prevention of care: exam2

Ch10: A force acting along the long axis of a structure is called: A) axial force B) compressive force C) shear force D) tensile force

A) axial force

Ch10: The common mechanism of injury for a muscle contusion is: A) compression B) tension C) shear D) torsion

A) compression

Ch10: The fiber arrangement of the dermis enables the tissue to resist loads from: A) compression B) shear C) tension D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Ch29: (T/F) Lack of acclimatization, use of diuretics, and sodium depletion in the normal diet can lead to heat cramps

T

Ch29: (T/F) Miliaria rubra usually occurs in areas like the axilla and groin

T

Ch29: Which of the following is a sign of shock? Circle all answers that apply. a. constricted pupils b. shallow, irregular breathing c. rapid and weak pulse d. slow and bounding pulse e. extreme thirst f. deep, irregular breathing

b. shallow, irregular breathing c. rapid and weak pulse e. extreme thirst

Ch29: Identify five strategies for reducing the risk of dehydration during physical activity participation

1. Dress light 2. Do things during the cooler part of the day 3. Drink plenty of fluids 4. Eat right 5. Rest when needed

Ch10: The beginning of the acute inflammatory phase is marked by: A) vasoconstriction B) vasodilation C) fibroblast proliferation D) epithelial cell migration

A) vasoconstriction

Ch10: The bones' cells that form new bone tissue are called: A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) periosteum cells D) Sharpey's fibers

B) osteoblasts

Ch10: Which of the following best describes stage 2 tendinitis? A) pain after activity only B) pain during activity that does not restrict performance C) pain during activity that restricts performance D) chronic, unremitting pain, even at rest

B) pain during activity that does not restrict performance

Ch10: _____ is the first chemical mediator to appear during the inflammatory stage of tissue healing. A) Heparin B) Bradykinin C) Histamine D) Serotonin

C) Histamine

Ch10: Which of the following statements is false? A) Ligaments resist large tensile loads along their long axis. B) Ligaments resist small tensile loads from directions other than along their long axis. C) Ligaments resist large tensile loads from directions other than along their long axis. D) Ligaments contain more elastin than tendons.

C) Ligaments resist large tensile loads from directions other than along their long axis.

Ch10: The ability of a muscle to stretch is called: A) contractility B) elasticity C) extensibility D) tensibility

C) extensibility

Ch10: Immature connective tissue cells are termed: A) mast cells B) adhesions C) fibroblasts D) collagen

C) fibroblasts

Ch10: A force that acts parallel or tangent to a plane passing through the object is called: A) bending force B) compressive force C) shear force D) tensile force

C) shear force

Ch10: While stretching for an overthrown ball, a first baseman strained an adductor muscle. What type of force would have produced this injury? A) compressive B) shearing C) tensile D) axial

C) tensile

Ch10: Applying ice, compression, and elevation to an acute injury decreases injury to the A) zone of primary injury B) soft tissue C) zone of secondary injury D) associated bone

C) zone of secondary injury

Ch10: The proliferative phase of healing includes: A) development of new blood cells B) formation of fibrous tissue C) wound contraction D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Ch10: For a muscle to shorten, it must: A) contract concentrically C) remain in a static position B) contract eccentrically D) contract isometrically

A) contract concentrically

Ch10: What two factors determine whether an injury occurs when a force is sustained by tissues in the human body? A) magnitude of forces and tissue's material properties B) compression of force and yield point of tissues C) tensile forces and girth of tissues D) size of force and girth of tissues

A) magnitude of forces and tissue's material properties

Ch10: What is the difference between stress and strain?

Stress= force divided by the surface area over which the force is applied Strain= Stretch or tear of a muscle or tendon

Ch10: (T/F) Bradykinin increases vessel permeability and stimulates the nerve endings to cause pain

true

Ch10: (T/F) Comminuted fractures are often produced by excessive torsional and bending loads

true

Ch10: (T/F) During the acute inflammatory phase, heparin is released into the injured area and acts as an anticoagulant, which results in increased swelling

true

Ch10: (T/F) Each time a force acts on an object, acceleration and deformation occur.

true

Ch10: (T/F) In tendons, the collagen fibers are arranged in a parallel pattern, enabling resistance of high, unidirectional tensile loads when the attached muscle contracts

true

Ch10: (T/F) Longitudinal bone growth continues only as long as the bone's epiphyseal plates continue to exist

true

Ch10: (T/F) Stress is defined as force divided by the surface area over which the force is applied.

true

Ch10: (T/F) Tensile loading that involves a tendon or ligament pulling a small chip of bone away from the rest of the bone is called an avulsion fracture

true

Ch10: The plantar fascia is an example of a(n): A) ligament B) tendon C) muscle D) aponeurosis

D) aponeurosis

Ch12: Which of the following is not a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug? A) ibuprofen B) aspirin C) indomethacin D) piroxicam

B) aspirin

Ch15: The bursa most commonly injured by compressive forces at the knee is the: A) deep infrapatellar B) prepatellar C) superficial infrapatellar D) suprapatellar

B) prepatellar

CH14: A painful avascular necrosis of the second metatarsal head that often is seen in active adolescents is termed: a. Severs disease b. Morton toe c. Lisfranc injury d. Freiberg disease

D

Ch14: (T/F) General discomfort around the metatarsal heads is called plantar neuroma

F

Ch13: (T/F) A therapeutic exercise program begins with patient assessment

T

Ch29: Absorption of heat through the feet by standing on a hot artificial turf is an example of heat exchange termed: a. radiation b. convection c. conduction d. evaporation

c. conduction

Ch29: Identify the signs and symptoms of shock

• Rapid weak pulse • Shallow, irregular breathing • Anxiety, dizziness • Vomiting/nausea • Dilated pupils, eyes shallow/sunken • Sweating, extreme thirst • Cold clammy, moist skin

Ch13: What are the sequential steps that should be followed to identify the needs of the patient when designing an individualized therapeutic exercise program?

