Principles of Athletic Training
ABCD of melanomas?
A- Asymmetry B- Border (irregular or ragged) C- Color (varies throughout mole) D- Diameter (larger than pencil eraser)
Which of the following sports is considered unsafe for an athlete absent one kidney? Choose only one. a) Field hockey b) Gymnastics c) Golf d) Tennis e) Track and field
A. Field hockey
What are the different grades of SORT (A-C)?
A. Strong B. Moderate C. Weak
What does EPO stand for and what two plans does it combine?
Exclusive Provider Organization (EPOs)= HMO and PPO restrictive in number and types of providers so more like HMO. Most will not pay anything if you use out of network providers
What is the Karvonen equation?
Exercise HR= % of target intensity (HRmax-HRrest) + HRrest
What is isokinetic?
Exercise at a fixed velocity of movement with accommodating resistance. Machines are used for this exercise
What's the difference between expendable and nonexpendable supplies?
Expendable- Items that CAN'T be reused, dispensable (ex: tape, band-aids, ointment packets, ice bags, etc) Nonexpendable- It's that CAN be reused. (ex: braces, hot packs, scissors, etc)
What does FERPA stand for? What is it for?
Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) Protects the privacy of student education records which is sometimes stored with PHI
What is fartlek? What's another term for it? What does it include?
Fartlek (speed play) is a training technique that is a type of cross-country running. It's similar to interval training in that the individual must run for a specified period of time; however, pace and speed are not specified. Should include varied terrain, uphill/downhill, and some obstacles like trees or rocks.
What is calisthenic strengthening exercises? Examples?
Free exercise- use body or body parts as a resistance against gravity (isotonic 10 or more reps 3 sets, isometric 6-10 seconds 1-3 sets) Examples: push-ups, jumping jacks, lunges, sit ups, quad sets
What term describes "number of waveforms being emitted by the electrical stimulating unit it 1 second"?
Frequency
What is NATA? When was it founded?
National Athletic Training Association -Founded in 1950 (Publishes in the Journal of Athletic Training and Athletic Training Journal)
What are torts?
Legal wrongs committed against the person or property of another
What term describes "like a vesicle or bulla but contains puss"? What are some examples of this?
Pustule Ex: Acne
What two categories can carbohydrates be divided into?
Simple (sugars) or complex (starch and most forms of fiber)
What are the degrees of motion of the forearm pronation? forearm supination?
Forearm Pronation: 80 Supination: 85
Who is covered by Medicaid?
People with low incomes and limited resources. Funded by both the government and individual state
What is body composition?
Percent body fat plus lean body weight
What does primary health insurance cover?
All medical expenses are paid by the institution This type of insurance pays extremely high premiums
What is a strategic plan***
********
What are the three pieces that make up evidence based practice?
-Best available evidence in literature -Clinical experience -Patient values and experiences
What is calcium important for in the body?
-Bones and teeth -Nerve impulses -Muscle contractions
What are some factors that limit flexibility?
-Bony structures -Excessive fat -Skin (scar tissue) -Muscles and their tendons -Connective tissue (ligaments, jt capsules) -Neural tissue tightness
What three factors determine maximum aerobic capacity? Which is the biggest limitation of VO2max?
-External respiration involving ventilatory process or pulmonary function -Gas transport involving CV system using heart, blood vessels, and blood. LIMITATION -Internal respiration involving the use of oxygen by the cells to produce energy
What are some of the Patient-reported Outcome Scales (PROs)?
-Generic (broad range such as health forms) -Dimension-specific instruments (one specific aspect of health such as McGill Pain Questionnaire) -Disease-specific (specific to particular patient group such as The Asthma Quality of Life Scale) -Site or Region Specific (specific part of the body, such as Oxford Hip Score) -Summary-item (single items and may be specific to either a region or disease)
What are proteins role in the body? What percent should make up daily caloric intake?
-Growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues -Needed to make enzymes, hormones, and antibodies (help fight infection) 15-20%
What are the three major roles of nutrition?
-Growth, repair, and maintenance of tissues -Regulation of body processes -Production of energy
What are some benefits to resistance strength training besides strength?
-Increased strength noncontractile tissues -Bones stronger and more resistant to fxs -Maximal oxygen uptake inmprove -Several enzymes for aerobic and anaerobic metabolism increase
What are some organizations that monitor and gather data about athletic injuries?
-National Safety Council -Annual Survey of Football Injury Research (personal interviews and questionnaires from public schools, colleges, professionals and sandlot) -National Center for Catastrophic Sports Injury Research (NCAA, complies data on catastrophic injuries of all sports and is used to make rule/policy changes) -NCAA Injury Surveillance System (NCAA ISS, collects data from major sports, web based data collection) -National Electronic Injury Surveillance System (NEISS, Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA), safety standards for products. Monitors 5,000 selected hospital emergency rooms 24/7, 25% being sports injuries)
What do seasonal/annual reports typically include for an athletic training program?
-Number patients served -A survey of number and types of injuries -Analysis of the program -Recommendations for future improvements
What are signs that a wound may be infected (2-7 days after injury)?
-Red, swollen, hot, and tender -Swollen and painful lymph glands near the area of infection (groin, axilla, or neck) -Mild fever or headache
What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?
-Redness (rubor) -Swelling (tumor) -Tenderness (dolor) -Increased temperature (calor) -Loss of function (functio laesa)
What are personal qualities that are needed for being an athletic trainer?
-Stamina and ability to adapt -Empathy -Sense of Humor -Ability to communicate -Intellectual curiosity -Ethics
What two things determine the amount of fat in the body? (hint: relating to the adipose cells)
-The number of fat, or adipose, cells (remains fixed as an adult) -The size of each adipose cell
What are the two frequencies for ultrasound?
1 MHz= deep 3 MHz= superficial
One pound of fat is approximately how many calories stored as triglycerides?
1 pound= 3,500 calories stored as triglycerides within adipose cell
A normal person can sweat off how much water per hour?
1 quart per hour (for about 2 hours) but some can lose as much as 2 quarts (4 lbs) per hour
What is the AI for calcium?
1,000 mg per day (about an 8 oz glass milk is about 300 mg) (1200 for elderly)
To build muscle an athlete should consume _____ to _____ grams of extra protein
1-1.5 grams per kg (.5-.7 grams/lb)
What 4 things must be established for a person making a complaint of negligence?
1. A duty of care (job description) existed between the person responsible for that person 2. Conduct of the defendant fell short of the standard of care 3. The defendant caused the injury to occur 4. Personal, property, or punitive damage results
Match the term to the definition: 1. Compression of soft tissue that results in bleeding into surrounding tissues 2. Bluish-purple discoloration of the skin 3. Calcium Deposits that result from repeated trauma A. Contusion B. Myositis Ossificans C. Ecchymosis
1. A. Contusion 2. C. Ecchymosis 3. B. Myositis Ossificans
Negligence occurs when what occurs?
1. An individual does something that a reasonably prudent person wouldn't do 2. An individual fails to do something that a reasonably prudent person would do under circumstances similar to those shown by evidence
What three questions should you be able to answer after reviewing a research study?
1. Are the results valid and did the study measure what it was supposed to measure? 2. Are the results reliable and can they be reproduced? 3. Are the results clinically applicable to the original research question?
Match the terms with the definitions 1. Analysis of the risk of sustaining an injury during some specified period (i.e, practice time) 2. Analysis of the total number of injuries in a specific population 3. The number of new injuries that occur in a particular population during a specified time period 4. Incidence of injuries per number of individual athlete exposures during a specific time period A. Exposure Rates B. Incidence C. Prevalence D. Incidence Rates
1. B. Incidence 2. C. Prevalence 3. D. Incidence Rates 4. A. Exposure Rates
Match the terms to the definitions: 1. Bradypnea 2. Apnea 3. Dyspnea 4. Tachycardia A. Rapid breathing B. Slow breathing C. Difficult breathing D. Temporary cessation of breathing
1. B. Slow breathing 2. D. Temporary cessation of breathing 3. C. Difficult Breathing 4. A. Rapid breathing
Match the terms to the definitions: 1. Equal and opposite external loads that pulls/stretches a structures 2. Two force pairs act at opposite ends of a structure, when three forces cause bending or when an already bowed structure is axially loaded 3. External loads applied toward one another on opposite surfaces in opposite directions 4. Twisting in opposite directions from the opposite ends of a structure cause shear stress over the entire cross section of that structure 5. Equal, but not directly opposite loads are applied to opposing surfaces, forcing those surfaces to move in parallel directions relative to one another A. Compression B. Tension C. Shearing D. Bending E. Torsion
1. B. Tension 2. D. Bending 3. A. Compression 4. E. Torsion 5. C. Shearing
Match the terms with the definitions 1. Athlete's foot 2. Jock's itch 3. Scalp ringworm 4. Body ringworm 5. Fungal infection of the skin A. Tinea capitis B. Tinea pedis C. Tinea cruris D. Tinea Versicolor E. Tinea corporis
1. B. Tinea pedis 2. C. Tinea cruris 3. A. Tinea capitis 4. E. Tinea corporis 5. D. Tinea Versicolor
Match the term with the definition: 1. Long bone receives a force that compresses tissue 2. Separation of a bone fragment from its cortex at an attachment of a ligament or tendon 3. Occur at wall of eye orbit as a result of blow to eye 4. Two bony fragments have a sawtooth, sharp-edged fracture line caused by direct blow. Can cause extensive internal damage 5. Occur in flatbones where impact causes a dent 6. Fracture occurs on the opposite side to where trauma was initiated A. Blowout Fx B. Coutrecoup Fx C. Depressed Fx D. Impacted Fx E. Serrated Fx F. Avulsion Fx
1. C. Depressed Fx 2. F. Avulsion Fx 3. A. Blowout Fx 4. E. Serrated Fx 5. D. Impacted Fx 6. B. Coutrecoup Fx
Match the terms with the definitions 1. Altitude of 9,000-10,000 ft lungs accumulate small amount of fluid within alveolar walls and include symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, headache, weakness, and unconsciousness. Rx includes moving athlete to lower altitude 2. Life threatening condition that leads to coma or death. Occurs over 9,000 ft to 1% of people. Symptoms include severe headache that may precede mental dysfunction (hallucinations, bizzare behavior, coma) and neurological abnormalities (loss coordination, paralysis, cerebella signs) 3. Altitude of 7,000-9,000 ft. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, sleep disturber, and dyspnea, which may last 3 days A. High Altitude Cerebral Edma (HACE) B. Acute Mountain Sickness C. High Alttitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)
1. C. High Alttitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) 2. A. High Altitude Cerebral Edma (HACE) 3. B. Acute Mountain Sickness
Match the term to the definition 1. Muscles supplied by a single nerve root 2. Areas of skin supplied by a single nerve root. Sharp and well localized 3. Bone or fascia supplied by a single nerve root. Deep, aching, and poorly localized pain A. Dermatomic B. Sclerotomic C. Myotomic
1. C. Myotomic 2. A. Dermatomic 3. B. Sclerotomic
Match the term to the definition 1. The rest interval between sets 2. The number of times an exercise is done in 1 week 3. The amount of weight or resistance lifted A. Frequency B. Intensity C. Recovery period
1. C. Recovery period 2. A. Frequency 3. B. Intensity
Match the term to the definition 1. The maximum number of repetitions at a given weight 2. The number of times a specific movement is repeated 3. A particular number of repetitions 4. The maximum amount of weight that can be lifted at one time. A. Repetitions B. Set C. Repetitions maximum (RM) D. One repetition maximum
1. C. Repetitions maximum (RM) 2. A. Repetitions 3. B. Set 4. D. One repetition maximum (1 RM)
Match the terms to the definitions: 1. Extent of deformation of tissue under loading 2. External forces acting on internal tissues 3. Internal resistance to an external load 4. Ability of a tissue to resist a load A. Load B. Stiffness C. Strain D. Stress
1. C. Strain 2. A. Load 3. D. Stress 4. B. Stiffness
Match the term to the definition 1. Psycholmetric scale which ranges from both extremes 2. Two dimensional graphic where patient colors the chart in areas that correspond to pain 3. List of 78 works that describe pain which are grouped into 20 sets and divided into 4 categories 4. 64 question self-report tool used to assess functional impairment associated with pain 5. Numeric rating scale where patient is asked to verbally rate pain on scale of 1-10 A. McGill Pain Questionnaire B. Numeric Rating Scale C. Visual Analog Scale D. Pain Charts E. Activity Pain Indicators
1. C. Visual Analog Scale 2. D. Pain Charts 3. A. McGill Pain Questionnaire 4. E. Activity Pain Indicators 5. B. Numeric Rating Scale
Properly fitting a football helmet: 1. Check snugness of _____ pads 2. Helmet should cover base of ______ 3. _____ finger widths above eyes 4. _____ line up 5. _____ finger width from chin to face mask 6. Check the face mask doesn't shift when _____, _____, and _____ 7. Check ______ straps
1. Cheek 2. Skull 3. two 4. Ear holes 5. Rotated, forward/backward, and downward 6. Chin straps
What are some ways the AT can minimize risk of injury?
