PrepU Questions Week 1

Ultimately, the inner mitochondrial membrane transports proteins for what purpose?

Synthesis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) The outer mitochondrial membrane contains a large number of transmembrane porins, through which water-soluble molecules may pass. The inner membrane contains the respiratory chain enzymes and transport proteins needed for the synthesis of ATP. The mitochondrial membrane does not play a role in cell repair or growth.

The provider removes a cast from a teenager's arm. The client asks why the muscle in the arm is smaller than it was. The provider explains that this reduction is caused by which of the following?

Disuse

Mercury is a toxic substance, and the hazards of mercury-associated occupational and accidental exposures are well known. What is the primary source of mercury poisoning today?

Fish such as tuna and swordfish

A client delivers a child born with an extra digit. The client states that she had the same thing when she was born. What term would the nurse document in the record regarding this defect?

Congenital condition Congenital conditions are defects that are present at birth, although they may not be evident until later in life or may never manifest. Congenital conditions may be caused by genetic influences, environmental factors, maternal drug use, irradiation, or gestational problems in utero, or a combination of genetic and environmental factors.

which statement is true of genetic mutations?

Mutations may result from environmental agents

A school nurse compares the number of cases of measles in one elementary classroom to the number of students in the school. Which term describes this type of comparison?

Prevalence Prevalence is a measure of existing disease in a population at a given point in time. Primary prevention is intervention to avoid disease. Morbidity is the functional effect of a disease, such as missed school days. Risk analysis would evaluate which members of the population were at risk for a disease.

A client asks the health care provider if any technology exists to limit faulty gene activity from producing unwanted disease proteins. The best response would be:

RNA interference

Homozygotes are what people are called in whom the two alleles of a given pair are the same (AA or aa). Heterozygotes are what people are called who have different alleles (Aa) at a gene locus. What kind of trait is expressed only in homozygous pairing?

Recessive trait

A nurse in a genetic clinic reads that a client's karyotype includes a broken "p." How will the nurse interpret this finding?

The short arm of the X chromosome is broken.

Each skeletal muscle is a discrete organ made up of hundreds or thousands of muscle fibers. Although muscle fibers predominate, substantial amounts of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerve fibers are also present. What happens during muscle contraction?

The thick myosin and thin actin filaments slide over each other, causing shortening of the muscle fiber.

Choose the accurate statements about how smooth muscle differs from skeletal or cardiac muscle. Select all that apply.Smooth muscle:

has dense bodies attached to actin filaments. has one centrally located nucleus.

The nurse explains to the hypertensive client that the increased workload required to pump blood against an elevated arterial pressure results in a progressive increase in left ventricular muscle mass. This is an example of:

hypertrophy

Which statement is true concerning meiosis?

It has two distinct phases

A nurse understands that the cell cycle of duplicating somatic cells is called:

Mitosis

The nurse is reviewing an ultrasound report for a client that reveals endometrial hyperplasia. The client asks what this finding means. How should the nurse respond?

"In response to estrogen levels endometrial cells have increased in number, resulting in a thickening of the endometrium

When the nurse is assisting with the diagnostic process for a client with an illness, what is a priority when compiling all of the data to have an accurate diagnosis? Select all that apply.

A careful history Detailed physical examination Diagnostic tests The diagnostic process requires a careful history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests. The history is used to obtain a person's account of his or her symptoms and their progression, and the actors that contribute to a diagnosis. The physical examination is done to observe for signs of altered body structure or function. The diagnostic tests are ordered to validate what is thought to be the problem. They are also performed to determine other possible health problems that were not obtained from the history and physical examination, but may be present given the signs and symptoms identified.

An older adult client asks her health care provider if the reason she has developed aortic stenosis is because she drank so much milk as a child growing up on a farm. Which response is most accurate?

Atherosclerosis is a long process that eventually results in calcification of heart valves

Chromosomes contain all the genetic content of the genome. There are 23 pairs of different chromosomes in each somatic cell, half from the mother and half from the father. One of those chromosomes is the sex chromosome. What are the other 22 pairs of chromosomes called?

Autosomes

A health care researcher has identified the gene of interest in a particular genetic disorder as well as the gene's location, Xq97. Where would one find a gene named Xq97?

Band 9, region 7 of the long arm of the X chromosome

A client with a complete tear of the rotator cuff in the right shoulder was given the choice between surgery and stem cell transplant. The client chose to try the stem cell injection. The client asked the health care provider, "How does this work on my shoulder?" The best response would be:

Bone marrow stem cells have been shown to generate cartilage, bone, and muscle when injected directly into the injured site. Whether adult stem cells have a differentiation capacity similar to that of embryonic stem cells remains the subject of current debate and research. Thus far, bone marrow stem cells have been shown to have very broad differentiation capabilities, being able to generate not only blood cells but also fat, cartilage, bone, endothelial, and muscle cells.