1. Assessing the patient 2. Interpret assessment 3. Establish goals a. Short and long term 4. Make a treatment plan: usually 4 steps a. Inflammatory response, pain, swelling are controlled b. Regain any deficits in ROM, restore proprioception c. Regain muscle strength, endurance power d. Prepares individual to activity 5. Final goal: return injured participant to pain free functional activity

Ch13: Identify guidelines that should be followed for setting goals to increase effectiveness during a recovery period.

1. Therapist and patient work as a team 2. long and short term goals are made 3. done during SOAP

CH14: A transverse fracture of the proximal shaft of the fifth metatarsal is called a: a. Jones fracture b. Dancer's fracture c. Maisonneuve fracture d. LisFranc injury

A

CH14: Medial tibial stress syndrome pain is aggravated by: a. active plantar flexion and inversion of the ankle b. active plantar flexion and eversion of the ankle c. active dorsiflexion and inversion of the ankle d. active dorsiflexion

A

CH14: The ________ joint is considered the true ankle joint. a. talocrural b. transverse c. subtalar d. talocalcaneonavicular

A

CH14: The strength of the plantar aspect of the foot can be increased by performing: a. toe flexion exercises b. inversion and eversion exercises c. bilateral heel raises d. toe extension exercises

A

Ch14: The______ is the main body stabilizer during walking or running. a. hallux b. metatarsal arch c. talocrural joint D. subtalar joint

A

Ch14: Which of the following statements concerning the sesamoid bones of the foot is false? a. They are found in the extensor hallucis longus tendon b. They are injured due to pressure and friction c. They may be present but not become symptomatic d. They are found in the flexor hallucis longus tendon

A

Ch10: Collagen is the major component of all but which of the following tissues? A) bone B) tendon C) ligament D) skin

A) bone

Ch12: Which of the following best describes the sequence of sensations experienced during the application of cold therapy? A) cold, burning, aching, analgesia B) burning, aching, cold, analgesia C) analgesia, cold, burning, aching D) cold, aching, burning analgesia

A) cold, burning, aching, analgesia

Ch15: A kick or blow to the posterolateral aspect of the knee can contuse which nerve? A) common peroneal B) obturator C) saphenous D) tibial

A) common peroneal

Ch12: Which of the following are physiologic effects of cryotherapy? A) decreased metabolism, nerve conduction, and pain perception B) decreased vasoconstriction, increased nerve conduction velocity, decreased pain perception C) increased vasoconstriction and metabolism, decreased pain D) increased vasodilation, increased metabolism, decreased capillary permeability

A) decreased metabolism, nerve conduction, and pain perception

Ch12: Both microwave and shortwave diathermy generate heat in the body tissues by the action of _____ waves. A) electromagnetic B) ultrasonic C) low-voltage D) all of the above

A) electromagnetic

Ch12: During intermittent compression therapy, the limb being treated should be: A) elevated above the heart B) in a neutral position C) wrapped in an Ace bandage D) immobilized in full extension

A) elevated above the heart

Ch15: The patellar tap test is used to indicate: A) intra-articular or extra-articular swelling B) lateral patellar excursion C) patellar fracture D) patellar subluxation/dislocation

A) intra-articular or extra-articular swelling

Ch15: Larsen-Johansson disease involves all of the following, except: A) occurs at the tibial tubercle B) occurs in the prepubescent athlete C) occurs at the inferior pole of the patella D) occurs from excessive strain on the patellar tendon

A) occurs at the tibial tubercle

Ch10: Small-diameter, slow-transmission nerves carry impulses for what sensation? A) pain B) proprioception C) temperature D) touch

A) pain

Ch15: Which of the following is not characteristic of "jumper's knee"? A) point tenderness at the superior pole of the patella B) pain with resisted knee extension C) pain with passive knee flexion beyond 120 degrees D) pain after prolonged sitting

A) point tenderness at the superior pole of the patella

Ch15: The pes anserine is the common attachment of the sartorius, gracilis, and: A) semitendinosus B) semimembranosus C) biceps femoris D) popliteus

A) semitendinosus

Ch15: Meniscal injuries are difficult to assess because: A) they lack innervation by nociceptors B) of the position of the meniscus within the knee C) of the lack of valid tests to assess meniscal injuries D) of the thickness of the meniscus

A) they lack innervation by nociceptors

Ch12: A 14-year-old male has sustained a medial collateral ligament knee injury. Which of the following modalities should not be used during the subacute phase? A) ultrasound B) ice massage C) cold whirlpool D) ice pack application

A) ultrasound

CH14: A minor blow to the neck of the fibula can contuse the: a. saphenous nerve b. common peroneal nerve c. sciatic nerve d. tibial nerve

B

CH14: After receiving a blow to the anterior lower leg, an athlete has a diminished dorsalis pedis pulse and paresthesia between the great and second toes. What condition might the athlete be experiencing? a. stress fracture b acute compartment syndrome c. myositis ossificans d. medial tibial stress syndrome

B

CH14: If the _______ tendon ruptures, collapse of the midfoot and hyperpronation may be visible. a. tibialis anterior b. tibialis posterior c plantaris d. flexor digitorum longus

B

CH14: Palpable pain to the soft tissue just anterior to the Achilles tendon in a runner can be indicative of: a. Achilles tendinitis b. retrocalcaneal bursitis c. an exostosis d. posterior calcaneal bursitis

B

CH14: Running-related injuries of the lower extremity are often associated with: a. excessive eversion b. excessive pronation c. excessive supination d. excessive inversion