1. Conducting pre-participation screening 2. Ensuring appropriate training and conditioning of athlete 3. Monitoring environmental conditions to ensure safe participation 4. Selecting, properly fitting, and maintaining protective equipment 5. Making certain that the athlete is eating properly 6. Making sure the athlete is using medications appropriately, while discouraging substance abuse
Match the terms to their definitions 1. Kneading 2. Rapid shaking 3. Heat-producing massage 4. Percussion 5. Stroking A. Tapotment B. Friction C. Vibtration D. Petrissage E. Effleurage
1. D. Petrissage 2. C. Vibtration 3. B. Friction 4. A. Tapotment 5. E. Effleurage
Match the terms to the definitions 1. The average daily dietary intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement 2. The highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population 3. Where no RDA has been established, but the amount established is somewhat less firmly believed to be adequate for everyone in the demographic group 4. Amount expected to satisfy the needs of 50% of the people in that age group 5. Percentage of the RDA provided by food item for specific nutrient 6. Standards set by dedicated committee of scientist from America/Canada for caloric intakes and include the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), the Adequate Intake (AI), and the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). A. UL B. DV C. AI D. RDA E. EAR F. DRI
1. D. RDA (recommended daily allowance) 2. A. UL (tolerable upper limit) 3. C. AI (adequate intake) 4. E. EAR (estimated average requirement) 5. B. DV (daily value) 6. DRI (dietary reference intakes)
Match the terms to the definitions 1. Individuals who consume milk products along with plant foods (meat, fish, and poultry and eggs excluded) 2. People who consume animals products but exclude red meat 3. People who consume plant, but no animal foods; meat, fish, poultry, eggs, and dairy products are excluded from their diet. 4. People who consume dairy products and eggs in their diet along with plant foods (meat, fish, poultry excluded) A. Total vegetarians B. Semivegetarians C. Ovolactovegetarian D. Lactovegetarians
1. D. lactovegetarian 2. B. semivegetarians 3. A. total vegetarians (vegans if not products) 4. C. ovolactovegetarian
What are the 5 steps of evidence based practice?
1. Develop a clinical question 2. Search the literature 3. Appraise the evidence 4. Apply the evidence 5. Assess the outcomes
Match the terms to the definitions: 1. Deformation of tissues that occurs with application of a constant load over time 2. Elastic limit of tissue 3. Property that allows a tissue to return to normal following deformation 4. Exceeding the ability to withstand stress and strain, causing tissue to break down 5. Deformation of tissues that exists after the load is removed 6. Change in the shape of a tissue A. Deformation B. Elasticity C. Yield Point D. Plastic E. Creep F. Mechanical Failure
1. E. Creep 2. C. Yield point 3. B. Elasticity 4. F. Mechanical Failure 5. D. Plastic 6. A. Deformation
Match the following terms: 1. Incomplete breaks in bones that has completely ossified. 2. Three or more fragments at the fracture site. Hard blow or a fall in an awkward position 3. Bone splits along its length. Jumping and landing with lots of force 4. Occur in a straight line, at right angles to the bone shaft. Direct blow 5. Break that occurs at an angle or curve. End of the bone receives sudden torsion or twisting while other end is fixed 6. S-shaped separation. Foot firmly planted body suddenly rotated A. Linear B. Spiral C. Comminuted D. Oblique E. Greenstick F. Transerve
1. E. Greenstick 2. C. Communited 3. F. Transerve 4. A. Linear 5. D. Oblique 6. B. Spiral
What are the 8 areas of education that must be taught in education programs by the Professional Education Council?
1. Evidence Based Practice 2. Prevention and Health Promotion 3. Clinical Examination and Diagnosis 4. Acute Care of Injury and Illness 5. Therapeutic Interventions 6. Psychosocial Strategies and Referral 7. Health Care Administration 8. Professional Development and Responsibility
Match the terms to the definitions 1. Refers to the type of activity that is performed, the amount of exposure to injury, factors in the environment, and the equiptment 2. Refers directly to the athlete and includes age, gender, neuromuscular aspects, structural aspects, performance aspects, and mental and psychological aspects A. Intrinsic Factors B. Extrinsic Factors
1. Extrinsic Factors 2. Intrinsic Factors
Match the terms with the definitions 1. Scales 2. Crust 3. Fissue 4. Excoriation 5. Erosion 6. Ulcer 7. Scar A. Superficial scrape B. Healing of the dermis C. Dried fluid or exudates on the skin D. Skin crack E. Loss of superificial epidermis F. Destruction of the entire epidermis G. Flakes of skin
1. G. Flakes of skin (psoriasis) 2. C. Dried fluid or exudates on the skin (impetigo) 3. D. Skin crack (chapping) 4. A. Superficial scrape (abrasion) 5. E. Loss of superificial epidermis (scratch) 6. F. Destruction of the entire epidermis (pressure sore) 7. B. Healing of the dermis (laceration, vaccination)
Match the following terms to the definitions 1. General dilation of blood vessels within the cardiovascular system and can no longer supply oxygen to the body. 2. Inability of the heart to pump enough blood to the body 3. Stems from trauma in which there is blood loss which causes a decrease in blood pressure and organs aren't properly supplied with oxygen 4. Happens when severe illness (like diabetes) goes untreated. Another cause is an extreme loss of body fluid 5. Occurs when the lungs are unable to supply enough oxygen to circulating blood 6. Commonly known as fainting (syncope). Caused by temporarily dilation of blood vessels that reduces the normal amount of blood in the brain 7. Occurs from severe, usually allergic reaction caused by foods, insect stings, or drugs, or by inhaling dusts, pollens, or other substances 8. Occurs from a severe, usually bacterial infection. Toxins liberated from the bacteria cause small blood vessels in. the body to dilate A. Septic Shock B. Metabolic Shock C. Respiratory Shock D. Hypovolemic shock E. Anaphylactic Shock F. Psychogenic Shock G. Cardiogenic Shock H. Neurogenic Shock
1. H. Neurogenic Shock 2. G. Cardiogenic Shock 3. D. Hypovolemic shock 4. B. Metabolic Shock 5. C. Respiratory Shock 6. F. Psychogenic Shock 7. E. Anaphylactic Shock 8. A. Septic Shock
What reasons warrant the helmet be removed in an emergency situation?
1. Helmet/chinstrap don't hold the head securely and immobilizing the helmet doesn't immobilize the head 2. The airway cannot be controlled or ventilated properly even with the removal of the face mask due to the design of the helmet and chin strap 3. The face mask cannot be removed after a reasonable amount of time 4. The helmet prevents the athlete from being immobilized appropriately for transportation
What are the 5 domains of athletic training?
1. Injury/illness prevention and wellness protection 2. Clinical evaluation and diagnosis 3. Immediate and emergency care 4. Treatment and rehabilitation 5. Organization and professional health and well-being
Match the terms to the definitions 1. An individual commits an act that is not legally his or hers to perform 2. An individual improperly does something he or she has the legal right to do 3. An individual fails to perform a legal duty A. Misfeasance B. Nonfeasance C. Malfeasance
1. Malfeasance (not in scope of practice) 2. Misfeasance 3. Nonfeasance
Match the terms to their conditions 1. Rubella 2. Varicella 3. Parotitis A. German Measles B. Mumps C. Chicken Pox
1. Measles 2. Chicken pox 3. Mumps
What are the 4 basic principles of ethics made by the NATA?
1. Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all 2. Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of AT. 3. Members shall maintain and promote high standards in their provision of services 4. Members shall not engage in conduct that could be construed as a conflict of interest or that reflect negatively on the profession
Match the term to the definition 1. The max force that can be applied by a muscle during single maximum contraction 2. The ability to generate force rapidly 3. The ability to perform repetitive muscular contractions against some resistance A. Muscular Strength B. Power C. Muscular Endurance
1. Muscular Strength 2. Power 3. Muscular Endurance
What are Tanner's five stages of maturity in females?
1. No evidence of pubic hair 2. Long, lightly pigmented, downy hair along the edges of the labia 3. Darker, coarser, slightly curled hair spread sparsely over the mons pubis 4. Adult type of hair but it doesn't extend onto thighs 5. Adult distribution, including spread along the medial aspect of the thighs
What are Tanner's five stages of maturity in males?
1. No evidence of pubic hair 2. Slightly pigmented hair laterally at the base of the penis. Usually straight. 3. Hair becomes darker and coarser, begins to curl, and spreads around pubic region. 4. Hair is adult in type but doesn't extend onto thighs. 5. Hair extends onto the thighs and frequently up the linea alba (midline of abdomen)
What are the goals of professional organizations in AT?
1. To upgrade the field by devising and maintaining a set of PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS, including a code of ethics 2. To BRING TOGETHER professionally competent individuals to exchange ideas, stimulate research, and promote critical thinking 3. To give individuals opportunity to WORK AS A GROUP with a singleness of purpose, thereby making it possible for them to achieve objectives that, separately, they couldn't accomplish.
In a weight loss program, how many pounds should be lost per week? How many calories should females and males not go below?
1.5-2 lbs/wk, weight loss above 4-5 lbs per week may be attributed to dehydration as opposed to weigh loss of fat Females shouldn't go below 1,000- 1,200 cals/day Males shouldn't go below 1,200-1,400 cals/day
Between what times is sun screen most critical to have on? How long before exposure should sun screen be applied?
10 a.m - 4 p.m 15-30 minutes prior
How many glasses of day should the average person consume? What is the average sweat-loss rate per hour?
10 glasses of water per day 0.8-3 liters per hour (1.5 average)
What parts make up PNF stretching?
10 second active push phase followed by a 10 second passive relax phase repeated 3 times
What temperature is the paraffin bath maintained at? Why is this higher than what we can tolerate in the form of water?
126-130 degrees F, mineral oil acts to lower the melting point of paraffin and the specific heat
What is the optimal amount of carbohydrate in a sports drink?
14 grams per 8 ounces (6%)
Orthoplast and X-Lite (heat-forming plastics) are considered low temperature and are used for bracing, splinting, and shielding. When heated to _____ degrees F to _____ degrees F, the plastic can be molded to a body part
140-180 degrees F
What temperature should the hydrocollator be maintained at?
160-170 degrees F
How much water should an athlete consume 2-3 hours prior to exercise? How much 10-20 minutes before exercise?
17-20 oz 2-3 hours prior 7-10 oz 10-20 minutes prior
In what year was the NATA formed?
1950
Mild dehydration is the loss of less than ______% of body weight
2%
Food labels includes information in the form of percentages of daily values based on a standard _____ calorie diet
2,000
To gain one pound of muscle, approximately how many calories are needed to be consumed?
