secondary to otitis media with effusion. During evaluation of Jordan's speech, you note that he is especially having difficulty producing affricates, fricatives, and plosives. This is probably because he is having continued difficulty with: a. vocal nodules b. hypertrophied adenoids c. velopharyngeal closure d. maxillary deficiency

b. prosody of speech and facial expressions of the speaker

Infants attend first to which of the following aspects of spoken communication? a. loudness and pitch of speech b. prosody of speech and facial expressions of the speaker c. individual phonemes in speech d. phrase and clause structure e. all of the above

D.The tensor veli palatini muscle

Infants with cleft lip and palate are susceptible to middle ear disease because which of the following muscles is commonly impaired? A.The superior constrictor muscle B.The levator veli palatini muscle C.The palatopharyngeus muscle D.The tensor veli palatini muscle

A.Diaphragm

Inhalation during respiration is primarily carried out through the movement of which of the following muscles or muscle groups? A.Diaphragm B.Internal intercostals C.External intercostals D.Scalenes

B. spasmodic dysphonia

Injecting Botulinum toxin (Botox) directly into one or both vocal folds (thyroarytenoid muscles) has been used for which of the following voice conditions? A. laryngeal webs B. spasmodic dysphonia C. carcinoma D. polyps

b. Building a working relationship, dealing with social differences, using verbal communication effectively (The therapeutic relationship between counselor and patient is vital. The counselor needs to be attentive, understand, and facilitate client comfort. Both parties in a counseling relationship have responsibility for treatment to be effective. Both should be able to speak and be heard during treatment which includes both verbal and nonverbal communication.)

Interpersonal communication is a most important factor in counseling. When one enters a counseling relationship, there needs to be a caring, respectful rapport established between client and counselor. Typically, the client comes with problems that he/she needs to solve. Therefore, client and service provider will need to work together to identify goals. Client and counselor work together to identify pertinent issues and ways to deal with the issues. What are some essential parts of therapeutic counseling? a. Be defensive, agree with counselor, see counselor socially b. Building a working relationship, dealing with social differences, using verbal communication effectively c. Attend sessions, argue with counselor, refuse to pay d. Ask personal questions, call and text counselor, insist counselor tell client what to do

d. Simplification of the communication environment

Intervention from a speech-language pathologist for a nursing home resident who experiences advanced dementia would most likely focus on a. Conversational turn-taking b. Expressive vocabulary c. Interpretation of facial expression d. Simplification of the communication environment

C. Hypokinetic dysarthria

Intracranial arteritis is a vascular etiology that is rarely or never a possible cause for what type of motor speech disorder? A. Spastic dysarthria B. Ataxic dysarthria C. Hypokinetic dysarthria D. Apraxia of speech

c. Pragmatics

It is developmentally normal for a child 8 to 12 months old to wave bye-bye. Which norm is this an example for? a. Syntax b. Phonology c. Pragmatics d. Semantics

B.use light and gentle vocal-fold contacts

It is most appropriate for a SLP to treat hyperadduction of the vocal folds by having the client A.increase muscular effort through pushing or lifting while vocalizing B.use light and gentle vocal-fold contacts C.attempt quick onset of phonation D.use drills with exaggerated contrastive stress on words

d. refer Jasmine and her parents to an audiologist for a comprehensive hearing test

Jasmine D. is a fourth-grade girl who is struggling academically. She has difficulty paying attention in class, and her grades are low. She has been tested by several specialists, and there is no evidence of a learning disability or clinically significant attention issue. She has passed routine school hearing screenings every year; these screenings have been conducted at 25 dB bilaterally. However, teachers over the years keep referring her because they think that she is not hearing as well as she should. What course action would you take? a. don't do anything; she has passed hearing screenings and probably just needs to exhibit greater self-discipline in class b. talk to her parents and suggest ways that they can help her improve her behavior c. talk to her teacher and suggest discipline strategies for the classroom to help Jasmine behave and focus better d. refer Jasmine and her parents to an audiologist for a comprehensive hearing test

B. lie in a semi-reclined position to capitalize on the effects of gravity to assist in respiration.

Jeffery, a 40-year-old patient in the late stages of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is added to your caseload. Upon entering his room in the hospital, you find he is in a supine position and is having a difficulty breathing. To overcome this difficulty, you suggest that Jeffery: A. lie in a prone position so that his muscles of expiration do not need to work as hard. B. lie in a semi-reclined position to capitalize on the effects of gravity to assist in respiration. C. rotate between lying in the left- and right-lateral recumbent positions every 12 hours so that the contralateral side of the respiratory muscles can rest. D. remain lying in a supine position, but teach the client breathing techniques to increase his vital capacity.

a. Phonosurgical

Jessica's vocal cord polyps are not responding to voice therapy. What kind of intervention will the otolaryngologist likely recommend? a. Phonosurgical b. Intensive voice c. Spontaneous d. Therapeutic

a. 2-4 years old

Jimmy is a person who stutters. Which of the following age ranges correctly represents when his onset of stuttering most likely began? a. 2-4 years old b. 4-9 years old c. 9-12 years old d. 12-15 years old

a. underextension

Jonathan is a 5 yr old boy with a language impairment. He has a German shepherd at home names Angel. The neighbors have a Rottweiler, and his grandma has a poodle. But Jonathan only calls Angel a "dog," he does not use the word "dog" to refer to his neighbor's Rottweiler or his grandma's poodle. We can say that Jonathan is demonstrating the pattern of: a. underextension b. overextension c. restricted semantic categories d. overcategorization

a. morphological skills

Justin is a 7 yr old second-grade child who has been diagnosed with Asperger's syndrome. Since he was a toddler, he has had language difficulties. He has just transferred to your school district, and speech-language services have been recommended for him. Justin's parents are anxious for him to begin therapy as soon as possible. You read over the file of reports written by personnel from his previous school district and meet with your school's student study team to discuss Justin and recommend the best possible program for him in your second district. The report from the previous SLP says, among other things, that Justin's language sample showed that he had difficulty with forms, such as -er (bigger), and -est (biggest). Problems with these forms reflects poor: a. morphological skills b. pragmatic skills c. literacy skills d. semantic skills

A. /th/

Justin is a highly unintelligible 4-year-old boy. He has difficulties producing /w/, /t/, /d/, and /th/. If you were to treat him using a least phonological knowledge approach, your first target sound in therapy would be: A. /th/ B. /w/ C. /t/ D. /d/

c. structural voice disorder

Katie is a full time vocal performer. She notices a problem with her voice and schedules an appointment with the ENT where she is diagnosed with vocal nodules. What type of vocal disorder was Katie diagnosed with? a. neurogenic voice disorder b. psychological voice disorder c. structural voice disorder d. conversion voice disorder

A. Central auditory processing disorder

Kyle, an 8-year-old child, comes to an audiologist's office with his mother who explains that at school, Kyle has difficulty understanding spoken language when there are competing messages. She also stated that he takes longer to respond to oral communication and has problems with following complex auditory commands. His teacher also mentioned that she has noticed that Kyle has difficulty localizing sound and has problems with reading, spelling, and learning problems. She has brought up these concerns during parent-teacher conferences. Kyle's mother indicated that he has an extremely hard time listening to people in noisy environments. Kyle's mother mentioned that he was recently at his friend's house for a pool party. The music was playing very loudly and when he came home from the party, Kyle complained that he felt left out because he had difficulty understanding what his friends were saying. His mother was also at the party and constantly heard him saying, "What?" or "Huh?" After comprehensive testing, the audiologist explained to Kyle and his mother that he has: A. Central auditory processing disorder B. Conductive hearing loss C. Sensorineural hearing loss D. Retrocochlear dysfunction

A.using chronological age would overidentify language disorders

Language impairment in a child with Down syndrome is often determined by comparing performance on one or more standardized language tests with the child's mental age, rather than with the child's chronological age. Although mental age should not be used to specify the need for treatment, mental age can legitimately be used as a performance criterion because A.using chronological age would overidentify language disorders B.using chronological age would underidentify language disorders C.mental age always correlates with verbal performance D.language performance is expected to exceed mental age

A.The child will contrast alveolar stops with velar stops in meaningful word pairs.

Linguistic approaches to the treatment of sound-production errors in children are based on the notion that the errors are systematic and rule-based and that the goal of treatment is to modify a child's rule system to approximate the rule system used by adults. Which of the following is a treatment objective that reflects a linguistic approach to treatment? A.The child will contrast alveolar stops with velar stops in meaningful word pairs. B.The child will produce voiceless alveolar sibilants correctly in unstructured conversation. C.The child will coarticulate stop plus liquid clusters as easily as other children of the same age. D.The child will recognize and identify phonetic distortions of his or her error sound.

a. dysarthria, confused language (e.g., confabulation), auditory comprehension problems, confrontation naming problems, perseveration of verbal responses, pragmatic language problems, and reading and writing difficulties

Lucien, a 22 yr old male, is hospitalized after sustaining TBI from a motor vehicle accident. There is no injury to the cerebellum, brainstem, or peripheral nerves. When assessing Lucien, the clinician might expect to find: a. dysarthria, confused language (e.g., confabulation), auditory comprehension problems, confrontation naming problems, perseveration of verbal responses, pragmatic language problems, and reading and writing difficulties b. dysarthria, confused language (e.g., confabulation), auditory comprehension problems, no confrontation naming problems, and agrammatic or telegraphic speech c. confrontation naming problems, perseveration of verbal responses, pragmatic language problems, intact reading and writing skills, and echolalia d. severely impaired fluency, severe echolalia, agrammatic and telegraphic speech, and intact auditory comprehension skills

c. a brightly colored, angled bottle

Luke was born at 32 weeks weighing 3.5 lbs. He is now 9 months old and is exhibiting difficulty putting on weight. Luke is also experiencing symptoms of GERD and is hypotonic. When his mom turns on the lights, claps her hands, or sings a nursery rhyme, Luke barely reacts. Which of the following types of bottles would be most beneficial for Luke? a. a vented bottle to decrease the amount of air Luke receives b. a bottle with a slow flow nipple c. a brightly colored, angled bottle d. a soft bottle used for external pacing

b. stops, glides, and nasals will be easier for her to produce than fricatives, affricates, and liquids

Lynne is a 6 yr old with dysarthria of speech secondary to CP. You can expect that: a. labiodental fricatives will be the easiest sounds for her to produce b. stops, glides, and nasals will be easier for her to produce than fricatives, affricates, and liquids c. there is a strong possibility that her intelligibility will be impacted by hoarseness d. she will not show voicing errors when she produces sounds

B.Poor oral hygiene and dependence for oral care

Management of which one of the following examination observations alone will produce the best improvement in the pneumonia risk of an adult patient with chronic dysphagia? A.Poor oral bolus control and containment B.Poor oral hygiene and dependence for oral care C.Delayed onset of the pharyngeal stage of swallowing D.Impaired distension of the upper esophageal sphincter

b. a language sample's primary diagnostic function is to evaluate the child's language in actual daily settings.

Mario is a 4 yr old Head Start preschool child whose teacher has observed some "red flags" in his language development. You decide to interview Mario's parents and observe him in the classroom setting. You also decide to conduct a language sample. You want to conduct a language sample with Mario because: a. you can use the results to obtain quantitative data, such as percentile ranks and standard deviations, as required by the school district to enroll him in speech-language services b. a language sample's primary diagnostic function is to evaluate the child's language in actual daily settings. c. the teacher has requested it, and by law, you need to carry out assessments requested by classroom teachers d. language samples are mandated by the Common Core State Standards

a. Broca's aphasia

Melodic Intonation Therapy (MIT) is generally considered most appropriate for a client with which of the following? a. Broca's aphasia b. Conduction aphasia c. Transcortical sensory aphasia d. Global aphasia

B.build awareness of the phonetic realizations of phonological contrasts

Minimal word pairs are typically used in phonological treatment in order to A.stabilize phonological patterns in a system B.build awareness of the phonetic realizations of phonological contrasts C.probe generalization of taught sound patterns to words that have not been used in instruction D.facilitate automatic production of words

A.The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)

Mr. Aviz, a 62-year-old chemist, is recovering from hip-replacement surgery following a spontaneous fracture. The surgery was completed without complications. He is now in his second postoperative day, and his wife reports alterations in his memory and some confusion not previously noted. Which of the following is the most reliable screening instrument for the SLP to use in this case? A.The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) B.The Test of Problem Solving (TOPS-3) C.The Cognitive Linguistic Quick Test (CLQT) D.The Global Deterioration Scale (GDS)

B.Dialectal differences

Mr. Lewis, a fourth-grade teacher, has referred a 9-year-old student to the school speech-language pathologist (SLP) because he is concerned that the student's speech is interfering with spelling performance. The SLP observes that the student substitutes the voiceless labiodental fricative for the voiceless interdental fricative in the word-final position and that the student reverses /s/ and /k/forward slash s forward slash and forward slash k forward slash in words such as "ask." Which of the following areas needs to be considered first? A.Auditory discrimination B.Dialectal differences C.Disordered phonological system D.Dyslexia

b. Your own interest in English idioms and whether you consider them important in therapy for a stroke patient

Mr. Nehru is a gentleman from India who has had a stroke and now has aphasia. His family reports that before the stroke, he spoke both Hindi and English fluently. In planning for therapy, you, are a monolingual English-speaking SLP, think about the possibility of incorporating work on English idioms. Which one of the following is NOT a consideration in terms of whether to make comprehension and expression of English idioms a treatment goal? a. Mr. Nerhu's oral and written abilities in both English and Hindi b. Your own interest in English idioms and whether you consider them important in therapy for a stroke patient c. whether Mr. Nehru will return to his work setting, where his colleagues speak English, or now spend all of his time at home, where his family speaks primarily Hindi d. Mr. Nehru's educational and vocational history

c. ask the medical facility to provide you a certified, highly trained Tagalog interpreter to gather a case history and evaluate Mrs. Elizaga's Tagalog skills, following up with some English assessment as well.

Mrs. Elizaga, a 70 yr old Filipino woman, has had a stroke. Her first and dominant language is Tagalog. She speaks some English. You do not speak Tagalog but know that you need to evaluate her Tagalog skills. As a culturally competent clinician, you will: a. evaluate her in English only; after all, she is in the US and needs to be evaluated in our mainstream language b. ask a family member to come and gather a language sample in Tagalog and help you analyze it and figure out goals based upon this sample. c. ask the medical facility to provide you a certified, highly trained Tagalog interpreter to gather a case history and evaluate Mrs. Elizaga's Tagalog skills, following up with some English assessment as well. d. have Mrs. Elizaga's family fill out a form indicating whether or not Tagalog or English is her dominant language and asking for their input on best assessment practices

d. palatoglossus, tensor veli palatini, and levator veli palatini

Muscles that contribute to velopharyngeal closure through tensing or elevating the velum are the a. tensor veli palatini, levator veli palatini, and salpingopharyngeus b. stylophayrngeus, salpingopharyngeus, and levator veli palatini c. levator veli palatini, genioglossus, and salpingopharyngeus d. palatoglossus, tensor veli palatini, and levator veli palatini

d. increases the frequency of behaviors

Negative reinforcement: a. decreases the behaviors b. is the same as punishment c. does not involve aversive events d. increases the frequency of behaviors

D.Restoration of oral communication

Of the following, which is generally the most appropriate treatment goal for clients who have had a laryngectomy? A.Acceptance of the alaryngeal status B.Production of an esophageal voice C.Use of a voice prosthesis D.Restoration of oral communication

A.Hypotonia

Oropharyngeal dysphagia in a child with Down syndrome is most likely caused by which of the following factors? A.Hypotonia B.Digestive problems C.Pneumonia D.Aversive feeding behaviors

C.60 days

Over the past six weeks, the general education teacher implemented evidence-based classroom and teaching modifications for a student struggling in a language arts class. Careful observation has not shown an increase in the student's performance. The teacher informs the student's parents of plans to refer the student to the speech-language pathologist at school. The teacher then makes an official referral to the local educational agency. Which of the following choices is the maximum time allowed by IDEAI D E A from the official referral for eligibility determination to completion of the evaluation? A.14 days B.30 days C.60 days D.120 days

d. the Individuals With Disabilities Education Act

P.L. 94-142, the Education of the Handicapped Act, was later reauthorized and retitles as: a. the Americans With Disabilities Act b. the Education of Disabled Individuals Act c. the Handicapped Individuals Education Act d. the Individuals With Disabilities Education Act

B. ch/f substitutions (e.g., chan/fan)

Pablo is a Spanish-speaking third grader who is in the process of learning English. His parents came to the United States 1 year ago from Mexico. His classroom teacher refers him for a speech evaluation, saying that he "sounds different—I think he may need speech therapy." When you evaluate Pablo's speech, you hear the following patterns. Which one of them would not be typical for a Spanish-speaking student in terms of predictable productions based on Spanish influence? A. t/th substitutions (e.g., ting/thing) B. ch/f substitutions (e.g., chan/fan) C. a/ae substitutions (e.g., block/black) D. Devoicing of final consonants (e.g., luff/love)

c. recommend an immediate, full evaluation of Derek's language skills

Parents bring their son Derek to you. He is 30 months old and says only a few words. The pediatrician has told them to not worry and just give Derek time, saying "He is a boy, after all, and they usually develop language more slowly." But Derek's parents are still concerned. The best recommendation you could give them would be: a. do nothing and follow the pediatrician's recommendation to give him time to develop b. give them a home language stimulation program, and tell them to come back in a year for a re-evaluation c. recommend an immediate, full evaluation of Derek's language skills d. send Derek and his parents to a psychologist for an evaluation of his cognitive skills

a. the IDEA discourages serving children with disabilities in general education classroom settings; rather, it encourages school districts to create more specialized pull-out programs for such children to best serve their needs

Parents in a local school district have asked a clinician to give an in-service on the IDEA (1997). The parents are interested in the content of the IDEA regarding their parental rights, and so forth. Which one of the following WOULD NOT be accurate for the clinician to tell the parents at the in-service? a. the IDEA discourages serving children with disabilities in general education classroom settings; rather, it encourages school districts to create more specialized pull-out programs for such children to best serve their needs b. the IDEA promotes increased, meaningful parental involvement in evaluations, including access to reports and test instruments c. the IDEA mandates the development of alternative assessments for children who cannot participate in standard assessments d. one goal of the IDEA is to promote increased participation of special educators in general classroom settings, including involvement with curriculum

c. Classical conditioning

Parents say the word bottle every time they give their baby a bottle. In time, the baby responds the same way to hearing the word bottle alone without the actual bottle. In terms of behavioral learning theories of language development, what is this an example of? a. Operant conditioning b. Social learning theory c. Classical conditioning d. Constructivism theory

C.Impaired level of alertness

Patient is a 77-year-old female with a left hemisphere stroke. Sensorimotor clinical examination revealed right lower facial droop, impaired oral sensation, absence of dentition, need for frequent prompts to engage the patient in evaluation procedures, and aphasia. Bedside swallow evaluation with pureed food and nectar-thick liquids revealed food remnants in right lateral sulcus, drooling from the right oral cavity, and intermittent cough that was not present before the swallow evaluation. Prior medical history includes COPDC O P D, diabetes, and congestive heart failure. Patient does not want an instrumental examination. Based on the data above, which of the following is most likely to lead to a clinically significant dysphagia-related adverse event? A.Impaired oral sensorimotor function B.Prior medical history C.Impaired level of alertness D.Aphasiaf

d. spasmodic dysphonia

Patients who might be treated with CO2 laser surgery, recurrent laryngeal nerve resection, Botox, voice therapy, or a combination would probably have: a. contact ulcers b. paradoxical vocal fold motion c. hemangioma d. spasmodic dysphonia

b. dementia

Primary progressive aphasia is a form of: a. fluent aphasia b. dementia c. nonfluent aphasia d. subcortical aphasia

b. has scores that are consistent across repeated testing or measurement

Reliability means that a test or measure: a. measures what it purports to measure b. has scores that are consistent across repeated testing or measurement c. has items that adequately sample the full range of the skill being tested d. correlates well with an established test of known validity

d. Might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities

Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty learning to read has demonstrated that the treatment a. Is effective only for children from 4 to 8 years old b. Is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errors c. Is effective only when combined with supplemental literacy program d. Might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities

C. Observations are made of differences between subjects of different ages to generalize about developmental changes that would occur within subjects as they mature.

Researchers often use cross-sectional studies to study children's development in various areas. What is a difficulty with cross-sectional studies? A. The same subjects are studied over time, and this is expensive, time consuming, and difficult because subjects might drop out of the study. B. The investigator is examining data already on file to answer questions about children in various age groups, and that data might not be reliable. C. Observations are made of differences between subjects of different ages to generalize about developmental changes that would occur within subjects as they mature. D. The total age span of children to be studied is divided into several overlapping age spans, and it is difficult to follow subjects from the lower to the upper end of each age span.

a. reduced tongue base retraction.

Residue in the vallecula is most likely caused by: a. reduced tongue base retraction. b. reduced laryngeal elevation. c. reduced buccal tension. d. reduced peristalsis.

C. Resonance does not add energy to the speech signal.

Resonance is a property of the vocal tract. Resonance exists whether it is energized or not. What kind of effect does resonance have on speech? A. Resonance does not modify the energy of a speech signal. B. Resonance adds energy to the speech signal. C. Resonance does not add energy to the speech signal. D. It is still unknown.

d. diaphragm

Respiration relies on the muscles of inspiration and expiration. The thick, dome-shaped muscle that separates the abdomen from the thorax is called the a. sternocleidomastoid b. levator costarum c. pectoralis major d. diaphragm

b. obtain the services of a trained interpreter and have him or her evaluate Rohini in Telegu

Rohini is a 6 yr old speaker of Telegu from India. Her family moved to the US 6 months ago because her mother is a doctor and wanted expanded opportunities in the US. Rohini speaks primarily Telegu and almost no English. Rohini is one of three children. Her mother confides that Rohini stands out from her two other siblings in that she "just didn't catch on to English" as fast as they did. She also shares that Rohini was slow to develop her language milestones in Telegu, not speaking her first word in Telegru until she was 2 yrs old. You are a monolingual English-speaking SLP and know that given the "red flags" from the mother's description, you need to do a thorough evaluation to ascertain whether or not Rohini has a language disorder or just a language difference that will resolve with time. However, you do not speak Telegru. What is the best choice in this situation? a. not test Rohini at all-wait and see if time will make a difference b. obtain the services of a trained interpreter and have him or her evaluate Rohini in Telegu c. administer standardized tests in English because, after all, Rohini needs to succeed in American schools d. have Rohini's mother fill out a detailed case history form and use the results to guide your decision

C.When the parents have acquired greater confidence in their capacity to care for the child and greater motivation to cope with the child's disabilities

SLPs often have a responsibility to communicate with the parents of children with severe disabilities. According to mourning theory, when are parents normally most receptive to information and advice provided by professionals regarding their child? A.When the parents are working through their feelings about the child's disabilities B.When the parents fully realize the extent of the child's disabilities and the limitations of treatment and education C.When the parents have acquired greater confidence in their capacity to care for the child and greater motivation to cope with the child's disabilities D.When the parents are making decisions regarding future care and protection of the child

D. Anterior cerebral

Sara has arterial damage that causes her to have cognitive deficits such as impaired judgment, problems concentrating, and difficulties with reasoning. According to the surgeon, damage to the affected artery can also cause a person to have paralysis of the feet and legs. Damage to which artery produces these effects? A. Internal carotid B. External carotid C. Middle cerebral D. Anterior cerebral

C. Roughly 94% of Parkinson's patients have hypokinetic dysarthria.

Select the statement that is not true. A. Dysarthria and Broca's aphasia may coexist. B. Excessive or even stress on syllables is a part of ataxic dysarthria. C. Roughly 94% of Parkinson's patients have hypokinetic dysarthria. D. Spastic-ataxic and flaccid-spastic are frequently mixed in the mixed variety of dysarthria.

A. Some forms of dementia, caused by a toxic reaction to medication, are reversible, especially in their early stages.

Select the statement that is true. A. Some forms of dementia, caused by a toxic reaction to medication, are reversible, especially in their early stages. B. All forms of dementia are progressive. C. Speech production problems are not associated with Broca's aphasia. D. In right hemisphere syndrome, language is more severely impaired than communication.