B

CH14: The anterior compartment of the lower leg contains all of the following EXCEPT? a .extensor digitorum longus b. tibialis posterior c. extensor hallucis longus d. tibialis anterior

B

CH14: The common mechanism of injury for Achilles tendon rupture is: a. excessive pronation b. push-off of the forefoot with the knee extended c. landing on another player's foot d. plantar flexion and inversion

B

CH14: When applying ice to a gastrocnemius contusion, the ankle should be _______ to decrease muscle spasms. a. in subtalar neutral b. kept in dorsiflexion c. kept in plantarflexion d. in a relaxed position

B

CH14: Supination is the combination of which of the following movements? Select all answers that apply. a. foot abduction b. plantar flexion c. calcaneal eversion d. foot adduction e. dorsiflexion f. calcaneal inversion

B D F

Ch12: A single application of cold should not extend beyond: A) 5-10 minutes B) 15-30 minutes C) 30-45 minutes D) 50-60 minutes

B) 15-30 minutes

Ch15: Rotational capability of the tibia with respect to the femur is maximal at approximately ______ of knee ______. A) 90 degrees, extension B) 90 degrees, flexion C) 45 degrees, flexion D) 30 degrees, flexion

B) 90 degrees, flexion

Ch15: Which of the following tests should be used to confirm chondromalacia? A) McMurray's B) Apley's C) Clarke's D) Lachman's

B) Apley's

Ch15: An athlete has developed a synovial herniation in the popliteal space. This condition is termed: A) a neoplasm B) Baker's cyst C) arthralgia D) osteochondritis

B) Baker's cyst

Ch12: Cold therapy is the modality of choice for acute injuries because cold therapy: I. decreases tissue metabolism II. inhibits prostaglandin synthesis III. increases cell permeability IV. decreases muscle spindle activity V. produces analgesia A) I and V B) I, II, IV, and V C) I, III, and IV D) IV and V

B) I, II, IV, and V

Ch15: A traction-type injury to the tibial apophysis where the patellar tendon attaches onto the tibial tuberosity is called: A) Larsen-Johansson disease B) Osgood-Schlatter disease C) patellar tendinitis D) tibial periostitis

B) Osgood-Schlatter disease

Ch15: Which of the following tests should be performed to confirm a suspected patellar dislocation? A) anterior drawer test B) apprehension test C) ballotable patella test D) patella compression test

B) apprehension test

Ch12: A therapeutic treatment that elicits a local vasoconstriction-vasodilation fluctuation to reduce edema is known as: A) contoured Cryocuff B) contrast bath C) controlled cold-compression unit D) interferential current

B) contrast bath

Ch12: Because of the _____ effect of ice massage, it is not a treatment of choice for acute trauma. A) analgesic B) hyperemic C) skin cooling D) decrease in muscle spasticity

B) hyperemic

Ch15: A runner reports with lateral leg pain that is point tender over the femoral condyle about 2 to 3 cm above the lateral joint line. Evaluation indicates a positive Ober's test. What structure could be involved with this injury? A) pes anserine tendon B) iliotibial band C) rectus femoris D) fibular collateral ligament

B) iliotibial band

Ch12: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs aid healing by: A) decreasing the sensitivity of pain receptors B) increasing vasodilation and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins C) increasing vasoconstriction and capillary permeability D) decreasing muscle extensibility

B) increasing vasodilation and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins

Ch15: Immediate swelling of the knee after acute injury usually indicates: A) fibular collateral ligament injury B) intra-articular injury C) tibial collateral ligament injury D) extra-articular injury

B) intra-articular injury

Ch15: Closed-chain exercises for the knee include: A) terminal knee extensions B) mini-squats C) leg curls D) straight leg raises

B) mini-squats

Ch15: The muscle that unlocks the knee from its close-packed position is the: A) gastrocnemius B) popliteus C) quadriceps D) semimembranosus

B) popliteus

Ch15: Atrophy of the ________ is nearly always evident in patellofemoral dysfunction. A) vastus lateralis oblique B) vastus medialis oblique C) biceps femoris D) vastus intermedius oblique

B) vastus medialis oblique

CH14: Compression, distraction, and percussion tests are best used to determine possible: a. tendinitis b. muscle strains c. fracture d. ligamentous injury

C

CH14: Forces producing stress on the medial aspect of the ankle typically cause: a. stress fracture of the medial malleolus b. tearing of the deltoid ligament c. avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus d. syndesmosis sprain

C

CH14: Inversion and eversion movements occur primarily at the: a. talocrural joint b. tarsometatarsal joints c. subtalar joint d. intertarsal joints

C

CH14: The close-packed position of the talocrural joint is: a. maximum inversion b. maximum plantar flexion c. maximum dorsiflexion d. subtalar neutral

C

CH14: The dorsalis pedis artery is easily palpable: a. posterior to the medial malleolus b. anterior to the lateral malleolus c. in the midfoot region between the 2nd and 3rd tendons of the extensor digitorum longus d. anterior to the medial malleolus

C

CH14: The most frequent site of exertional compartment syndrome is the: a. superficial posterior compartment b. lateral compartment c. anterior compartment d. deep posterior compartment

C

CH14: The primary support for the medial lonfitudinal arch is the: a. long plantar ligament b. short plantar ligament c. calcaneonavicular ligament d flexor hallucis longus tendon

C

CH14: This dislocation can be overlooked or confused with an ankle sprain because it also gives a feeling of instability and pain over the lateral malleolus. a. synesmosis b. tibialis posterior tendon c. peroneal tendon d. subtalar joint