2,500 cals
A good warm up should begin with how many minutes of slow walking, light jogging, or cycling?
2-3 minutes
When does heart rate plateau when exercising?
2-3 minutes
What percent does a patient typically breath in of oxygen? During rescue breathing, what percent does the patient breath in?
21% 16%
What is the estimated maximal heart rate used in equations?
220 bpm
What is the recommended amounts of fiber in the diet?
25 grams per day (most people only eat 10-15 g/d)
After the onset of mono, pts may resume activity after _____ weeks if?
3 weeks if: spleen not remarkdely enlarged/painful, afebrile, liver function normal, and pharyngitis and any complications resolved
Ultrasound treatment area should exceed _____ inches and the transducer head should moved slowly at approximately _____ inches per second. The ERA should be ___-___ x
3-4 inches 1.5 inches per second (4 cm^2/sec) 2-3x
Women tend to plateau after ______ weeks during the initial strength gains
3-4 weeks
When the flash to bang count is at or less than _____ there is danger, and conditions should be closely monitored
30
Adult one person CPR involves _____ compression to _____ breaths
30 compressions, 2 breaths
NATA and National Sever Storms Service recommends that _____ minutes should pass after the last sound of thunder is heard or lightening strike is seen before resuming play
30 minutes
Running shoes tend to break down between _____ and _____ miles
350-550
How often should stretching be done to see improvements?
3x a week for minimal improvements, 5-6x for maximum
How high above the ground should electrical outlets be about the floor?
4-5 feet (1.2-1.5m) above the floor and should have spring-locked covers and water spray deflectors
How long is mono incubation period? What are the symptoms?
4-6 weeks. Symptoms include headache, malaise, los of appetite, myalgia, fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, enlarged spleen, skin rash, puffy eyelids, jaundice, etc.
What is the typical range for the maximum aerobic capacity of most college aged athletes? Is a higher or lower better? What is the unit typically used?
45-60 ml/kg/min (volume o2 relative to body weight per unit of time). The higher the better as a higher number means the individual can consume more oxygen and therefore takes a longer time to fatigue during intense exercise
Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant and is considered a drug by NCAA. In a drug test, caffeine levels should not present in levels greater than that resulting from drinking how many cups of coffee?
5 or 6
1 ventilation every _____ seconds for adults and 1 ventilation every _____ seconds for infants/children
5, 3
When attempting to clear an obstructed airway for a conscious patient, deliver _____ back blows followed by _____ abdominal thrusts
5, 5
How long should a cool down last?
5-10 minutes
How many CEUS are required to be completed every 2 years?
50 CEUs, 10 must be EBP
When doing full body immersion, what should the temperature of the whirlpool be?
50-60 degrees
At what time does acute become chronic according to this book?
6 months
How many times is a body part dipped in the paraffin wax and how long is it kept on?
6-12 times (typically 8-10) 30 minutes or until wax no longer generates heat
What percent of the body is made up of water? The average adult requires a minimum of how much water?
60% 2.5 liters or about 10 glasses
During rest and submaximal exercise what ratio is fat to carbohydrates used?
60%:40%
How many stations does a typical circuit training set up include and how many times is it typically repeated? What does circuit training improve?
8-12 stations and 3 sets. Improves strength and flexibility
At what body temperature does shivering cease? At what core temperature does death occur?
85-90 degrees F Between 77-85 degrees
Pulse oximetry reading should be _____-_____
95-99%
What is a diagnostic code? Where can they be found?
A 5 digit code that specifics the condition or injury that the AT or any other health care provider is treating. They can be found in the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10-CM) (ex 845.02 for sprain of calcaneofibular ligament in ankle)
What is reciprocal inhibition?
A contraction of the agonist causes a reflex relaxation in the antagonist muscle, allowing it to stretch and protecting it from injury (occurs in all synergistic muscle groups)
What is crepitus?
A crackling feeling or sound usually caused by the tendon's tendency to stick to the surrounding structure while it slides back and forth. The sticking is caused primarily by chemical products of inflammation that accumulates on irritated tendon
What are the two types of code that must be used when submitting a claim on standard HCFA-1500 or UB-92 form?
A diagnostic or procedural code
What is a goniometer?
A large protractor with measurements in degrees used to measure range of motion of joints
What is the hunting response?
A process of alternating vasoconstriction and vasodilation in extremities exposed to cold.
What is a keloid?
A raised scar that occurs after the injury is healed
What is exertional heat stroke? What are the s/sx?
A serious, life threatening emergency induced by strenuous physical exercise and increased environmental stress s/sx: CNS abnormalities, sudden collapse, altered consciousness, seizures, confusion, emotional instability, irrational behavior, decreased mental acuity, rectal temp 104 degrees F or above, flushed hot skin, shallow fast breathing, rapid strong pulse, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, dizziness, weakness, decreased blood pressure, and dehydration
What is staleness?
A state in which the athlete has difficulty maintaining standard training regimens. Usually cannot obtain previous performance results. The end result (or response) to overtraining.
What is a cantilevered shoulder pad and what's the benefit?
A strap that extends from the front to the back of the shoulder pads that causes the shoulder pads to arch above the top of the shoulder thus dispersing pressure on to the pads rather than on the shoulder
What are the different grades of CEBM (A-D)?
A. Strong- level 1 evidence (randomized control studies) B. Fair- level 2 or 3 evidence (cohort/case control) C. Conflicting- level 4 evidence (case studies/reports) D. Insufficient evidence to make a recommendation I. Insufficient
Which of the following is a checklist that has a flow diagram associated with them that aid in the ease of use and comprehension of the articles they are appraising for systematic reviews? A.CONSORT B. STARD C. QUORUM D. QUADAS E. PRISMA
A.CONSORT (Consolidated standards of reporting trials-> in systematic reviews) B. STARD (Standards for Reporting Diagnostic Accuracy) C. QUORUM (Quality of Reports of Meta-Analyses of Randomized Controlled Trials) D. QUADAS (Quality Assessment of Studies of Diagnostic Accuracy included in Systematic Reviews) E. PRISMA (Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses)
What is the ultimate usable form of energy for muscular activity?
ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
What is cranial nerve 6? How is it tested?
Abducens, lateral eye movement
What is cranial nerve 11? How is it tested?
Accessory, swallowing, shoulder shrug
What is the term with the definition "an unplanned event capable of resulting in loss of time, property damage, injury, disablement, or even death"?
Accident
What is the difference between active and passive range of motion?
Active, also called dynamic flexibility, is the degree to which a joint can be moved by a muscle contraction typically though the midrange Passive, sometimes called static flexibility, is the degree to which a joint may be passively moved to the end points in the range of motion.
What is normal respiration rates in adults? childrens?
Adults 12-20 breaths Children 15-30 breaths
What is the difference between aerobic and anerobic metabolism?
Aerobic- uses oxygen. Typically, long mild-moderate activities such as walking, long distance running Anerobic- absense of oxygen. Relies on glycogen stores and produces lactic acid as a byproduct. Typically short, high intensity activities such as sprints
Where does frost nip occur and when? Sx? Rx?
Affects ears, nose, cheeks, chin, fingers, and toes. Commonly occurs when there is a high wind, severe cold, or both. Sx: Skin appears firm with cold painless areas that may peel or blister in 24-72 hours Rx: Firm sustained pressure (without rubbing), but blowing hot breath on the spot or if on finger tips place under armpit
Technically, how often should the whirlpool be emptied and disinfected?
After every patient. This helps prevent the spread of infection, particularly MRSA
Who is covered by Medicare?
Aged and disabled. Most people at retirement qualify. Federal health insurance program
Describe the difference between an agonist muscle and an antagonist muscle then explain knee extension using the hamstring and quads with those terms
Agonist muscle is the muscle that is contracting to cause the movement while the antagonist is the muscle being stretched During knee extension, the quads contract (agonist) while the hamstrings relax (antagonist)
What is interval training?
Alternating periods of relatively intense work with active recovery
What is considered level 5 evidence?
Anecdotal evidence
What is AAFP? When was it founded and what is the purpose?
American Academy of Family Physicians (AAFP) -Founded in 1947 -Promote and maintains high-quality standards for family doctors who are providing continuing comprehensive health care to the public -Many team physicians are members of this organization
What is the ACSM? When was it established?
American College of Sports Medicine -Established in 1954
What is the AOSSM? When was it created?
American Orthopaedic Society for Sports Medicine -Created in 1972
What is the APTA? When was the sports section established? What does it promote?
American Physical Therapy Association -Sports section established in 1981 -Promotes the prevention, recognition, treatment, and rehab of injuries in athletic and physically active population; provide educational opportunities through sponsorship of continuing education programs and publications; promote the role of sports PT to other other health professionals; and support research to further establish scientific basis for sports PT
What term describes "basic units that make up proteins"? Why are some known as essential?
Amino Acids Essential amino acids must be obtained through diet
How long do anaerobic activities last and how long do aerobic activities last?
Anaerobic- 10 seconds to 2 minutes Aerobic- 20-60 minutes
What are the three boolean operators?
And, Or, Not
How often should emergency practice sessions for athletic trainers and EMTS be held?
At least once a year
What are the degrees of motion of ankle dorsiflexion? ankle plantarflexion?
Ankle DF: 20 PF: 45
What are the degrees of motion of ankle inversion? ankle eversion?
Ankle Inversion: 40 Eversion: 20
What condition is marked by an excessive amount of working out and other common characteristics of anorexia nervosa but not self starvation?
Anorexia Athletica
What condition is characterized by a distorted body image and a major concern about weight gain? The individual typically denies him/herself food and may engage in abnormal amounts of exercise, particularly aerobics and distance running
Anorexia Nervosa
What three cutting tools have been known to cut through helmet fasteners?
Anvil Pruner, Trainer's Angel, and FM extractor
What organs are in the right lower quadrant?
Appendix, colon, small intestine, ureter, bladder
What does AMCIA stand for and why was it created by the NATA?
Appropriate Medical Coverage for Intercollegiate Athletics (AMCIA) -Established recommendations for the extent of appropriate medical coverage to provide the best possible health care for all intercollegiate student-athletes -Basically made guidelines for # of ATs to be employed at a college/university
How soon after strength training is discontinued/interrupted will reversal occur?
As soon as 48 hours
How is the SORT scale divided in levels?
Assigned number 1-3 (NO SUBCATEGORIES) Grade A-C (A highest)
How is the CEBM scale divided in levels? What about grade of recommendation? What grade is the highest?
Assigned number 1-5 (1 being the highest, 5 lowest) to rate its quality based on the type of research study. Level 1-3 are further subdivided into a, b, c Grade A-D (A highest)
How long should an individual train to see cardiorespiratory improvements?
At least 20 minutes (at least 45 for competitive athlete). Recent evidence suggests that as little of 12 minutes may be sufficient to show improvements.
How frequent should an individual train to see cardiorespiratory improvements?
At least 3 times per week (4-5 should be the aim, 6x for competitive athletes)
How often should an emergency action plan be reviewed?
At least once a year
What term describes "A physically active individual who participates in recreational or organized sports activities who is currently not injured (patient is an ill or injured athlete in this text)"?
Athlete
What is the slow reversal hold relax technique?
Athlete brings the joint into stretch, the AT then passively pushes the joint into further stretching. Once stretch is felt the athlete pushes against the AT using the antagonist muscle for 10 seconds. After the patient will relax the muscles then contract the agonist muscle bringing it to stretch which then will be pushed further into stretch by AT. Relaxing phase lasts about 10 seconds then right back into push. This should be repeated at least 3 times HS: AT passively flexes hip until slight discomfort. At this point, pt begins pushing against AT by contracting hamstring. After actively pushing for 10 seconds, relax hamstring which quad actively contract to bring back to stretch position then the AT will further stretch until discomfort. Then repeat.
What should athlete's consume post-activity and how much?