A. T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses.

Select the true statement. A. T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses. B. T-units are types of linguistic units C. C-units may never contain incomplete sentences produced in response to questions. D. C-units do not contain one or more independent clauses.

d. can allow extension through replications

Single-subject design strategy: a. allows extension of the results to others in the population as long as the study was done properly b. does not allow extension from a single study c. can never allow extension of results d. can allow extension through replications

B.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP's active caseload

Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly's speech fluency during conversation. At that time, she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100 words), and interjections such as "um" (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks; and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children's fluency. A reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if Molly's speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation? A.Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speech B.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP's active caseload C.Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on on helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more effectively D.Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly's speech fluency until she is five years old

B.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP's active caseload

Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly's speech fluency during conversation. At that time, she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100 words), and interjections such as "um" (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks; and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children's fluency. A reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if Molly's speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation? A.Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speech B.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP's active caseload C.Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more effectively D.Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly's speech fluency until she is five years old

a. total lunch capacity, tidal volume, vital capacity

Sometimes specialists assess the lung volume of voice patients because breath support is inadequate. Specialists can measure _________ or the total volume of air in the lungs; other measurements can include ________ or the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breathing cycle and _________ or the volume of air that the patient can exhale after a maximal exhalation: a. total lunch capacity, tidal volume, vital capacity b. vital capacity, tidal capacity, total lung volume c. vital capacity, total lung capacity, tidal volume d. tidal volume, total lung capacity, vital volume

C. Has delays in both Hmong and English, evidencing problems using both languages

Soua and his family have immigrated to the U.S. from Laos; he is 7 years old and speaks Hmong. Soua's teacher is concerned because he struggles in math, science, and language arts. He also has some difficulty making friends and interacting appropriately on the playground during recess. You decide to, with the help of a Hmong interpreter, evaluate Soua's language skills to see if he has a specific language impairment and qualifies for language therapy. Soua will qualify for language therapy if he: A. Has normal skills in Hmong and delays in English B. Has normal skills in English but delays in Hmong C. Has delays in both Hmong and English, evidencing problems using both languages D. He won't qualify for therapy; he needs to be evaluated by an English as a second language teacher

D. Among others, speech sounds affricates, stops, and liquids are based on the manner of articulation.

Speech sounds are classified in various ways. Select the statement that is correct according to the classification mentioned in each answer. A. Voicing makes a distinction between vowels and consonants. B. The cognate pairs distinction is based on the place of articulation. C. Among others, speech sounds bilabials and labiodentals are based on the manner of articulation. D. Among others, speech sounds affricates, stops, and liquids are based on the manner of articulation.

c. two-syllable words with equal stress on each syllable

Spondee words are: a. polysyllabic word with at least two voiceless sounds b. two-syllable words with primary stress on the first syllable c. two-syllable words with equal stress on each syllable d. one-syllable words that are phonetically balanced

A. All professionals caring for the patient

Swallowing rehabilitation is most effective when the patient is given a single set of instructions and is reinforced by: A. All professionals caring for the patient B. The speech-language pathologist C. The occupational therapist D. The laryngologist

D. shunt air from the trachea to the esophagus so that the patient can speak on pulmonary air that enters the esophagus.

The Blom-Singer prosthetic device is used by laryngectomees to: A. clean the surgically created fistula. B. shunt air from the esophagus to the trachea so that the salpingopharyngeus muscle vibrates during inhalation. C. assist in the development of competent esophageal speech. D. shunt air from the trachea to the esophagus so that the patient can speak on pulmonary air that enters the esophagus.

b. a uniform federal standard for protecting the privacy of patients, to be followed by all medical, nonmedical, and allied health personally in the country

The Health Insurance Portability and and Accountability Act (HIPPA) includes, among other mandates: a. a requirement that each state develop standard for protecting the privacy of medical patients, to be reviewed and approved by the federal government b. a uniform federal standard for protecting the privacy of patients, to be followed by all medical, nonmedical, and allied health personally in the country c. a stipulation that different health care entities involved in providing services to a patient cannot share information about that patient d. a requirement that when a request is received, health care providers have 90 days to provide access to the patient's medical (and related) records.

b. an emphasis on the importance of targeting goals in social communication and emotional regulation by implementing transactional supports, such as visual supports, environmental arrangements, and communication-style adjustments

The SST (student study team) believes that Justin might profit from the SCERTS approach to intervention, which involves: a. an emphasis on improving social communication, implementing ongoing evaluation of regulatory behavior, and training syntactic skills for increased communication success b. an emphasis on the importance of targeting goals in social communication and emotional regulation by implementing transactional supports, such as visual supports, environmental arrangements, and communication-style adjustments c. an emphasis on improving semantic communicative effectiveness, regulation of emotional state, and transactional environmental supports, such as increased auditory cues d. a holistic approach that encourages social communication, effectiveness in regulating transactions, and successful dialogue with others in the environment

d. Pragmatics

The Spanish-speaking parents of a nine-year old bilingual child report that their child communicates in spanish with complete utterances and has a good vocabulary in comparison to other children in the neighborhood. Their concern is that the child interrupts their conversations and has not learned the social rules that are important within the family and in the community. Testing confirms similar problems in English speaking settings. The SLP would most likely recommend that therapy focus on which of the following? a. Syntax b. Morphology c. Semantics d. Pragmatics

B. Assess cognitive function and to monitor changes in a patient with a brain injury who is severely impaired and slow to recover

The Western Neuro Sensory Stimulation Profile (WNSSP) was designed to do what? A. Compensate for some of the deficiencies of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B. Assess cognitive function and to monitor changes in a patient with a brain injury who is severely impaired and slow to recover C. Determine levels of consciousness of a patient D. Assess how responsive a patient is

B.People who aspirate residue from the pyriform sinuses

The commonly used chin-down posture was initially developed to eliminate thin-liquid aspiration in people with delayed pharyngeal stage onset after having a stroke, and when its efficacy was investigated, it was found to be 50% effective. For whom is the chin-down posture ineffective at eliminating thin-liquid aspiration? A.People who have cricopharyngeal dysfunction B.People who aspirate residue from the pyriform sinuses C.People who have impaired lingual function D.People who aspirate residue from the valleculae

B. Secondary components

The components of an AAC system are crucial to consider during an assessment. When assessing a young child, you evaluate the way the individual will use and interact with the system, including the user interface, selection method, and output. What type of components are being described? A. Primary components B. Secondary components C. Tertiary components D. Global components

C. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 3-4 coccygeal (fused) vertebrae.

The components of the vertebral column consist of A. 8 cervical, 10 thoracic and 4 lumbar, 4 sacral and 2-3 coccygeal (fused) vertebrae. B. 9 cervical, 11 thoracic, and 3 lumbar, 7 sacral and 5-6 coccygeal (fused) vertebrae. C. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 3-4 coccygeal (fused) vertebrae. D. 10 cervical, 11 thoracic and 6 lumbar, 6 sacral and 4-5 coccygeal (fused) vertebrae.

B. in spite of being analyzed in terms of phases, swallowing typically is a continuous process.

The description of the different phases of normal swallow suggest that A. swallowing consists of a series of discrete actions described in terms of the oral preparatory, oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal phases. B. in spite of being analyzed in terms of phases, swallowing typically is a continuous process. C. the oral preparatory phase is not linked to the oral phase. D. the pharyngeal phase, because it consists of reflex actions, is not closely related to the oral phase.

B. Skin appears yellow C. Kayser-Fleischer rings to appear in the eyes (golden-brown eye discoloration) D. Copper build up in the brain, liver, and vital organs

The following are characteristics of Wilson's disease (multiple answers): A. It is not inherited B. Skin appears yellow C. Kayser-Fleischer rings to appear in the eyes (golden-brown eye discoloration) D. Copper build up in the brain, liver, and vital organs

B. All persons who stutter exhibit an adaptation effect.

The following characteristics are important regarding the adaptation effect in persons who stutter, except: A. The greater the time interval between readings, the less the degree of adaptation. B. All persons who stutter exhibit an adaptation effect. C. Adaptation is generally seen in both persons who stutter and typically fluent speakers. D. There is no transfer of adaptation from one passage to another.

C. Flexible fiber-optic laryngoscopy

The following form of instrumental evaluation includes inserting a tube through the nasal passage, past the velum, and into position above the larynx: A. Indirect laryngoscopy B. Direct laryngoscopy C. Flexible fiber-optic laryngoscopy D. Videostroboscopy

b. The use of a syntactic rule (Syntactic rules enable you to combine morphemes into sentences. Like the rules making up the other components, syntactic rules become increasingly complex. From combining 2 morphemes, to combining words with suffixes or inflections and then creating questions, statements, and commands. Then you will go on to combine 2 ideas into 1 complex sentence, and so on.)

The following statement "Mark left for the store. I think is coming back soon" is considered Spanish-influenced English because of which rule? a. The use of a grammatical style b. The use of a syntactic rule c. The use of an inflection d. The use of a semantic rule

b. The use of a syntactic rule

The following statement "Mark left for the store. I think is coming back soon" is considered Spanish-influenced English because of which rule? a. The use of an inflection b. The use of a syntactic rule c. The use of a semantic rule d. The use of a grammatical style

B. Pharyngoplasty

The following surgical procedure for patients with a cleft includes a substance that is implanted or injected into the posterior pharyngeal wall to make it bulge: A. Pharyngeal flap B. Pharyngoplasty C. Delayed hard palate closure D. The von Langenbeck surgical method

D. pleura

The function of the __________ is to allow optimum contraction and expansion of the lungs during breathing. A. mediastinum B. bronchioles C. alveoli D. pleura

B. phrases and sentences.

The goal of structured contexts in articulatory therapy is to preserve the accuracy of target sound production within: A. contexts of words. B. phrases and sentences. C. structured conversations. D. multiple vowel contexts.

a. controlled research, systematically replicated

The highest level of evidence supporting a treatment procedure comes from: a. controlled research, systematically replicated b. controlled research, directly replicated c. an experimental study with a large number of participants d. a multiple baseline design study

A. The 11 paired internal intercostal muscles pull the ribs downward to decrease the diameter of the thoracic cavity for exhalation.

The intercostal muscles are between the ribs and play an important role in respiration. The two sets of intercostals perform different functions. Select the correct statement. A. The 11 paired internal intercostal muscles pull the ribs downward to decrease the diameter of the thoracic cavity for exhalation. B. The 11 paired external intercostal muscles pull the ribs upward to increase the diameter of the thoracic cavity for exhalation. C. The 10 paired internal intercostal muscles raise the ribs up and out to increase the diameter of the thoracic cavity for exhalation. D. The 10 paired external intercostal muscles pull the ribs down to decrease the diameter of the thoracic cavity for inhalation.

a. the Americans With Disabilities Act

The law stating that employers must provide special equipment for workers with disabilities (e.g., relay stations for uses of TDDs) is: a. the Americans With Disabilities Act b. HIPPA c. P.L. 94-142 d. No Child Left Behind

c. suggests advanced structures about to be learned induce speech disruption

The leading-edge hypothesis: a. suggests that speech disruptions are most likely on the most complex language structures b. discounts the concept of inherent vulnerability to speech problems c. suggests advanced structures about to be learned induce speech disruption d. is a new model of stuttering treatment

D. ossicular chain

The malleus, incus, and stapes form the: A. tympanic membrane B. stapedius muscle C. tensor tympani D. ossicular chain

e. all of the above

The meaning of spoken message is conveyed by: a. stress b. intonation c. rhythm d. facial expression e. all of the above

D. Proximal rather than distal muscles

The most common types of myopathies affect what? A. Nasal fasciculation B. Optic nerve C. Ossicular movement D. Proximal rather than distal muscles

a. Lacks communicative intention

The most serious limitation of employing imitation as an intervention strategy for children with a language impairment is that imitation a. Lacks communicative intention b. Relies on semantic knowledge c. Is clinician controlled d. Is contextualized speech

d. overall communicative effectiveness

The most significant communication problem associated with RHD is: a. agrammatic speech b. impaired morphologic production c. severe voice disorders d. overall communicative effectiveness

a. extension

The mother of Danny, a 3 yr old who is speaking very little, has been working with an SLP on some language stimulation techniques to build Danny's expressive language skills. One day when they are driving, Danny points to the sky and says excitedly "Plan sky!" His mother responds, "Yes, I see that big silver plane flying up in the blue sky! Wow!" She has just used the technique of: a. extension b. parallel talk c. expansion d. recasting

a. tensor veli palatini

The muscle that exerts the pull that allows the eustachian tube to open during yawning and swallowing is the: a. tensor veli palatini b. levator veli palatini c. tensor tympani d. stapedius muscle

c. Sheehan

The position that stuttering indicates a social role conflict was taken by: a. Van Riper b. Wischner c. Sheehan d. Bloodstein

D. The type of training experience determines the nature of the plasticity.

The principle of "specificity" with regard to experience-dependent plasticity means which of the following: A. The training experience must be adequately noticeable to induce plasticity. B. Failure to drive precise brain functions can result in functional degradation. C. Plasticity as a result of one experience can impede the acquisition of other behaviors. D. The type of training experience determines the nature of the plasticity.

d. Angular gyrus. (The angular gyrus is a region of the brain in the parietal lobe, that lies near the superior edge of the temporal lobe, and immediately posterior to the supramarginal gyrus; it is involved in a number of processes related to language and cognition. Studies have shown that written word is translated to internal monolog via the angular gyrus and that the angular gyrus is at least partially responsible for understanding metaphors.)

The region of the brain involved in language and cognitive processes which lies in the parietal lobe near the superior edge of the temporal lobe and posterior to the supramarginal gyrus is called the: a. Supramarginal gyrus. b. Primary auditory cortex. c. Broca's area. d. Angular gyrus.

c. production of phoneme in isolation

The therapy technique of phonetic placement is used to teach or establish: a. auditory discrimination b. stimulability c. production of phoneme in isolation d. minimal pair contrasts

B. Increase demands on impaired cognitive systems.

There are four guidelines for designing a care plan that maximizes overall patient function. Which of the following guidelines would not be helpful for patient function during a treatment session? A. Strengthen knowledge to potentially improve function. B. Increase demands on impaired cognitive systems. C. Provide stimuli that evoke positive memory and emotion. D. Promote the use of intact cognitive systems.

b. Family history, hearing loss, neglect/abuse

There are numerous risk factors for the development of speech/language disorders. What are three of these risk factors? a. Contagious disease, doctor's visit, dental visit b. Family history, hearing loss, neglect/abuse c. Excess stimulation, allergies, bug bites d. Swimming. skiing, soccer

c. Prior to entering kindergarten (Schools want to ensure that new students entering kindergarten will receive a speech and language screening to help make sure that these skills seem adequate for success in the academic curriculum.)

There is a point in a child's life when, even though development has been monitored, a child will have a speech/language screening. When does this typically occur? a. Preschool b. First grade c. Prior to entering kindergarten d. Fifth grade

B. 3:1 to 6:1

There is limited epidemiological research with regard to risk factors for developing cluttering; however, several experts have indicated that potential risk factors may include the sex of the child with cluttering more common in males than females and the male to female ratio ranging from: A. 2:1 to 5:1 B. 3:1 to 6:1 C. 4:1 to 7:1 D. 5:1 to 8:1

C. Lewy body dementia

This is a common type of degenerative dementia in the elderly. Patients present with deficits in memory, loss of consciousness, and hallucinations. Patients will have a poor response to antipsychotic medications and may have repeated falls. A. Frontotemporal dementia B. Vascular dementia C. Lewy body dementia D. Toxic dementia

C.present and elicit the forms in naturalistic contexts

To best facilitate the functional and meaningful use of linguistic forms, a language-intervention program for a child with language impairments should A.focus on comprehension tasks that are just above the child's linguistic level B.stress structured, game-like situations that use imitative tasks C.present and elicit the forms in naturalistic contexts D.stress imitation of the forms to be learned

b. immediate echolalia

Tonia is a 6 yr old with ASD. As you work with her, you find that she frequently says what you just said. For ex., if you say "Tonia, point to the apple" she says "Tonia, point to the apple." What are you observing is Tonia's use of: a. extrapolated utterances b. immediate echolalia c. delayed echolalia d. semantic replication

d. select a technique with the highest level of evidence available

Too many treatment procedures to treat a single communication disorder is one of the perplexities clinicians face. To survive this perplexity and to select a treatment procedure for a given disorder, the clinician should: a. find out the most well-established procedure b. read the survey research reports to find out the most popular technique c. consult the manuals of various treatment procedures d. select a technique with the highest level of evidence available

D.provide speech treatment to correct compensatory articulation errors

Two months after undergoing surgery to improve velopharyngeal function, a client continues to exhibit nasal airflow only on the production of /s/ and /sh/forward slash s forward slash and forward slash s h forward slash, and also exhibits glottal stops for several pressure consonants. The most appropriate next action for the SLP to take is to A.request consideration of prosthetic management B.request a nasoendoscopic study C.inform the surgeon that the client is not making satisfactory progress D.provide speech treatment to correct compensatory articulation errors

C. Recognize errors

Unawareness is common among patients with traumatic brain injuries and can affect intervention on task performance in all of the following except when patients _______________. A. Begin tasks without planning or setting goals B. Focus on irrelevant aspects of tasks C. Recognize errors D. Do not spontaneously initiate strategies

a. Daddy's

Using Brown's morphemes as a reference, which utterance below represents two morphemes? a. Daddy's b. cupcake c. choo-choo d. no no!

1. B. Replace pronouns with proper nouns 2. A. Provide Judy with educational resources and give her cognitive homework for Vernon to complete before your next session based on activities done in the session.

Vernon is 71 years old and was recently diagnosed with dementia after his family recognized his troubles with short-term memory. According to his wife, Judy, he often gets confused when listening to stories and when he tries to retell a story, he misunderstands who was doing what in the story. Judy reports that Vernon was once a very upbeat and happy man who never complained or seemed sad. Judy mentioned that now Vernon often secludes himself in his room during family gatherings and often gets down on himself. Judy also stated that Vernon used to do the crossword in the paper every morning before continuing with his day, but now he can only get a few words correct and then seems to lose interest in the crossword or get frustrated. Judy is very concerned about her husband because he has changed drastically within the last month and she is not sure how to cope. She requests to be a part of every treatment session so she can stay up to date on his plan of care and follow through with therapy activities daily in the home. 1. What type of indirect therapy can you teach his family to practice to increase his understanding when listening to stories? A. Ask yes/no questions B. Replace pronouns with proper nouns C. Increase number of prepositions in a sentence D. Use difficult vocabulary 2. Because Vernon's wife wishes to feel highly involved in the treatment process, what should you do to help Judy feel the most involved and the most knowledgeable about his treatment? A. Provide Judy with educational resources and give her cognitive homework for Vernon to complete before your next session based on activities done in the session. B. Provide Judy with contacts to a support group for spouses. C. Provide Judy with educational resources. D. Show Judy how to help Vernon use his strategies learned in therapy.

d. shunt the air from the trachea to the esophagus so that the patient can speak on pulmonary air entering the esophagus

Vivian, a 72 yr old woman, has just had surgery for laryngeal cancer. The clinician is trying to support Vivian in many ways, including asking several laryngectomy patients from a local support group to come and talk with Vivian about her options for speech. The support group members strongly recommend the Blom-singer prosthetic device. They explain that the device used by laryngectomes to: a. shunt air from the esophagus to the trachea so that the salpingopharyngeus muscle will vibrate during inhalation b. assist in the development of competent esophageal speech c. prevent particles of food from entering the trachea d. shunt the air from the trachea to the esophagus so that the patient can speak on pulmonary air entering the esophagus

A. Spacing of the formants

Vowels are produced with a relatively open vocal tract. There will always be a fundamental and harmonics for vowels. We perceive vowel differences by the relationship between formants. How are vowels perceived? A. Spacing of the formants B. The fundamental frequency C. The height of each formant D. The height of each harmonic

d. Poor memory, attention deficits, and impulsivity (The main effect of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is permanent damage to the central nervous system. Developing brain cells and structures are underdeveloped or malformed by prenatal alcohol exposure. This can create an array of primary cognitive and functional disabilities including poor memory, attention deficits, impulsive behavior, and poor cause-effect reasoning. The risk of brain damage exists during each trimester since the fetal brain develops throughout the entire pregnancy.)

What are some of the cognitive and functional disabilities found in children with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome? a. Poor language skills, even though cognitive development is usually advanced. b. Rigid muscle tone, poor attending skills with normal language development. c. Hearing loss and low muscle tone. d. Poor memory, attention deficits and impulsivity.

d. Learn speech/language milestones, maintain appropriate medical/dental care, create a comfortable communication environment

What are the practices that parents should execute to help prevent speech/language disorders? a. Don't be concerned about speech, don't talk to child, don't involve extended family in child's life b. Get speech/language evaluation, hearing evaluation, and don't interrupt c. Ask children to repeat, don't give something unless child asks, punish incorrect speech d. Learn speech/language milestones, maintain appropriate medical/dental care, create a comfortable communication environment

c. Learn speech/language milestones, maintain appropriate medical/dental care, create a comfortable communication environment (Parents need to be aware of speech/language developmental milestones, provide an environment rich in conversation, read to their children, and encourage understanding and verbalization. When a child attempts a word, parents should repeat it back correctly. Refusing to respond to a child's request unless he/she asks correctly can be detrimental. Speech/language screening can be appropriate. Regular medical and dental care is vital.)

What are the practices that parents should execute to help prevent speech/language disorders? a. Get speech/language evaluation, hearing evaluation, and don't interrupt b. Don't be concerned about speech, don't talk to child, don't involve extended family in child's life c. Learn speech/language milestones, maintain appropriate medical/dental care, create a comfortable communication environment d. Ask children to repeat, don't give something unless child asks, punish incorrect speech

A. Maintaining a single prosodic element and prosodic integration of two words into a one-tone unit

What are the two steps of developing contrastive stress? A. Maintaining a single prosodic element and prosodic integration of two words into a one-tone unit B. Maintaining a single prosodic element and prosodic integration of two words into a two-tone unit C. Prosodic integration of two words into a one-tone unit and maintaining a single prosodic element D. Prosodic integration of two words into a two-tone unit and maintaining a single prosodic element

A. A physician insisting that a patient be treated even when no treatment is warranted

What can compromise a speech-language pathologists' professional autonomy and ethical obligations? A. A physician insisting that a patient be treated even when no treatment is warranted B. A patient's request C. Independent clinical judgement D. Supervisor's instructions

c. There are both genetic causes as well as environmental influences.

What causes cleft lip and palate? a. Cleft lip and palate are only caused by genetic malformations. b. Poor maternal health during pregnancy c. There are both genetic causes as well as environmental influences. d. Incompatibility of blood types between the mother and father

b. There are both genetic causes as well as environmental influences. (The cause of cleft lip and cleft palate formation can be genetic in nature. A specific gene that increases three-fold the occurrence of these deformities was identified in 2004. In addition, environmental influences may also cause, or interact with genetics, to produce orofacial clefting. Some causes which have been investigated include seasonal causes (such as pesticide exposure); maternal diet and vitamin intake; retinoids, which are members of the vitamin A family; anticonvulsant drugs; alcohol; cigarette use; nitrate compounds; organic solvents; parental exposure to lead; and illegal drugs (cocaine, crack cocaine, heroin, etc.) such as teratogens that increase the possibility of clefting.)

What causes cleft lip and palate? a. Incompatibility of blood types between the mother and father b. There are both genetic causes as well as environmental influences. c. Cleft lip and palate are only caused by genetic malformations. d. Poor maternal health during pregnancy

D. Vocal tract

What determines the intensity at each harmonic in vowel production? A. Nothing B. Respiration C. Vocal folds D. Vocal tract

d. Standardized screen or checklist (A speech/language screening is usually a brief 15-20 minute activity that may involve a standardized screening tool or checklist used by a particular school district. Any child who does not pass the screening will be referred for a full evaluation with recommendations and treatment plan as needed.)

What does a speech/language screening involve? a. Articulation test b. True/False questions c. Language sample d. Standardized screen or checklist

d. Standardized screen or checklist

What does a speech/language screening involve? a. True/False questions b. Articulation test c. Language sample d. Standardized screen or checklist

a. 3 oz. water swallow test (The 3 oz water swallow test has often been used as a quick screen for aspiration and making a decision regarding oral feeding. However, there are many people who fail this screen and are referred for instrumental evaluation which is actually unnecessary.)

What dysphagia screening test for aspiration is not supported by ASHA? a. 3 oz. water swallow test b. Questionairre c. Bedside dysphagia eval d. FEES

d. Have permission to evaluate and treat, referral needed, record keeping including history, current concern, eval results, daily summary and discharge summary (In order to maintain our ethical, professional practice standards, we will need the required referral for our practice venue, client permission to treat, and maintain detailed records of evaluation, treatment, and discharge.)

What is required with regard to permissions, referrals, and record keeping to follow the ASHA Code of Ethics? a. Referrals not needed b. Signed permission not needed c. We can serve anyone, any time d. Have permission to evaluate and treat, referral needed, record keeping including history, current concern, eval results, daily summary and discharge summary

A. Provide adults with traumatic brain injury (TBI) with highly trained and relatively automatic strategies to improve their performance in specific areas of their life

What is the Positive Everyday Routines approach to intervention that was designed by Ylviasker and Feeney (1998)? A. Provide adults with traumatic brain injury (TBI) with highly trained and relatively automatic strategies to improve their performance in specific areas of their life B. Trains adults with TBI to give themselves enough time to perform daily life tasks by increasing their awareness of impairments and of the potential effects of impairments on task completion C. Complements orientation training and environmental control by incorporating procedures to increase adaptive behavior or decrease maladaptive behavior D. Teaches patients to compensate for residual impairments to restructure daily life environment to minimize effects of the impairment

b. Auditory brainstem response audiometry.

What is the best way to assess the hearing of newborn infants? a. Audiometric screening. b. Auditory brainstem response audiometry. c. Behavioral audiometry. d. There is no accurate way to assess the hearing of newborns.

c. Auditory brainstem response audiometry. (Auditory brainstem response audiometry is a screening test to monitor for hearing loss or deafness, especially notable for its use with newborn infants. It is a method employed to assess the functions of the ears, cranial nerves, and various brain functions of the lower part of the auditory system, prior to the child developing to the point of describing a possible hearing problem.)

What is the best way to assess the hearing of newborn infants? a. Behavioral audiometry. b. Audiometric screening. c. Auditory brainstem response audiometry. d. There is no accurate way to assess the hearing of newborns.

D. It is often, though not always, caused by damage to the posterior inferior frontal gyrus in the left hemisphere.

What is true about Broca's aphasia? A. Speech is generally meaningless. B. Grammar is typically intact. C. It is never associated with apraxia of speech or dysarthria. D. It is often, though not always, caused by damage to the posterior inferior frontal gyrus in the left hemisphere.

a. Acoustic reflex (The acoustic reflex is an involuntary muscle contraction that occurs in the middle ear of mammals in response to high-intensity sound stimuli. When presented with a high-intensity sound stimulus, the stapedius and tensor tympani muscles of the middle ear bones contract. The stapedius pulls the stapes of the middle ear away from the oval window of the cochlea and the tensor tympani muscle pulls the malleus away from eardrum. The reflex decreases the transmission of vibration energy to the cochlea. The acoustic reflex normally occurs only at relatively high intensities; activation for quieter sounds can indicate ear dysfunction and absence of acoustic reflex can indicate neural hearing loss.)