C

CH14: Plantar fasciitis can be a result of which of the following? Select all answers that apply. a. poor strength or flexibility of the anterior tibialis muscle b. excessive oversupination c. poor strength or flexibility of the Achilles tendon d. excessive overpronation e. training errors

C D E

Ch12: For subacute conditions, contrast bath should be applied using a: A) 3:1 or 4:1 warm to cold water ratio for 20 minutes B) 5:1 warm to cold water ratio for 20 minutes C) 3:1 or 4:1 cold to warm water ratio for 20 minutes and ending the treatment in cold water D) 5:1 cold to warm water ratio for 20 minutes and ending the treatment in cold water

C) 3:1 or 4:1 cold to warm water ratio for 20 minutes and ending the treatment in cold water

Ch12: Conduction occurs during the application of which of the following? I. ultrasound II. galvanic stimulation III. ice packs IV. paraffin V. moist hot pack A) I and V B) I, IV, and V C) III, IV, and V D) II only

C) III, IV, and V

Ch15: The Q-angle is the: A) angle between a vertical line dividing the patella in half and a second line drawn from the tibial tubercle to the apex of the inferior pole of the patella B) angle formed by the meeting of a line drawn through the shaft of the femur with a line passing through the long axis of the femoral neck C) angle between the line of quadriceps force and the patellar tendon D) alteration of the angle made by the axis of the femoral neck to the axis of the femoral shafts

C) angle between the line of quadriceps force and the patellar tendon

Ch15: A meniscal tear in which an entire longitudinal segment is displaced medially toward the center of the tibia is termed a: A) parrot-beak tear B) horizontal tear C) bucket-handle tear D) medial meniscus tear

C) bucket-handle tear

Ch15: Bursitis is most likely to result from: A) tensile force B) resilient force C) compressive force D) axial loading force

C) compressive force

Ch15: The menisci are attached to the superior plateaus of the tibia by what structures? A) arcuate ligaments B) collateral ligaments C) coronary ligaments D) cruciate ligaments

C) coronary ligaments

Ch12: All of the following are contraindications for cryotherapy, except: A) urticaria B) hypertension C) edema D) lack of sensation

C) edema

Ch10: Longitudinal bone growth occurs at the bone's: A) apophyseal plates B) cortical plates C) epiphyseal plates D) periosteal plates

C) epiphyseal plates

Ch12: Which of the following are physiologic effects of local heat? A) decreased capillary pressure, decreased cell permeability, increased edema B) decreased cellular metabolism, capillary permeability, and pain C) increased metabolism, analgesia, decreased pain D) increased temperature, increased metabolism, increased vasoconstriction

C) increased metabolism, analgesia, decreased pain

Ch15: A condition in which the lateral retinaculum is tight or the vastus medialis is weak, leading to lateral excursion and pressure on the lateral facet of the patella, is called: A) chondromalacia patellae B) iliotibial band friction syndrome C) patellofemoral stress syndrome D) subluxed patella

C) patellofemoral stress syndrome

Ch15: Posterior swelling may indicate all of the following conditions, except: A) Baker's cyst B) gastrocnemius strain C) pes anserine strain D) venous thrombosis

C) pes anserine strain

Ch12: The introduction of anti-inflammatory drugs through the skin with ultrasound is called: A) cavitation B) iontophoresis C) phonophoresis D) TENS

C) phonophoresis

Ch15: The strongest ligament at the knee is the: A) anterior cruciate B) fibular collateral C) posterior cruciate D) tibial collateral

C) posterior cruciate

Ch12: Which of the following has the greatest likelihood of causing frostbite? A) ice massage B) cryostretch C) reusable cold packs D) ice bags

C) reusable cold packs

Ch15: Because the medial and lateral condyles of the femur differ somewhat in size, shape, and orientation, the tibia rotates laterally on the femur during the last few degrees of extension. This action is known as: A) loose-packed position B) gliding C) screw-home mechanism D) tibial shift

C) screw-home mechanism

Ch15: The medial meniscus is attached to the medial collateral ligament and to fibers from the: A) anterior cruciate ligament B) popliteus C) semimembranosus D) semitendinosus

C) semimembranosus

Ch15: The medial meniscus can often be injured in combination with a hamstring injury because: A) the medial meniscus is firmly attached to the tibia B) the medial meniscus is mobile C) the medial meniscus is attached to fibers of the semimembranosus D) the medial meniscus is attached to fibers of the semitendinosus

C) the medial meniscus is attached to fibers of the semimembranosus

Ch12: Energy in the nonionizing range is used in all but which of the following? A) ultraviolet light B) infrared light C) x-rays D) microwave diathermy

C) x-rays

CH14: Avid runners should replace their shoes every (page 67): a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 1 month d. 3 months

D

CH14: The Thompson test is used to determine: a. a fracture of the lower fibula b. the integrity of the deltoid ligament c. a fracture of the fifth metatarsal d. the integrity of the Achilles tendon

D

Ch15: A Q-angle greater than ______ degrees can predispose the individual to patellar injuries. A) 8 B) 11 C) 15 D) 18

D) 18

Ch15: When observing the knee during injury evaluation, the knee should be in _______ to relieve any strain on the joint structure. A) full extension B) 90 degrees of flexion C) 60 degrees of flexion D) 30 degrees of flexion

D) 30 degrees of flexion

Ch15: The "unhappy triad" involves the" I. posterior cruciate II. anterior cruciate III. fibular collateral ligament IV. medial menisci V. tibial collateral ligament A) I, II, and IV B) I,IV,andV C) II, III, and IV D) II, IV, and V

D) II, IV, and V

Ch12: Which of the following are examples of radiant energy transfer? I. ultrasound II. inferential current III. TENS IV. shortwave diathermy V. microwave diathermy A) I only B) II and III C) II, III, and V D) IV and V