Athletes should consume carbohydrates as soon as possible after work out to maximize recovery time. They should have 0.45-0.55 grams per pound of body weight for each of the first 4 hours after the activity or until their next big meal. During the next 24 hours, 2.3-5.5 grams per pound of body weight should be ingested of carbs depending on intensity of activity
What term describes "A health care facility for treating individuals who have an illness or injury"?
Athletic training clinic
What term describes "a portion of the bone degenerates due to poor blood supply"?
Avascular Necrosis (common spots head of femur, navicular bone in the wrist (scaphoid), talus in ankle, and isolated bone fragments
What type of stretching involves "a bouncing movement in which repetitive contractions of the agonist muscle are used to produce quick stretches of the antagonist muscle"?
Ballistic stretching
What happens to glucose that cannot be stored as glycogen due to limited amounts of storage?
Because the body can only store a limited amount of glucose as glycogen, any extra glucose is converted to body fat
What tendons are used to test deep tendon reflexes? What are their nerve roots?
Biceps (C5) Brachioradialis (C6) Triceps (C7) Adductor (L2) Patella (L4) Achilles (S1) Hamstring (S2)
What is ketosis?
Blood glucose levels are stabilized however insulin levels drop causing fairly rapid weight loss, occurs from severely restricting carbohydrates
How is the sickle cell test performed?
Blood test which looks for hemoglobin S Typically required for participation in college/university sports
What is BMI? What is the equation? What BMI is considered overweight and obese?
Body Mass Indix BMI= Weight (kg)/ Height^2 (m) Overweight >25 Obese >30
What are furnucles? treatment?
Boids are infection of the hair folllicle that usually results in pustule formation. Staph is usually the responsible organism Rx: protecting from additional irritation and antibiotics
What is a Boutonniere deformity: PIP/DIP? What is it caused by? Treatment?
Boutonniere Flexed PIP, Extended DIP Finger struck by object or rheumatoid artho=ropathy extensor tendon slip injury Splint in full extension for up to 6 weeks
What is tendinosis?
Breakdown of a tendon without inflammation
What is a good indication that muscle temperature has increased when warming up?
Breaking into a light sweat
What term describes "like a vesicle but larger"? What are some examples of this?
Bulla Ex: second-degree burn, friction blister
What condition involves the consuming of mass amount of calories after a period of starvation and then purging through induced vomiting, laxative, or diuretics?
Bulmia Nervosa
What condition is associated with the following symptoms: excessive anger, blaming others, guilt, being tired and exhausted all day, sleep problems, high absenteeism, family problems, and self preoccupation ?
Burnout
Which part of PICOT is optional?
C (comparison) and O (outcome)
What actions are used to test myotomes C1-T1?
C1 none C2 Neck flexion C3 Neck lateral flexion and extension C4 Shoulder shrug C5 Shoulder abduction C6 Elbow flexion/ wrist extension C7 Elbow extension/ wrist flexion C8 Ulnar deviation/ thumb extension T1 None (finger abduction and adduction)
How do you convert Fahrenheit to Celsius?
C= (F-32) ÷ 1.8
Who is the current accrediting body for athletic training education programs?
CAATE (Committee for Accreditation of Athletic Training Education). 2007 it was officially recognized
What was ABC changed to in 2010 by the American Heart Association?
CAB- circulation, airway, breathing
All coaches should be certified in what?
CPR, AED, and first aid
What are the 2 certifications offered from the NSCA?
CSCS- Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist CPT- Certified Personal Trainer
What is the treatment for someone suffering from exertional heat stroke? Recommendations for RTP after?
Call ems immediately. Aggressive whole body cooling is the main goal. Get athlete into cool environment, strip clothing, and immerse athlete in cold water bath (35-58 degrees F ~2-14 degrees C). If not possible, sponge patient with cool water and far. Ice bags should be placed at neck and other major arterial vessels. Rectal temp should be lowered to 101. Cool then transport. Avoid exercise minimum of a week and gradually return to full practice being asymptomatic and cleared by physician.
What is the caloric balance equation? What's positive and what's negative?
Caloric balance= Number of calories consumed-Number of calories expended Positive= more calories consumed then expended, weight gain Negative= more calories expended then consumed, weight loss
What are the current percentages recommended for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?
Carbohydrates 55-60% Fats 25-30% Proteins 15-20%
What is the body's most efficient source of energy? What percent should make up our total caloric intake?
Carbohydrates, 55-60%
What are the six classes of nutrients?
Carbohydrates, Fats (also called lipids), Proteins, Vitamins, Minerals, and Water
What are the caloric content of carbohydrates, proteins, fat, and alcohol?
Carbohydrates= 4 cals/g Protein= 4 cals/g Fat= 9 cals/g Alcohol= 7 cals/g
Difference between a furnuncle and a carbuncle?
Carbuncle is larger and deeper and usually has several openings in the skin
What term describes "the ability to perform whole-body large-muscle activities for extended periods of time"? Why is important to be fit in this?
Cardiorespiratory endurance This system supplies oxygen to the whole body making it critical for performance and for preventing undue fatigue that may predispose the person to injury
To determine circulation in an emergency situation which main artery do you use?
Carotid
What is considered level 4 evidence?
Case reports/studies
What are the different types of research?
Case studies, case-control studies, cohort studies, randomized controlled trials, clinical practice guidelines, narrative reviews, systematic reviews and meta analyses
What is considered level 3 evidence?
Case-Control Studies A. Systematic reviews of case controlled studies B. Individual case-control studies
What do histamines do?
Cause vasodilation and increased cell permeability
Nonthermal effects of ultrasound include cavitation and microsteaming. Describe these
Cavitation- formation of gass filled bubles that expand and compress. Increases flow in fluid around vibrating bubbles Mucrosteaming- unidirectional movement of fluids along boundaries of cell membranes resulting from mechanical pressure alters cell membrane structure and function which aid in healing
What term describes "infectious inflammation of deep skin structures characterized by a reddening of the skin called erythema and by increased warm"?
Cellulitis
What is accommodating resistance?
Change in resistance at different points in the range. cam systems do this
What are the different levels of frost bite? Example characteristics of each
Chilblains- prolonged and constant exposure to cold for many hours. Skin shows reddness, swelling, tingling and pain in fingers and toes Superficial frostbite- involves skin and subcutaneous tissue. Skin appears pale, hard, cold, and waxy, hard. Rewarm by immersing in warm water (100-110 degrees F). do not rub Deep frostbite- serious injury, tissues are frozen. Requires medical hospitalization. Initially tissue is cold, card, pale/white, numb. Gradual rewarming (hot drink, heating pad, warm water bottle, etc). tissues become blotchy red, swollen, and extremely painful and later results in loss of tissue (gangrenous)
What is the best known sterol (type of fat)? What type of food is it found in? What is the recommended amount?
Cholesterol The AHA (american heart association) recommend consuming less than 300 mg/day
What term describes "exercise stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and aerobic exercises"?
Circuit Training
What are ways to assess maturity of athletes?
Circumpubertal (sexual maturity), skeletal, and dental
Where is the largest percent of certified athletic trainers employed?
Clinics and hospitals (more than 40%)
What is the difference between clonic and tonic muscle spasms?
Clonic= involuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession Tonic= Type of muscle contraction characterized by constant contraction that lasts for a period of time
What's the difference between a closed and open fracture?
Closed- fracture doesn't penetrate superficial tissue Open-Overlying skin is lacerated by protruding bone fragments
What database is comprised of the highest level of evidence and is considered the gold standard of databases? What type of articles does it contain?
Cochrane Only systematic reviews
What is considered level 2 evidence?
Cohort Studies A. Systematic reviews of cohort studies B. Outcome research C. Cohort studies with little standard deviation D. Outcome studies
During the application of cold, the patient experiences a progression of sensations which include?
Cold, Burning, Aching, Numb
What organs are in the left lower quadrant?
Colon, small intestine, ureter, bladder
What is tested during a urinalysis? What are normal values? What does abnormal amount tell us?
Color: yellow to amber and clear (blood) Specific Gravity: 1.015-1.025 (kidney ability) Osmolarity: 500-800 mosm/kg water pH: 4.6-4.8 (acidic-diabetes/dehydration, basic- UTIs/alkaline) Uric Acid: 250-750 mg/day Urea: 23-25 g/24 hr Creatine: 1-2 g/24 hr Nitrate -> kidney infection Ketones -> diabetes
What does a 5/5 muscle grad tell us?
Complete ROM against gravity with full resistance
What does a 4/5 muscle grad tell us?
Complete ROM against gravity with minimal/some resistance
What does a 3/5 muscle grad tell us?
Complete ROM against gravity with no resistance
What does a 2/5 muscle grad tell us?
Complete ROM with gravity eliminated
What is the difference between complete and incomplete amino acids?
Complete- or high quality, contain all the essential amino acids that humans require and are from animal foods Incomplete- don't contain all the essential amino acids, usually from plant sources of food. Beans and legumes are examples
Is starch a simple or complex carbohydrate? What are they made up of? What are some foods that are high in starch?
Complex - long chains of glucose units Rice, potatoes, and bread
What is the difference between a concentric and eccentric muscle contraction?
Concentric (positive) the muscle shortens and eccentric (negative) the muscle lengthens while contracting against resistance
When training to develop muscular strength, the concentric (+) portion should require _ - _ seconds and the eccentric (-) portion should require _ - _ seconds
Concentric 1-2 seconds Eccentric 2-4 seconds
What is hyponatremia? What is the cause?
Condition involving a fluid/electrolyte disorder that results in abnormally low concentration of sodium in the blood. Typically the cause is ingesting too much fluid before, during, or after exercise that the concentration of sodium in the body decreases. This can also occur as a result of sweating out the sodium without replenishing
What is the contract-relax technique?
Contract-relax. Athlete brought into stretch passively by AT. Athlete then pushes into AT and will move ISOTONICALLY out of stretch position for 10 seconds then relaxes both antagonist and agonist muscles. Then will be brought back into stretch and repeated. This should be repeated at least 3 times. HS: AT passively flexes hip until slight discomfort. At this point, pt begins pushing against AT by contracting hamstring ISOTONICALLY so that the leg actually moves towards the floor during the push phase. After actively pushing isotonically for 10 seconds, relax both hamstring and quad while AT passively brings back to stretch until slight discomfort. Then repeat.
What terms describes "an abnormal shortening of muscle tissue in which there is a great deal of resistance to passive stretching. Associated with unyielding and resisting scar tissue"?
Contracture
The length of the suctioning tube used to clear substances in airway should be measured how?
Corner of the mouth to the same side ear lobe
What are the three body planes? Which motions occur in each direction?
Coronal (frontal)- Abduction/adduction Sagittal- Flexion/extension Transerve- Internal and external protation, supination, pronation, rotation
What does accident insurance cover?
Cover accidents that occur on school grounds while student is in attendance or accidents that occur in the workplace
What does secondary health insurance cover?
Covers the remainder of the medical bills once the personal insurance company has made its payment. Always include a deductible that isn't covered by the plan. Most institutions offer this insurance
What does CAPs and CATs stand for?
Critically Appraised Papers and Critically Appraised Topics
What does CPT stand for and what are they used for?
Current Procedure Terminology code (CPT) is used to identify specific medical procedures used in treating a patient (ex 97014 for electrical stim)
What term describes "Enscapsulated, fluid-filled lesion in the dermis or subcutis"? What are some examples of this?
Cyst Ex: epidermoid cyst
Athletic trainers may be certified in first aid through which organization (s): A. American Red Cross B. American Heart Association C. National Safety Council D. A and C E. All of the above
D. A and C
External bleeding can usually be managed by which of the following? A. Pressure Points B. Direct pressure C. Elevation D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What is the mission statement of the NASM?
Dedicated to transforming lives and revolutionizing the health and fitness industry through its unwavering commitment to deliver innovative education, solutions, and tools that produce remarkable results
What does the suffix "-osis" stand for?