What occurs in an individual with normal ear function when there is exposure to a high-intensity sound stimulus? a. Acoustic reflex. b. Presbycusis. c. Hardening of the ossicles. d. Permanent hearing loss.

b. Acoustic reflex.

What occurs in an individual with normal ear function when there is exposure to a high-intensity sound stimulus? a. Hardening of the ossicles. b. Acoustic reflex. c. Permanent hearing loss. d. Presbycusis.

D. The List of Excluded Individuals and Entities (LEIE)

What specifically prohibits practitioners from charging for future services or incomplete services? A. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations (JCAHO) B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) C. Local Coverages Determinations (LCD) D. The List of Excluded Individuals and Entities (LEIE)

B. Horizontal or supraglottic laryngectomy

What type of partial laryngectomy procedure is used when there is a smaller lesion on the supraglottic larynx? A. Vertical or subglottic laryngectomy B. Horizontal or supraglottic laryngectomy C. Lateral or supraglottic laryngectomy D. Medial or glottic laryngectomy

c. Continuous

What type of reinforcement is the most rapid learning of new behavior? a. Fixed-ratio b. Fixed-interval c. Continuous d. Variable-interval

c. genioglossus

When a person is producing voiced and voiceless /th/, the muscle that us most involved is the a. palatophayrngeus b. sternocleidomastoid c. genioglossus d. styloglossus

D. delayed hard palate closure.

When a surgeon closes a cleft of the soft palate first and a cleft of the hard palate later, this is known as A. secondary surgery. B. palatal surgery. C. pharyngeal flap surgery D. delayed hard palate closure.

D. Surgical procedures

When analyzing a client's speech sample with an unrepaired cleft palate, what determines the timing of speech intervention? A. Intelligibility B. Misarticulations C. Nasal emission D. Surgical procedures

B. Short time window

When analyzing spectrograms on a spectrograph, there are different types of spectrograms that allow you to analyze your sample to the best of its ability. These different types of spectrograms are called wideband spectrograms and narrowband spectrograms. Which of the following characteristics is expressed better in a wideband spectrogram? A. Long time window B. Short time window C. Good for showing harmonics D. Good for measuring harmonics

D. Whether the patient appropriately alters pitch to daily situations

When assessing pitch, the following subjective judgments are typically made, except: A. Whether the patient is monopitched B. Whether the patient is using optimal pitch C. Whether the pitch is appropriate to the patient's gender or age D. Whether the patient appropriately alters pitch to daily situations

C.Trunk stability and control

When assessing the ability of a student with cerebral palsy to access an augmentative and alternative communication device, which of the following physical factors must be evaluated first? A.Upper extremity range of motion B.Lower extremity strength C.Trunk stability and control D.Fine motor dexterity

B. subglottic

When carcinoma affects the cricoid and trachea, the damage is: A. supraglottic B. subglottic C. aryepiglottic D. epiglottic

C. Syntactic

When completing a language evaluation, it is important for a speech-language pathologist to understand the basic elements of language. The five components of language include semantics, syntax, morphology, pragmatics, and phonology. Which component of language refers to the rules governing grammatical constellation of language units? A. Phonologic B. Morphologic C. Syntactic D. Semantic

C. Chronological age

When considering an infant's readiness for oral feeding, all of the following must be taken into account, except: A. Severity of medical condition B. Gestational age C. Chronological age D. Behavioral state

C. To determine any substitutions that characterize more than one target phoneme

When differentiating articulation from phonological disorders, what is the purpose of summarizing the collapse of phonetic contrasts? A. To determine any sound or sound blends that characterize different phonemes B. To determine what sounds are inconsistently used C. To determine any substitutions that characterize more than one target phoneme D. To determine what sounds are consistently used

A.New topic initiation C.Discourse cohesion D.Repair strategies

Which THREE of the following are included in a pragmatic language assessment during conversation? A.New topic initiation B.Speech intelligibility C.Discourse cohesion D.Repair strategies E.Type-token ratio

B. t/k substitution (e.g., tin/kin)

Which articulation difference is not commonly observed among Asian speakers of English as a second language? A. Shortening of polysyllabic words B. t/k substitution (e.g., tin/kin) C. Confusion of /r/ and /l/ D. Substitution of a/ae (e.g., shock/shack)

a. superior laryngeal nerve

Which branch of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) innervates the cricothyroid muscle? a. superior laryngeal nerve b. lateral laryngeal nerve c. recurrent laryngeal nerve d. pharyngeal branch

B.Class III malocclusion

Which dental condition is most likely to have a negative effect on articulation? A.Class II malocclusion B.Class III malocclusion C.Missing maxillary lateral incisors D.Missing mandibular central incisors

C. Consider environmental conditions.

Which is not a primary objective of assessment for patients with disordered consciousness? A. Determine the patient's level of consciousness. B. Get a sense of the nature and severity of the patient's injuries. C. Consider environmental conditions. D. Estimate the patient's physical, behavioral, and cognitive recovery between time of injury and the time of assessment.

D. Range of motion

Which is not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)? A. Eye opening B. Motor responses C. Verbal responses D. Range of motion

C. Predictability of the permanent level of impairment of patients with TBI

Which is not true about behavioral and cognitive recovery for patients with a traumatic brain injury (TBI)? A. Age is the most important patient-related variable for predicting recovery for TBI. B. Patients with TBI typically progress through a fairly predictable sequence of stages as they recover. C. Predictability of the permanent level of impairment of patients with TBI D. Recovery from TBIs often follows a stair-step pattern, alternating between intervals of little or no change to intervals of rapid improvement.

B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)

Which legal act dictates procedures for collaboration between various professionals and professional groups to deliver and plan services to students? A. Act 89 B. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) C. Education for All Handicapped Children Act D. Public Law 94-142

C. The demands and capacities model

Which model contends that a child who is unable to cope with the expectations of fluent speech production may begin to stutter? A. The diagnosogenic model B. The expectancy deconfirmation model C. The demands and capacities model D. The approach-avoidance model

a. lateral cricoarytenoids and transverse arytenoid

Which muscles from the list below are the most involved in adducting the vocal folds? a. lateral cricoarytenoids and transverse arytenoid b. digastrics c. cricothyroids d. posterior cricoarytenoids

D.Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening

Which of the following actions will most effectively control the problem of overreferral in school screening programs that use impedance/immittance measurements? A.Obtaining the measurements in a professional sound-insulated room B.Including 500 Hz in the audiometric screening procedure C.Retesting immediately those who did not pass the first screening D.Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening

A.Teaching caregivers to provide feedback to their child about the child's fluent and stuttered speech

Which of the following activities is a principal component of the Lidcombe Program for childhood stuttering? A.Teaching caregivers to provide feedback to their child about the child's fluent and stuttered speech B.Teaching caregivers to support their child's communication attempts but to avoid acknowledging the child's fluency performance C.Teaching children to describe their emotional state to their caregiver when stuttering is anticipated on an upcoming word D.Teaching children to present nonverbal cues to their caregivers when stuttering is anticipated on an upcoming word

A.Understanding approximately 1,000 words

Which of the following benchmarks best aligns with current research on typical communication development for 3-year-old children? A.Understanding approximately 1,000 words B.Using irregular third-person-singular verb forms C.Having a mean length of utterance (MLUM L U) in morphemes of six D.Producing approximately ten consonant phonemes accurately

C.It is the intensity level at which spondee words are recognized at least 50% of the time.

Which of the following best describes the speech reception threshold (SRT)? A.It is the intensity level at which spondee words are recognized at or near 100% of the time. B.It is the lowest intensity level at which spondee words can be detected and recognized as speech. C.It is the intensity level at which spondee words are recognized at least 50% of the time. D.It is the lowest intensity level at which spondee words can be discriminated from one another.

A.Differences in language as well as in pronunciation

Which of the following best distinguishes a dialect from an accent? A.Differences in language as well as in pronunciation B.Differences in pronunciation only C.Differences due to the influence of a second language D.Differences that are unique to a particular speaker

c. Decreased ability to perform diadochokinesis

Which of the following characteristics is most likely a characteristic of a client with childhood apraxia of speech? a. Low muscle tone in the lips, tongue, and jaw b. Echolalic response patterns c. Decreased ability to perform diadochokinesis d. Sensorineural hearing loss

C.Prader-Willi syndrome

Which of the following conditions is singularly caused by a genetic abnormality? A.Cleft lip and palate B.Specific language impairment C.Prader-Willi syndrome D.Cerebral palsy

c. With an analysis of the client's communication needs

Which of the following correctly indicates the point at which an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) evaluation should begin a. With the trial use of an AAC device b. After the client has developed the prerequisite cognitive skills c. With an analysis of the client's communication needs d. With a medical consultation

C.Strength and coordination of the speech musculature are intact in clients with apraxia of speech, whereas slowness, weakness, incoordination, or altered tone of the speech musculature are associated with dysarthria.

Which of the following describes an important diagnostic distinction between apraxia of speech and dysarthria? A.Apraxia of speech is a result of lower motor neuron lesions, whereas dysarthria is the result of upper motor neuron lesions. B.Clients with apraxia of speech lack the ability to monitor reactive speech, whereas clients with dysarthria lack the ability to sequence volitional speech movements. C.Strength and coordination of the speech musculature are intact in clients with apraxia of speech, whereas slowness, weakness, incoordination, or altered tone of the speech musculature are associated with dysarthria. D.Apraxia of speech is characterized by distortions, omissions, and substitutions, whereas dysarthria is characterized by inconsistent, highly variable misarticulations.

A.Partial relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle B.Superior and anterior hyolaryngeal excursion

Which of the following factors contributes to UES opening? Select all that apply. A.Partial relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle B.Superior and anterior hyolaryngeal excursion C.Velopharyngeal closure D.Posterior and inferior hyolaryngeal excursion

C. Visual impairment

Which of the following factors is most important when designing an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) system for individuals with progressive supranuclear palsy? A. Rigidity involving upper limbs B. Rigidity involving lower limbs C. Visual impairment D. Hearing deficits

C.Low-frequency first formant (F1)

Which of the following formants typically characterizes a high vowel? A.High-frequency second formant (F2) B.High-frequency first formant (F1) C.Low-frequency first formant (F1) D.Low-frequency second formant (F2)

D.Rancho Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function

Which of the following instruments is often used to document stages of recovery after traumatic brain injury (TBI) ? A.Glasgow Coma Scale B.Scale of Executive Function C.Sequenced Inventory of Communication Development D.Rancho Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function

d. mandatory consent in the primary language is always required

Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the IDEA of 2004? a. testing must be administered in a way that is not racially or culturally discriminatory b. testing and evaluation materials must be provided and administered in the language or other mode of communication in which the child is most proficient unless it is clearly not feasible to do so c. testing must be administered to a bilingual child so as to reflect accurately the child's ability in the area tested, rather than reflecting limited English-language skill d. mandatory consent in the primary language is always required

a. under ESSA, the federal government creates short- and long-term goals for academic proficiency

Which of the following is NOT true regarding ESSA? a. under ESSA, the federal government creates short- and long-term goals for academic proficiency b. under ESSA, the individual states create short- and long-term goals for academic proficiency c. ESSA was signed by President Barack Obama d. during an ELL's second year in a US school, his or her score counts towards the school's proficiency rating

b. Autism Spectrum Disorder

Which of the following is a diagnosis that an SLP is legally allowed to make independently of other professionals? a. Parkinson's disease b. Autism Spectrum Disorder c. Obstructive sleep apnea d. Down syndrome

B.Having a play-based learning approach to address goals

Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of articulation therapy for a 2-year-old patient with a repaired cleft palate and compensatory errors? A.Cycling through multiple speech goals in a given session B.Having a play-based learning approach to address goals C.Focusing on carryover of speech productions D.Addressing speech targets with high frequency and intensity

A.otitis media

Which of the following is a middle ear disorder: A. otitis media B. presbycusis C. Meniere's disease D. Tinnitus

D.F0 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over time

Which of the following is a type of perturbation that can be measured to determine the amount of noise in the voice? A.Changes in the frequency range between F1 and F2 over time B.Changes in the frequency range between F2 and F3 over time C.F3 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over time D.F0 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over time

A. Linguistic competence, operational competence, social competence, strategic competence

Which of the following is an accurate representation of Light's four communicative competencies? A. Linguistic competence, operational competence, social competence, strategic competence B. Language competence, functional competence, sociolinguistic competence, statistical competence C. Linguistic competence, sociolinguistic competence, statistical competence, derivational competence D. Metabolic competence, augmentative and alternative communication (AAC), competence, pragmatic competence, syntax competence

c. The IEP must be in effect before special education services or related services are provided

Which of the following is an accurate statement about what IDEA requires for any IEP? a. The IEP must include a multiyear outline of instructional objectives b. The IEP must include a section on assistive devices regardless of the nature or degree of the students disability c. The IEP must be in effect before special education services or related services are provided d. The IEP must not be made available to any school personnel except special education teachers

C."This is a dog. Can you say the word 'dog'?"

Which of the following is an example of a modeled trial? A."This is the opposite of a cat. What is this?" B."What animal is this a picture of?" C."This is a dog. Can you say the word 'dog'?" D."This is a picture of a /da.../.forward slash d a ellipses forward slash"

C. focusing on conveying of ideas rather than linguistic content of the message

Which of the following is an example of a pragmatic approach to aphasia therapy: A. melodic intonation therapy B. deblocking C. focusing on conveying of ideas rather than linguistic content of the message D. behavioral naming drills

C.Jared was bullied by Michael.

Which of the following is an example of a reversible passive? A.The balloon was broken by the pin. B.The kite was flown by Ben Franklin. C.Jared was bullied by Michael. D.The girl put her doll by her friend.

A."Chew" is pronounced /ʃu/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash.

Which of the following is an example of deaffrication? A."Chew" is pronounced /ʃu/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash. B."Round" is pronounced /waʋnd/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash. C."Dog" is pronounced /dɔd/forward slash d open o d forward slash. D."Van" is pronounced /fæn/forward slash f ash n forward slash.

C.Memory loss of events immediately preceding or following the trauma incident

Which of the following is characteristic of a mild traumatic brain injury? A.Long-term memory loss B.Onset of frequent seizures C.Memory loss of events immediately preceding or following the trauma incident D.Extensive and permanent neurological impairments

d. normal strength, tone, and range of movement of oral and pharyngeal muscles

Which of the following is characteristic of apraxia of speech but not dysarthria? a. consistent errors regardless of length and complexity of utterance b. difficulty performing both non-speech and speech motor tasks c. predictable errors d. normal strength, tone, and range of movement of oral and pharyngeal muscles

a. Masako maneuver

Which of the following is considered an exercise for patients with dysarthria and should not be performed with food? a. Masako maneuver b. Supraglottic swallow c. Mendelsohn maneuver d. Effortful swallow

A.Stroboscopy

Which of the following is generally considered most effective and appropriate for viewing the vocal folds during phonation? A.Stroboscopy B.Endoscopy C.Fluoroscopy D.Laryngeal mirror examination

A. Parkinson's disease

Which of the following is not a common etiology of hyperkinetic dysarthria? A. Parkinson's disease B. Huntington's disease C. Seizure disorders D. Brainstem stroke

B. Dysphagia

Which of the following is not considered to be a communication disorder associated with traumatic brain injuries? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Reading and writing deficits D. Auditory comprehension deficits

a. because many children with language disorders have difficulties with working memory, clinicians should conduct therapy primarily through the auditory modality and not be concerned with incorporating tactile or visual activities into therapy

Which of the following is not true with regard to treatment of children with language disorders? a. because many children with language disorders have difficulties with working memory, clinicians should conduct therapy primarily through the auditory modality and not be concerned with incorporating tactile or visual activities into therapy b. collaboration with classroom teachers is important in helping children generalize treatment behaviors c. it is helpful , when appropriate, to incorporate reading and writing (literacy) intervention into language therapy d. a child's chronological age is not always the best predictor of the kind of treatment that will be appropriate; current skills (developmental level) is a more reliable indicator

c. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency

Which of the following is the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in the speech of persons with cleft palate? a. Congenital hearing loss from otitis media b. Broad irregular maxillary arch c. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency d. Irregular vocal fold abduction

a. The high amplitude concentration of aperiodic energy at 4kHz suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless sibilant fricative

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the word-initial consonant? a. The high amplitude concentration of aperiodic energy at 4kHz suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless sibilant fricative b. The low amplitude concentration of periodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is a voiced sibilant fricative c. The presence of prevoicing before the release burst suggests that the initial consonant is a voiced affricate d. The low amplitude diffuse distribution of aperiodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless non sibilant fricative

D. Spastic-dyskinetic

Which of the following is the most common form of mixed cerebral palsy? A. Dyskinetic-athetoid B. Ataxic-dyskinetic C. Spastic-ataxic D. Spastic-dyskinetic

A.Cluster reduction

Which of the following is the most common phonological problem evidenced by young children aged 18-29 months? A.Cluster reduction B.Velar fronting C.Nasal assimilation D.Dimunitization

d. Duration of the preceding vowel

Which of the following is the most important acoustic cue that distinguishes between unreleased final /p/ and unreleased final /b/ as in "cap" versus "cab"? a. Locus frequency of burst b. Voice onset time c. Vocal fundamental frequency d. Duration of the preceding vowel

b. To provide a comparison against a representative population

Which of the following is the primary reason for using standardized norm-referenced instruments to assess communication function? a. To track progress on a session-by-session basis b. To provide a comparison against a representative population c. To develop a database for diagnostic purposes d. To provide qualitative data for the assessment report

A.A random ratio of tokens to correct responses

Which of the following is the ratio of reinforcement that will most quickly cause a newly acquired behavior to be habituated? A.A random ratio of tokens to correct responses B.A ratio of 1 token to 1 correct response C.A ratio of 1 token to 4 correct responses only D.A ratio of 1 token to 10 correct responses only

C. If the meninges are intact, the injury may be considered to be closed head if the skull is fractured.

Which of the following is true about a closed head traumatic brain injury? A. It involves penetration of a foreign substance into the brain. B. It involves torn or lacerated meninges. C. If the meninges are intact, the injury may be considered to be closed head if the skull is fractured. D. Regardless of the circumstances, the injury cannot be considered to be closed head if the skull is fractured.

b. To support language development, family members should speak to the child in the language they feel most comfortable using

Which of the following is true about supporting a young child's acquisition of English as a second language? a. A focus in the family on the English speaking culture as well as the language will support the child's acquisition of english b. To support language development, family members should speak to the child in the language they feel most comfortable using c. If a child has a language disorder, a delay in learning english will best help the child achieve the highest ultimate level of fluency d. Even without support, the child can be expected to be fully fluent in english in less than 2 years.

c. It takes 5-7 years to acquire.

Which of the following is true of cognitive academic language proficiency (CALP)? a. It is language used during conversation. b. It is easily assessed during a language sample. c. It takes 5-7 years to acquire. d. It includes turn taking/simple speech acts.

d. Core words are a small number of words that make up the majority of conversation.

Which of the following is true regarding core words used in augmentative and alternative (AAC) devices? a. AAC devices contain only core words. b. Core words are a list of developmental words. c. Core words are the most important words for users to learn. d. Core words are a small number of words that make up the majority of conversation.

a. Begins code-switching and uses simpler language when talking to younger children

Which of the following is typical social communication behavior for a child 3-5 years old? a. Begins code-switching and uses simpler language when talking to younger children b. Uses narratives characterized by causally sequenced events c. Uses language with the intent to persuade others and change their opinions d. Uses single words to express intention

D.Response to Intervention

Which of the following is used to improve the performance of struggling students who receive scientifically based instruction in a general education classroom? A.Discrepancy formula model B.Early intervention C.Multitier intervention model D.Response to Intervention

C. Vowels

Which of the following is usually not a production concern of a client with a cleft lip and palate? A. Stops B. Fricatives C. Vowels D. Affricates

c. Generate clinical question → Locate evidence → Evaluate evidence → Make clinical decision

Which of the following lists the steps of the evidence-based practice process in the correct order? a. Make clinical decision → Generate clinical question → Evaluate evidence → Locate evidence b. Generate clinical question → Locate evidence → Make clinical decision → Evaluate evidence c. Generate clinical question → Locate evidence → Evaluate evidence → Make clinical decision d. Locate evidence → Generate clinical question → Evaluate evidence → Make clinical decision

b. targeting increased oral awareness

Which of the following might be included in a treatment plan for a child with cleft palate? a. targeting posterior sounds b. targeting increased oral awareness c. targeting use of nasal sounds d. targeting marked sounds

D.Cricothyroid

Which of the following muscles is responsible for changing vocal pitch? A.Posterior cricoarytenoid B.Thyroarytenoid C.Lateral cricoarytenoid D.Cricothyroid

c. Palatoglossus

Which of the following muscles produces the opposing action to those that produce velopharyngeal closure? a. Musculus uvulae b. Levator veli palatini c. Palatoglossus d. Sylopharyngeus

D.CT or MR angiography

Which of the following neuroimaging studies specifies which artery or arteries is/are occluded in a patient with a stroke? A.Electroencephalography B.Magnetoencephalography C.Evoked-response potentials D.CT or MR angiography

A. Social interaction

Which of the following occurs when the behaviors of two individuals mutually influence the subsequent behaviors of the other? A. Social interaction B. Social integration C. Social influence D. Social communication

C.Exhibiting weak syllable deletions

Which of the following phonological processes is a child expected to suppress by 3 years of age? A.Displaying stopping patterns B.Using vocalization substitutions C.Exhibiting weak syllable deletions D.Having consonant cluster reductions

C.Manual depression of the larynx

Which of the following procedures would be effective in remediating a falsetto voice for an adult male with a severe bilateral hearing loss? A.Development of phonation from coughing B.Pushing exercises C.Manual depression of the larynx D.Manual elevation of the larynx

D.Using a bottle with a modified nipple during feedings

Which of the following recommendations to a parent of an infant with cleft lip and palate should an SLP make to best optimize feeding for adequate nutrition and appropriate growth? A.Providing a bottle rather than breast-feeding the infant B.Positioning the infant in a supine position during feeding times C.Allowing the infant to take as much time as needed to feed D.Using a bottle with a modified nipple during feedings

B. American Speech-Language-Hearing Association's (ASHA) Code of Ethics

Which of the following serves as an outline for consideration of applications to augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) practice? A. United States Society for Augmentative and Alternative Communication (ASSAAC) B. American Speech-Language-Hearing Association's (ASHA) Code of Ethics C. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) D. Local Education Agency (LEA)

A.Sun and ton

Which of the following sets of minimal pair words best targets the phonological patterns of stopping of fricatives? A.Sun and ton B.Sip and ship C.Star and tar D.Shoe and shoot

D.Assistance from caregivers to improve the patient's communication skills

Which of the following should an SLP recommend to best help a patient who has advanced to late stages of dementia of the Alzheimer's type? A.Group treatment to improve the patient's conversational intelligibility B.Individual treatment to improve the patient's recall of salient vocabulary words C.Individual treatment to improve the patient's comprehension during social discourse D.Assistance from caregivers to improve the patient's communication skills

A.Repeated nonpropulsive lingual movements

Which of the following signs of dysphagia is the most common oral-stage observation when assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease? A.Repeated nonpropulsive lingual movements B.Eating quickly and impulsively C.Spilling liquids out of mouth because of poor labial seal D.Holding food in mouth because of poor sensation

B./p/ and /b/forward slash p forward slash and forward slash b forward slash

Which of the following sounds are typically mastered by the time a child turns 3? A./k/ and /g/forward slash k forward slash and forward slash g forward slash B./p/ and /b/forward slash p forward slash and forward slash b forward slash C./l/ and /s/forward slash l forward slash and forward slash s forward slash D./ch/ and /sh/forward slash c h forward slash and forward slash s h forward slash

C.Saying single words with nasal consonants

Which of the following speech-sampling contexts best assesses hyponasality? A.Producing sentences with oral sonorants B.Counting in numerical order from 60 to 70 C.Saying single words with nasal consonants D.Repeating words with oral-pressure consonants

A.Screening identifies the likelihood of dysphagia and the need for further assessment.

Which of the following statements about dysphagia screening and assessment/evaluation is true? A.Screening identifies the likelihood of dysphagia and the need for further assessment. B.Screening identifies the nature and severity of dysphagia and enables treatment planning. C.Assessment/evaluation is a pass-fail procedure that determines whether or not a patient is aspirating. D.Assessment/evaluation can be performed by non-SLP observers.

c. After an assessment has been completed, it is usually appropriate to make some general statements about prognosis

Which of the following statements best characterizes the ethics of formulating the prognosis for clients with speech and language disorders? a. No assessment is complete until a precise statement can be formulated regarding the prognosis b. The extreme complexity of speech and language processes makes it impossible to formulate prognoses c. After an assessment has been completed, it is usually appropriate to make some general statements about prognosis d. A clinician's ability to make pronostic statements depends on the availability of standardized tests to quantify the severity of a speech and language disorder

C.All of the children who failed the screening were found to have a communication disorder.

Which of the following statements best indicates a screening tool with high sensitivity? A.The majority of the children who passed the screening were found to have a communication disorder. B.Many of the children who passed the screening did not have a communication disorder. C.All of the children who failed the screening were found to have a communication disorder. D.Most of the children who failed the screening did not have a communication disorder.

D. The serratus anterior elevates ribs 1 through 9.

Which of the following statements is true? A. The innermost intercostal (T2-T11) elevates ribs 1 through 11. B. The external intercostal (T2-T11) pulls the rib cage down. C. The pectoralis minor (C4-T1) decreases the transverse dimension of the rib cage. D. The serratus anterior elevates ribs 1 through 9.