D) IV and V

Ch15: ______ bursitis is often associated with running and cycling and is routinely aggravated by knee flexion. A) Infrapatellar B) Deep infrapatellar C) Suprapatellar D) Pes anserine

D) Pes anserine

Ch15: Which of the following is not characteristic of patella plica syndrome? A) pseudolocking B) significant joint effusion C) positive stutter test D) anterior knee pain aggravated by quadriceps exercises

D) anterior knee pain aggravated by quadriceps exercises

Ch15: Which of the following is not a function of the meniscus? A) absorption and dissipation of force B) improves congruency of the joint surfaces C) serves as soft tissue restraint that resists anterior tibial displacement D) assists the ligaments and capsule in preventing hyperflexion

D) assists the ligaments and capsule in preventing hyperflexion

Ch12: The transfer of energy between two objects via a medium, such as air or water, as it moves across the body creating temperature variations is termed: A) radiation B) conduction C) conversion D) convection

D) convection

Ch12: A preferred therapeutic massage for areas around joints and other areas where tissue is thin is: A) pétrissage B) tapotement C) pétrissage and effleurage D) friction

D) friction

Ch12: Therapeutic agents that enhance tissue healing while reducing pain and disability are called: A) antigens B) antipruritics C) antiseptics D) modalities

D) modalities

Ch15: The largest bursa of the body is the: A) deep infrapatellar B) prepatellar C) superficial infrapatellar D) suprapatellar

D) suprapatellar

Ch15: A positive valgus instability test result at 30 degrees of flexion indicates damage to what ligament? A) anterior cruciate B) fibular collateral C) posterior cruciate D) tibial collateral

D) tibial collateral

Ch15: What ligament is often injured during a cutting maneuver, sudden deceleration, or landing in an off-balance position after a jump? A) anterior cruciate B) fibular collateral C) posterior cruciate D) tibial collateral

D) tibial collateral

Ch15: Posterior knee swelling may indicate all of the following, except: A) Baker's cyst B) gastrocnemius strain C) biceps femoris strain D) venous thrombosis

D) venous thrombosis

Ch12: (T/F) Diathermy uses high-frequency sound waves to elicit thermal and nonthermal effects in deep tissues.

F

Ch12: (T/F) Pulsed ultrasound is used primarily to elicit thermal and nonthermal effects in elevating deep tissue temperature.

F

Ch12: (T/F) Refraction occurs when a wave strikes an object and is bent away from the material.

F

Ch12: (T/F) Studies show that ice bags applied with a single layer of dry elastic wrap between the skin and the ice produce a lower skin temperature than ice bags used with a wet elastic wrap.

F

Ch12: (T/F) The introduction of anti-inflammatory drugs through the skin with ultrasound is called iontophoresis.

F

Ch12: (T/F) The law of Grotthus-Draper states that the less energy is absorbed by superficial tissue, the more energy is available to be transmitted to the underlying tissue.

F

Ch14: (T/F) Achilles tendon ruptures are commonly seen in individuals between 18 and 28 years of age because of the rapid plantarflexion needed to execute many sport skills

F

Ch14: (T/F) Leg length discrepancy rarely contributes to chronic foot problems.

F

Ch14: (T/F) Pain is an accurate indicator in assessing possible fracture of the fibula.

F

Ch14: (T/F) The ankle joint is capable of plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, inversion, and eversion.

F

Ch14: (T/F) The extent of ankle swelling is an accurate indicator of the severity of the injury.

F

Ch14: (T/F) The femoral nerve and its branches provide the primary innervation for the foot, ankle, and lower leg.

F

Ch14: (T/F) The short plantar (plantar calcaneocuboid) ligament is the primary supporting structure for the plantar arches.

F

Ch15 (T/F) Because the cruciate ligaments are intrasynovial and extracapsular, they have a special protective covering to protect them from the synovial fluid.

F

Ch15 (T/F) Damage to the posterior cruciate ligament commonly occurs during a cutting or turning maneuver, when landing in an off-balance position after a jump, or during sudden deceleration.

F

Ch15 (T/F) Each of the bursae in the knee is contained within the joint capsule.

F

Ch15 (T/F) Longitudinal tears of the meniscus are due largely to degeneration

F

Ch15 (T/F) Palpable pain and crepitus, particularly along the edge of the medial femoral condyle, with the knee flexed at 45 degrees, indicates patellar tendinitis.

F

Ch15 (T/F) Peak incidence of meniscal injuries occurs in men and women between the ages of 21 and 40 years.

F

Ch15 (T/F) The iliotibial band is a medial stabilizer of the knee.

F

Ch10: Briefly describe the gate control theory of pain.

It's the idea that you flood the area with a lot of sensation to turn off the pain site. It will decrease pain and will get better ROM and strength.

Ch15: Why is the medial meniscus more likely to be injured than the lateral meniscus?

Lateral is less likely to be injured because it is a more freely moveable joint then the medial, which is firmly attached to the medial collateral ligament and joint capsule and tibia

Ch10: Where is the most common site for a tear in the musculotendinous unit?

Near the musculotendinous junction.

Ch12: A swimmer is recovering from shoulder surgery. The supervising physician has recommended massage to break up soft tissue adhesions left from the surgical procedure. What massage technique will assist in achieving this goal? Why?

Pétrissage massage would be the correct type of massage for this recovery. Doing this technique increases circulation and elasticity of skin, and will promote venous and lymphatic return. Most importantly this will break up the adhesions in the superficial connective tissue.

Ch12: (T/F) A preferred therapeutic massage for areas around joints and other areas where the tissue is thin would be friction.

T

Ch12: (T/F) A technique that temporarily freezes superficial tissues to aid the therapist in reducing the pain-spasm cycle prior to stretch exercises is the use of a vapocoolant spray.