Degeneration of
Muscle soreness is associated with what?
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) which appears about 12 hours after injury and becomes most intense 24-28 hours post exercise (resolves around 3-4 days)
What are the 5 stages of grief?
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
What order are ingredients presented in on food labels?
Descending order of predominance/amount contained
What are symptoms of staleness?
Deterioration in usual standard of performance, chronic fatigue, apathy, loss of appetite, indigestion, weight loss, and an inability to sleep or rest properly. Higher BP or pulse rate. Boredom, restlessness, irritability
What may be examined in a wellness screen?
Diet, exercise, sleep/rest, and weight control, along with alcohol, drugs, tobacco, and stress
How do you measure a NPA? How do you know it's properly fitted? Who shouldn't this be used with?
Distance from nostril to the same side earlobe. Flared end should rest just outside the nasal passageway. Patients with head trauma
What is the role of platelets in the healing process?
Don't normally stick to vascular wall but injury exposes collagen fibers under wall causing a sticky matrix forming plug. Plug obstructs local lymphatic fluid drainage and thus localize the injury response
What is the primary survey and what does it assess?
Done initially to assess life threatening injuries. It includes level of consciousness, airway, breathing, circulation, severe bleeding, and shock
What is the dry bulb temperature, wet bulb temperature and globe temperature?
Dry bulb temperature= Standard mercury temperature Wet bulb temperature= wet wick or piece of gauze wrapped around end of thermometer that is swung around in the air Globe temperature= measure's suns radiation and has a black casings round the end of the thermometer WBGT= 0.1xDBT + 0.7xWBT + 0.2xGT
What type of warm up involves continuous movement (forward/backward/sideways) using hopping, skipping, and bounding activities with several different footwork drills and patterns? What are some benefits?
Dynamic Warm-up Enhances coordination and motor ability, prepare muscles/joints for the specific activity, forces individual to focus and concentrate, gets many muscle groups at once
What type of stretching involves "controlled stretches recommended prior to beginning an activity"?
Dynamic stretching
Athletic trainers may be certified in CPR and the use of AEDS through which organization (s): A. American Red Cross B. American Heart Association C. National Safety Council D. A and B E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What is the difference between the effective radiating area and the beam nonuniformity ratio?
ERA: the portion of the transducer that produces sound energy BNR: the amount of variability in intensity of the ultrasound beam (should be 1:1)
Which muscle contraction is stronger: concentric or eccentric?
Eccentric because they require a much lower level of motor unit activity to achieve a certain force than do concentric contractions
With moderate exercise the increase in temperature of skeletal muscles alters the mechanical properties of muscles causing the elasticity of the muscle to _____ and the viscosity of the muscle to _____
Elasticity to INCREASE (ability to be stretched) Viscosity to DECREASE (rate at which muscle can change shape, can change shape more rapidly pg 90)
What are the degrees of motion of the elbow flexion? Elbow extension?
Elbow Flexion: 145 Extension: 0
What is hyperthermia?
Elevated body temperature
When checking football shoulder pads, what should the epaulet cover and how do you check the cantilever is properly fitted?
Epaulet should cover deltoid Hand should be able to slide by cantilever
What term describes "the study of factors affecting the health and illness of individuals and populations"?
Epidemiology
What are the three layers of skin?
Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous (hypodermis)
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by what virus?
Epstein-Barr virus (member of herpes group)
What is the difference between an essential nutrient and a nonessential nutrient?
Essential nutrient needs to be supplied by diet (macros and some micros) while nonessential nutrients can be made by the body or other sources (cholesterol from liver, vitamin D from the sun, etc)
What does the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) take into affect? What does the index tell us?
Estimate the effect of temperature, humidity, wind speed (wind chill), and visible and infrared radiation (usually sunlight) on humans. Gives recommendation for the work/rest ration, water per hour, and tells us what heat category it is
How often should pulse/breathing be checked during CPR? What about for "hands only CPR"
Every 2 minutes or 5 cycles ("hands only CPR" don't check they just do uninterrupted chest compressions 100 a minute)
What term describes "making clinical decisions based on supporting evidence available in the literature"?
Evidence based practice
What is hyperhidrosis? Why would an astringest be used with this patient?
Excessive perspiration Astringest shrinks pores
What is imeptigo contagiosa? Treatment?
Extremely common skin disease where a beta-hemolytic streptococci or s. aureus or combo of these two bacteria infect an individual. Treatment include topical antibiotics
What are exertional heat cramps? What is the suspected cause? How can you prevent these?
Extremely painful muscle spasms that occur most commonly in the calf and abdomen Thought to be related to excessive loss of water and several electrolytes or ions (esp sodium but also chloride, potassium, magnesium, and calcium) Adequate replacement of electrolytes/ions and most importantly, fluids. Salt tablets may help and also bananas
True or False: The athletic trainer can remove just the helmet without removing the shoulder pads
FALSE- must remove both as removing one and not the other will place the cervical spine into flexion or extension
True or False: Vitamin requirements increase during exercise
FALSE- they don't
What is cranial nerve 7? How is it tested?
Facial, motor nerves of facial expressions; taste; control of tear, nasal, sublingual salivary and submaxillary glands
What does the body rely on once the muscle and liver glycogen is depleted?
Fat stored in adipose tissue
What is the primary energy source? What percent is dietary recommended caloric intake?
Fat, 25-30%
What are symptoms of dehydration?
Fatigue, vomiting, nausea, exhaustion, fainting, lethargy, irritability, thirst, possibly cramps, and possibly death
What is FIMS? When was it established and what does it do today?
Federation International de Medecine Sportive -Created in 1928 at the Olympic Winter Games in St. Mortiz, Switzerland -Promotes the study and development of sports medicine throughout the world
What is the percent of body fat of the average college-age female and male?
Female 20-25% (10-18 in endurance) Male 12-15% (8-12 in endurance)
What fat percentage should average-aged college females and males not go below? and why?
Females 12% Males 3% Tend to lose their protective passing of essential fat, potentially subjecting them to injury
What body weight percentages for females and males are considered obese? What is obese?
Females >30% Males >20% Obesity= excessive amount of body fat
If fiber is not digested, what is the importance of consuming it?
Fiber aids in normal elimination by reducing the amount of time required for wastes to move through the digestive tract. Fiber is thought to reduce risks of colon cancer and coronary artery disease along with obesity, appendicitis, diabetes, constipation, and colitis. Soluble forms bind to cholesterol passing through and prevents its absorption reducing cholesterol levels in blood.
Where is fiber found and is it digestible by humans?
Fiber is found in the structural part of plants and is not digested by humans
What are casts made out of?
Fiberglass
What is thought stopping?
Focusing on the undesired thoughts and stopping them with the command "stop" or a loud noise. After the thought interruption, a positive statement is inserted
What are nutrient-dense foods (definition)?
Foods that supply adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals in relation to caloric value
Symptoms of burnout?
Frequent headaches, gastrointestinal disturbances, sleeplessness, and chronic fatigue. Depersonalization, increased emotional exhaustion, reduced sense of accomplishment, cynicism, and depressed mood
What theory describes "asserts that non-painful input closes the nerve "gates" to painful input, which prevents pain sensation from traveling to the central nervous system. Therefore, stimulation by non-noxious input is able to suppress pain"?
Gate control theory- like rubbing injury
What are the 4 components of patellar orientation?
Glide, tilt, rotation, and anteroposterior (AP)
What does GRC stand for and what are they used for?
Global Rating of Change- used to gauge whether the injury has gotten better or worse and then use that info to determine the efficacy of a particular treatment or to guide future injury management decisions
What is cranial nerve 9? How is it tested?
Glossopharyngeal, swallowing, salivation, gag reflex, sensation from tongue and ear
What is the difference between glucose and glycogen?
Glucose is derived from the breakdown of carbohydrates. When the glucose is not immediately needed it is stored in the resting muscle, as glycogen, and in the liver which can later be converted back to glucose which can later be metabolized within the muscle cells to generate ATP.
What are the three monosaccharides?
Glucose, Fructose, Galactose
What are the three grades of strains?
Grade 1: Some muscle fibers have been stretched or actually torn. Some tenderness and pain on active motion. Movement is painful but full ROM is possible Grade 2: Number of muscle fibers torn and active contraction is extremely painful. Usually depression or divot can be felt in muscle belly. Some swelling may occur or discoloration. Grade 3: A complete rupture of the muscle has occur in the area at which the muscle where it turns to tendon or at the tendinous attachment to the bone. Often the muscle bunches
What are the different grades of sprains?
Grade 1: Some stretching a separation of ligament fibers, with minimal instability of the joint. Mild to moderdate pain, localized swelling, and joint stiffness should be expected Grade 2: Some tearing and separation, with moderate instability. Moderate to severe pain, swelling, and joint stiffness should be expected Grade 3: Total tearing of the ligament, which leads to instability. Can result in subluxation. Initially severe pain followed by little or no pain as a result of disruption of nerve fibers. Lots of swelling and stiffness. May require surgery.
What form is typically used to file an insurance claim? What about for Blue Cross Blue Shield?
HCFA-1500 or HCFA-145 (Blue Cross Blue Shield UB-92)
What is the heart rate reserve?
HHR (heart rate reserve) is used to determine exercise heart rates HRR= HRmax - HRrest
What equation is used to find the maximal heart rate for adults?
HRmax= 220-age (for example a 20 year old, 220-20=200 bpm)
What are lightening detectors?
Handheld instrument that detects the presence and distance of lightning/thunderstorm activity occurring within a 40 mile radius
What is the most common airway opening technique? What is another method?
Head-tilt/chin-lift, modified jaw thrust
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
What does HMO stand for? How much does it typically pay and under what stipulation?
Health Maintenance Organization (HMOs) typically pay 100% as long as the care is rendered at an HMO facility. Provides preventative measures and limits where individuals can receive care
What are athletic trainers?
Health care professionals who specialize in preventing, recognizing, managing, and rehabilitating injuries. In cooperation with physicians, other allied health personnel, administrators, coaches, and parents, the AT functional as an integral member of the health care team in clinics, secondary schools, colleges and universities, professional sports programs, and other athletic health care settings.
What are some of the adverse side affects of ephedrine?
Heart attack, stroke, tachycardia, paranoid psychosis, depression, convulsions, fever, coma, vomiting, palpitations, hypertension, and respiratory depression
What is heat syncope? What is it caused by?S/sx? Rx?
Heat collapse, rapid physical fatigue during overexposure to heat Caused by standing in heat for long periods of time or by not being accustomed to exercising in heat. it is caused by peripheral vasodilation of superficial vessels, hypotension, or pooling of blood in the extremities, which results in dizziness, fainting and nausea. Quickly relieved by laying athlete down in cool shaded environment, elevating lower extremities and replacing fluids
Measuring rectal temperature is critical to differentiate what two conditions?
Heat exhaustion and heat stroke. Heat exhaustion is below 104 while heat stroke is above 104
The highest incidence of indirect sports death results from what?
Heatstroke
What are some things that are included in a pre-participation screening?
Height, weight, blood pressure, body comp Physician should concentrate on cardiovascular, respiratory, abdominal, genital, dermatological, and ear, nose, and throat systems. Orthopedic: ROM, muscle strength, and functional tests to assess joint stability. Blood tests and urinalysis may be included
What do phagocytes do?
Help attract phagocytes
OSHA mandates that any employee who is at risk to blood borne pathogens must be offered what vaccination?
Hepatitis B
What does glycogen super-compensation include?
High-carbohydrate diet, which allows for maximizing the amount of glycogen stored particularly in muscles. Used for endurance events only of value in long-duration events that produce glycogen depletion such as marathons and should only be only not more than 2-3 times a year
What are the degrees of motion of hip abduction? hip adduction?
Hip Abduction: 45 Adduction: 40
What are the degrees of motion of hip flexion? hip extension?