B.Using light articulatory contacts

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for an SLP to try in an effort to minimize the perception of mild nasal emission in a patient? A.Increasing fundamental frequency B.Using light articulatory contacts C.Reducing mouth opening D.Increasing rate of speech

C.Using tactile cues to elicit phonemes

Which of the following strategies to treat compensatory articulation errors is most appropriate for a child with hypernasality and glottal stop substitutions following surgery for velopharyngeal insufficiency? A.Using oral motor exercises B.Using a straw to elicit /s/forward slash s forward slash C.Using tactile cues to elicit phonemes D.Using negative practice

B.The thalamus

Which of the following structures is a relay center for sensory information? A.The reticular formation B.The thalamus C.The putamen D.The hippocampus

A.Completing head and neck relaxation exercises

Which of the following techniques is most effective when treating phonation in a patient with spastic dysarthria? A.Completing head and neck relaxation exercises B.Engaging in lip-stretching exercises C.Providing instruction in phonetic placement D.Working on pitch-range exercises

a. Ataxic

Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is characterized by low muscle tone, impared balance and tremor? a. Ataxic b. Spastic c. Athetoid d. Hemiplegic

A. Unaided communication

Which of the following types of communication requires no additional equipment, and only requires the individual's own body as the mode of communication? A. Unaided communication B. Aided communication C. Rated communication D. Independent communication

b. Commissural

Which of the following types of fibers facilitates communication between the right and the left hemispheres by connecting cortical areas in the two hemispheres? a. Association b. Commissural c. Efferent d. Afferent

B.Lateral D.Anterior-posterior

Which of the following views make up a standard videofluoroscopic swallow study? Select all that apply. A.Frontal B.Lateral C.Transverse D.Anterior-posterior

A.Increasing the mass of the vocal folds

Which of the following will most effectively decrease the fundamental frequency? A.Increasing the mass of the vocal folds B.Increasing the subglottal pressure C.Raising the position of the larynx within the neck D.Lengthening the vocal folds

d. an MLU around 2.0

Which of the following would be commonly observed in a typically developing 24-month-old child? a. 90% speech intelligibility b. 4-word combinations c. beginning to follow 1-step directions d. an MLU around 2.0

c. lingual sweep of lateral sulci

Which of the following would be inappropriate to recommend for a patient with dysphagia due to poor base-of-tongue retraction? a. use of the chin tuck strategy b. swallowing multiple times for one bolus c. lingual sweep of lateral sulci d. effortful swallow

a. CELF-5

Which of the following would be the most appropriate assessment material for a child in 5th grade with difficulties in content, form, and use? a. CELF-5 b. GFTA-3 c. The Rossetti d. SSI-4

D. Referring the child to a speech-language pathologist for any needed auditory diagnosis

Which of the following would not be considered when managing associated sensory problems for a child with cerebral palsy? A. Asking the child to wear prescription glasses during treatment B. Using frequency modulated (FM) and other auditory trainers if needed C. Checking the child's hearing aid to ensure that it is working properly D. Referring the child to a speech-language pathologist for any needed auditory diagnosis

c. Children develop their phonological concepts through passive learning

Which of these ideas do the Universalist-Linguistic school of phonological acquisition theories include? a. Children demonstrate their phonological acquisition as active learners b. Children demonstrate individual differences in phonological acquisition c. Children develop their phonological concepts through passive learning d. Children develop phonological principles in a manner that is not linear

c. sensorimotor

Which one of the following Piagetian stages, which include object permanence, corresponds with the emergence of a typically developing child's first word? a. preoperational b. formal operations c. sensorimotor d. concrete operations

d. in class II malocclusion, the maxilla is receded and the mandible is protruded

Which one of the following is FALSE regarding dental deviations? a. skeletal malocclusion refers to deviations in the shape and dimensions of the mandible and maxilka b. dental malocclusion refers to deviations in the positioning of individual teeth c. in class I malocclusion, the arches themselves are generally aligned properly; however, some individual teeth are misaligned d. in class II malocclusion, the maxilla is receded and the mandible is protruded

b. Hodson and Paden's cycles approach involves treating children with phonological disorders in cycles which the child is trained to a criterion of mastery for error patterns such as final-consonant deletion and fronting

Which one of the following is FALSE regarding treatment of children with speech sound disorders? a. in maximal contrast therapy, also known as the maximal opposition approach, the selected word pairs contain maximum numbers of phonemic contrasts (pack-stack) b. Hodson and Paden's cycles approach involves treating children with phonological disorders in cycles which the child is trained to a criterion of mastery for error patterns such as final-consonant deletion and fronting c. Van Riper's approach focuses on phonetic placement, auditory discrimination/perceptual training, and drill-like repetition and practice at increasingly complex motor levels until target phonemes are produced correctly in spontaneous conversation d. In minimal pair contrast therapy, the clinician uses pairs of words that differ by only one feature; of the paired words, one is the target word in which the sound is produced correctly and the other is the child's incorrect production

c. to ensure that all students speak at least 2 languages so they become more competent global citizens

Which one of the following is NOT a goal of the Common Core State Standards? a. to create globally competitive citizens in the 21st century b. to prepare students for college c. to ensure that all students speak at least 2 languages so they become more competent global citizens d. to help students become responsible citizens who use evidence for deliberation

b. Standardized language tests help sample behaviors adequately, providing multiple contexts for sampling target-language behaviors

Which one of the following is NOT true? a. Standardized language tests provide a means of quantifiable comparison of a child's performance to that of large groups of children in a similar age category b. Standardized language tests help sample behaviors adequately, providing multiple contexts for sampling target-language behaviors c. with young children, we want to examine play skills (among other things) d. in language sampling, some clinicians calculate a TTR, which represents the variety of different words a child uses expressively

c. most of the reduction in stuttering occurs by the fifth reading

Which one of the following is a fact about stuttering adaptation? a. the greatest reduction in stuttering occurs only on the seventh reading b. there is a transfer from one reading passage to the other c. most of the reduction in stuttering occurs by the fifth reading d. a higher magnitude of adaptation occurs with an increased time interval between readings

c. Yesterday she cook a pot of soup

Which one of the following is a predictable production for speakers of Asian languages as a result of language interference (transfer)? a. He be to bed going now b. I see cat the little c. Yesterday she cook a pot of soup d. We no not be drivin' over there

d. to receive a Certificate or Clinical Competence in speech-language pathology or audiology, an SLP or audiologist need only to have a state-granted credential to work in public schools

Which one of the following is not true? a. many state licensure laws are modeled after ASHA's requirements b. violation of ASHA's Code of Ethics can have major consequences, including revocation of ASHA's clinical certificate and cancelation of ASHA membership c. a Certificate or Clinical Competence and state license are not necessarily required to practice in public school settings d. to receive a Certificate or Clinical Competence in speech-language pathology or audiology, an SLP or audiologist need only to have a state-granted credential to work in public schools

a. generation of information that can be used to create treatment goals and assess treatment progress

Which one of the following would NOT be a feature of this norm-referenced, standardized test? a. generation of information that can be used to create treatment goals and assess treatment progress b. the comparison of a client's score to that of a normative sample c. ensuring of consistency of administration and scoring across examiners d. the provision of systematic procedures for administration and scoring of the test

D. Mothers' reluctance to engage in reciprocal interactions with their infants

Which problems might you expect to be associated with children who come from homes containing neglect, abuse, or both? A. A high incidence of clefts of the lip (but not palate) B. An unusually high incidence of middle ear infections C. Inappropriate vocalizations by school-age children within the classroom D. Mothers' reluctance to engage in reciprocal interactions with their infants

b. Clinical Specialty Recognition is available only in a few specialty areas

Which statement is true about ASHA's special interest groups (SIGs)? a. membership in SIGs is free to all ASHA members b. Clinical Specialty Recognition is available only in a few specialty areas c. a Clinical Speciality Recognition is essential to assess and treat clients with a specified disorder d. each SIG is concerned with a specific disorder of communication

d. Analog/Adjustable.

Which type of hearing aid retains flexibility to make adjustments, is the least effective, and the least expensive? a. Analog/Programmable. b. Digital/Programmable. c. Bone anchored hearing aid. d. Analog/Adjustable.

D. Social reinforcer

Which type of reinforcer is exemplified by verbal praise, attention, and facial expressions? A. Primary reinforcer B. Secondary reinforcer C. Unconditioned reinforcer D. Social reinforcer

D. A. Normal coarticulation among sounds, especially multisyllabic words.

While treating a client who clutters, the clinician targets areas of communication breakdown. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cluttering that the clinician will need to address during treatment? A. A. Rate that is abnormally rapid and irregular. B. A. Frequent use of pauses. C. A. Prosodic patterns that do not conform to syntactic and semantic constraints. D. A. Normal coarticulation among sounds, especially multisyllabic words.

A. Predominantly a disorder of the oral phase

While working in a hospital setting, you are asked to evaluate a 70-year-old patient who has had a brainstem stroke. The medical records indicate that the patient has difficulty swallowing. When you conduct test swallow trials, you observe anterior tongue movements, food residue in the anterior and lateral sulcus, premature swallow, and reduced range of tongue elevation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis you would make of this patient? A. Predominantly a disorder of the oral phase B. Predominantly a disorder of the pharyngeal phase C. Predominantly a problem of delayed or absent swallowing reflex D. Predominantly a problem of a tracheoesophageal fistula

a. Inform the ASHA Board of Ethics.

While working in a private speech/language clinic, you become aware that a speech/language pathologist working in the clinic with you altered test scores on one of the children evaluated at the clinic. This was done so that parents would enroll their child in the clinic's services. According to ASHA, you are bound to: a. Inform the ASHA Board of Ethics. b. Tell the parent what the correct score is. c. Pretend that you don't know about it. d. Nothing. The child really needed the therapy.

b. Inform the ASHA Board of Ethics (The ASHA Code of Ethics, through Principle of Ethics IV, Rules B, F, I, and J, addresses confidentiality in relationships with colleagues. B. "Individuals shall not engage in dishonesty, fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, sexual harassment, or any other form of conduct that adversely reflects on the professions or on the individual's fitness to serve persons professionally." F. "Individuals' statements to colleagues about professional services, research results, and products shall adhere to prevailing professional standards and shall contain no misrepresentations." I. "Individuals who have reason to believe that the Code of Ethics has been violated shall inform the Board of Ethics." J. "Individuals shall comply fully with policies of the Board of Ethics in its consideration and adjudication of complaints of violation of the Code of Ethics." (ASHA))

While working in a private speech/language clinic, you become aware that a speech/language pathologist working in the clinic with you altered test scores on one of the children evaluated at the clinic. This was done so that parents would enroll their child in the clinic's services. According to ASHA, you are bound to: a. Nothing. The child really needed the therapy. b. Inform the ASHA Board of Ethics. c. Pretend that you don't know about it. d. Tell the parent what the correct score is.

b. Primarily to rule out aspiration risk and maintain nutrition and hydration which can be central to care. (There are some ongoing concerns regarding the need for early swallowing screening when a patient is admitted to a medical care setting. There is sill no specific protocol used by all, but the screenings should be done according to basic ASHA guidelines.)

Why are swallowing screenings recommended when patients are admitted to medical centers with neurologically based conditions? a. To decide if patient can drink water b. Primarily to rule out aspiration risk and maintain nutrition and hydration which can be central to care. c. To determine a diet d. To decide if patient can self feed

d. Primarily to rule out aspiration risk and maintain nutrition and hydration which can be central to care.

Why are swallowing screenings recommended when patients are admitted to medical centers with neurologically based conditions? a. To decide if patient can self feed b. To decide if patient can drink water c. To determine a diet d. Primarily to rule out aspiration risk and maintain nutrition and hydration which can be central to care.

a. Comparison to baseline (Speech-language pathologists and otolaryngologists can repeat stroboscopic evaluations periodically, compare with previous results and determine progress being made in enabling the patient to achieve their "optimal" voice.)

Why would stroboscopy be used as part of a voice treatment program? a. Comparison to baseline b. Not needed c. Change treatment d. Treatment termination

a. Comparison to baseline

Why would stroboscopy be used as part of a voice treatment program? a. Comparison to baseline b. Treatment termination c. Not needed d. Change treatment

A. Excessive and even stress helps distinguish ataxic dysarthria from hyperkinetic dysarthria, with its equal stress.

With different types of dysarthria, a differential diagnosis may be challenging. The clinician needs to know the unique features of each type. Obviously, each type may be contrasted on more than one feature, but which of the following statements correctly contrasts two types to help make a differential diagnosis? A. Excessive and even stress helps distinguish ataxic dysarthria from hyperkinetic dysarthria, with its equal stress. B. Imprecise production of consonants helps distinguish hyperkinetic dysarthria from hypokinetic dysarthria, which is characterized by distorted vowels. C. Impression of drunken speech found in mixed dysarthria helps distinguish it from ataxic dysarthria, in which that characteristic is absent. D. Excess loudness variations of flaccid dysarthria distinguish it from monoloudness of hyperkinetic dysarthria.

D. Linguistic

With regard to human communication, which of the following viewpoints is a rule-based system of language codes for expressing and understanding thoughts, feelings, and ideas? A. Behavioral B. Analytical C. Theoretical D. Linguistic

C. Theoretical

With regard to human communication, which of the following viewpoints studies the process of sending and receiving messages? A. Behavioral B. Analytical C. Theoretical D. Linguistic

a. because BICS develops faster than CALP, Xu is probably developing in an appropriate manner, and at this time, evaluation for a possible language impairment is not necessary

Xu Fang is a 7 yr old girl in an all-English speaking second-grade classroom. Xu's parents emigrated from mainland China 8 years ago; Xu was born in the US. She came to an all-English kindergarten speaking only Mandarin; kindergarten was her first exposure to English on a regular basis. She had no prior preschool experience in either Mandarin or English. The second-grade teacher has referred Xu for a speech-language evaluation because he says that, although she interacts well with her English-speaking classmates on the playground, she is "behind" her classmates in written language skills (spelling, reading, etc.). Xu definitely demonstrates a gap. Based on her background, you can state that: a. because BICS develops faster than CALP, Xu is probably developing in an appropriate manner, and at this time, evaluation for a possible language impairment is not necessary b. because Xu has been in an all-English-speaking classroom setting for at least 2 years, her CALP should be as well developed as her BICS. Her difficulties are a red flag, and a speech-language assessment should be conducted c. Xu's CALP should actually develop faster than her BICS, because Chinese parents are known to focus on academic skills at home; thus, her BICS-CALP gap is a red flag that she may have an underlying language impairment d. Xu's BICS-CALP gap may indicate a possible intellectual disability, and she should be evaluated by the school psychologist

b. Get a signed consent for a release from the student's parents. (According to ASHA, speech-language pathologists and audiologists must be aware of who owns patient records. In a school setting, the school district owns the record. For example, a school district maintains one "official" record on each student. Speech-language pathology or audiology reports are the property of the school district and may not be released to anyone without appropriate, signed releases of information. A report prepared by a speech-language pathologist or audiologist in the course of employment in a particular setting is not "owned" by the speech-language pathologist or audiologist. 2. Persons other than the client/student may request information about the client's communication problem. Requests might come from an off-site clinic supervisor, Clinical Fellowship supervisor, a professional who supervises student teachers, reporters, insurance companies, and government agencies. Again, information cannot be disclosed without signed releases.)

You are a speech-language pathologist working in the school system. A private speech-language pathologist who you went to graduate school with is working with one of your students. She calls you and wants to collaborate on goals for this student. What is the first thing you do? a. Send a copy of the student's IEP to the private clinician. b. Get a signed consent for a release from the student's parents. c. Set up a meeting at the school so that you can collaborate on goals and therapy techniques. d. Tell the private speech-language pathologist that you would like to collaborate and do not need consent from the student's parents.

d. Get a signed consent for a release from the student's parents.

You are a speech-language pathologist working in the school system. A private speech-language pathologist who you went to graduate school with is working with one of your students. She calls you and wants to collaborate on goals for this student. What is the first thing you do? a. Send a copy of the student's IEP to the private clinician. b. Tell the private speech-language pathologist that you would like to collaborate and do not need consent from the student's parents. c. Set up a meeting at the school so that you can collaborate on goals and therapy techniques. d. Get a signed consent for a release from the student's parents.

c. Tina's language skills are generally commensurate within those of a 2- to 3-year-old-child and starting kindergarten in the fall would probably be difficult for her

You are asked to assess Tina, who has down syndrome. She is 4 years 10 months old, and her parents tell you that they wish for her to begin kindergarten in the fall (it's July and school begins in September). You assess Tina's receptive and expressive language skills and find that she has an average MLU of 3.0 and an expressive vocabulary of 350 words. She sustains a topic of conversation about 20% of the time and overregularizes past-tense inflections. You will tell Tina's parents that: a. Tina's overall language skills are very generally within normal limits for her age b. though Tina's language skills are approx. 6 months delayed for her age, she will be able to participate in a regular kindergarten classroom c. Tina's language skills are generally commensurate within those of a 2- to 3-year-old-child and starting kindergarten in the fall would probably be difficult for her d. Tina's language skills are generally commensurate with those of a 1-year-old, and, thus, she needs to be in a preschool setting with very young children

B. Focus on identification and reduction of vocally abusive behavior such as yelling and screaming; use computer games and prizes to help motivate Gabe to use better vocal habits.

You are asked to see a 6-year-old boy, Gabe, for potential therapy because he is very hoarse and has been hoarse for approximately 7 months. He is an active, happy first grader who loves sports and is engaged in various types of sports (e.g., soccer, baseball) year-round. Reportedly, he frequently screams at games. At the school, there is one 15-minute recess in the morning and a 30-minute recess after lunch. You observe Gabe on the playground at recess several times over a period of 2 weeks and see that he loves to run, play, and yell loudly with his friends. His parents have given you a letter from the ENT that definitively states that Gabe has vocal nodules. After an evaluation, what is the first thing you would do? A. Send Gabe to a counselor to probe into any possible psychological or emotional factors that are contributing to his vocally abusive behavior. B. Focus on identification and reduction of vocally abusive behavior such as yelling and screaming; use computer games and prizes to help motivate Gabe to use better vocal habits. C. Monitor Gabe's vocal status by seeing him once every 3 months for the next year to observe whether his hoarseness gets better or worse. D. Prescribe 3 or 4 weeks of almost total voice rest, telling Gabe and his parents that he can speak only when he absolutely has to—no yelling at recess or when he plays sports.

c. focus on identification and reduction of vocally abusive behavior, such as yelling and screaming, using computer games to help motivate Jason to use better vocal habits

You are asked to see an 8 yr old boy, Jason, for potential therapy because he is very hoarse. Jason has been hoarse for approx. 8 months. He is an active, happy 3rd grader who loves sports and is engaged in various types of sports (soccer,baseball,etc.) year-round. Reportedly, Jason frequently screams at games. At the school, there is a 15 minutes recess in the morning and a 30 minute recess after lunch. You observe Jason on the playground at recess several times over a period of 2 weeks and see that he loves to run, play, and yell loudly with his friends. Jason's parents have given you a letter from the ENT that definitively states that Jason has vocal nodules. After an evaluation, the first thing you would do is: a. prescribe 2-3 weeks of almost total voice rest, telling Jason and his parents that he can speak only when he absolutely has to-no yelling at recess or when he plays sports b. monitor Jason's vocal status by seeing him once every 2 months for the next year to observe whether his hoarseness gets better or worse c. focus on identification and reduction of vocally abusive behavior, such as yelling and screaming, using computer games to help motivate Jason to use better vocal habits d. give Jason and his parents reading materials that discuss vocal abuse and tell the parents that if the hoarseness does not resolve in 1-2 months, you will see Jason for voice therapy

b. irregular past-tense verbs

You are asked to work with a 3.5 year old whose language has been somewhat slow to develop. Matthew is the youngest of four children, and his parents tell you that his older siblings often talk for him. After assessing Matthew's language, you find that he consistently uses the following morphemes: present progressive -ing, prepositions in and on, and regular plural -s. His parents would like to enroll him for therapy because they want him to go to a local preschool, and they want him to "sound like the other kids and have good grammar." Which of the following morphemes would you begin with when Matthew starts therapy? a. possessive -s b. irregular past-tense verbs c. articles the, a, an d. contractible auxiliary

a. intact meninges

You are assessing a 20 yr old man who was involved in an auto accident with severe head injury. The medical report says that the patient has nonpenetrating head injury. In this case, you expect to observe: a. intact meninges b. torn meninges c. no skull fracture d. an open wound

c. 10 words, 11 morphemes

You are assessing the expressive language skills of a 4 yr olds with delayed language. One of the things he says is "My birthday party was fun - we ate cake and cookies!" This would count as: a. 10 words, 10 morphemes b. 10 words, 12 morphemes c. 10 words, 11 morphemes d. 10 words, 9 morphemes

d. morphology

You are conducting an assessment with an incoming kindergartener, Jason E., who has difficulty with word endings. Specifically, he tends to omit endings like -est (saying "sad" instead of "saddest"), -ily 9saying "angry" instead of "angrily"), etc. He is having difficulty with which specific aspect of language? a. syntax b. pragmatics c. semantics d. morphology

A. Class III malocclusion

You are conducting an oral peripheral examination with Sally Ann, a 10-year old girl. She has a speech sound disorder (SSD), and you are looking for possible physical variables that may be contributing to this SSD. You discover that Sally Ann's maxilla is receded and her mandible is protruded. This indicates that Sally Ann has a(n): A. Class III malocclusion B. Class II malocclusion C. Class I malocclusion D. Overjet

B. ordering and organizing utterances in a message so that they build logically on one another.

You are conducting therapy with Jennifer, a teenager who has a language impairment. You are especially addressing her skills in the area of cohesion, because her teachers and parents report that this is an area of difficulty for her. Cohesion is defined as A. providing listeners with adequate information without redundancy. B. ordering and organizing utterances in a message so that they build logically on one another. C. initiating a topic. D. repairing communication breakdowns.

B. elevate the head of the bed at least 30 degrees before and during continuous feeding.

You are consulting with the nursing staff about a patient who is being tube fed. During the evaluation, you notice that the patient is experiencing aspiration. The nurse says that the most appropriate method to reduce aspiration would be to A. introduce a pureed diet. B. elevate the head of the bed at least 30 degrees before and during continuous feeding. C. monitor the patient to see if aspiration continues for another week. D. discontinue tube feeding.