A client develops an infection with a resistant organism while hospitalized for surgery. After treatment, there are no obvious signs of infection, but a culture shows that the organism is present. Which term describes the client's status?

Carrier status In carrier status, the client shows no symptoms, tests positive for the disease, and may still transmit the disease but is not infected. Chronic disease is a long-term, continuous process. In the preclinical stage of a disease, a client may show no symptoms but will progress to clinical disease. In clinical disease, the condition is overtly present.

The cell surface is surrounded by a cell coat (glycocalyx.). Select the most important function of the cell coat.

Cell-to-cell recognition and adhesion The cell coat participates in cell-to-cell recognition and adhesion, and it contains tissue transplant antigens. Ribosomes serve as sites for protein synthesis in the cell; the Golgi apparatus modifies materials synthesized in the ER. DNA provides the information necessary for the synthesis of the various proteins.

client with gastroesophageal reflux disease has metaplasia. Which explanation is the cause?

Cells are replaced in response to chronic irritation.

A nurse is interpreting the test results of a client's screening test for cancer. If the client's result is negative and the test has a 95% specificity, the nurse should conclude that there a 95% chance of which outcome?

Client does not have cancer. A screening test with a 95% specificity means that the test correctly identifies 95 of 100 normal people as not having the disease. So if the client has a negative result on a test with a 95% specificity, there is a 95% chance that the client does not have the disease.

When exercising outside on an extremely warm day, the client can feel his heart pounding very rapidly. Thinking in terms of the ability of the aorta to stretch to accommodate more blood circulating during exercise and the warm environment, this is an example of the function of which fibrous protein?

Elastin Three types of fibers are found in the extracellular space: collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. Elastin acts like a rubber band; it can be stretched and then returns to its original form. Elastin fibers are abundant in structures subjected to frequent stretching, such as the aorta and some ligaments. Collagen is the most common protein in the body. It is a tough, nonliving, white fiber that serves as the structural framework for skin, ligaments, tendons, and many other structures. Reticular fibers are extremely thin fibers that create a flexible network in organs subjected to changes in form or volume, such as the spleen, liver, uterus, or intestinal muscle layer.

An adult client who recently worked in an overseas metal smelter has developed several symptoms that cause the care team to suspect lead poisoning. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse attribute to this problem? Select all that apply.

Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

After reading about an international effort organized to develop a map to link genetic variations and complex diseases, a client asks the nurse what this effort is called. What is the nurse's best response?

HapMap

The nurse is caring for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) who is questioning taking the acid reducing medication because it is "just a little heartburn." What is the nurse's best response?

Having uncontrolled GERD can increase your risk for esophageal cancer.

Pathogenesis is the term used to describe the sequence of cellular and tissue events that occur from the time of first contact with an etiologic agent until the disease becomes evident. What is another way of defining pathogenesis?

How the disease process evolves

A client asks why her breasts are enlarged during pregnancy. Which explanation is the best answer?

Hyperplasia due to estrogen stimulation

There are three fundamental types of prevention used in health care: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Which statement accurately describes secondary prevention?

Secondary prevention detects disease early, and most is done in clinical settings. Secondary prevention detects disease early in its course when it is still asymptomatic and treatment measures can effect a cure or stop the disease from progressing. Most secondary prevention is undertaken in clinical settings. Tertiary prevention goes beyond treating the presenting problem. Tertiary prevention programs are located within health care systems and involve the services of a number of different types of health care professionals. Primary prevention is often accomplished outside the health care system at the community level.

While explaining cellular membrane potentials, the instructor states that during an action potential, the cell membrane becomes more permeable to which mineral/electrolyte?

Sodium During an action potential, the cell membrane becomes more permeable to sodium, causing its polarity to change so that it is positive on the inside and negative on the outside.

A nurse sees that a client's X chromosome is metacentric. What does the nurse interpret this to mean?

This a normal occurrence.

Facility policies on wound dressing selection refer the nurse to a dressing algorithm. The nurse anticipates that the algorithm will include:

a step-by-step decision-making tree for dressing selection. Algorithms are step-by-step methods for solving problems. An example would be a decision tree for selection of wound care dressings based on type of wound.

Researchers have designed a study where the health of a large group of recent newborns will be followed for several years. What type of study is this?

cohort When a certain group of persons are enrolled in study, they are known as a cohort. Cohort members are chosen to have specific similar characteristics. These studies are often longitudinal, following the cohort over time to observe one or more specific health outcomes. A case-control study is done on an individual, case-by-case situation. The double-blind placebo is a drug study. Repetition is a type of study carried out in a laboratory with very tight controls in place.

Which enzymes assist in repairing deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) defects by recognizing a defect, cleaving the abnormal chain, and removing the distorted regions?

endonucleases

While explaining the individual differences in physical traits in the family group, the health care provider states this is usually a result of:

small DNA sequence variation.