Hip Flexion: 125 Extension: 10
What are the degrees of motion of hip internal rotation? hip external rotation?
Hip IR: 45 ER: 45
Which three chemical mediators are important in swelling in the healing response?
Histamines, leukotrienes, and cytokienes
What does HOPS stand for?
History, Observation, Palpation, Special Tests
What is the hold-relax technique?
Hold-relax. Athlete brought into stretch passively by AT. Athlete then pushes into AT ISOMETRICALLY for 10 seconds then relaxes both antagonist and agonist muscles. Then brought back into stretch and repeated. This should be repeated at least 3 times. HS: AT passively flexes hip until slight discomfort. At this point, pt begins pushing against AT by contracting hamstring ISOMETRICALLY so that the leg actually does not move during the push phase. After actively pushing isometrically for 10 seconds, relax both hamstring and quad while AT passively brings back to stretch until slight discomfort. Then repeat.
What is cardiac output? CO= _____ x _____ How much does CO increased with exercise?
How much blood the heart is capable of pumping in exactly one minute CO= Stroke volume x HR (around 5L) Typically increases to 4x resting CO and can be as much as 6x with elite endurance athletes
What is the difference between hypertrophy and atrophy?
Hypertrophy is the increase/enlargement of a muscle caused by an increase in the size of its cells in response to training while atrophy is a decrease of a muscle caused by a decrease in the size of its cells because of inactivity
What is cranial nerve 12? How is it tested?
Hypoglossal, tongue movement, speech, swallowing
When attempting to clear an obstructed airway for an unconscious patient, what should the AT do?
If chest isn't rising and falling, perform 30 chest compressions then look and perform a finger sweep. Repeat until breathing returns
What is conductive heat exchange?
Involves physical contact with other objects than can result in heat loss or gain. An example of this might include practicing on the turf on a hot day (modalities this includes hot packs and paraffin)
What does general health insurance cover?
Illness, hospitalization, and emergency care
How should you treat a patient suffering from heat exhaustion?
Immediately remove and take to shaded or air conditioned area. Excess clothing or equipment should be removed and the athlete should lie down with feet elevated. Cooling efforts should continue until rectal temp has lowered to 101. Rehydration with water and sports drink. Monitor vitals. Transfer to emergency facility if s/sx don't improve
What did the Cramer family start?
In the early 1920's the Cramer family started a chemical company and began producing a liniment (lotion/liquid) to treat ankle sprains
What is the glycemic index? What are the different categories? Which categories are suggested prior to activity?
Indicates how much different types of carbohydrate effect blood glucose levels. Low (<55) -> fruits, milk, veggies, nuts Medium (56-69)-> spaghetti, bagel, mac n cheese High (>70) ->bread, white rice, baked potato, popcorn Low-medium as these only produce a smaller fluctuation in blood glucose
What does the suffix "-itis" stand for?
Inflammation of
What is tenosynovitis?
Inflammation of a tendon and its synovial sheath
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of bursae at sites of bony prominence between muscle and tendon
What are the three phases of healing? How long do they last?
Inflammatory response phase (4 days) Fibroblastic repair phase (6 weeks) Maturation-remodeling phase (2-3 years)
What is the immediate treatment for muscle cramps?
Ingestion of large quantities of fluids, preferably a sports drink, and mild, prolonged stretching with ice massage of muscle in spasm (often likely to return with activity)
What is prolotherapy (proliferation therapy)?
Injecting an irritant solution into a tendon or ligament to facilitate healing (increases inflammatory response)
What is the term with the definition "damage to the body that restricts activity or causes disability"?
Injury
What is MyPlate?
Introduced in 2011, MyPlate is the governments primary food group symbol designed to help consumer adopt health eating habits consistent with the 2010 dietary guidelines for americans
What is convective heat exchange?
Involves a mass of either air or water moving around an individual resulting in heat gain or loss. An example of this might include a cool breeze removing heat from the body surface (modalities this includes hot and cold whirlpools)
What is radiant heat exchange?
Involves heat by radiation. An example of this include the sun increasing body temperature or on a cloudy day your skin may radiate heat (modalities this includes shortwave diathermy)
What is hydrostatic weighing? What are some cons of this?
Involves placing a subject in a specially designed underwater tank to determine body density. Fat tissue is less dense than lean tissue; therefore, more the body floats the more fat present. Compare the weight of the submerged individual with weight before entering Cons: expensive, time consuming, subjects must exhale and hold breath, and many subjects have fears about this technique
What is bioelectrical impedance? Cons?
Involves the measurement of resistance to the flow of electrical current through the body between selected points. Based on the idea that resistance will flow through tissue with least resistance. Fat is poor conductor so the higher percentage of body fat=greater resistance. Cons= expensive, can be affected by hydration, requires software
What is progressive relaxation?
Involves the tensing of each muscle group for 5-7 seconds followed by 20-30 seconds of relaxation
What term describes "lack of blood supply to a body part"?
Ischemia
Which type of study provides the least amount of rigor and which provides the most?
Least- case studies Most- meta analysis
What does SWOT stand for and what is it used for?
It's a strategic planning technique used to organize Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
Who is covered by errors and omissions liability insurance and what is it for?
It's designed to cover school employees, officers, and the district against suits claiming malpractice, wrongful actions, errors and omissions, and acts of negligence
What does the NOCSAE helmet standard mean?
It's not a warranty but simply a statement that a particular helmet model met the requirements of performance tests when it was manufactured or reconditioned
What is a Jersey deformity: PIP/DIP? What is it caused by? Treatment?
Jersey deformity DIP unable to flex Caused by fingers flexed and is pulled away causing overextension. Ruptures flexor digitorum profundus tendon Splint in flexion then surgery
What is circadian dysrhythmia?
Jet-Lag: Disruption of biological and biophysical time clock resulting in fatigue, headache, problems with digestive system, and changes in blood pressure, heart rate, hormonal release, endocrine secretions, and bowel habits (jet lag only occurs when flying from east to west) sometimes even blurred vision, dizziness, insomnia, and extreme fatigue.
What is the Maitland's grading system for?
Joint Mobilizations Grade I: Small amplitude glide at beginning of ROM. When pain and spasm limit movement early in motion Grade II: Large amplitude glide midrange of movement. Again pain and spasm but in midrange Grade III: Large amplitude glide full ROM. Used for pain, spasm, inert tissue tension, or tissue compression limit ROM Grade IV: Small amplitude glide at the end of ROM. Used when resistance limits ROM in absence of pain and spasm Grade V: Small amplitude quick thrust delivered at end of ROM- manipulation (typically involves popping) Used when minimal resistance limits end of range. ATs CANT PERFORM MANIPULATIONS
What is the Mulligan technique?
Joint mobilizations where the patient performs movements assisted by AT
In what year did athletic training officially become recognized as an allied health care profession by the American Medical Association (AMA)?
June 1990
For maximal protection, the shin guard should extend from ______ to ______
Just below the tibial tubercle proximally to just above the malleoli distally
Where was the first meeting/formation of NATA?
Kansas City, Missouri
What are the degrees of motion of knee flexion? knee extension?
Knee Flexion: 135 Extension: 0
What actions are used to test myotomes L1-S4?
L1 None L2 Hip flexion L3 Knee extension L4 Ankle dorsiflexion L5 Hallux extension S1 Plantar flexion/ eversion/ knee flexion/ hip extension S2 Plantar flexion/ knee flexion/ hip extension S3 None S4 Bladder, rectum
D1 lower extremity pattern: flexion->extension
LE Flexion -Flexion, ER, adduction, dorsiflexion, inversion, toe extension Extension -Extension, IR, abduction, plantarflexion, eversion, toe flexion
D2 lower extremity pattern: flexion->extension
LE Flexion -Flexion, IR, abduction, dorsiflexion, eversion, toe extension Extension -Extension, ER, adduction, plantarflexion, inversion, toe flexion
Hypothermia is abnormally _____ body temperature
LOW
What mineral deficiency results in anemia? What is this mineral needed for and what are they symptoms?
Lack of iron results in anemia Iron is needed to properly form hemoglobin. When there is a deficiency, the oxygen-carrying ability of the red blood cells is reduced so muscles cannot obtain enough oxygen to generate energy s/sx: individual may feel tired and weak
What is lactose intolerance a result of?
Lack the enzyme, lactase, needed to digest the milk sugar lactose. Also called lactase deficiency
What is pediculosis?
Lice
Sports bras prevent the stretching of the _________
Ligaments of Cooper
Dysfunction or disease of what organ causes jaundice or yellowing of the skin?
Liver
What organs are in the right upper quadrant?
Liver, gallbladder, right kidney/adrenal gland (posterior), pancreas, colon
What are the three intensities for ultrasound?
Low 0.1-0.3 W/cm^3 Medium 0.4-1.5 W/cm^3 High 1.5-3 W/cm^3
Which of the six classes of nutrients are considered macronutrients? Micronutrients? What is the difference between the two?
Macronutrients: Carbohydrates, Fats, and Proteins -Absorbable components of food from which energy is derived Micronutrients: Vitamins, Minerals, and Water -Necessary for regulating
What term describes "a small, flat, circular discoloration smaller than 1/2 an inch in diameter"? What are some examples of this?
Macule Ex: freckle or flat nevus cafe au lait macule (spot)
How should you treat a patient with shock?
Maintain body temperature as close to normal as possible. Elevate legs 8-12 inches off the ground.
What is a Mallet deformity: PIP/DIP? What is it caused by? Treatment?
Mallet Deformity DIP stuck in flexion Caused by direct blow to finger Splint in full extension
What's the difference between mallet and jersey finger?
Mallet: inability to EXTEND DIP Jersey: inability to FLEX DIP
What are the three disaccharides?
Maltose (2 glucose), Sucrose (fructose and glucose), and Lactose (galactose and glucose)
What do leuotrienes and protaglandins do?
Margination in which leukocytes (neutrophils and macrophages) adhere along the cell walls. Also increase cell permeability thus affecting passage of fluid, proteins and neurtophils through cell walls to form exudate in extravascular space. (267)
What is the purpose of the pre-game meal (what is it trying to maximize)? How soon before should the athlete consume this meal prior to practice or competition?
Maximize carbohydrates stored in in the muscles as well as blood glucose. It is suggested that the athlete consume carbs 3-4 hours prior to activity
What is tetany?
Maximum muscle contraction
How do you measure which OPA to use? How can you tell that it's fully inserted correcty?
Measure corner of mouth to ear lobe. Flange should lie on patients lips
What is the NASM and when was it founded? What is it's purpose? What does it offer?
National Academy of Sports Medicine -Established in 1987 by physicians, PTs, and fitness personnel -Focuses on the development, refinement, and implementation of educational programs for fitness, performance, and sports medicine professionals -Offers fitness certifications (CPT & Performance Enhancement Specialist) -Offers advanced credentials and more than 20 CE courses in various disciplines
If an AT is unable to measure the blood sodium levels in an athlete suspected of having hyponatremia, what should the next steps be?
Measures to rehydrate athlete should be delayed and athlete should be transported immediately to medical facility (deliver sodium, certain diuretics, and intravenous solutions)
What is a MeSH term? What does it do?
Medical subject headings Labels assigned to articles in order to describe what the article is about
What insurance can athletic trainers not treat in a clinical setting?
Medicare and medicaid
What does MRSA stand for? What is it treated with?
Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus Antibiotic (oral or through vein)
What are characteristics of typical bulmic patients?
Middle-upper class, white, perfectionist, obedient, over compliant, highly motivated, successful academically, well liked, and a good athlete. Typically is involved in sports such as gymnastics, track, dance, wrestling.
What does NATA stand for? What was the original purpose of them?
National Athletic Training Association To establish professional standards for Athletic Trainers
What is exertional heat exhaustion? What are the signs and symptoms?