B. Lateralized /s/

You are evaluating Claudia, a 4-year-old preschooler. She presents with several speech sound disorders during the evaluation including gliding, lateralized production of the /s/ phoneme, distortion of the /r/ phoneme, and interdental production of /θ/ and /ð/. What would be the most appropriate goal to address first in therapy? A. Gliding B. Lateralized /s/ C. Distortion of /r/ D. Interdental [θ, ð]

c. map

You are evaluating Ronnie, a 3 yr old boy who is moderately unintelligible. His phonetic inventory includes the phonemes /t, d, m, n, p, b/. He manifests the phonological pattern of final consonant deletion. In therapy, the most appropriate target word to focus on would be: a. path b. horse c. map d. whistle

A. conceptual scoring

You are evaluating Tatyana, a Russian-speaking child with a suspected language impairment. To accurately estimate her language skills, you engage a Russian-speaking interpreter and count Tatyana's responses to test questions in both Russian and English. You are employing: A. conceptual scoring B. dynamic assessment C. criterion-referenced testing D. assessment of working memory

b. hypernasality, accompanied by decreased intraoral breath pressure, leading to difficulties with adequate production of fricatives, affricates, and plosives

You are evaluating a girl who has been referred because of difficulties associated with partial submucous cleft palate accompanied by a bifid uvula. During your evaluation, you can probably expect to find: a. hypernasality, leading to difficulty producing nasal adequately b. hypernasality, accompanied by decreased intraoral breath pressure, leading to difficulties with adequate production of fricatives, affricates, and plosives c. hyponasality, accompanied by increased intraoral health pressure, leading to difficulties with adequate production of liquids and glides d. hypernasality, accompanied by difficulty producing vowels and nasal adequately

C. Increased variability of articulatory characteristics

You are evaluating a patient suspected of severe apraxia of speech (AOS). Which of the following is not a characteristic of severe AOS when distinguishing it from less severe forms? A. Error responses may approximate the target if stimuli are chosen carefully B. Limited repertoire of speech sounds C. Increased variability of articulatory characteristics D. Automatic speech may not be better than volitional speech

b. behaviorist

You are observing a clinician in a private practice setting. He specializes in child language disorders and serves elementary-age children from a variety of local public schools. When you observe this clinician doing therapy, you see that he has a well-structured reward system for each child. Some children receive a fruit loop for each correct response they make; others work to earn stickers and even small toys. This clinician has written down each specific behavior that he wishes to elicit from each child, with a percentage of accuracy attached. For example, an objective for one child reads, "when presented with a picture of two or more objects, Jimmy will label the picture using plural -s 80% of the time." This clinician probably subscribes to which theory of child language development? a. information processing b. behaviorist c. social interactionist d. government binding

b. measuring generalized production with a probe

You are observing a treatment session in which a clinician is treating a 65 yr old man who has aphasia. In the previous sessions, the client had been reinforced for correctly naming several pictures. In the current session, the clinician shows 10 untrained stimuli and asks "what is this?" for each picture/stimulus item. However, that does not reinforce correct responses. In this latter procedure, the clinician is: a. fading the reinforcers but differentially applying indirect reinforcement b. measuring generalized production with a probe c. fading the reinforcers d. assessing whether the client has learned to name the treatment stimuli

b. probes

You are offering language treatment to a 7 yr old boy, Cameron. Among other things, you are working on the goals of helping Cameron accurately produce the regular plural -s and regular past tense -ed. You need to measure the generalized production of those skills when you withhold reinforcement for correct responses. The procedure you would use to achieve this is: a. the pre- and posttest results of a standardized test administered at the beginning and conclusion of treatment b. probes c. dynamic assessment d. baserates

c. a ration of 60-80 generally indicates adequate tissue for velopharyngeal closure for speech

You are on a cleft palate and craniofacial anomalies team that evaluates children with cleft palates. When a child has a resonance problem, the team decides whether the child will benefit from speech therapy alone or more intensive medical intervention (surgery, etc.) is needed. As part of the assessment process, cephalometric analysis is used. In cephalometric analysis, the Cephalometric Assessment of Velopharyngeal Structures computer program analyzes the ratio relationship between the length of the soft palate and the depth of the nasopharynx. Which one of the following statements best summarizes a key principle that guides treatment decisions? a. a ratio of less than 60 is usually found when the soft palate is too short and the nasopharynx is too shallow b. a ratio of less than 60 is usually found when the nasopharynx is too deep or the soft palate is too long c. a ration of 60-80 generally indicates adequate tissue for velopharyngeal closure for speech d. if a ratio is higher than 80, this means the nasopharynx is too shallow or the velum is too long

a. an autosomal, dominant inherited disorder caused by mutation sin the FBN1 gene

You are providing support for a man with Marfan syndrome; he has difficulties with respiration, and you are working on breathing techniques. He shares with you that he and his wife want to have a child, and they are concerned about their child possibly having Marfan syndrome. You refer him to a genetic counselor, who will share with him that Marfan syndrome is: a. an autosomal, dominant inherited disorder caused by mutation sin the FBN1 gene b. an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene c. a partial deletion syndrome caused by mutations in the FBN2 gene d. not genetically transferred to offspring, so the parents do not need to be concerned

c. increasing assertiveness in conversation

You are seeing a 6 yr old child, Tyler, with specific language impairment. When you assess Tyler, you find that he had adequate language comprehension. He is able to follow directions, understand vocab, and comprehend sentences of appropriate length and complexity for his age. However, his teacher and parents report that he has "no friends" and that they are concerned about his social skills. When you observe Tyler several times on the school playground, in the classroom, and in the school cafeteria, you see that, while he is well behaved and nondisruptive, he does not initiate interactions with others. Treatments shoulf focus on: a. increasing mean length of utterance b. working on bound morphemes c. increasing assertiveness in conversation d. increasing sentence complexity

a. pragmatic skills

You are seeing a 9 yr old boy, Emile, whose Peabody Picture Vocab test 4th edition score is one year above age level. Emile appears to be performing adequately in the classroom. His teacher reports that he is at grade level in most subjects. However, he often interrupts others and irritates his listeners; as a result, he is avoided by many peers. His mother reports that he is not invited to other children's birthday parties and that she has heard that other mothers view him as rude and disrespectful. Treatment should focus on increasing: a. pragmatic skills b. syntactic skills c. morphological skills d. semantic skills

a. electropalatography

You are serving a child with a repaired cleft palate. Marissa is 11 and still somewhat unintelligible, manifesting difficulty with some speech sounds. To help her, you employ a specialized procedure. In this procedure, an orthodontist will design an artificial palate containing 62 embedded electrodes connected to a computer. This will be fitted into Marissa's mouth, and when her tongue contacts the electrodes during speech production, articulatory patterns can be seen on the computer screen. This procedure is called: a. electropalatography b. electroglottography c. palatomyography d. myomanometry

d. clusters sp, st, sk

You are serving a preschool attended by 50 children. Most of them are 4 yrs old, and their parents are highly involved because they are trying to prepare their children for kindergarten. A father is concerned about Justin, his 4.5 yr old son. Justin is highly intelligible, but his father reports that he has difficulty with consonant clusters in words like spring, street, and squirrel. You tell the father that at 4.5 yrs old, it is natural for Justin to have difficulties with words with consonant clusters. However, according to developmental norms, he should have little difficulty with which of the following consonant clusters because many 4 yr olds have mastered them? a. clusters gl, fl, pl b. clusters pr, br, tr c. clusters kst, lk, nd d. clusters sp, st, sk

b. t/f substitution

You are working as a clinician in a private clinic. A father brings his son, Johnny, age 4.5 yeas, for an evaluation. According to his father, Johnny is "hard to understand, and sometimes the kids at preschool make fun of him." The pediatrician has told Johnny's father that he will "outgrow this speech problem on his own," but the father wants to make sure that this advice is correct. Johnny will be starting kindergarten in 6 months, when he turns 5 years of age, and his father wants to be sure that Johnny speaks as intelligibly as possible so that he will not be teased in elementary school. When you evaluate Johnny, you find that he has "th"(uv)/s, t/f, w/r, d/"th"(v), and j/l substitutions. You decide to place him in therapy. You would being therapy by addressing the: a. "th"(uv)/s substitution b. t/f substitution c. w/r substitution d. j/l substitution

D. A class II malocclusion accompanied by overjet

You are working closely with an orthodontist who frequently refers children to your private practice. Many of these children have protrusion of the maxilla and retrusion of the mandible accompanied by a condition in which the upper teeth from the molars forward are positioned excessively anterior to the lower teeth. What do these children have? A. A class I malocclusion accompanied by underjet B. A class II malocclusion accompanied by underjet C. A class III malocclusion accompanied by overjet D. A class II malocclusion accompanied by overjet

D. Cognitive communication disorder

You are working in a hospital, and a 72-year-old patient, Grace, is referred to you. She has difficulty paying attention to a conversation, staying on topic, remembering information, responding accurately, and following directions. She most likely has: A. Apraxia of speech B. Wernicke's aphasia C. Transcortical motor aphasia D. Cognitive communication disorder

D. Their language problems are not readily detected by standardized language measures.

You are working in a public school, and a distraught parent calls you. She states that her son who was prenatally exposed to drugs has been denied special education services including speech-language intervention. Why may children who are prenatally exposed to drugs be denied services in public schools? A. Their language problems are not severe enough to qualify. B. They do not have other kinds of problems associated with disorders of communication. C. They are classified as having learning disabilities, not language impairments. D. Their language problems are not readily detected by standardized language measures.

a. difficulties allowing a conversational partner to have a turn

You are working in a school and are told that a new child with an IEP has transferred to your school and will be needing language intervention. On her IEP, it states that she has a "pragmatic language disorder." Which one of the following problems are MOST likely to see in this student? a. difficulties allowing a conversational partner to have a turn b. problems using complex and compound sentences c. vocabulary deficits d. word retrieval problems

b. the families of these students who have been referred to you are bicultural, and this is part of the problem that the students are having in school

You are working in a school district where there is an influx of immigrants from Russia. These immigrants have come to your area because there are Russian churches that have sponsored them. In the last few years, over 50,000 Russian families have moved in. Teachers are beginning to refer some Russian students to you for assessment for language impairment, saying that the students are "not learning English fast enough." You consult with the pastor of a local Russian church, Pastor Soldantenkov, who is highly regarded in his community, and share with him the stories of some of the students who have been referred to you. As he listens, the pastor tells you that many families in his church had difficulty leaving Russia and, though they now live in the US, want to limit their interactions with Americans as much as possible. Many parents wish to "preserve the Russian language and culture" and want to limit their children's exposure to English and American culture in general. Which of the following can you NOT conclude about the Russian students referred to you based on your conversation with Pastor Soldantenkov? a. it is possible that instead of having language impairments, these students are typical language learners who have had limited assimilation into American mainstream society b. the families of these students who have been referred to you are bicultural, and this is part of the problem that the students are having in school c. the families of these students have limited acculturation into American life, and this factor may be influencing the students' performance in school d. the reluctance of the families to assimilate into American culture might be a factor that is influencing the students' interactions with other students who are native speakers of English, and this may be related to the Russian student's learning English more slowly

B. Words that have ecological validity for him

You are working in an early intervention program, doing language therapy with Noah, a nonverbal 2-year-old. What will you prioritize when you select target vocabulary words for him? A. Common objects on the playground B. Words that have ecological validity for him C. Names of various animals D. Names of letters of the alphabet

B. Use of indirect requests

You are working with Chad, a 10-year-old child who has a language impairment. The teacher tells you that other students get angry with Chad because he frequently says things such as "Gimme that pencil" and "Move your books over." As a clinician, what will you focus on in therapy to help Chad get along better with others and have improved pragmatic skills? A. Use of gerunds B. Use of indirect requests C. Use of complex sentences D. Use of abstract adjectives

d. bradykinesia, festination, and cogwheel rigidity

You are working with Mr. Thomas, who has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Primary symptoms you can expect to see include: a. difficulty with sequencing motor movements of speech b. word retrieval problems and agrammatism c. confusion, disorientation, and emotional outbursts d. bradykinesia, festination, and cogwheel rigidity

C. Using indirect prompts instead of direct questions

You are working with a child who stutters and are training the parents in indirect therapy. Which of the following is most appropriate? A. Response cost B. Fluent stuttering method C. Using indirect prompts instead of direct questions D. Fluency reinforcement method

c. increasing social use of language and collaborating with the classroom teachers

You are working with an adolescent, Alyssa, who has receptive and expressive language problems. She is getting D's in most of her classes at the junior high school and has few friends. In therapy, it would be best to target: a. increasing auditory memory skills b. increasing the use of complex sentences containing subordinate clauses c. increasing social use of language and collaborating with the classroom teachers d. increasing the understanding and use of figurative language

A. Sig symbols

You decide to use gestural-assisted augmentative and alternative communication with a child who has some proficiency in American Sign Language. Which type of symbols would be helpful to use in this situation? A. Sig symbols B. Premack-type symbols C. Blissymbols D. Picsyms

a. Klinefelter's syndrome (Klinefelter's syndrome is a condition that occurs in males who have an extra X chromosome in most of their cells. The syndrome can affect different stages of physical, language and social development. They may have trouble using language to express themselves. They may also present with social pragmatic difficulties as well. The most common symptom is infertility. Because they often don't make as much of the male hormone testosterone as other boys, teenagers with Klinefelter's syndrome may have less facial and body hair and may be less muscular than other boys.)

You have a 16-year-old male on your caseload who has not yet developed facial hair and seems overall underdeveloped. He has expressive language disorder and has difficulty making friends due to social pragmatic impairments. You suspect that this young man presents with which genetic syndrome? a. Klinefelter's syndrome b. Cerebral Palsy c. Prader-Willi Syndrome d. Down Syndrome

a. is a federal grant program that assists states in operating a comprehensive statewide program of early intervention services for infants and toddlers with disabilities, ages birth through 2 years, and their families

You have a new job in a school district where you are serving preschoolers, elementary students, and teens. You will remember that Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA): a. is a federal grant program that assists states in operating a comprehensive statewide program of early intervention services for infants and toddlers with disabilities, ages birth through 2 years, and their families b. is a focused early diagnostic program whose goal is to identify language delayed preschool children and refer them to Head Start c. guarantees appropriate augmentative, alternative communication devices for children with CP and other medically based conditions d. mandates IEP's that provide language-based word-study programs for language impaired students in high school

b. A moderately severe hearing loss in one ear.

You have a patient who presents with a unilateral hearing loss that falls between 56 and 70dB in all frequencies. What does this mean? a. A moderate hearing loss in both ears. b. A moderately severe hearing loss in one ear. c. A mild hearing loss in one ear. d. A severe hearing loss in both ears.

d. tell the teacher that you would like to formally evaluate Jennifer's language skills because at 6 years old, she should have an average MLU of 6.0-8.0, and her language should approximate the adult model

You have been asked to assess the language skills of 6 year old Jennifer, who has been referred by her classroom teacher. The teacher says that Jennifer "talks in these really short sentences. I don't know if she is just shy of if there is more going on." The teacher has worked on oral language skills daily with her class. The end of the year is coming soon, and the teacher is concerned about how Jennifer will perform in second grade. You decide to conduct an informal language screening to decide whether you need to formally evaluate Jennifer's expressive language skills. You find that she uses many sentences, such as "he has a ball" and "I like Pokemon." She uses few compound or complex sentences. You talk with her parents and find that this performance is also typical at home. Your next step would be to: a. tell the teacher and parents that Jennifer is within normal limits for her age, and that a formal language evaluation is unnecessary b. inform the teacher and parents that Jennifer may have autistic-like tendencies and that she needs to be formally evaluated by a team of special educators c. tell the teacher and parents that you will take a "wait and see" approach. If the second-grade teacher has concerns similar to those of the first-grade teacher, you will follow up with a formal evaluation of Jennifer's language skills d. tell the teacher that you would like to formally evaluate Jennifer's language skills because at 6 years old, she should have an average MLU of 6.0-8.0, and her language should approximate the adult model

b. injection method

You have been asked to counsel with Doug, a 45 yr old man who has smoked and drank alcohol since he was a teenager. He now has laryngeal cancer, and before surgery, the surgeon asks you to talk with Doug about esophageal speech. You explain to Doug that there are 2 basic types of esophageal speech. In one methods, the patient is taught to keep the esophagus open and relaxed while inhaling rapidly. In the other methods, the patient impounds the air in the oral cavity, pushes it back into the esophagus, and vibrates the cricopharyngeus muscle. The second method is called the: a. inhalation method b. injection method c. inspiratory injection method d. laryngeal airway resistance method

D. Injection method

You have been asked to counsel with John, a 70-year-old man who has smoked and drank alcohol since he was a teenager. He now has laryngeal cancer, and, before surgery, the surgeon asks you to talk with John about esophageal speech. You explain to John that there are two basic types of esophageal speech. In one method, the patient is taught to keep the esophagus open and relaxed while inhaling rapidly. In the other method, the patient impounds the air in the oral cavity, pushes it back into the esophagus, and vibrates the cricopharyngeus muscle. What is the second method called? A. Inhalation method B. Laryngeal airway resistance method C. Inhalatory injection method D. Injection method

b. ideally, speak to the baby in utterances (child-directed speech) that are higher pitched and have greater pitch fluctuations than ordinary speech

You have been asked to give a workshop to a group of parents of infants who attend a developmental nursery. The parents are interested in what they can do to communicate more successfully with their infants. Most of their infants are between 1 and 10 months of age. Most of the parents do not have much money or access to toys and objects, but you are told that they do spend plenty of time with their babies. You are asked to speak about what specifically these parents can do to successfully interact with their infants in daily routines, such as bathing, dressing, and eating. You will tell these parents which of the following? a. when your baby starts to cry, let him do so for 5-10 minutes before you respond; this will teach the baby independence and motivate him to express himself in words later on (instead of crying) b. ideally, speak to the baby in utterances (child-directed speech) that are higher pitched and have greater pitch fluctuations than ordinary speech c. babies do not benefit from activities used to build turn-taking skills until they are 2 years old, so do not bother with games that focus on turn-taking d. babies do not usually say their first word until 18 months of age, so do not worry if your child is 12 months old and not saying any words

c. 8 and 9 weeks

You have been asked to give an in-service to a group of students who wish to eventually specialize in service delivery to children with cleft palates and their families. The students want to know detailed information in utero, the hard palate fuses between the developmental ages of: a. 1 and 2 weeks b. 5 and 6 weeks c. 8 and 9 weeks d. 10 and 12 weeks

C. Tanveer needs to be placed in an all-English special education classroom where he can get intensive English input and extra support

You have just completed an evaluation of Tanveer, a 6-year old who speaks Urdu at home (Urdu is his primary language) and English at school. You have discovered that he has a language impairment, and you are creating an intervention plan for him. It has been found that Urdu is his stronger language, and that he is still in the process of learning English. Which one of the following intervention principles should most strongly guide your treatment plan? A. carrying out treatment in Urdu will be more effective and efficient than carrying out therapy in English B. Tanveer's parents should be told to speak only English at home, as being in a bilingual atmosphere will confuse him C. Tanveer needs to be placed in an all-English special education classroom where he can get intensive English input and extra support D. to not confuse Tanveer, therapy should be conducted in English only

c. down syndrome

You have received a referral of Akhtar, a 4 yr old refugee child from a Dari-speaking family from Afghanistan. Akhtar has never been evaluated or received speech-language services. Before you meet Akhtar, you speak with the doctor, who explains that Akhtar has midface dysplasia, a high and narrow arched palate, a relatively large and fissured tongue that protrudes, hearing loss, and speech sound disorder. Akhtar also has generalized hypotonia and bradycephaly (small head). You can confidently conclude that Akhtar has: a. Crouzon syndrome b. Cri du char syndrome c. down syndrome d. Hurler syndrome

d. increase use of appropriate discourse skills, turn taking, and conversational repair strategies

You move to a new elementary school and begin seeing the children on the caseload at their school. One child, who is being treated to "increase semantic skills," has four goals listed on her IEP. Which one of these goals is inappropriate? a. increases types and numbers of words the child uses in the classroom b. increase specific word usage and decrease usage of nonspecific words, such as this, that, thing c. decrease overextension of words d. increase use of appropriate discourse skills, turn taking, and conversational repair strategies

d. transfer from Spanish

You observe a Spanish-speaking child on the school playground. The teacher is concerned about Manuela's language skills, and you are starting by general observations in regular school settings. You hear Manuela speaking with her friends and saying things like "Yulie (Julie) has a shirt red" and "I want to estart playing with duh tederball (tetherball)." You are observing evidence of: a. a clinically significant speech sound disorder b. a clinically significant language disorder c. clinically significant speech and language disorders d. transfer from Spanish

b. locatives

You observe a clinician working with a child who has a language impairment. They are making cookies together, and the clinician is saying things like "Look, the dough goes 'in' the bowl; the spoon is 'beside' the bowl. We will set the bowl 'on top' of the counter, and then make the cookies. We'll out them 'in' the oven and take them 'out' when they are done." The clinician is working on developing the child's skill in the area of understanding. a. indirect requests b. locatives c. pragmatics d. gerunds

B. Frontotemporal dementia

You receive a referral to assess Beth, who is a 76-year-old resident in a nursing home. The certified nursing assistants who work with her on a daily basis tell you that Beth has been experiencing changes in behavior. During group activities she makes inappropriate comments and appears impulsive and distractible. The certified nursing assistants also note that she has decreased energy and motivation. You notice she is having mild problems with language as well. Which of the following forms of dementia is Beth displaying? A. Vascular dementia B. Frontotemporal dementia C. Lewy body dementia D. Alzheimer's disease

C. Say seat. Now say seat, but change the /s/ and /t/ around.

You wish to assess a child's phonemic awareness via phoneme manipulation. Select the example that applies to phoneme manipulation. A. Here is a picture of a hotdog. I'll say the first part of the word and you will complete it. Here is a hot ____. B. Say dig. Now say it backward. C. Say seat. Now say seat, but change the /s/ and /t/ around. D. Say ball without the /b/.

C. 50

You would like to work with a 24-month-old who says 25 words. Her father, an engineer, would like her to use 2-word combinations such as "thank you" and "up, please." You tell him that children do not combine words until they have at least ____ words in their expressive vocabulary. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75

B. Congenital mandibular hypoplasia

Your client has a misalignment of the mandibular and maxillary arches and the mandible arch is underdeveloped. Your client has what kind of condition? A. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction B. Congenital mandibular hypoplasia C. Mandibular dislocation D. Class III Malocclusion

B. Forced stimulation

Your client is having difficulty appropriately using present progressive verbs. During play, you repeatedly model the correct targets without correcting incorrect productions made by the client. This strategy is called: A. Extension B. Forced stimulation C. Milieu teaching D. Expansion

a. with which a source of sound vibrates naturally

a natural frequency is a frequency: a. with which a source of sound vibrates naturally b. that is unrelated to the mass and stiffness of the vibrating body c. that is the center frequency of a formant d. that refers to the simple harmonic motion

d. that is a result of simple harmonic motion

a sinusoidal wave is a sound wave: a. that is asymmetrical b. with multiple peaks and valleys c. with multiple frequencies. d. that is a result of simple harmonic motion

c. an indication of interval between two frequencies

an octave is: a. the amount of molecular displacement per unit of time b. the amount of time between cycles c. an indication of interval between two frequencies d. a measure of magnitude (intensity, strength) or the sound signal

a. the use of IPA symbols to transcribe phonemes by enclosing them within slash marks (e.g., /f/)

broad phonemic transcription involves: a. the use of IPA symbols to transcribe phonemes by enclosing them within slash marks (e.g., /f/) b. the use of diacritical markers to transcribe phonemes by enclosing them within slash marks (e.g., /f/) c. the transcription of allophones by placing them within brackets (e.g., [f]) d. the transcription of allophones by the use of diacritical markers

d. may stand alone

during the typical speech production, vowels: a. are often unvoiced b. required interrupted airflow c. require a lowered velum d. may stand alone

d. the recovery rate may be as low as 45% or as high as 90%

studies on the rate of natural recovery of stuttering suggests that: a. less than 20% of children who stutter recover naturally b. all children who stutter recover by age 8 c. once stated, stuttering persists in all children d. the recovery rate may be as low as 45% or as high as 90%

b. mass and elasticity

the two properties of a medium that affect sound transmission are: a. amplitude and intensity b. mass and elasticity c. compression and rarefaction d. pressure and force

d. F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior-to-posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity)

when a speaker is producing a vowel and the vowel is being acoustically analyzed, one can state as a general rule that: a. F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F1 varies as a result of tongue position (variation in the anterior-to-posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) b. F2 varies mostly as a result of the tongue height, and F3 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior-to-posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) c. F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F3 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior-to-posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity) d. F1 varies mostly as a result of tongue height, and F2 varies mostly as a result of tongue advancement (variation in the anterior-to-posterior position of the tongue in the oral cavity)

a. complex tone whose vibrations may be periodic or aperiodic

when two or more sounds of differing frequencies are combined, the result is a: a. complex tone whose vibrations may be periodic or aperiodic b. complex tone; the vibrations are always periodic, where waves repeat themselves at regular intervals c. pure tone, where the vibrations are usually periodic d. pure tone, where the vibrations are always aperiodic

b. presence of dysfluencies in imitated speech

you have been asked to assess Rudy, a 65 yr old man, for suspected neurogenic stuttering. In you assessment, you expect to observe: a. absence of repetitions on medial and final sounds in words b. presence of dysfluencies in imitated speech c. presence of marked adaptation d. a significant number of severe associated motor behaviors

c. Motor skills

A 1-year-old typically can point using the forefinger. What is this MOST closely associated with? a. Language skills b. Sensory skills c. Motor skills d. Cognitive skills

A. Difficulty with figurative language

A 10-year-old with specific language impairment would most likely show which characteristic? A. Difficulty with figurative language B. Excellent social skills despite somewhat limited expressive language C. Normal phonological awareness skills despite difficulties with reading comprehension D. No problems with morphology despite limited syntax

d. Use multiple negative improperly

A 12-year old native speaking of Spanish who has been studying English as a second language for three years is most likely to do which of the following when speaking English is casual conversation with teachers at school? a. Use the auxiliary "have" in place of "be: in progressive tenses b. Use incorrect word order within prepositional phrases c. Use conjunctions in place of prepositions d. Use multiple negative improperly

D.Use multiple negation improperly

A 12-year-old native speaker of Spanish who has been studying English as a second language for three years is most likely to do which of the following when speaking English in casual conversation with teachers at school? A.Use the auxiliary "have" in place of "be" in progressive tenses B.Use incorrect word order within prepositional phrases C.Use conjunctions in place of prepositions D.Use multiple negation improperly

C.Reduplication

A 2-year-old child pronounces "bottle" as [baba]. Which of the following best describes the speech simplification process evident in this utterance? A.Gliding B.Stopping C.Reduplication D.Devoicing

A. He rarely used initial consonants and when he did, they were often misarticulated.

A 2-year-old named Spencer was referred to your office because other professionals have suspected a potential speech and language disorder. Which of the following characteristics that Spencer exhibited during your assessment does not seem right for his age? A. He rarely used initial consonants and when he did, they were often misarticulated. B. Spencer was able to understand most things that you said to him as he answered questions with the correct responses. C. About 2/3 of Spencer's speech was intelligible. D. Spencer walked with characteristic toddler movements and was almost always on tiptoes.