T

Ch12: (T/F) In the treatment of an acute ankle sprain, use of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for more than 2 weeks could retard the healing process.

T

Ch12: (T/F) Inferential stimulation can be used for muscle contraction, gate, and opiate pain control by using similar patterns.

T

Ch12: (T/F) The cosine law states that the maximum effects of energy occur when it is applied to the body at a right angle.

T

Ch12: (T/F) The higher currents used with interferential treatments lower skin resistance, thus eliciting a stronger response with lower current intensity.

T

Ch12: (T/F) The physiologic effects of local heat include increased metabolism, analgesia, and decreased pain.

T

Ch12: (T/F) Thermotherapy leads to vasodilation and increased circulation that can move oxygen and nutrients into the area to promote healing and remove debris and waste products from the injury site.

T

Ch12: (T/F) When using ice immersion or a cold whirlpool, the lower the temperature, the shorter the duration of immersion should be.

T

Ch14: (T/F) Eversion and dorsiflexion injuries can lead to a fracture of the lateral malleolus

T

Ch14: (T/F) Posterior heel pain during activity that is relieved with rest could indicate a possible apophysitis of the calcaneus.

T

Ch14: (T/F) The interosseous membrane between the tibia and fibula is so strong that strong lateral stresses will fracture the fibula rather than tear the membrane.

T

Ch14: (T/F) The midfoot region includes the navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones and their articulations.

T

Ch14: (T/F) The muscles in the anterior compartment of the lower leg are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle.

T

Ch14: (T/F) The tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints enable the foot to adapt to uneven surfaces during gait.

T

Ch15 (T/F) An apophyseal fracture at the tibial tuberosity commonly results from a violent quadriceps contraction against a fixed foot

T

Ch15 (T/F) If an anterior cruciate ligament injury is suspected, Lachman's test should be performed before any other stress test.

T

Ch15 (T/F) If the anterior cruciate ligament is injured, joint effusion may not appear until 1 to 2 hours after the injury, even though an acute care protocol was followed.

T

Ch15 (T/F) In the sagittal plane, the patella serves to increase the angle of pull of the patellar tendon on the tibia, thereby improving the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscles for producing knee extension.

T

Ch15 (T/F) Normal passive glide of the patellofemoral joint should be restored before full flexion exercises, resisted exercises, or bicycling is initiated.

T

Ch15 (T/F) Point tenderness over the lateral facet of the patella and intense pain and crepitus when the patella is manually compressed into the patellofemoral groove are signs of patellofemoral stress syndrome.

T

Ch15 (T/F) The knee is directly affected by motions and forces coming from the foot, ankle, and lower leg.

T

Ch15 (T/F) The vastus medialis oblique (VMO) is the dynamic stabilizer that resists lateral displacement of the patella

T

Ch29: (T/F) Altitude mountain sickness is a disorder related to hypoxia

T

Ch12: A male college baseball player is suffering from chronic biceps tendinitis. The team physician has recommended a modality that will produce a deep thermal effect. What modality should be used? Why? What are the contraindications for applying this type of treatment to this particular athlete?

You would use an ultrasound to treat this athlete. This is because it will increase blood flow and ROM in the bicep. As well as decreasing inflammation, pain, and stiffness. Contradictions to this are that you can't use it over stress fractures sites, or growth plates which could be common injuries with this type of athlete.

Ch13: Prolonged immobilization can lead to muscles losing their flexibility and assuming a shortened position. This is referred to as: a. a contracture b. hypomobility c. hypermobility d. Sharpey's fibrosis

a. a contracture

Ch13: In designing an individualized therapeutic exercise program, the first step is to: a. assess the present level of function and dysfunction b. develop a treatment plan c. develop short- and long-term goals d. formulate a list of patient problems

a. assess the present level of function and dysfunction

Ch13: Proprioception and coordination can be improved through performing: a. closed kinetic chain exercises b. open kinetic chain exercises c. plyometric exercises d. isokinetic exercises

a. closed kinetic chain exercises

Ch29: The ____ as one ascends above sea level, making it more difficult to perform aerobic activity. a. density of air decreases b. percentage of oxygen decreases c. density of air increases d. percentage of carbon dioxide increases

a. density of air decreases

Ch13: Anger, depression, irritability, moodiness, and impatience are ______________ signs and symptoms of anxiety in rehabilitation. a. emotional b. cognitive c. social d. performance

a. emotional

Ch29: Diets ____ and ____ in salt can lessen the effects of altitude. a. high in carbohydrates, low b. low in carbohydrates, low c. low in fats, high d. high in protein, low

a. high in carbohydrates, low

Ch13: What is the optimal time for beginning therapeutic exercise following surgery or an injury? a. immediately after b. 24 hours later c. 3 to 4 days later d. when pain subsides

a. immediately after

Ch13: The longer the inflammatory process progresses, the more likely the resulting scar tissue will be: a. less dense and weaker in resisting applied stress b. more dense and stronger in resisting applied stress c. more dense and weaker to resisting applied stress d. able to resist applied stress at the same level as the previously injured tissue

a. less dense and weaker in resisting applied stress

Ch13: Which of the following is not an example of a plyometric exercise? a. using a StairMaster b. performing double leg hops c. using a medicine ball d. performing a standing jump

a. using a StairMaster

Ch13: A disadvantage of isotonic training is: a. the expense of the equipment b. a muscle can only move a load through the ROM with as much force as the muscle provides at its weakest point. c. it only permits concentric contractions d. it does not permit exercise of multiple joints simultaneously

b. a muscle can only move a load through the ROM with as much force as the muscle provides at its weakest point.