Moderate form of heat illness that occurs from environmental heat stress and strenuous physical exercise. Athlete becomes dehydrated to the point that he or she is unable to sustain adequate cardiac output and thus cannot continue intense exercise S/sx: Rectal temp <104 degrees F, no evidence of CNS dysfunction. dizziness, headache, fatigue, dark colored urine, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle cramps
What's the difference between mono and biphasic?
Monophasic- direct current, flows from positive to negative pole (pulsed high volt) Biphasic- alternating current, flow reverses itself after each cycle. (pain modulation or muscle contraction)
Sugar is a simple carbohydrate. How is sugars further divided? What percent should be part of total caloric intake?
Monosaccharides and Disaccharides 15%
What are some professionals that make up the ACSM?
More than 45,000 medical doctors, doctors of philosophy, physical educators, athletic trainers, coaches, exercise physiologists, biomechanists, etc
What are indemnity plans?
Most traditional form of billing for health care. It's a fee-for-service plan that allows insured party to seek medical care without restrictions on utilization or cost. Provider charges the patient or a third-party payer for services provided. Charges based on set fee schedule. (personal liability insurance)
Based on the length-tension relationship, where is the most and least tension generated?
Most- the middle of the curve Least- beginning (shortened) and end (lengthened)
What term describes "the science of the substances in food that are essential to life"?
Nutrition
What is the difference between muscle cramps and muscle guarding?
Muscle cramps involves involuntary muscle contractions while muscle guarding is muscle contraction in response to pain
What two mechanoreceptors are important in the stretch reflex?
Muscle spindle and golgi tendon organs
What is the job of muscle spindle and golgi tendon organs?
Muscle spindles inform the CNS that the muscle is being stretched which causes a reflex contraction. Golgi tendon organs override the muscle spindle impulses if the stretch is held for an extended period of time (6 seconds). Causes a relaxation of the antagonist muscle without exceeding extensibility limits
What term describes "a stretch, tear, or rip in the muscle or its tendon"?
Muscle strain
What pieces make up a musculotendinous unit?
Muscle, tendon, and fascia that surrounds a muscle
What makes up the core?
Muscles of the lumbar spine, abdomen, hips, and pelvis
What term describes "a discreet, hypersensitive nodule within a taut band of skeletal muscle and/or fascia"? What is the difference between latent and active of this?
Myofascial trigger point Latent- doesn't cause spontaneous ppain but may restrict movement or cause muscle weakness Active- causes pain at rest and applied over point pt usually elicts jump sign (TTP)
Can an athletic trainer use a supraglottic airway?
NO, only EMTS and paramedics outside a hospital can
Should dislocations be reduced?
NO, should not be reduced immediately, regardless of where they occur
What organization has established voluntary test standards to reduce head injuries by establishing minimum safety requirements for football helmets/face masks; baseball/softball batting helmets; baseballs and softballs; and lacrosse helmets/face masks?
NOCSAE (National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
In what way should toe nails be clipped to avoid in grown toe nails?
Nail should be cut straight across
What does NCAA CSMAS stand for and what does it do?
National Collegiate Athletic Association Committee on Competitive and Safeguards and Medical Aspects of Sports Collects and develops pertinent information about desirable training methods, prevention and treatment of sports injuries, utilization of sound safety measures at the college level, drug education, and drug testing; disseminate information and adopts recommended policies and guidelines designed to further the objectives just listed; and supervises drug-education and drug-testing programs
What does NOCSAE stand for?
National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
What is NPI stand for and what is it?
National Provider Identifier (NPI) which is a 10 digit government-issued identification number for individual health care providers and provider organizations.
What is the NSCA? When was it formed? What is the purpose?
National Strength and Conditioning Association -Formed in 1978 -Facilitate a professional exchange of ideas in strength development as it relates to the improvement of athletic performance and fitness and to enhance, enlighten, and advance the field of strength and conditioning
What is sovereign immunity?
Neither the government nor any individual who is employed by the government can be held liable for negligence
What are some negative side effects of too much caffeine?
Nervousness, insomnia, headache, tachycardia, occasionally seizures, and rarely death
What term describes "interruption in conduction of an impulse down the nerve fiber"?
Neuropraxia
Afferent nerve fibers transmit impulses from the _____ toward the ______
Nociceptors, spinal cord
What term describes "solid mass less than .5 inch, deeper into the dermis than a papule"? What are some examples of this?
Nodule Ex: Dermatofibroma fibrosis
What is the difference between nonconsumable and consumable capital equipment?
Nonconsumable- Not usually removed from the athletic training room (ex. ice machine, treatment tables, hydroc) Consumable- Can be removed from the ATR (ex. crutches, coolers, kits)
What is the flash-to-bag method?
Number of seconds from lightning flash until the sound of thunder divided by 5 to determine the distance from lightning strike
Can OPAs and NPAs be used on unconscious and conscious patients?
OPAs should only be used on unconscious while NPAs can be used on both conscious and unconscious
What condition is characterized by "a combination of emotional and behavioral symptoms which are recurrent, inappropriate thoughts, feelings, or impulses arising from within that a person cannot eliminate by ignoring or neutralizing through other actions, even if they realize they are wrong"?
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
What is cranial nerve 3? How is it tested?
Oculomotor, eye movement
What is cranial nerve 1? How is it tested?
Olfactory, smell
Omission vs comission
Omission- failure to act Comission- doing something we shouldn't do
How often should electrical equipment in the athletic training room be reevaluated?
On a yearly basis and should conform to the National Electrical Code guidelines
Where should AED pads be placed on the patient?
One pad will go on the right upper chest just below the collarbone and above the right nipple. Second pad will go to the left of the left nipple so that the top edge of the pad reaches a few inches below the armpit.
A patient using a single crutch or cane should place the crutch/cane on the same or opposite side of the injured leg?
Opposite side - this is known as a tripod method. The patient steps forward using the injured leg and crutch (opposite side) then step with the uninjured
What is cranial nerve 2? How is it tested?
Optic, vision (reading something far away)
What is the difference between osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
Osteoblasts: Bone-producing cells Osteoclasts: Bone-remodeling cells
What term describes "a condition that results in a decrease in bone density"?
Osteoporosis
What is the disablement model and what sections does it include?
Outcome assessment which an eval and treatment model that looks at the functional loss due to a specific impairment and the associated impact on the quality of life (instead of focusing on medical diagnosis -Origin (impairment, tissue injured such as ACL) -Organ Level (specific impairements such as decreased ROM) -Person Level (functional limitations such as inability to cut/run) -Societal Level (social implications created by injury and its effects, such as cannot compete as midfielder on soccer team)
What does PICOT stand for?
P= Patient Population I= Intervention C= Comparison O= Outcome T= Time
What are cafe au lait spots? What condition may be related to 6 or more of these spots measuring 1.5 cm or more?
Pale brown areas of skin. May be a sign of neurofibromatosis which is a genetic disorder of the nervous system that primarily affects the development and growth of nerve cell tissues
What's the difference between pulsed and continuous ultrasound?
Pulsed- the output is periodically interrupted and no ultrasound energy is produced during the off period (10%, 20%, 50%) Continous- most commonly used to produce thermal effects (100%)
What term describes "an unexpected and unprovoked emotionally intense experience of terror or fear"?
Panic attack
What term describes "solid elevation less than .5 inch in diameter"? What are some examples of this?
Papule Ex: Wart
What condition is marked by having "unrealistic and unfounded suspicions about specific people or things", "individuals are constantly on guard and cannot be convinced their suspicions are not correct"?
Paranoia
What is paronychia and onychia?
Paronychia is purlent infection of the proximal and/or lateral nail folds and onychia is infection of the nail bed itself
What is the duty of care?
Part of the official job description
What are some of the professions that included in sports medicine?
Performance enhancement- Exercise physiology, biomechanics, sports psych, sports nutrition, strength and conditioning, coaching, and personal fitness training Injury care and management- Practice of medicine, athletic training, sports physical therapist, sports massage therapist, sports dentistry, osteopathic medicine, orthotics/prosthetic, sports chiropractic, sports podiatry, emergency medical technician
What term describes "an approach to conditioning that brings about peak performance while reducing injuries and over training in the athlete through a conditioning program that is followed throughout various seasons"?
Periodization
What term describes "a persistent and irrational fear of a specific situation, activity, or object that creates an intense desire to avoid the feared stimulus"?
Phobia
What are the benefits of using creatine?
Phosphocreatine is stored in skeletal muscle and used during anaerobic activity to produce ATP allowing for increased re-synthesis of ATP, increased intensity during workouts, prolonging maximal effort, improving exercise recovery time, stimulating protein synthesis, decreasing total cholesterol, improving HDL-LDL levels, decreasing total tryglycerides, and increasing fat free mass.
What does PHO stand for and who is involved?
Physician Hospital Organizations (PHO) involve major hospital or hospital chains and its physicians. Contracts directly with employers to provide services and or contracts with a managed care organization
What term describes "electrical current produced by applying pressure to certain synthetic crystals, such as quartz"? (hint: used in ultrasound)
Piezoleletric effect
Heel cups can be used for what conditions?
Plantar fasciitis, heel spurs, Achilles tendinitis, and heel bursitis
What term describes "macule or papule larger than .5 inch in diameter"? What are some examples of this?
Plaque or patch Vitiligo patch
What does POS stand for and what two plans does it combine?
Point of Service (POS)= HMO and PPO based on HMO structure but allows pts to go outside of HMO to obtain services under certain conditions
What term is defined as "clear and accurate written statements that identify the basic rules and principles used to control and expedite decision making"?
Policies
What condition is described as "individuals who suffer a psychologically traumatic even and may re-experience this event through nightmares or an exaggerated startle response"?
Posttraumatic-Stress Disorder
What is an inclinometer?
Precise measuring instrument which measure the angle which can be used for range of motion. Most often used in research settings
What does PPOs stand for and what do they do?
Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs) provide discount health care but also limit where a person can go for treatment. Pay on a fee-for-service basis.
What blood pressure reading is pre-hypertension? High blood pressure?
Prehypertension 120-139 /80-89 High -State 1: 140-159/90-99 -Stage 2: >160/>100
What are the three macrocycles of a training period?
Preseason, in-season, and off-season
What is the primary goal of ergonomics?
Prevent accidents and injuries by attempting to minimize risk factors, such as repetition, force, vibration, and awkward/static postures as they relate to musculoskeletal disorders
What are some of the possible advantages to antioxidants? Which vitamins are antioxidants?
Prevent premature aging, certain cancers, heart disease, and other health problems Vitamin C, E, and beta-carotene
What is a huge advantage to fartlek- why would it be used in off season?
Prevents boredom of conditioning using the same activity day after day
What are the signs and symptoms of heat rash? What is another name for this?
Prickly heat- red, raised rash accompanied by sensations of prickling and tingling during sweating. It usually occurs when the skin is continuously wet with unevaporated sweat where clothing lies and can be prevented by continually toweling body
What is the primary goal of the American Academy of Pediatrics, Sports Medicine Committee? Established?
Primary goal is to educate all physicians, especially pediatricians, about the special needs of children who participate in sports. Established in 1979. (developed guidelines that were incorporated into a report, Sports Medicine: Health Care for young Athletes, edited by Nathan J. Smith, M.D)
What are the pros and cons of skinfold measurement?
Pro- Easy, quick, inexpensive Cons-Accuracy (+/- 2-5%)
What term is defined as "the process by which something is done (the how)."?
Procedure
What term describes "liability of any or all parties along the chain of manufacture of any product for damage caused by that product including manufacturer of component parts and assembly, wholesaler, and retail store owner"?
Product Liability
What does PRE stand for?
Progressive Resistance Exercises
What are signs and symptoms of hyponatremia?
Progressively worsening headache, nausea and vomiting, swelling of the hands and feet, lethargy, apathy, agitation, low blood sodium (<130 mmol/L)
What stretching technique involves "stretching that involves combinations of alternating contractions and stretches?"