C.Ensuring the client understands the need for continued use of stuttering management techniques and referring to a local SLP for ongoing treatment

A 23-year-old client recently completed an intensive 3-week-long summer program for stuttering and now exhibits stuttering symptoms on fewer than 3 percent of syllables during both in-clinic conversations with the SLP and beyond-clinic conversations with family members. The SLP is concerned that the client might relapse now that intervention has ended and wishes to enact a plan to help the client maintain fluency gains. Which of the following plans is the most likely to result in maintenance of the fluency gains? A.Recommending that the client participate in an annual intensive review of stuttering management skills B.Recommending that the client practice fluency management skills during monthly telephone calls with the SLP C.Ensuring the client understands the need for continued use of stuttering management techniques and referring to a local SLP for ongoing treatment D.Scheduling the client for reenrollment in the intensive 3-week-long intervention program

D.A receptive and/or expressive language impairment

A 3-year-old child presents for an evaluation of communication skills. When the SLP says "Sit in your seat," the child responds by saying [tɪ ɪ ti]. When the SLP asks the child to "put the big block in the box," the child responds by saying [bɪ bɑ ɪ bɑ]. Based on the responses, the child's primary problem with communication is most likely which of the following? A.Oral-motor weakness B.Poor auditory discrimination C.A fluency disorder D.A receptive and/or expressive language impairment

D.Determining speech production in a variety of syllables-to-sentence combinations

A 3-year-old child was seen at the speech-and-language clinic for a speech assessment to address teacher and parent concerns about speech intelligibility. During the initial interview and observation, the SLP noted that the child exhibited inconsistent errors of vowel and consonant production during repetitive speech tasks, inappropriate prosody, and prolongations of speech sounds. The SLP chooses an assessment to determine the presence of childhood apraxia of speech (CASC A S). Which of the following procedures is most appropriate for this type of assessment? A.Analyzing place, manner, and voicing of all consonant sounds at the word level B.Evaluating fluency of speech during structured and unstructured conversational activities C.Testing stimulability of later-developing speech sounds in multiple phonetic contexts D.Determining speech production in a variety of syllables-to-sentence combinations

d. allowing Frank to discuss his feelings and attitudes toward his situation, desensitizing Frank to his stuttering, and helping him to modify his stuttering through the use of such techniques as cancellations and pull-outs

A 32 yr old man, Frank, wants to go to law school. He is very bright, but stutters and has been working in minimum-wage jobs where he does not have to do much talking. Franke shares that he has passed the entrance examination to get into law school, but he is afraid to enroll in classes. He feels frustrated by his dilemma and says that he is experiencing a great deal of anxiety about his situation. The clinician decides to use the fluent stuttering method. This would involve: a. not discussing Frank's feelings and attitudes but rather teaching and establishing skills such as airflow management, reduced rate, and easy onset of phonation b. encouraging Frank to discuss his feelings and attitudes about his stuttering, desensitizing him to his stuttering, and using procedures such as time-out and response cost c. using DAF, masking, and procedures such as time-out and response cost d. allowing Frank to discuss his feelings and attitudes toward his situation, desensitizing Frank to his stuttering, and helping him to modify his stuttering through the use of such techniques as cancellations and pull-outs

B. Rinne test.

A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had many middle ear infections and several sets of pressure equalizing (PE) tubes. At her preschool, the teacher says that she "tunes out" and has difficulty following directions. Her mother says that, at home, Abby always requests that music and TV be turned up louder. Thus, the pediatrician wants Abby to have a thorough evaluation of her hearing. To determine Abby's hearing loss, the pediatrician recommended a A. relative measure test. B. Rinne test. C. Webster test. D. Wilcox test.

C.A neurologist

A 4.5-year-old boy has significant speech and language difficulties exemplified by poor oral-motor control, slight difficulty in swallowing, high palate, poor tongue mobility, and fasciculation on protrusion. During an evaluation, the speech-language pathologist notes very poor paper-and-pencil grasp, poor posture, and an inability to complete performance tasks requiring fine motor control. To which of the following should the child be referred in order to obtain additional diagnostic information? A.An otolaryngologist B.A physical therapist C.A neurologist D.A physiologist

1. d. stimulability 2. b. to/so 3. c. alliteration

A 5 yr old child, Crystal S., is brought to you for an evaluation of her speech. The family speaks only English at home. According to Crystal's mother, Crystal "loves to talk but most people have trouble understanding her." As you play with Crystal informally, you estimate that she is approx. 50-60% intelligible. You conduct an oral peripheral evaluation, which reveals that she does not have any anatomical or physiological anomalies that would explain why she is so unintelligible. You also conduct in-depth assessment in other areas to determine the nature of her unintelligibility and to determine therapy goals. 1. You discover through your assessment that there are some sounds that Crystal consistently misarticulates. For ex., she usually makes a t/k substitution (tea/key). You want to know if she can produce /k/ in isolation. You show her how to produce /k/ by giving her a model, and you tell her, "watch me make the /k/ sound. Then you do it just like I did." When you are doing this, you are assessing Crystal's: a. phonological knowledge b. receptive phonology skills c. overal intelligibility d. stimulability 2. You find that Crystal uses a number of phonological patterns. One of those patterns is stopping. You know this when you hear her make such substitutions as: a. bah/bat b. to/so c. ruz/rush d. pet/pest 3. You are conduction therapy with a highly unintelligible 5 yr old and are targeting phonological awareness skills (among other things). Two target sounds in therapy are /k/ and /g/. You carry out activities that focus on helping the child attend to the initial sound in target words. For ex., you have her play a "fishing" game where she catches "fish" with words that begin with /k/ or /g/. After she catches a fish, she puts it into the appropriate "pond." You are targeting which specific phonological awareness skill? a. rhyming b. syllable segmentation c. alliteration d. syllabication

c. response cost

A 5 yr old child, Marcus, has been identified as needing treatment for his stuttering. His parents report that he has been stuttering since he was 3 years old, and the stuttering has become worse. Now children tease him, and his parents are concerned that, when he enters kindergarten, the teasing will become worse. The clinician decides to use one of the direct stuttering reduction methods with Marcus. Select the appropriate technique. a. delayed auditory feedback and slowed speech b. auditory masking c. response cost d. airflow management and parental counseling

a. four words, five morphemes, personal pronoun + one negative + one verb + one plural noun

A 5-year old child has been referred to you for a language assessment. There is a concern about his expressive language skills, and you decide to gather a language sample to assess expressive morphology and syntax. At one point, when looking at a book, the child points to a book character and says, "him no eat cookies." This is an example of: a. four words, five morphemes, personal pronoun + one negative + one verb + one plural noun b. four words, six morphemes, modal + one negative + one verb + one auxiliary c. four words, four morphemes, personal pronoun + one copula + one negative + one noun d. four words, five morphemes, negative + one personal pronoun + one copula

C. backing.

A 5-year-old child, Shannon, is brought to you for an evaluation. According to her mother, Shannon has a history of middle-ear infections. Shannon's mother reports that Shannon is difficult to understand. For example, Shannon makes k/t and g/d substitutions, saying things like koυ/toυ. This child is manifesting the phonological process of A. cluster reduction. B. stridency deletion. C. backing. D. glottal replacement.

B.Writing a letter to the insurance company to refute the basis for the denial

A 5-year-old patient presents to an SLP with severe apraxia of speech. The SLP has been intensively working with the patient for two years, and the patient has not demonstrated any progress in a month. The SLP recommends a speech-generating device for the patient to use at home and at school, but the insurance company denied the request. Which of the following actions best allows the SLP to advocate for the patient to receive a device? A.Teaching the parent SLP terminology to use when talking to the insurance company B.Writing a letter to the insurance company to refute the basis for the denial C.Asking the parent to buy the device without approval and apply for reimbursement D.Sending a letter to the school's special education teacher asking the teacher to contact the insurance company on the SLP's behalf

c. acoustic neuroma

A 51 yr old woman comes to an audiologist and states that she feels like she is losing her hearing in her left ear. The woman says that she generally feels healthy but has noticed that she now uses her right ear exclusively when talking on the telephone. She states "sometimes the left side of my face tingles. It doesn't bother me much, but I do notice it sometimes." She also reports that she feels slight dizziness and has noticed some mild balance problems. For ex., when she is on an escalator, she has to "hang on more." She says that "sometimes my left ear rings." Her preliminary audiological results show that she has normal ability to detect pure tones and that she has normal speech recognition in a quiet room. The most probable diagnosis of this woman's problem is: a. central auditory processing disorder b. Meniere's disease c. acoustic neuroma d. otosclerosis

B.Being educated regarding artificial forms of speech

A 59-year-old male patient with laryngeal cancer presents to an SLP before a laryngectomy. The SLP completes the evaluation and takes time to counsel the patient regarding what to expect during and after the procedure. Which of the following reasons best identifies the importance of a patient meeting with an SLP prior to surgery? A.Exploring alternatives to surgical intervention B.Being educated regarding artificial forms of speech C.Completing therapeutic exercises before the procedure D.Gaining a better understanding of the prognosis

a. Mia's teacher will implement the use of scientifically based instruction in the regular education setting to provide her with additional reading support; if this is insufficient to improve her performance, the special education team will evaluate her for possible speak education services

A 5th grade teacher refers Mia to you. Mia speaks Tongalese. She and her family have been living in the US for 3 yrs, and Mia has been enrolled in US schools for that whole time. However, she has been sick a great deal and missed many days of school. The family is most helpful, and Mia's parents do their best to do assignments with her at home. However, their conversational English is limited, and they do not read or write in English at all. When you talk to the teacher, he states that Mia has friends and gets along well in the classroom, but she especially struggles in the area of reading. The school team meets and decides to utilize an RtI (response to intervention) approach to discern whether Mia has a language and experiential difference or a language impairment. In the RtI model: a. Mia's teacher will implement the use of scientifically based instruction in the regular education setting to provide her with additional reading support; if this is insufficient to improve her performance, the special education team will evaluate her for possible speak education services b. Mia will automatically undergo an extensive special education that will determine her possible need for pull-out speech-language therapy and academic support from the resource specialist c. Mia will automatically undergo an extensive special education evaluation that will determine her possible need for placement in a self-contained special education classroom d. the classroom teacher will continue "business as usual," providing no extra or additional instruction and assessing whether Mia makes progress

B.irregular verbs

A 6-year-old child who is a bilingual English-Spanish speaker produced the following statements during a speech-language assessment. I cutted the finger. I played with her yesterday. She eated too much candy. You like ice cream? Maria is going? Father is happy. Buy a new car. Based on the sample, the speech-language pathologist should begin remediation by focusing on A.adjectives and imperatives B.irregular verbs C.prepositional phrases D.conjunctions and embedding

a. To educate the family or caregivers

A 60 year old man has Parkinson's Disease and is in the early stages of dementia. It would be appropriate to address which of the following goals first in therapy? a. To educate the family or caregivers b. To decrease jargon c. Decrease circumlocution d. To improve motor skills

A. The Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test

A 60-year-old patient fell and hit his head on a bathtub, sustaining a traumatic brain injury (TBI). You have physician orders to evaluate his responsiveness and communication. When you screen this patient, he is generally unresponsive to verbal or tactile stimuli. The following assessments may be an appropriate choice for a full evaluation of this patient, except: A. The Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test B. The Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Function C. The Glasgow Coma Scale D. The Disability Rating Scale

A.Accessing stored messages in a speech-generating device

A 62-year-old male presents to an outpatient SLP following an extended stay at a rehabilitation facility. He had a left-hemisphere stroke three months ago and currently has moderate Broca's aphasia and severe apraxia of speech. It is difficult for him to participate in conversation because of the combination of his word-finding deficits and apraxia of speech. The patient's normal speech pattern consists of one- to two-word phrases, at times including paraphasias. He is able to write but often misspells words. During evaluation, the SLP finds the patient is able to initiate communication, recognize and categorize picture symbols, and comprehend familiar words and phrases. In general, his communication is fragmented and inefficient, but he will try anything to get his message across. Which of the following AAC treatment strategies would be most appropriate for the patient to start with? A.Accessing stored messages in a speech-generating device B.Learning sign language C.Answering multiple-choice questions and writing answers D.Using a 20-item picture board to convey essential wants and needs

a. signal-to-noise ratio

A 65 yr old man with presbycusis comes to you complaining that when he is in social situations such as parties, people don't speak loud enough. He says that the noise creates a problem for him in hearing what people are saying. This client has difficulty with: a. signal-to-noise ratio b. auditory discrimination c. figure-ground discrimination d. pragmatic skills

A.Repeating words of increasing length

A 65-year-old patient is transferred from another facility with a diagnosis of aphasia. The patient's symptoms, however, appear more consistent with apraxia. Which of the following tasks for the patient is most appropriate when assessing verbal apraxia of speech? A.Repeating words of increasing length B.Recalling three common items C.Performing voluntary oral movements D.Following two-step commands

C.Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve

A 67-year-old male patient with no history of swallowing problems has undergone a cardiothoracic surgical procedure. Postoperatively, he is found to be aspirating while swallowing and is diagnosed with a left vocal-fold paralysis and left pharyngeal paresis. Which of the following is the most likely etiology? A.An intraoperative CVA in the right pons B.Damage to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve C.Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve D.A left hemispheric stroke

c. Primary progressive aphasia

A 68 year old man sustained a CVA and received a course of speech-language treatment for anomic aphasia. He was discharged after making rapid improvement early in therapy. Three years later his wife reports that he is having more difficulty speaking and understanding, but that his memory skills and orientation abilities remain intact. She has also noticed that his conversation skills are slowly deteriorating. Of the following, which is most likely the explanation for the client's communicative decline? a. A transient ischemic attack b. An astrocytoma, probably in the vicinity of the supramarginal gyrus c. Primary progressive aphasia d. Lew body dementia

D. Pure alexia

A 68-year-old man experienced a stroke and had problems with reading; however, other language related skills like auditory comprehension, naming, writing, or oral repetition were not affected. This condition referred to as pure word blindness or alexia without agraphia is also called: A. Phoneme alexia B. Neglect alexia C. Visual alexia D. Pure alexia

B.Creating vertical jaw movements

A 7-month-old infant presents to an SLP for a swallow evaluation prompted by parental concerns related to the child coughing and choking frequently when swallowing thin liquids. The parents have attempted to feed the child small amounts of pureed foods, but the child spits them out. Which of the following developmental milestones is a typically developing 7 month old most likely to demonstrate during a swallow evaluation? A.Showing the ability to manipulate food B.Creating vertical jaw movements C.Using the rooting reflex when food is seen D.Engaging tongue elevation patterns

d. increase her skills in discourse

A 7-year old girl, Ashton, is referred to you by her second-grade classroom teacher, Mr. Alvarez. He says that Ashton "doesn't always get along with her peers" and "doesn't know how to hold a decent conversation." You assess Ashton personally and also observe her on the playground during recess and in the cafeteria at lunch-time. You see that Mr. Alvarez is right. Ashton has difficulty in conversational exchanges with her peers, and they frequently ignore her. You notice that when talking to you, she seems uncomfortable and doesn't say much, even when you use a variety of interesting games and toys. In therapy, your first priority with Ashton will be to: a. teach her the appropriate use of compound and complex sentences in appropriate contexts b. teach her the appropriate use of allomorphs when presented with pictures of different people and activities c. increase her skills in quick incidental learning so that she can expand her vocabulary d. increase her skills in discourse

1. A.depression 2. C.Helping the patient recognize his control over his vocal quality B.Working collaboratively to further address the patient's aphonia

A 72-year-old male presents to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) following a complicated hospital stay. The patient is morbidly obese and has a history of COPD, depression, hypertension, diabetes, Bell's palsy, encephalopathy, and congestive heart failure. During his stay, he was not intubated but became very weak as a result of extended time in bed. In the hospital, he was placed on an NDD Level 2 diet with nectar-thick liquids due to aspiration of thin liquids and poor oral control of regular solids. The patient worked until he was 50 years old, but his health conditions led to his early retirement. Before his hospitalization, the patient did not leave his house very often, and his wife helped him with all ADLs. While evaluating the patient at the SNF, the SLP noticed that the patient was disoriented and confused, appeared to be hallucinating, grunted loudly when attempting to stand, and presented with aphonia. There was no indication of this condition in the patient's hospital chart, and the patient's wife stated that the patient had no trouble using his voice while in the hospital. An ENT consult stated there was no structural reason for the aphonia. Suspecting that the aphonia was of a psychogenic etiology, the SLP made a referral to the resident psychiatrist and began treatment for both the aphonia and for dysphagia. After a few sessions of speech therapy, the patient has made limited progress with his aphonia. The resident psychiatrist has continued to work with the patient and recommends cognitive behavioral therapy sessions and continued speech therapy. 1. A primary factor causing the patient's psychogenic aphonia is the presence of A.depression B.Bell's palsy C.COPDC O P D D.hallucinations 2. Which of the following strategies can the SLP use to most effectively engage the patient in monitoring his progress? A.Recording their sessions for the patient to listen to later B.Reinforcing that the aphonia is not the patient's fault C.Helping the patient recognize his control over his vocal quality D.Asking the patient to keep a journal of why he feels he cannot use his voice 3. Which of the following approaches is the SLP's most appropriate response to the resident psychiatrist's recommendation? A.Discharging the order for the new evaluation because therapy has already started B.Working collaboratively to further address the patient's aphonia C.Sending treatment recommendations to the psychiatrist D.Telling the patient that further speech therapy is inappropriate because of his psychological diagnosis

C.To improve the client's ability to express production of syntactically appropriate sentences

A 72-year-old right-handed female is evaluated following a left-hemisphere stroke. Findings reveal a moderate Broca's aphasia. Which of the following is the primary goal of intervention for the client? A.To improve the client's pragmatics skills and abilities B.To increase the client's ability to express functional comprehension abilities C.To improve the client's ability to express production of syntactically appropriate sentences D.To enable the client's ability to use a digital augmentative communication system

B. "She coming over here now."

A 73-year-old Cantonese-speaking gentleman, Mr. Fung, has had a stroke. You are seeing him for therapy in an outpatient rehabilitation setting. He is recovering both his Cantonese and his English skills, but you are conducting therapy in English only because a Cantonese-speaking speech-language pathologist is not available. Which one of the following productions would be an example, on Mr. Fung's part, of English influenced by his primary language of Cantonese and not necessarily his current neurological status? A. "He not have no most money in his pocket." B. "She coming over here now." C. "We don't no done got to have breakfast now." D. "I done axed them for help."

a. They coming over here now

A 74 yr old bilingual Asian gentleman has had a stroke, and you are seeing him for therapy. He is recovering both his primary language and his English skills, but you are working only in English. There are no interpreters available, unfortunately, and the family has indicated that they would prefer treatment to be conducted in English anyway, since many of the patient's, grandchildren speak English fluently. Which one of the following productions would be an example, on the patient's part, of English influenced by his primary language and not the stroke? a. They coming over here now b. I done got to eat breakfast now c. She not have no dollar in her purse d. We be havin' many fun

B.Making a recommendation based on clinical judgment

A 90-year-old female patient residing in a long-term care facility is referred to the facility SLP for a swallow evaluation. The patient has advanced dementia, is under hospice care, and is currently on a pureed diet with nectar-thick liquids. During the evaluation, the SLP finds that the patient is showing signs and symptoms of aspiration on all consistencies, including pudding-thick liquids. The patient's cognitive condition makes an instrumental exam inappropriate. The SLP's recommendation is nothing by mouth (NPON P O) except for pleasure. The family and patient have decided against feeding-tube placement. Which of the following is a primary ethical responsibility of the SLP in this situation? A.Asking the family what diet level they would like the patient to consume B.Making a recommendation based on clinical judgment C.Deferring to a doctor or nurse to help with the decision D.Refusing to write diet orders for the patient because of the NPON P O recommendation

b. following Jason's line of regard

A baby, Jason, is looking at the family cat. His grandma sees him looking at the cat and directs her gaze toward the cat, also. She prepares to comment about the cat. Jason's grandma is: a. using presupposition b. following Jason's line of regard c. intuiting Jason's thoughts about felines d. preparing to use a holophrase

a. autosomal recessive deficiency of X-L iduronidase

A child comes to a clinic with her mother for articulation therapy. The mother tells the clinician that her daughter has Hurler's syndrome. Hurler's syndrome is caused by: a. autosomal recessive deficiency of X-L iduronidase b. a spontaneous autosomal dominant mutation of FGR2 at 10q25-26 c. autosomal dominant inheritance and deletion in the region of the long arm of the chromosome 15 (15q11-15q13) d. an expanded number of cytosine-guanine-guanine nuclei acid repeats on a specific gene on one of the distal ends of the Y chromosome

c. backing

A child comes to you for an evaluation. According to her mother, Sharma has a history of middle ear infections. Her mother reports that Sharma is quite difficult to understand. For ex., according to her mother, she says things like guck/duck and koo/two. This child is manifesting the phonological pattern of: a. fronting b. stridency deletion c. backing d. glottal replacement

d. may have delayed language and an articulation disorder, as well as bilabial paresis and weak tongue control for lateralization, elevation, depression, and protrusion; a mask-like face; a history of feeding problems in infancy; and unilateral or bilateral paralysis of the abductors of the eye

A child from Apple City transfers to Middleton City, and his file indicates that he has been receiving speech-language services in Apple City. To the chagrin of the Middleton City clinician, some pages of the report from the SLP in Apple City are missing. However, on the first page, it is indicated that this child has Moebius syndrome. He also has a history of frequent hospitalizations. The Middleton City clinician can probably expect to find that this child: a. has low muscle tone, a history of early feeding difficulties, initial failure to thrive, obesity after the first year, and underdeveloped genitals b. has underdeveloped facial bones, including mandibular hypoplasia, malar hypoplasia, dental malocclusion, and downwardly slanted palpebral fissures c. has a small maxillary structure, sphenoethmoidal syncrhondroses, ocular hypertelorism, facial asymmetry including a tall forehead, and bradycephaly d. may have delayed language and an articulation disorder, as well as bilabial paresis and weak tongue control for lateralization, elevation, depression, and protrusion; a mask-like face; a history of feeding problems in infancy; and unilateral or bilateral paralysis of the abductors of the eye

d. indirect requests

A child has been referred to you for an assessment of his pragmatic skills. The chief complaint of adults and children with whom he interacts is that he frequently gives commands and sounds rude and bossy. His classroom teacher says she is "fed up with his bossiness," and peers do not include him in their games. His father tells you that the boy frequently says things like "Take me to Pizza Place" and "get me the Spiderman DVD." The father would like intervention to help his son say things like "I wonder if we could get a spiderman DVD at the store," instead of giving orders. In therapy, you know you will need to work on the boy's facility with: a. passive sentence transformations b. cohesion c. narrative skills d. indirect requests

c. Fixed Ratio (A fixed ratio of reinforcement is a type of intermittent reinforcement where the child is provided a reinforcer after a specific number of correct responses. The clinician determines the number of correct responses necessary, and this number remains consistent throughout the entire task.)

A child is provided a sticker after 10 correct responses during a task targeting wh- questions. What type of reinforcement is this? a. Variable Ratio b. Fixed Interval c. Fixed Ratio d. Variable Interval

d. Fixed Ratio

A child is provided a sticker after 10 correct responses during a task targeting wh- questions. What type of reinforcement is this? a. Variable Ratio b. Fixed Interval c. Variable Interval d. Fixed Ratio

C. Apert syndrome

A child is referred to a hospital-based clinician for assessment and treatment. In the child's chart, it is stated that the child has a syndrome caused by spontaneous autosomal dominant mutations. The gene and the locus of this syndrome is FGR2 at 10q25-26. The child has midfacial hypoplasia, an arched and grooved hard palate, and mild mental retardation. What does the child have? A. Trisomy 13 B. Angelman syndrome C. Apert syndrome D. Turner syndrome

d. reduplication

A child is referred to you by his preschool teacher. This child, Damien, is 4 yrs 3 months old and has transferred from out of state. In his previous state, he was reportedly assessed by an SLP who recommended that he receive intervention before kindergarten. According to the report from the previous clinician, Damien uses the phonological patterns of gliding, consonant-cluster reduction, stopping, reduplication, and final-consonant deletion. Your assessment confirms the presence of these phonological patterns. You would begin treatment by addressing: a. final-consonant deletion b. gliding c. consonant-cluster reduction d. reduplication

d. Words that contrast the child's error pattern with the target pattern in the word

A child repeatedly inserts an inappropriate sound in certain environments for example: [fpIsh] for [fIsh]. Which of the following would likely be most helpful for the child as a target for treatment? a. Bisyllabic words for which a minimal-contrast pair can be easily identified b. Words containing phonemes that have distinctive features in common with the sound the child inserts inappropriately c. Repeated practice with the combination of phonemes that the child finds particularly easy to produce d. Words that contrast the child's error pattern with the target pattern in the word

D.Words that contrast the child's error pattern with the target pattern in the word

A child repeatedly inserts an inappropriate sound in certain environments; for example, [fpɪʃ] for [fɪʃ] . Which of the following would likely be most helpful for the child as a target for treatment? A.Bisyllabic words for which a minimal-contrast pair can be easily identified B.Words containing phonemes that have distinctive features in common with the sound the child inserts inappropriately C.Repeated practice with the combinations of phonemes that the child finds particularly easy to produce D.Words that contrast the child's error pattern with the target pattern in the word

a. attribute + entity

A child says, "red crayon." This is an example of which type of semantic relations? a. attribute + entity b. action + locative c. agent + action d. attribute + locative

A. Patterns affecting syllable structure

A child shows the presence of phonological patterns such as epenthesis, final consonant deletion, and cluster reduction. He is demonstrating the use of: A. Patterns affecting syllable structure B. Assimilation C. Coalescence D. Patterns involving substitutions of sounds

c. "more cookie"

A child using recurrence would say which of the following: a. "face dirty" b. "all gone juice" c. "more cookie" d. "doll mine"

d. treat the student, because this is a sign of a speech sound disorder involving substitutions of other sounds for nasal

A classroom teacher refers a 9 yr old African American male student to you because she is concerned about his intelligibility. This teacher is anxious to avoid the mistake of mislabeling this student as having a "speech disorder" if he is merely manifesting characteristics of AAE. When you screen the boy, you find that he makes the following substitutions: d/m, f/n, and m/n. You would: a. let the classroom teacher work with the student because this is such a mild problem b. do nothing, knowing that boys mature more slowly than girls c. do nothing, realizing that this is normal for speakers of AAE d. treat the student, because this is a sign of a speech sound disorder involving substitutions of other sounds for nasal

d. advise Chris that a combination of counseling, surgery, and voice therapy to teach her more feminine pitch levels and communication patterns would best serve her needs

A client comes to a clinician seeking voice therapy. Chris is a 25 yr old male-to-female transgender client who has undergone several procedures to become more feminine. She tells you that she is also taking estrogen. She shares that she needs help to speak in a more feminine way, but she does not know how to go about this. She is also dealing with emotional issues surrounding her gender assignment. In this case, the clinician should ideally: a. tell Chris that various surgical procedures, such as thyroplasty, are available and that having surgical procedures will be sufficient to help her change her voice to sound more feminine b. advise Chris that surgical procedures are necessary, but that voice therapy will help her to sound more feminine by teaching her new communication patterns, such as higher pitch and more feminine intonation patterns c. advise Chris that a combination of voice therapy and counseling will be the best way for her to sound more feminine and also receive emotional support as she deals with gender reassignment issues d. advise Chris that a combination of counseling, surgery, and voice therapy to teach her more feminine pitch levels and communication patterns would best serve her needs

B. You should consider the information but rely primarily on your own direct observation and evaluation results.

A client comes to your office for an evaluation and provides you with reports from other professionals who have previously seen the client. How you should use this information? A. The information most likely creates a biased view of a client's condition and should not be heavily considered. B. You should consider the information but rely primarily on your own direct observation and evaluation results. C. If the information identifies specific treatment options and alternatives, you should use these options and alternatives for the client. D. The information is not legal to obtain because it is from another professional, which means you should not use it to help you evaluate your client.

b. stopped

A clinician evaluates the speech of a 5 yr old child with a phonological delay. The child is not intelligible to her kindergarten teacher or her peers and is placed in therapy to improve her intelligibility. Assuming that this child uses the phonological process of consonant-cluster reduction, which of the following is the word you would most likely put on a word list for treatment? a. bus b. stopped c. rich d. lassie

c. Werncike-Korsakoff syndrome

A clinician in a hospital setting is asked to evaluate a 64 yr old patient who appears to have dementia. In gathering the case history from the patient's adult daughter, the clinician finds out that the patient began drinking alcohol as a 15 yr old and has been a heavy drinker since that time. A detailed evaluation shows that the patient presents with memory problems, difficulty processing abstract information, and visual-spatial deficits. This patient most likely has: a. dementia of the Alzheimer's type b. Parkinson's disease c. Werncike-Korsakoff syndrome d. aphasia

c. Ataxic dysarthria

A clinician in a hospital setting is asked to evaluate a 64 yr old patient who appears to have dysarthria as a result of a TBU from falling and hitting the back lower portion of his head. A detailed motor speech evaluation shows that the patient presents with slurred speech, imprecise consonants, distorted vowels, slow rate of speech, and excess and even stress. The patient's motor movements are described by the nursing staff as "clumsy" and "uncoordinated." Based on the given information, the clinician would most likely classify the patient's dyarthria as: a. Hyperkinetic dysarthria b. Hypokinetic dysarthria c. Ataxic dysarthria d. Flaccid dysarthria

c. behaviors that promote communication in natural settings

A clinician in a hospital setting is informed that insurance companies have begun to demand specific evidence that the clients with neurologically based disorders are taught functional communication skills. These skills are: a. age- and norm-based skills that are appropriate for the client b. useful only for adult clients c. behaviors that promote communication in natural settings d. useful only for clients with language disorders

1. A. An abnormality on chromosome 7, including a gene that makes the protein elastin 2. A. have a "cocktail party"-type personality.