Ch13: Which of the following is not considered a long-term goal? a. bilateral equal range of motion b. control of inflammation c. relaxation training d. maintenance of cardiovascular fitness

b. control of inflammation

Ch13: An individual can move into phase III of the rehabilitation program when what percentage of normal passive and active range of motion is achieved? a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90%

c. 80%

Ch13: Closed kinetic chain (CKC) exercises are recommended for several reasons. One such reason is that: a. CKC exercises increase strength at a faster rate than open kinetic chain b. CKC exercises increase range of motion faster c. CKC exercises reduce shearing forces about the joint d. CKC exercises facilitate the inflammatory process

c. CKC exercises reduce shearing forces about the joint

Ch13: The technique in which an individual consciously relaxes a muscle prior to stretching is termed: a. active movement b. reciprocal inhibition c. active inhibition d. imagery

c. active inhibition

Ch13: Which of the following are physiologic effects of cryotherapy? a. decreased vasoconstriction, increased nerve conduction velocity, and decreased pain perception b. increased vasoconstriction and metabolism, decreased pain c. decreased metabolism, oxygen need, and nerve conduction d. increased vasodilation, increased metabolism, decreased capillary permeability

c. decreased metabolism, oxygen need, and nerve conduction

Ch13: A biomechanical ankle platform system is often used to: a. increase range of motion b. decrease swelling c. improve sensory cues and balance of the lower extremity d. decrease inflammation

c. improve sensory cues and balance of the lower extremity

Ch13: Joint mechanoreceptors sensitive to the intra-articular pressure and stretching of the joint capsule are called: a. golgi receptors b. muscle spindles c. Pacinian corpuscles d. Ruffini's corpuscles

d. Ruffini's corpuscles

Ch13: The effects of immobilization of the articular cartilage are dependent on: a. length of immobilization b. position of the joint c. joint loading d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Ch13: ____ uses gravity to reduce the pooling of fluids and pressure inside the venous and lymphatic vessels to prevent fluid from filtering into surrounding tissue spaces. a. compression b. immobilization c. cold application d. elevation

d. elevation

Ch13: Which of the following is not an open kinetic chain exercise? a. knee extension b. bench press c. throwing a ball d. wall push-up

d. wall push-up

Ch10: . _____ explains that bones remodel and adapt to forces placed upon them. A) Wolff's law B) Grotthus-Draper law C) Hunting response D) Theory of specificity

A) Wolff's law

Ch10: A tendon begins to develop tears when it is stretched approximately ___% beyond normal length. A) 2-5 B) 5-8 C) 8-10 D) 0-13

B) 5-8

Ch10: Crepitus with movement, inflammation, local swelling, and nodule formation in the tendon sheath are characteristics of: A) acute tenosynovitis B) chronic tenosynovitis C) tendonitis D) myositis ossificans

B) chronic tenosynovitis

Ch10: An incomplete fracture cause by bending and torsional loads is a: A) stress fracture B) compression fracture C) spiral fracture D) greenstick fracture

D) greenstick fracture

Ch10: Rubor, calor, tumor, dolor, and loss of function are symptoms of: A) fractures B) concussions C) abrasions D) inflammation

D) inflammation

Ch13: (T/F) Collagenous scar formation is more efficient and tolerant of tensile forces than the original mature tissue

F

Ch13: (T/F) Following an injury, early motion through partial weight-bearing exercise can improve proper joint lubrication

F

Ch13: (T/F) Goal setting can be used as a way to provide a sense of control for the therapist.

F

Ch13: (T/F) Social support plays a minimal role with rehabilitation and recovery for athletes. It is not considered a central factor in the rehabilitation process

F

Ch29: (T/F) In superficial frostbite, the skin feels hard

F

Ch29: (T/F) Individuals who reside in regions with high ozone levels may become desensitized to the irritating effects of ozone after repeated exposures.

F

Ch29: (T/F) Liquids at room temperature will empty from the stomach and small intestines significantly faster than cold liquids

F

Ch29: (T/F) Shivering during hypothermia usually starts when core temperature drops below 90 F.

F

Ch29: (T/F) The most serious condition associated with lightning strike is cardiac asystole

F

Ch29: (T/F) When the ozone level is moderate, individuals with respiratory conditions should stay indoors.

F

Ch10: Briefly describe the proliferation phase of bone healing

Repair and regeneration: osteoclasts resorb damaged bone tissues, whereas osteoblasts build new bone. Callus formation

Ch13: (T/F) Acute care of soft tissue injuries includes application of crushed ice directly to the skin for 30- 40 minutes

T

Ch13: (T/F) An advantage of isokinetic training is that a muscle group can be exercised to its maximum potential throughout the full range of motion

T

Ch13: (T/F) Bone loss can be detected as early as 2 weeks after immobilization

T

Ch13: (T/F) Goal setting is an effective strategy shown to increase motivation during the recovery program

T

Ch13: (T/F) Hemorrhage and edema cause pooling of tissue fluids and blood products, which increases pain and muscle spasm

T

Ch13: (T/F) Immobilization for more than 2 weeks may lead to joint adhesions that inhibit muscle fiber regeneration

T

Ch13: (T/F) Joint congruity can be enhanced through closed kinetic chain exercises

T

Ch13: (T/F) Mental skills techniques have been successful for enhancing performance as well as with facilitating recovery from injuryT

T

Ch13: (T/F) Periodic measurement of girth, range of motion, muscle strength, endurance, power, and cardiovascular fitness will determine if progress is occurring in the exercise program

T

Ch13: (T/F) Phase 2 of a therapeutic exercise program focuses on the regaining of any deficits in range of motion and restoring proprioception

T

Ch29: (T/F) Acclimatization is the single most important factor in preventing the onset of heat illness and altitude sickness