A clinician in a private practice is approached by the parents of Cole, a 5-year-old boy. They want to place Cole in kindergarten in the fall, but they share, "We know there's something wrong with him—we're just not sure what." According to Cole's parents, he is a "sweet, lovable boy who will go to anybody. He likes to sing a lot, too." Because the parents live in a rural area, health-care access has been limited. After seeing Cole for the first time, the clinician refers his parents to a neurologist because she suspects that Cole has a syndrome. Cole is small for his age and has an elfin-like appearance characterized by a small chin, turned-up nose, puffiness around the eyes, a long upper lip, and a wide mouth. Cole's teeth are small and widely spaced. 1. This syndrome is caused by a rare genetic disorder that affects an estimated 1 out of every 20,000 babies. It is caused by what? A. An abnormality on chromosome 7, including a gene that makes the protein elastin B. Autosomal dominant inheritance and deletion in the region of the long arm of chromosome 15 (15q11-15q13) C. A spontaneous autosomal dominant mutation whose gene and locus is FGR2 at 10q25-26 D. An expanded number of cytosine-guanine-guanine (CGG) nucleic acid repeats on a specific gene on one of the distal ends of the X chromosome 2. The clinician explained to her student intern that people with this syndrome A. have a "cocktail party"-type personality. B. have above average height and weight. C. can live independently. D. have normal language abilities as they age.

1. a. Williams syndrome 2. d. the deletion of approx. 25 genes on one copy of chromosome 7q11.23 3. c. overall expressive and receptive language, because children with this syndrome generally have IQs of 50-70 (although some have good language skills)

A clinician in a private practice is approached by the parents of Tommy D., a 5 yr old boy. The parents want to place Tommy in kindergarten in the fall but say "we know there's something wrong with him - we're just not sure what." According to Tommy's parents, he is a "sweet, lovable boy who will go to anybody/ He likes to sing a lot, too." Because the parents live in a rural area, health care access has been limited. After seeing Tommy for the first time, the clinician refers his parents to a neurologist because she suspects that Tommy has a syndrome. He is small for his age and has an elfin-like appearance characterized by a small and widely spaced chin. 1. The clinician suspects that Tommy has: a. Williams syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Moebius syndrome d. Turner syndrome 2. This syndrome is caused by a rare genetic disorder that affects an estimated 1 out of every 20,000 babies. It is caused by: a. a missing part of the chromosome 22, known as 22q11 b. an expanded number of cytosine-guanine-guanine nuclei acid repeats on a specific gene on one of the distal ends of the X chromosome c. a spontaneous autosomal dominant mutation, whose gene and locus is FGR2 at 10q25-26 d. the deletion of approx. 25 genes on one copy of chromosome 7q11.23 3. The clinician knows that she will probably end up seeing Tommy for intervention if his parents are able to bring him on a weekly basis. She will probably be working on which of the following goals? a. pragmatics, to increase Tommy's ability to interact with others b. oral-motor coordination, because children with this syndrome usually have oral-motor coordination problems, which contribute to decreased intelligibility c. overall expressive and receptive language, because children with this syndrome generally have IQs of 50-70 (although some have good language skills) d. morphological skills, because although children with this syndrome usually have above average IQs, they frequently delete bound morphemes from the beginnings and ends of words

c. median

A clinician in a private practice often administers the Word Abilities Keystone Evaluation-Upper Portion (WAKE-UP) test to the children with language disorders. One day, she becomes curious about the "typical score" of the children to whom she administers the WAKE-UP. The clinician takes the WAKE-UP scores of 17 children and lines them up in order from lowest to highest score: 33, 33, 46, 48, 51, 55, 60, 69, 73, 82, 85, 89, 91, 93, 95, 95, 95 The clinician identifies a number below and above which the same number of scores existed. That number is called a: a. mean b. mode c. median d. standard deviation

d. apraxia of speech

A clinician in a skilled nursing facility (SNF) receives a note that Dick, a new 80 year old patient, has been transferred to her facility . The note states that Dick was assessed by the clinician in the previous SNF, but there is no diagnosis in the papers that have been sent from the previous clinician. However, the previous clinician reported that Dick manifested the following symptoms: general awareness of his speech problems, significant articulation problems, problems with volitional speech with relatively intact automatic speech, more difficulty with consonants than vowels, intonation and fluency problems, and trial-and-error groping and struggling associated with speech attempts. Therapy was recommended. Dick most likely has: a. hyperkinetic dysarthria b. unilateral upper motor neuron dysarthria c. right-hemisphere syndrome d. apraxia of speech

d. posterior and lateral pharyngeal walls, as well as the nasal aspect of the velum and the adenoid pad, as the child produces sentences

A clinician is a member of a cleft palate team that asks her to conduct an objective assessment of an 8 yr old child's velopharyngeal mechanism. The clinician decides to do nasopharyngoscopy, in which nasopharyngoscope is passed through the middle meatus and back to the area of velopharyngeal closure. This will enable the clinician to observe the child's" a. adenoid pads and anterior pharyngeal walls as the child prolongs /s/ b. posterior and lateral pharyngeal walls, as well as the adenoid pad, as the child sustains /a/ c. nasal aspect of the velum and the adenoid pad as the child produces CVC words d. posterior and lateral pharyngeal walls, as well as the nasal aspect of the velum and the adenoid pad, as the child produces sentences

b. a manometric assessment can assess the preparatory phase of the swallow using posterior and lateral place examinations

A clinician is asked to give a workshop to graduate students about evaluation of patients with swallowing disorders. She discusses evaluation in depth. Which one of the following facts in the clinician's workshop would be inaccurate? a. an ultrasound examination can measure oral tongue movement and hyoid movement b. a manometric assessment can assess the preparatory phase of the swallow using posterior and lateral place examinations c. an electromyographic assessment can be conducted by attaching electrodes on structures of interest (e.g., oral, laryngeal, or pharyngeal muscles) d. a laryngeal examination can be conducted with indirect laryngoscopy or endoscopic examination to inspect the base of the tongue, vallecula, epiglottis, pyriform sinuses, vocal folds, and ventricular folds A.

b. transparent

A clinician is providing services for a school-age child, Myron, who uses an AAC device. Myron's parents and teacher report that he is having trouble with the device; others frequently do not understand what he is trying to communicate. He is showing increasing signs of frustration, and the clinician has been asked to help reduce his frustration by facilitating his communication with other people. To help Myron communicate more effectively with others so that they understand his messages better, the clinician needs to make sure that the symbols on Myron's AAC device are: a. PECS friendly b. transparent c. non-iconically opaque d. opaque

C.A peer-reviewed article describing a large-scale study comparing several methods of treatment for SLI

A clinician is starting treatment with a new client with specific language impairment (SLIS L I). Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information for the SLP to use in developing the treatment plan? A.Advice from a senior colleague in the speech clinic B.An all-day seminar presented by a leading clinician in the area of SLIS L I C.A peer-reviewed article describing a large-scale study comparing several methods of treatment for SLIS L I D.A conference presentation of unpublished cutting-edge research comparing several methods of treatment for SLI

A. the Mendelssohn maneuver.

A clinician is teaching a patient a technique for dysphagia that includes having the patient manually lift the larynx to improve swallowing functioning because of reduced laryngeal elevation and cricopharyngeus opening. The clinician teaches the patient to take liquid in the mouth and hold it while simultaneously placing the index finger and the thumb around the thyroid notch. The clinician then instructs the patient to hold the larynx at the highest point of laryngeal elevation and swallow, continuing to hold the thyroid notch for a few seconds during and after the swallow before releasing that hold. This technique is called A. the Mendelssohn maneuver. B. an effortful swallow. C. a supraglottic swallow. D. a super-supraglottic swallow.

d. parallel talk

A clinician is working with parents on home language-stimulation activities for their 3 yr old daughter, Hannah, whose language is delayed. Among other things, Hannah needs to increase her expressive language skills to a level more commensurate with her chronological age. Her mean length of utterance is restricted, and her utterances are more typical of a young 2 yr old child. The clinician has recommended that at home, the parents use a technique in which they play with Hannah and describe and comment upon what she is doing and the object she is interested in. For ex., the parents might say "you are making the car go fast" or "the pig is pink." The parents are using the technique of: a. self-talk b. expansion c. expatiation d. parallel talk

d. being negatively reinforced in treatment sessions

A clinician was working with a 4 yr old boy, Emile, who stuttered. During treatment, the clinician found that every time she asked Emile to imitate a long phrase or sentence, he got out of his chair, tried to wander around the room saying "That's too hard!" To control Emile's undesirable behaviors, the clinician simplified the target skill; she modeled simpler, shorter sentences with the goal of increasing the utterance length more gradually and slowly than she had done it previously. Consequently, Emile's undesirable behaviors decreased and were eventually eliminated. This shows that Emile's undesirable behaviors were: a. being effectively punished b. being positively yet indirectly reinforced during treatment sessions c. being reinforced on an intermittent, variable ratio schedule d. being negatively reinforced in treatment sessions

a. what is observed for a particular age group in the study may not hold good for others of the same age who were not in the study

A difficulty with cross-sectional studies is that: a. what is observed for a particular age group in the study may not hold good for others of the same age who were not in the study b. observations are made of differences within participant groups of different ages to generalize about developmental changes that would occur between participants as they mature c. the same participants are studied over time, and this is expensive, time consuming, and difficult because participants might drop out of the study d. the total age span of children to be studied is divided into several overlapping age spans, and it is difficult to follow participants from the lower to the upper end of each age span

a. temporal auditory processing

A first-grade teacher refers 6 year old Mandy to you for an assessment. The teacher is concerned, because reportedly Mandy has problems with remembering what she hears. The teacher tells you, "sometimes I have to give the children three or four directions, and I have to do it quickly because we have to go somewhere, like an assembly. Mandy is the only one in my class who doesn't remember what I tell the kids to do." Based on this brief description, you suspect that Mandy might have difficulties in which of the following areas? a. temporal auditory processing b. divergent semantic production c. phonological processing d. convergent semantic production

c. you would like to conduct an assessment of Alex's language skills in a variety of domains to see whether he needs support services in oral and written language

A fourth-grade child, Alex, has been referred to you for language testing by his teacher. His parents are concerned and upset with the teacher because they feel that Alex needs more help in reading and writing skills than he is receiving. They tell you that the math and science homework assignments are too difficult for him, and they feel that the fourth-grade teacher is making unreasonable demands. You find out that Alex did not attend preschool, and even in kindergarten, the teacher wrote on his first-trimester progress report that he "began school not knowing basic concepts; he didn't talk as much as the other children either." You will tell Alex's parents that: a. the teacher really is being unreasonable and demanding too much b. Alex definitely has a language delay and needs therapy c. you would like to conduct an assessment of Alex's language skills in a variety of domains to see whether he needs support services in oral and written language d. Alex definitely needs a psychological evaluation to see if he has an intellectual disability

B.The student will ask six related "wh-" questions with minimal cueing in two out of three tries.

A fourth-grade student presents to a school SLP with receptive-expressive language disorder. The student has difficulty with asking "wh-" questions. Specifically, the student tends to ask only "who" and "what" questions. When probed, the student will ask "why" and "when" questions but often uses the terms incorrectly. When writing the annual Individualized Education Program for the student, which of the following goals is most appropriate and measurable? A.The student will ask six related "wh-" questions with 100% accuracy. B.The student will ask six related "wh-" questions with minimal cueing in two out of three tries. C.The student will ask six related "wh-" questions with no cueing and with 100% accuracy. D.The student will ask six related "wh-" questions with no cueing in one out of three tries.

B. Prader-Willi Syndrome

A girl, Suzanne, is brought to you displaying the symptoms of hypotonia, imprecise articulation, and intellectual disability. Her mother shares that she eats excessively and she is worried because Suzanne is overweight and being teased by her peers. This child has: A. Pierre-Robin Syndrome B. Prader-Willi Syndrome C. Treacher-Collins Syndrome D. Trisomy 13

d. d/t substitution (din/tin)

A high school teacher refers a Japanese-speaking 10th grader, Kosuke, to you for an evaluation. Kosuke and his family have been in the US for 2 yrs; the father was brought to the US for a 3-year computer project in a major American city. The family will be returning to Japan next year. Kosuke's teacher says that, although he is doing well academically, he is "hard to understand sometimes." She says that the other students don't make fun of Kosuke, but they don't always seem to follow what he is saying. The teacher wonders if he could benefit from intervention for an "articulation disorder." You conduct a screening. Which one of the following articulatory-phonological characteristics would NOT be predictable based on Kosuke's first language of Japanese? a. substitution of a/ae (sock/sack; fong/fang) b. final-consonant deletion (be-/bed; po-/pot) c. r/l confusion (laise/raise; clown/crown) d. d/t substitution (din/tin)

D. Substitutions of f/th (e.g., fick/thick)

A high school teacher refers a Mandarin-speaking 16-year-old to you for an evaluation. The student and his family came to the United States 2 years ago from China. The teacher says that the student does well academically, but she shares that she has difficulty understanding him when he speaks. When you screen the student, you find some articulation and language differences. Which one of the following would not be predictable based on the student's first language of Mandarin? A. Substitutions of t/th (e.g., tin/thin) B. Epenthesis in words with consonant blends C. Confusions of /r/ and /l/ D. Substitutions of f/th (e.g., fick/thick)

c. the experimental group's Sunday school and church attendance on a weekly basis was a possible confounding variable in the study, making it impossible to firmly conclude that the NAP alone caused the difference in the performance of the experimental and control groups

A hospital-based clinician is conducting an experiment to assess the efficacy of the new, exciting Newton Aphasia Program (NAP) in increasing the word-retrieval skills of her people with aphasia. The experimental and control groups have been carefully matched on all variables. Halfway through the experiment, the clinician finds that many of the experimental participants attend church each Sunday and go to Sunday school after church. In Sunday school, there is bible study and a great deal of discussion. None of the control participants attends church or Sunday school. At the end of the experiment, the clinician finds that the experimental group of participants who received the NAP have improved significantly in their word-retrieval skills compared to the control participants, who have been treated with more traditional word-retrieval therapy techniques. What can the researcher safely conclude from her study? a. the NAP was more successful in helping the experimental patients improve their word retrieval skills than were the traditional methods in helping patients in the control group improve their word retrieval skills b. the NAP was not successful in helping the patients in the experimental group improve their word-retrieval skills; the improvement was due to weekly church and Sunday school attendance c. the experimental group's Sunday school and church attendance on a weekly basis was a possible confounding variable in the study, making it impossible to firmly conclude that the NAP alone caused the difference in the performance of the experimental and control groups d. the NAP was only moderately successful in helping experimental group patients improve their word-retrieval skills

d. poor judgment; impaired reasoning; disorientation in new places; widespread intellectual deterioration; empty speech; jargon; incoherent, slurred, and rapid speech; problems in comprehending abstract messages

A hospital-based clinician receives a referral of Mary, a 71 year old woman. Mary's 35 yr old son says, "Mom just isn't herself anymore; we don't know what's wrong or what to do. We don't know if she had a stroke or what's going on." After talking with Mary in the initial interview, the clinician realizes that he will have to assess Mary in depth to evaluate whether she has aphasia or DAT (dementia of the Alzheimer's type). If May has DAT, which of the following symptoms will she show? a. normal syntax except for word-finding problems; good auditory comprehension of spoken language; slurred and rapid speech; disorientation to time and place; visuospatial problems; difficulty with self-care and daily routines; intact repetition skills b. severe problems in recalling remote and recent events; relatively intact syntactic skills; appropriate humor and laughter; disorientation to time and place; intact ability to initiate interactions c. severely impaired fluency; severe echolalia; agrammatic and telegraphic speech; intact auditory comprehension skills; no difficulty with self-care or managing daily routines d. poor judgment; impaired reasoning; disorientation in new places; widespread intellectual deterioration; empty speech; jargon; incoherent, slurred, and rapid speech; problems in comprehending abstract messages

1. d. Parkinson's disease 2. d. monopitch, a harsh and breathy voice, short rushes of speech, imprecise consonants, and respiratory problems 3. c. mask-like face, slow voluntary movements, tremors in resting muscles, and disturbed posture

A hospital-based clinician receives a referral of a women, Fran, who is 76 yrs old and enjoys walking, swimming, and giving her grandchildren rides. During the initial interview, Fran tells the clinician that she would have to stop her daily walks with her dog, because she is slow when she begins walking and then she would take short, rapid, shuffling steps. She also shares that her writing has become smaller and that her friends and family say she has been found "expressionless" in the recent days. The clinician also notices decreased intelligibility. 1. Fran probably has a. RHD b. unilateral upper motor neuron dysarthria c. Alzheimer's dementia d. Parkinson's disease 2. Based on your diagnosis, you would expect Fran's speech and language to be characterized by: a. fluency problems, including silent pauses as well as repetitions because of false starts and attempts at self-correction b. quality and rate that are "drunken" and slow, with excessive and even stress c. incoherent, slurred, and rapid speech accompanied by metathetic errors d. monopitch, a harsh and breathy voice, short rushes of speech, imprecise consonants, and respiratory problems 3. Other symptoms the clinician might expect Fran to manifest would include: a. chorea, emotional outbursts, schizophrenic like behaviors, and dysarthria b. hallucinations, mask-like face, and confabulation c. mask-like face, slow voluntary movements, tremors in resting muscles, and disturbed posture d. circumlocutions, repetitive verbal responses, and festinating speech

A.Dividing the total number of students who currently stutter by the total number of students who were enrolled during the past year

A large metropolitan school district wants to determine the prevalence of developmental stuttering among all enrolled students during the past year. Which of the following approaches is most appropriate for accomplishing the task? A.Dividing the total number of students who currently stutter by the total number of students who were enrolled during the past year B.Subtracting the total number of students who received treatment for stuttering during the past year from the total number of students who currently stutter C.Multiplying the total number of students who currently stutter by the total number of students enrolled during the past year D.Dividing the total number of newly identified students who stutter by the total number of students enrolled during the past year

d. his mother stutters

A male child's risk for developing stuttering is the greatest when: a. his brother stutters b. his father stutters c. his cousin stutters d. his mother stutters

D. paradoxical vocal fold motion.

A medical chart indicates that a patient's true vocal folds adduct instead of abduct during inhalation. The medical information also indicates that at times the patient's vocal folds remain closed throughout the respiratory cycle. According to the speech-language pathologist, the patient has: A. unilateral vocal fold paralysis. B. bilateral vocal fold paralysis. C. spasmodic dysphonia. D. paradoxical vocal fold motion.

c. 100

A minimum of how many hours of supervised clinical experience is needed for an individual to be an SLPA a. 150 b. 250 c. 100 d. 200

c. hire bilingual aides from the neighboring communities and use their services to help the children maintain their primary languages and learn English, also

A monolingual, English-speaking SLP is working in a Head Start in a city with many EL children. In the last year, EL children from over 15 different cultural and linguistic groups have come to the Head Start speaking only their primary languages. The ideal plan for dealing with the needs of these children is to: a. encourage them not to speak their primary languages and to speak English ad much and as quickly as possible b. tolerate the children's use of their primary languages and speak to them solely in English, hoping that they will eventually "pick up" English and discontinue using their primary languages c. hire bilingual aides from the neighboring communities and use their services to help the children maintain their primary languages and learn English, also d. assume that these children probably have language impairments in their primary languages and hire bilingual SLPs to assist in remediation

1. d. has a lack of anxiety or concern about her speech; uses spoonerisms; and has rapid, disordered articulation resulting in unintelligible speech 2. a. reducing Rachel's rate of speech and increasing her awareness of speech through audiotapes or videotapes

A mother calls a clinician and shares concerns about her child's speech. According to the mother, her daughter, Rachel, is difficult to understand. The mother describes Rachel's speech as "sort of rushed, and she kind of stutters sometimes." The clinician who tests Rachel concludes that she clutters. Based upon this diagnosis, one would expect to see that Rachel: 1. a. has a rapid rate of speech but is intelligible and is probably secretly anxious about her speech b. is dysfluent but has clear articulation and no spoonerisms c. has excellent language skills and is highly dysfluent with no speech rate problems d. has a lack of anxiety or concern about her speech; uses spoonerisms; and has rapid, disordered articulation resulting in unintelligible speech 2. When the SLP provides treatment for Rachel to help her become more intelligible, which techniques would probably be ideal for her? a. reducing Rachel's rate of speech and increasing her awareness of speech through audiotapes or videotapes b. reducing Rachel's rate of speech but not increasing her awareness of her speech through audiotapes or videotapes, because this could create self-consciousness, which could make the cluttering worse c. helping Rachel maintain a rapid rate of speech but working on increasing her intelligibility through emphasizing the final consonant of words d. probing to see if Rachel has negative emotions (that her mother is unaware of) about her speech and spending most of her therapy time helping her deal with these emotions

b. using the phrase "all gone" to express emerging negation

A mother comes to you, concerned because her son Jake was born prematurely and had to spend the first few months of his life in a neonatal intensive case unit. Now Jake is 9 months old, and his mother wants to make sure that his language development is "on target for his age." You go to Jake's home to observe him, and you also ask his mother to give you a detailed description of his communication patterns. As you evaluate Jake's language development, you need to remember that one of the following does NOT occur between 8 and 10 months of age in the typically developing child. Which one is it? a. comprehension of no b. using the phrase "all gone" to express emerging negation c. using variegated babbling ("madamada") d. uncovering a hidden toy (beginning of object permanence)

B. They can have potential implications for the development of a speech and language disorder.

A new client comes to your office with severe allergies as one of the medical conditions listed on his case history form. Which of the following statements best describes why this piece of information would be important to you as a speech-language pathologist? A. Allergies are not important because of their high prevalence but they should still be listed on his case history form for other professionals such as physicians. B. They can have potential implications for the development of a speech and language disorder. C. Allergies cause a fluid buildup in the middle ear, which results in a hearing loss and speech and language difficulties. D. Allergies result in airway inflammation, which hurts the sound quality of the voice.

D. Position the tongue more posteriorly during speech to create a resonance that is considered to be more feminine

A new client is placed on your caseload who is transsexual and is currently transitioning from male to female. This client received a thyroplasty and longitudinal incision of the vocal folds to achieve a higher-pitched voice, as the typical characteristics of a "female voice" are important to her. Voice therapy, however, was still recommended following surgery. The following would be important to address in therapy, except: A. Build vocal stamina and endurance to decrease vocal fatigue B. Use a greater number of rising pitch inflections at the ends of utterances C. Speak with greater articulatory precision, a softer voice, and more models D. Position the tongue more posteriorly during speech to create a resonance that is considered to be more feminine

D. The titanium screw is embedded into the cochlea.

A new patient comes into your office seeking more information on bone-anchored hearing aids because he has heard better things about these hearing aids versus conventional bone conduction hearing aids. Which of the following statements is false regarding BAHAs? A. BAHAs provide mechanical vibration that is transmitted to the skull by a titanium screw. B. A small titanium implant behind the ear bonds with the living bone. C. Candidates for BAHAs are those with bone-conduction thresholds better than or equal to 45 dB HL. D. The titanium screw is embedded into the cochlea.

B. narrowing or closure of the valleculae space.

A patient in a nursing home is being treated for dysphagia post cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The patient is oriented and can follow directions. The patient has poor tongue control but good pharyngeal and laryngeal control. The clinician decides to try a technique in which she places a bolus in the mouth, tilts the patient's head back, and asks her to swallow. This treatment technique will result in A. increasing the valleculae space. B. narrowing or closure of the valleculae space. C. laryngeal closure issues. D. peristalsis issues.

d. 250-6000 Hz (A conductive hearing loss can affect speech sound frequencies across the entire speech range. Often it can be medically treated and always requires medical evaluation for causes such as otitis media, perforated eardrum, impacted cerumen and Eustachian tube dysfunction. Many conditions are reversible.)

Many children will present with conductive hearing loss, either unilateral or bilateral. This means that they are having difficulty based on an outer or middle ear problem. If the child has hearing thresholds of 40-50db, what are the frequencies that are likely to be affected? a. 1000 - 5000hz b. 1500 - 3000hz c. 500 - 4000hz d. 250 - 6000hz

a. 250 - 6000hz

Many children will present with conductive hearing loss, either unilateral or bilateral. This means that they are having difficulty based on an outer or middle ear problem. If the child has hearing thresholds of 40-50db, what are the frequencies that are likely to be affected? a. 250 - 6000hz b. 1000 - 5000hz c. 500 - 4000hz d. 1500 - 3000h

c. Secure the physicians endorsement of treatment continuation on a schedule dictated by Medicare

Ms. March, age 70, received speech-language treatment at her assisted living facility for aphasia secondary to CVA. Medicare is reimbursing a home health agency that visits the facility for Ms. March;s treatment following submission of an evaluation and treatment plan from the SLP employed by the home health agency. To ensure that reimbursement for treatment continues, the SLP must a. Administer a standardized aphasia battery weekly to assess progress b. Include recommendations for family participation in the treatment plan c. Secure the physicians endorsement of treatment continuation on a schedule dictated by Medicare d. Initiate treatment within 6 months of Ms. March hospitalization for the stroke

A.Establishing successful and useful communication

Naturalistic teaching chiefly involves which of the following? A.Establishing successful and useful communication B.Using multiple trials and training techniques C.Using more adult-initiated interactions than child-initiated interactions D.Using differential reinforcement, fading, and modeling

C. Cricothyroid

Nicole, a voice major, is having problems raising the pitch of her voice. Her speech-language pathologist recommends that she lengthen and tense her vocal folds to increase her pitch. Which muscle is involved in achieving this goal? A. Transverse arytenoids B. Oblique arytenoids C. Cricothyroid D. Thyroarytenoid

c. forced inspirations and expirations that interrupt speech

Of the following symptoms, the one associated with dysarthria is: a. even and consistent breakdowns in articulation b. impaired syntactic structures c. forced inspirations and expirations that interrupt speech d. an invariably slower rate of speech

d. Piaget's

Of the following theories of cognitive development, whose posits discrete developmental stages? a. Skinner's b. Vygotsky's c. Bandura's d. Piaget's

D. Broca's area.

Peter has suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA); the neurologist reports lesions in the third convolution of the left cerebral hemisphere. Based on this, you conclude that the damaged area is A. the occipital lobe. B. the basal ganglia. C. Wernicke's area. D. Broca's area.

d. Referral for a complete audiological evaluation.

A mother brings her 11-month-old son to the ABC Speech and Hearing clinic because she has some concerns. She has noticed that her son does not startle to loud noises and is not babbling like his older brother did at this age. He is developing normally otherwise and his pediatrician does not seem concerned. What do you recommend to this mother? a. Assure the mother that the baby is still responding within normal limits and recommend a re-check in six months. b. Nothing. If the pediatrician isn't concerned, why should you be? c. Enroll the child in speech and language therapy. d. Referral for a complete audiological evaluation.

d. Referral for a complete audiological evaluation (Warning signs of hearing loss in a baby include not startling to loud noises or not awakening from sleep by very loud noises in the house. If the child is not babbling repetitively (ba ba, da da, etc.) by 8-10 months or if the child doesn't turn to localize the source of your voice by 7-8 months, you should be suspicious of a possible hearing loss. A complete audiological evaluation would be the proper recommendation.)

A mother brings her 11-month-old son to the ABC Speech and Hearing clinic because she has some concerns. She has noticed that her son does not startle to loud noises and is not babbling like his older brother did at this age. He is developing normally otherwise and his pediatrician does not seem concerned. What do you recommend to this mother? a. Enroll the child in speech and language therapy. b. Nothing. If the pediatrician isn't concerned, why should you be? c. Assure the mother that the baby is still responding within normal limits and recommend a re-check in six months. d. Referral for a complete audiological evaluation.

C. speech reading

A person who deciphers speech by looking at the face of the speaker and using visual cues to understand what the speaker is saying is using a technique known as A. cued speech B. visual speech C. speech reading D. deaf speech

d. a specific loss at 2000 Hz, as indicated by bone-conduction testing

A person with otosclerosis often has an audiogram reflecting Carhart's notch. Carhard's notch is: a. a specific type of sensorineural hearing loss characterized by a "dip" at 1000 Hz b. a specific loss at 4000 Hz, as indicated by both air- and bone-conduction testing c. specific losses at both 2000 and 4000 Hz, as indicated by bone-conduction testing d. a specific loss at 2000 Hz, as indicated by bone-conduction testing

C. A specific loss at 2,000 Hz, as indicated by bone-conduction testing

A person with otosclerosis often has an audiogram reflecting Carhart's notch. What is Carhart's notch? A. Specific losses at both 2,000 and 4,000 Hz, as indicated by bone-conduction testing B. A specific type of sensorineural hearing loss characterized by a "dip" at 1,000 Hz C. A specific loss at 2,000 Hz, as indicated by bone-conduction testing D. A specific loss at 4,000 Hz, as indicated by both air- and bone-conduction testing

c. Consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client's treatment

A physician told the spouse of a client that melodic intonation therapy (MIT would improve the client's speech considerably. The most appropriate next action by the SLP would be to: a. Provide MIT as recommended b. Tell the physician that it is inappropriate for them to make recommendations for a speech treatment c. Consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client's treatment d. Explain MIT to the client's spouse to assist in the decision making process about the type of therapy to use

D.contact ulcers

A prospective client is described as a man in his forties who is under chronic stress. He uses his voice extensively in daily life has a hard-driving personality, and exhibits glottal fry. The client has the classic profile of a person at high risk for A.spastic dysphonia B.acute laryngitis C.vocal nodules D.contact ulcers

d. Contact ulcers

A prospective client is described as a man in his forties who is under chronic stress. He uses his voice extensively in daily life, has a hard-driving personality, and exhibits glottal fry. The client has a classic profile of a person at high risk for: a. Spastic dysphonia b. Acute laryngitis c. Vocal nodules d. Contact ulcers

B.cognitive skills

Language intervention for a child at the one-word stage should be most strongly influenced by a consideration of the child's A.motor skills B.cognitive skills C.syntactic skills D.articulation skills

D.might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities

Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty learning to read has demonstrated that the treatment A.is effective only for children from 4 to 8 years old B.is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errors C.is effective only when combined with a supplemental literacy program D.might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities

D. all of the above

Research on the prevalence of stuttering has shown that: a. familial incidence is higher than in the general population b. sons of stuttering mothers runs a greater risk than sons of stuttering fathers c. blood relatives of a stuttering woman run a greater risk of stuttering themselves than those of a stuttering man D. all of the above

c. 7 months

Luke was born at 32 weeks weighing 3.5 lbs. He is now 9 months old and is exhibiting difficulty putting on weight. Luke is also experiencing symptoms of GERD and is hypotonic. When his mom turns on the lights, claps her hands, or sings a nursery rhyme, Luke barely reacts. What is Luke's adjusted age? a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 7 months d. 8 months

d. lingual frenum

The structure at the inferior portion of the tongue that connects the tongue with the mandible is called the a. dorsum b. root c. blade d. lingual frenum

d. cerebellum

The structure that regulates body posture, equilibrium, and coordinated fine motor movements is the a. angular gyrus b. corticospinal tract c. circle of Willis d. cerebellum

d. digrastics, geniohyoids, mylohyoids, stylohyoids, genioglossus, and hyoglossus

The suprahyoid laryngeal muscles lie above the hyoid bone; they are sometimes called elevators. The suprahyoid muscles are the: a. digastrics, geniohyoids, thyrohyoids, stylohyoids, genioglossus, and sternothyroids b. thyrohyoids, digrastics, stylohyoids, and hyoglossus c. geniohyoids, mylohyoids, and genioglossus d. digrastics, geniohyoids, mylohyoids, stylohyoids, genioglossus, and hyoglossus

a. von Langenback surgical method

The surgical method of cleft palate repair that involves raising two bipedicled flaps of mucoperiosteum, bringing them together, and attaching them to close the cleft is called the: a. von Langenback surgical method b. V-Y retroposition c. Vaeu-Wardill-Kilner method d. pharyngeal flap procedure

c. the influence of one phoneme upon another in production and perception wherein two different articulators move simultaneously to produce two different speech sounds

The term coarticulation refers to: a. speech sounds being modified due to the influence of adjacent sounds to the point that there are perceptible changes in sounds b. the extent to which vocal tract configurations change shape during the production of consonants and vowels in running speech c. the influence of one phoneme upon another in production and perception wherein two different articulators move simultaneously to produce two different speech sounds d. the influence of various syllables upon one another when a client recites a phonetically balanced list of words

a. cerebral dominance theory

The theory that stuttering is caused by lack of a unilateral hemisphere control of language is the: a. cerebral dominance theory b. approach-avoidance theory c. diagnosogenic theory d. hemisphere domination theory

B.Conduction

A patient is diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident of the temporal lobe. The patient exhibits deficits in repetition, written expression, and auditory comprehension. In addition, literal paraphasias are noted. These findings are consistent with what type of aphasia? A.Broca's B.Conduction C.Anomic D.Global

d. illegal drug use by birth mother

Though cleft palate is often caused by genetic factors, it can also be related to mechanical factors. Which one of these is NOT a mechanical factor related to cleft palate? a. intrauterine crowding b. twinning c. uterine tumor d. illegal drug use by birth mother

b. Poor memory, attention deficits and impulsivity.

What are some of the cognitive and functional disabilities found in children with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome? a. Poor language skills, even though cognitive development is usually advanced. b. Poor memory, attention deficits and impulsivity. c. Rigid muscle tone, poor attending skills with normal language development. d. Hearing loss and low muscle tone.

A. Duty and breach

What are the first two elements of a malpractice lawsuit? A. Duty and breach B. Tort and liability C. Tort and duty D. Liability and breach

C.morphology

A 6-year-old child has difficulty producing both regular and irregular plural forms. Intervention for this problem would best target language at the level of A.syntax B.phonology C.morphology D.semantics

b. facilitating communication with the staff during daily routines

A 90 yr old woman in a skilled nursing facility is in the end stages of Alzheimer's dementia. The top treatment priority would be: a. improving her sentence structure b. facilitating communication with the staff during daily routines c. working on her word retrieval skills d. increasing orientation to date and time

b. concurrent validity

A new test of morphological skills, the Morphological Estimate of Skills (MESS), correlates very well with a test of morphological skills that has been used nationally for the last 15 years. One could say that the MESS has good: a. content validity b. concurrent validity c. construct validity d. predictive or criterion validity

b. /w/

A semivowel that can be categorized as a voiced bilabial glide that is +anterior and +continuant is the: a. /j/ b. /w/ c. "sh" d. /r/

1. b. diplophonia 2. b. videostroboscopy 3. d. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1dB of variation across vibratory cycles when shimmer is measured 4. c. a sound spectrograph 5. a. reduced mucosal wave action

As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 22 yr old Juanita, a college cheerleader. Juanita has been a cheerleader sine her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. She works part-time as a telemarketer, and, according to her boyfriend, she is always "glued to her cell phone." She also sings in the college chorus. She has been hoarse for several years and tells you during the case history, "I've ignored the way I sound-it's just me. I haven't felt like I've needed to change anything." However, she shares that lately, she has been feeling a lot of pain and the hoarseness is substantially worse. She says "sometimes when I talk, it's almost like there's a 'double voice.'" She tells you that she is worried because she will graduate from college in 3 months and will be looking for a job. She is worried that employers will not want to hire someone who "sounds like a frog." You immediately refer Juanita to an otolaryngologist for a thorough examination of her vocal folds. You then proceed to do your own instrumental and perceptual evaluation. You come up with a number of findings, including the fact that Juanita has increased laryngeal airway resistance, a maximum phonation time of 6 seconds, and dysphonia. You think that she is a probable candidate for phonosurgery but will wait for the otolaryngologists's diagnosis and recommendations. 1. When you assess Juanita, you indeed find the presence of "double voice." The perception of 2 distinct simultaneous pitches during phonation is: a. glottal fry b. diplophonia c. strain-struggle d. cul-de-sac resonance 2. You need to view Juanita's vocal folds. You know that the otolaryngologist will do this also, but you are fortunate to have instrumentation available to you. You decide to use a procedure that uses a pulsing light to permit the optical illusion of slow-motion viewing of the vocal folds. This is called: a. electroglottography b. videostroboscopy c. electromyography d. videofluroscopy 3. Measures of jitter and shimmer are becoming more common in use with voice patients because they can be useful in early detection of vocal pathology. Although you suspect that the otolaryngologist will find obvious vocal pathology, given Juanita's history of prolonged hoarseness, you will still want to obtain measures of jitter and shimmer because these can serve as an excellent baseline-especially if Juanita has phonosurgery. When you take these measures, you might expect to see: a. a small amount of shimmer and a large amount of jitter b. a large amount of jitter with only a small or moderate amount of shimmer c. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more 1dB of variation across vibratory cycles when jitter is measured d. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1dB of variation across vibratory cycles when shimmer is measured 4. You receive a phone call and a report from the otolaryngologist that Juanita will indeed need phonosurgery for the presence of bilateral vocal fold polyps (the right polyp is larger than the left). The otolaryngologist wants you to obtain quantitative measurements of Juanita's voice before phonosurgery; he wants to use these baseline measures as a comparison with measures taken after phonosrugery to evaluate whether the phonosurgery was successful. To obtain these quantitative measurements, you will probably use: a. esophageal manometry b. indirect laryngoscopy c. a sound spectrograph d. a plethysmograph 5. A part of counseling Juanita, you share with her that phonosurgery will be necessary. You emphasize that if she continues to abuse her voice, she may have to have repeated surgeries. These repeated surgeries can cause her voice to sound gravelly and rough, which is primarily a result of: a. reduced mucosal wave action b. insufficient air supply for optimal phonation c. resonance problems d. paillomas

d. I, II, V

In a single-subject design, the following are true: I. The A phase is the no-treatment or baseline phase II. The B phase is the treatment phase III. The A phase is the treatment phase IV. The B phase is the no-treatment or baseline phase V. There is no control group a. III b. III, IV, V c. I, II d. I, II, V

A.form

In Bloom and Lahey's model, morphology is considered A.form B.content C.use D.semantics

a. nonreduplicated or variegated babbling

In Oller's stages of infant phonological development, reduplicated babbling precedes: a. nonreduplicated or variegated babbling b. expansion c. cooing d. phonation

D. chronic

In ____________ otitis media, the infection continues over a long period and the tympanic membrane is permanently ruptured: A. serous B. acute C. hemangioma D. chronic

b. Building a working relationship, dealing with social differences, using verbal communication effectively

Interpersonal communication is a most important factor in counseling. When one enters a counseling relationship, there needs to be a caring, respectful rapport established between client and counselor. Typically, the client comes with problems that he/she needs to solve. Therefore, client and service provider will need to work together to identify goals. Client and counselor work together to identify pertinent issues and ways to deal with the issues. What are some essential parts of therapeutic counseling? a. Be defensive, agree with counselor, see counselor socially b. Building a working relationship, dealing with social differences, using verbal communication effectively c. Attend sessions, argue with counselor, refuse to pay d. Ask personal questions, call and text counselor, insist counselor tell client what to do

d. decided what and who to listen to

Intonation patterns of caregivers' speech help infants: a. segment the stream of speech b. identify their dialect c. identify the speaker d. decided what and who to listen to e. perceive different phonetic features

d. myasthenia gravis

Kennedy is a 57-year-old woman who has noticed increased muscle fatigue during meals. After resting, the fatigue appears to disappear. Kennedy went to the neurologist and was diagnosed with damage to the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. What disease is Kennedy likely diagnosed with? a. Parkinson's disease b. Alzheimer's disease c. muscular dystrophy d. myasthenia gravis

b. vestibular, auditory-acoustic

Key parts of the auditory nervous system include cranial nerve VIII, which has two branches: the _________ branch and the _________ branch, which carries the electrical sound impulses from the cochlea to the brain a. retrocochlear, vestibular b. vestibular, auditory-acoustic c. auditory-acoustic, retrocochlear d. cochlear, auditory-acoustic

b. depends on practice

Learning the ways in which a culture communicates: a. is developed over time b. depends on practice c. requires sensitivity to prosodic features d. is shaped by environmental experience e. is acquired unconsciously

a. What the individual is doing

Models of behavior modification typically use which of the following to effect changes? a. What the individual is doing b. What the individual is sensing c. What the individual is feeling d. What the individual is thinking

B. Allow the sibling to come to therapy sessions to increase his understanding of unintelligible speech.

Mukisa, a 6-year-old boy with verbal apraxia, has been added to your caseload. One of the parents' concerns is the child's lack of intelligibility and limited interaction with peers and with his 8-year-old brother, Akiki. Mukisa's brother attends the same school but has problems with understanding his brother. What is the best way to address the concerns of the parents? A. Encourage the parents to ask the sibling to speak slower at home. B. Allow the sibling to come to therapy sessions to increase his understanding of unintelligible speech. C. Send the client home with lots of homework. D. Provide the family a book that explains apraxia.

c. Social Security Act (SSA)

Passed in 1935, the federal government's first major step toward involvement in a widespread program of living and medical assistance to the population at large is known as the: a. American With Disabilities Act (ADA) b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) c. Social Security Act (SSA) d. Individuals With Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)

B. oral apraxia

Patients who exhibit __________ have difficulty making nonspeech sounds, and cannot move the muscles of the throat, soft palate, and tongue for nonspeech purposes: A. apraxia of speech B. oral apraxia C. limb apraxia D. developmental apraxia of speech

a. hearing aids deliver amplified sound to the ear canal, while cochlear implants deliver electrical impulses (converted from sound) directly to the middle ear

Popular forms of amplification today include hearing aids and cochlear implants. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE about these devices? a. hearing aids deliver amplified sound to the ear canal, while cochlear implants deliver electrical impulses (converted from sound) directly to the middle ear b. digital hearing aids provide a better signal-to-noise ration than analog aids c. cochlear implants can help prelingual children make substantial progress through maximizing their potential d. a consideration in fitting clients with hearing aids is whether the clients are motivated to use and properly care for the aids

a. increased federal support for services to disabled children 3-6 years of age and provided funding for infants and toddlers

Public Law 99-457: a. increased federal support for services to disabled children 3-6 years of age and provided funding for infants and toddlers b. was enacted in 1986 c. restricts special education services to children with documented disabilities d. requires states to report the number of preschoolers served under different categories of disabilities

b. training family members to support the development of a child.

Public law 99-457 encompasses: a. providing reimbursement for no more than 30 days in the hospital. b. training family members to support the development of a child. c. supporting children ages 3 to 21. d. providing eligibility for special education for children in middle school.

b. chorea

Purposeless, random, involuntary movements of body parts associated with hyperkinetic dysarthria is known as: a. myoclonus b. chorea c. tics d. tremors

a. How well the client initially reads and writes

Regarding your prognosis of client recovery of capacity and functioning, which might you suspect to be least significant? a. How well the client initially reads and writes b. The client's age c. Client's motivation to improve d. How severely impaired the client's initial auditory skills are

e. socioeconomic differences

Some children without any neurophysiological problems have difficulty in learning others' communication rules because of: a. lack of experience b. stubbornness c. other interests d. interference of own rules e. socioeconomic differences

c. ex post facto or retrospective research

The belief that vocally abusive behaviors in humans lead to vocal nodules and the resulting voice disorder is supported by: a. experimental research b. prospective research c. ex post facto or retrospective research d. experimental group control-group research

c. modeling is clinician's behavior, and imitation is client's behavior

The difference between modeling and imitating is that: a. imitation is a treatment procedure, and modeling is a treatment target b. imitation is usually superior to modeling as a treatment strategy c. modeling is clinician's behavior, and imitation is client's behavior d. modeling is necessary at all stages of treatment, but imitation is necessary only in the initial stage of treatment

C. Linguistic F. Nonlinguistic

The classification of unaided symbols can be separated into which of the following two categories? A. Object based B. Arbitrary logogaphs C. Linguistic D. Alphabet-based symbols E. Arbitrary shapes F. Nonlinguistic

c. was developed by Van Riper

The fluent stuttering treatment: a. aims at eliminating stuttering b. seeks normally fluent speech c. was developed by Van Riper d. was developed by Johnson

a. the epithelium and the superficial, intermediate, and deep layers of the lamina propria vibrate as a "cover" on a relatively stationary "body." This body is composed of the remainder of the TA muscle

The cover-body theory of phonation states that: a. the epithelium and the superficial, intermediate, and deep layers of the lamina propria vibrate as a "cover" on a relatively stationary "body." This body is composed of the remainder of the TA muscle b. the epithelium, the deep layer of the lamina propria, and much of the superficial layer of the lamina propria vibrate as a "cover" on a relatively stationary "body." Which is made up of the remainder of the intermediate later, the deep later, and the TA muscle c. the superficial layer of the lamina propria and much of the intermediate layer of the lamina propria vibrate as a "cover" on a relatively stationary "body," which is made up of the remainder of the intermediate layer, the deep layer, and the TA muscle d. the epithelium and much of the intermediate layer of the lamina propria vibrates as a "cover" on a relatively stationary "body," which is made up of the remainder of the intermediate layer and the TA muscle

a. cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve

The cranial nerve that innervates the larynx and also innervates the levator veli palatini, palatoglossus, and palatopharyngeus muscles is a. cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve b. cranial nerve V, the trigeminal nerve c. cranial nerve XI, the spinal accessory nerve d. cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve

C.Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UESU E S) opening

The head lift exercise published by Shaker et al. (2002) was designed to produce which of the following changes in swallow biomechanics? A.Increase in laryngeal closure duration B.Strengthening of the base of the tongue C.Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UESU E S) opening D.Prolonged relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle

b. Number of new cases of the disorder reported within a specific period of time

The incidence of a disorder is defined as the a. Prevalence of the disorder b. Number of new cases of the disorder reported within a specific period of time c. Most common etiology of the disorder d. Number of cases of the disorder that were successfully treated

d. m, n, ng

The laryngopharynx and the oropharynx add resonance to sounds produced by the larynx. The nasopharynx adds noticeable resonance to which sounds? a. k, g, t, d b. r, l, y c. f, sh, s d. m, n, ng

b. efferent neurons

The neurons that transmit information away from the brain is called a. afferent neurons b. efferent neurons c. primary neurons d. peripheral neurons

d. the important features of the message

The word or phrase receiving the most stress or emphasis in a declarative sentence can always be used by a listener to identify: a. the speaker b. the addressee c. the act in the message d. the important features of the message e. none of the above

b. subtract the mean from the raw score and divide by the standard deviation

To find a Z-score, an individual might: a. Multiple the mean score of 0.05 b. subtract the mean from the raw score and divide by the standard deviation c. divide the raw score by the standard deviation d. subtract the median from the raw score and then divide by the standard deviation

A. jitter.

Variations in vocal frequency, or frequency perturbation, are known as A. jitter. B. shimmer. C. amplitude perturbation. D. fundamental frequency variation.

a. antecedents or treatment stimuli

Various objects, pictures, instructions, modeling, prompts, and other stimuli the clinician uses to evoke target responses from clients are called: a. antecedents or treatment stimuli b. reinforcing stimuli c. procedural probes d. baselines

A. Increase movement of the base of the tongue

Virat, a 72-year-old patient, was added to your caseload because he presented with dysphagia. Your evaluation indicated a mild to moderate oral phase dysphagia. During your initial treatment session, Virat noted that he had previously completed oral-motor exercises and that he would like to continue them, as they seemed to help. You decide to trial Virat's stimulability for these exercises as part of his plan of treatment and need to discuss the purpose and goal of using these exercises with him. You explain to Virat that the following is not a goal of oral-motor control exercises: A. Increase movement of the base of the tongue B. Increase range of tongue movements C. Increase buccal tension D. Increase the range of lateral movements of the jaw

C. Reducing excessive muscular tension

When treating most transgender clients, the primary voice concern is achieving appropriate pitch. Vocal pitch factors that need to be modified include all of the following, except: A. Increasing intonational variability B. Changing fundamental frequency C. Reducing excessive muscular tension D. Modifying the lower and upper limits of the frequency range

B. Collagen injection into the vocal folds

Yasmina, a 68-year-old patient, presented with a weak vocal intensity, weak cough/throat clear, and aspiration as per a videofluoroscopic swallow study results. She is making minimal progress in therapy. Following your request, her physician ordered an ENT consult that indicated paresis of her left vocal fold, causing the inability for her vocal folds to meet at midline and resultant poor airway protection. This was reported to her physician, who decided that medical intervention was necessary. Which of the following medical treatment procedures would likely be recommended for Yasmina? A. Cricopharyngeal myotomy B. Collagen injection into the vocal folds C. Pharyngostomy D. Gastrostomy

c. construct validity

You are a new clinician, considering using a new test with an EL student. You are asking questions like "what theory was used in the test's creation?" "Is any theory mentioned?" or "Is it appropriate for this particular student?" You are questioning the test's: a. concurrent validity b. reliability c. construct validity d. theoretical reliability