T

Ch29: (T/F) Carbon monoxide interferes with the ability of hemoglobin to transport oxygen to the cellular level

T

Ch29: (T/F) The severity of shock can vary depending on the age of the individual

T

Ch29: (T/F) Women begin to sweat at higher skin and core temperatures and produce less sweat than men at comparable heat-exercise loads; however, they show a heat tolerance equivalent to that of men

T

Ch29: During cold weather, body heat is gained through which of these mechanisms? Circle all answers that apply a. increased respirations b. increase in basal metabolism c. shivering d. thyroxine and epinephrine production e. progesterone and epinephrine production

b. increase in basal metabolism c. shivering d. thyroxine and epinephrine production

Ch13: Which of the following is a physical sign/symptom of anxiety in rehabilitation? a. very narrow focus b. rushed speech c. nervousness and physical tension during therapy d. impatience

b. rushed speech

Ch13: When using imagery as an intervention technique, vividness and control can be increased through: a. self-talk b. confidence training c. relaxation d. coping rehearsal

c. relaxation

Ch29: Which of the following is not an accurate indicator of the need to hydrate during exercise? a. headache b. profuse sweating c. thirst d. dizziness

c. thirst

Ch29: Impairments in performance are noted when an athlete loses: a. 5 pounds b. 3 pounds c. 1 - 2 % body weight d. 2 - 3% body weight

d. 2 - 3% body weight

Ch29: Which of the following measures would help prevent the onset of hyperthermia? a. ingest a cola soda drink prior to exercising b. drink high-carbohydrate drinks to replenish energy supplies c. ingest water only after exercise is completed d. acclimate to the environment

d. acclimate to the environment

Ch29: Management for hyponatremia includes: a. topical antipuritics b. cool baths c. consuming salt tablets d. activation of EMS

d. activation of EMS

Ch29: In assessing urine to determine an individual's hydration status, which of the following would suggest inadequate hydration? a. light-colored urine of normal volume b. light-colored urine of above normal volume c. dark-yellow urine of normal volume d. dark-yellow urine of small volume and strong odor

d. dark-yellow urine of small volume and strong odor

Ch29: An athlete is not sweating, appears red or flushed, and has hot, dry skin. What condition might the athlete be experiencing? a. hypothermia b. heat exhaustion c. heat cramps d. heat stroke

d. heat stroke

Ch29: During a storm, all outdoor activities should end if the flash-to-bang time is within: a. 30 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 90 seconds d. 2 minutes

a. 30 seconds

Ch13: Which model suggests that there are stages of grieving through which an individual progresses when confronted with loss? a. Stage Perspective by Kubler-Ross b. Feltz Psychological Effects c. Affective Cycle of Injury d. Self-Actualization

a. Stage Perspective by Kubler-Ross

Ch13: Which of the following is an example of a pain focusing technique? a. emphasize slow, deep, rhythmic breathing b. listening to relaxing or inspiring music c. repetitive focusing on mantra or breathing d. passive or progressive relaxation

a. emphasize slow, deep, rhythmic breathing

Ch29: The ______ maintains homeostasis within the body. a. hypothalamus gland b. thalamus gland c. medulla oblongata d. diencephalon

a. hypothalamus gland

Ch13: Which of the following mental skill techniques is used to enhance performance? a. imagery b. relaxation c. positive self-talk d. meditation

a. imagery

Ch29: The most important factor for determining the effectiveness of evaporative heat loss is: a. relative humidity b. ambient temperature c. time of day d. solar radiant energy

a. relative humidity

Ch29: A colorless gas produced from burning coal or petroleum products that can be a potent bronchoconstrictor in asthmatics is: a. sulfur dioxide b. polycarbonate dioxide c. ozone d. carbon monoxide

a. sulfur dioxide

Ch29: The primary objective of fluid replacement when exercising in hot weather is: a. to maintain plasma volume b. to satisfy thirst c. to maintain electrolyte balance d. to decrease peripheral blood flow

a. to maintain plasma volume

Ch29: Raynaud's syndrome is most common in a. young females b. young males c. older females d. older males

a. young females

Ch13: What model identifies four quadrants (i.e., physical well-being, emotional well-being, social well-being, and self-concept) as impacted when an individual has sustained an injury? a. Decision Making b. Affective Cycle of Injury c. Stage perspective d. Transtheoretical

b. Affective Cycle of Injury

Ch29: As air temperature approaches body temperature and exceeds 30.6C, ___ becomes the major means of heat dissipation. a. conduction b. evaporation c. convection d. radiation

b. evaporation

Ch29: Fatigue, dizziness, confusion, rapid and shallow respirations, and rapid, weak pulse are signs of: a. heat stroke b. heat exhaustion c. heat cramps d. prickly heat

b. heat exhaustion

Ch29: Shock that occurs from excessive blood or fluid loss leading to inadequate circulation and oxygen supply to all organs is termed: a. neurogenic b. hypovolemic c. metabolic d. cardiogenic

b. hypovolemic

Ch10: (T/F) Although the most rapid bone growth occurs prior to adulthood, bones continue to grow in diameter throughout most of the life span

false

Ch10: (T/F) Because the bones of children contain less collagen than adult bones, they are less flexible and less resistant to fracture than adult bones

false

Ch10: (T/F) Extensibility is the ability of a muscle to be stretched and to return to normal length after either lengthening or shortening.

false

Ch10: (T/F) Force acting along the long axis of a structure is termed tensile force.

false

Ch10: (T/F) If tissues undergo abnormally high tensile stress before scar formation is complete, the newly forming tissue can be elongated and much stronger than the original tissue

false

Ch10: (T/F) Scar tissue is fibrous, elastic, and highly vascular and thus is just as functional as the original tissue

false