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
What term describes the process by which carbohydrates are used over protein? A supply of carbohydrates must be kept available to prevent the use of protein for energy
Protein-sparing action (of glucose)
What is the Good Samaritan Law?
Provides limited protection against legal liability to any person who chooses to provide first aid. (doesn't apply to someone who has a duty to act as dictated by the nature of his/her job)
What purposes does the synovial fluid have?
Provides lubrication, shock absorption, and nutrition to the joint
What does RICE stand for?
R- Rest I- Ice (30-60 minutes every 2 hours up to 3 days WE LEARNED 20 MINUTES) C- Compression E- Elevation
What is High School RIO?
RIO= Reporting Information Online. Internet-based data collection tool that looks at time-loss injuries in a national sample of US high school athlete which collects weekly data on athlete exposure, injury type, and the injury event. This is the National High School Sports-Related Injury Surveillance Study through the Center for Injury Research and Policy
What is considered level 1 evidence?
Randomized Controlled Trials A. Meta-analysis/systematic reviews of randomized controlled trials B. Randomized controlled studies with small standard deviation C. All or non studies
What is the pulse like in heat stroke? BP?
Rapid, strong pulse. Decreased BP
What is malignant hyperthermia?
Rare, genetically inherited muscle disorder that causes hypersensitivity to anesthesia and extreme exercise in hot environments. Muscles heat up faster than core and symptoms are similar to heat stroke. Athlete complains of muscle pain following exercise and rectal temp remains elevated 10-15 minutes after exercise while muscle tissue is being destroyed and products of this may damage kidneys and cause acute renal failure. May be fatal and athletes are disqualified from competing in hot, humid environments
What is basal metabolic rate?
Rate at which calories are spent for maintenance activities, body's vital functions, such as respiration, heart beat, circulation, and maintenance of body temperature
What occurs during the maturation-remodeling phase?
Realignment or remodeling of the collagen fibers that make up scar tissue according to tensile forces to which that scar is subjected to, increase strength of matrix.
What is the standard of reasonable care?
Requires that an AT acts according to the standard of care of an individual with similar education background or training.
What term describes "pain that is felt at a point of the body other than its origin"?
Referred pain
What does HIPAA regulate?
Regulates the sharing of private health information (PHI)
What is capitation?
Reimbursement used by managed care providers where members make a standard payment each month regardless of how much service is rendered (if any at all)
What is heat index based on?
Relative humidity (%) and Air temperature (degree Fahrenheit)
What is autogenic inhibition?
Relaxation of the antagonist muscle during contractions
Who had a major influence on developing athletic trainer into a specialist and how did he do this?
S. E. Bilik, he was a physician who wrote the first major text on AT and the care of athletic injuries, The Trainer's Bible, 1917
What are the s/sx of acute exertional rhabdomyolsis? What is the treatment?
S/sx: muscle weakness, swelling, renal dysfunction, sudden collapse, renal failure, and death. Has been associated with sickle cell trait Rx: Refer to physician immediately
What does SOAP stand for?
S: Subjective- what the athlete tells the AT about the injury and relative to history and what he/she felt O: Objective- information the AT gathers during the evaluation, including ROM, strength, patterns of pain, etc A: Assessment- records the ATs professional opinion about the injury based on the information obtained during the objective and subjective portions P: Plan- how the injury will be managed and includes short and long term goals
Which two scales that assess the level or quality of the evidence in specific research study?
SORT (strength of recommendation taxonomy) and CEBM (Oxford Centre for Evidence Based Medicine)
What are the different types of fats? What are they derived from and what state are they in at room temperature generally?
Saturated- Animal sources, solid at room temp Unsaturated- Plant sources, liquid at room temp Trans- physical properties of saturated fats. hydrogen is added to unsaturated fats to make them solid at room temp. Not essential and provide no known health benefit
What occurs in the fibroblastic repair phase?
Scar formation, breakdown of fibrib clot causes formation of delicate connective tissue (granulation tissue) which fills the gaps during the healing process. Capillaries regrow. Extracellular matrix begins to be formed by fibroblastic cells
What does truncating allow you to do?
Search for all terms associated with a word stem
What term describes "mental depression related to a certain season of the year"?
Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) - most often occurs in the winter months due to decrease in sunlight
What term describes "a cyst filled with sebum; usually found on the scalp"?
Sebaceous cyst
What measurement of body composition is based on the idea that about 50% of the fat in the body is contained in the subcutaneous fat layers and is closely related to total fat?
Skin fold
What is a statute of limitation?
Sets a specific length of time that individuals may sue for damages from negligence (time varies state to state but is typically 1-5 years- sometimes up to 3 years after minor turns 18 y.o)
Heat loss through evaporation is severely impaired when the relative humidity reaches _____ % and virtually stops when the relative humidity reaches _____%
Severely impaired 65% Virtually stops 75%
What is herpes zoster?
Shingles
What are the signs of shock? Is blood pressure low or high? Pulse- rapid or slow, strong or weak? Respiration- shallow or deep, rapid or slow? Skin?
Shock -Low blood pressure (systolic <90) -Pulse is rapid and weak -Respiration is shallow and extremely rapid -Skin is pale, cool, and clammy -Skin is pale, cool, and clammy -Drowsy and appears sluggish
What are the degrees of motion of the shoulder abduction? Shoulder adduction?
Shoulder Abduction: 180 Adduction: 40
What are the degrees of motion of the shoulder flexion? Shoulder extension?
Shoulder Flexion: 180 Extension: 50
What are the degrees of motion of the shoulder internal rotation? Shoulder external rotation?
Shoulder IR: 90 (typically less 80-90) ER: 90 (typically more 90-100)
What is contact dermatitis?
Skin reaction from allergen such as poison ivy/oak, fragrances, preservatives, detergents, etc. Causes reddness, swelling, and formation of vesicles that ooze fluid and form crust lasting from a day to a week. Can also cause constant itch
What are some different ways to measure body composition?
Skinfold thickness, hydrostatic, underwater weighing, and measurement of electrical impedance
Which type of fiber, I or II, correlates with slow-twitch and fast-twitch? What's the difference between the two types? Examples
Slow-twitch: Type I -Slow oxidative -Rich in mitochondria and myoglobin (red color) -Carry move oxygen and therefore are more resistant to fatigue -Long distance athletes Fast-twitch: Type II -Fast oxidative glycolytic (FOG) -Quick, forceful contractions -Mainly involve anaerobic systems -Can be divided in IIa (slowest), IIb, and IIx (fastest) -Sprinters, weightlifters
What are the three types of muscles in the body?
Smooth, cardiac and striated (skeletal)
What minerals are considered electrolytes?
Sodium, chloride, potassium, magnesium, and calcium
What are the two types of fibers? What do they include and what are some examples?
Soluble - includes gums and pectins - examples include oatmeal, legumes, and some fruit Insoluble - includes cellulose - examples include whole-grain cereals and bran cereals
Since the body cannot use starches and many sugars directly from food for energy, how are starches and disaccharides used?
Starches and disaccharides are broken down and converted into simple sugar glucose
What is the SAID principle? What does it stand for?
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands, "when the body is subjected to stresses and overloads of varying intensities, it will gradually adapt over to to overcome whatever demands are placed on it"
Efferent nerve fibers transmit impulses from the _____ toward the ______
Spinal cord, periphery
What term describes "Broad field of health care related to physical activity and sport"?
Sports medicine
What are the symptoms of imeptigo contagiosa? How is spread?
Spread by close contact with another (like wrestling) Sx: mild itching and soreness followed by eruption of small vesicles and/or pustules that rupture to form honey colored crusts
Squinting vs frog eyed knee caps?
Squinting point inward while frog eyed point outwards
What is the sling and swathe technique important for?
Stabilizes the arm securely in cases of shoulder dislocation or fracture
What type of stretching involves "passively stretching an antagonist muscle by placing it in a maximal stretch and holding it there"? What is the optimal time to hold the stretch there and how many times?
Static Stretching Research range from 3 seconds- 60 seconds. Recent data indicates 30 seconds may be optimal. Stretch should be repeated 3 or 4 times
What cycle is used in plyometrics?
Stetch-shortening. The eccentric contraction must be quick as potential energy is gaining in the muscle. After this contraction, the PE turns into kinetic energy giving the muscle lots of power so the action must be quick
What organs are in the left upper quadrant?
Stomach, spleen, left kidney, colon, pancreas (less)
What is the most critical difference between males and females regarding physical performance (ratio) and what is the cause of this?
Strength to body weight ratio, women have a reduced ratio as a result of higher percent of body fat
How should the sets and reps change for muscular strength vs endurance training?
Strength: Heavier weights with lower reps Endurance: Relatively low weights with higher reps (ideally 3 sets of 10-15 reps)
What does STROBE stand for?
Strengthening the Reporting of Observational Studies in Epidemiology (STROBE)
What is the training effect? (hint: relates to cardiac output)
Stroke volume increases while heart rate is reduced at a given exercise load. This is an adaptation where the heart becomes more efficient at pumping blood with each stroke
What's the difference between subuxlation and dislocation?
Subluxation= Bone comes partially out of its normal articulation Dislocation=A bone is forced out of alignment and stays out until surgically or manually replaced or reduced
What does SPF stand for? What does an SPF of 6 mean? Why is a higher number better?
Sun protection factor An SPF of 6 indicates that an athlete can be exposed to ultraviolet light six times longer than without a sunscreen before the skin begins to turn red Higher numbers provide longer periods of protection
How is MRSA spread? What are the symptoms?
Superficial abrasions and minor skin trauma. Sx include redness, swelling, and tenderness
Who is ultimately responsible for the diagnosis of an injury?
Team physician
What is a Swan neck deformity: PIP/DIP? What is it caused by? Treatment?
Swan Neck PIP in hyperextension, dip stuck in flexion Caused by
Furnuncles symptoms?
Sx: mostly back of neck, face, and butt. Enlarged, red and hard internal pressure. Mature and rupture emitting pus.
What is acute exertional rhabdomyolysis?
Syndrome characterized by sudden catabolic destruction and degeneration of skeletal muscle accompanied by leakage of myoglobin (muscle protein) and muscle enzymes into vascular system. It can occur in healthy during intense exercise in extremely hot and humid environmental conditions
What is burnout?
Syndrome related to physical and emotional exhaustion that leads to a negative self-concept, negative job or sport attitudes, or loss of concern for the feeling of others
_____ blood pressure is the pressure caused by the heart pumping. ______ blood pressure is the residual pressure when the heart beats. Regular blood pressure is _____/_____ mm Hg
Systolic, diastolic, 120/80 mm Hg
True or False: Extension cords or multiple adapters should never be used in the ATF with electrical equipment
TRUE
True or False: Muscle strength is proportional to the cross-sectional diameter of the muscle fibers
TRUE
True or False: The best way for an athletic trainer to avoid litigation is to follow exactly the manufactuer's instructions for using and maintaining protective equipment
TRUE
True or False: tendons and ligaments strength is increased with resistance exercises
TRUE- the strength of noncontractile structures such as ligaments and tendons are increased with strength training
What is the secondary survey and what does it assess?
Takes a closer look at the injuries- performed after life threatening injuries have been ruled out. Includes gathering specific information about patient, vital signs and symptoms, and allows for a more fetailed evaluation of the injury
Cupping, hacking, and pinching are all forms of what type of massage?
Tapotement
What is a plyometric exercise? The muscle stretch _____ followed immediately by a _____ contraction
Technique that includes specific exercises that encompass a rapid stretch of a muscle eccentrically followed immediately by a rapid concentric contraction of that muscle to facilitate and develop a forceful, explosive movement over a short period of time
What are isotonic muscle contractions?
Tension remains the same while the length changes. Shorten and lengthens through a complete ROM Concentric or eccentric
What hormone is critical for gaining muscle? What can too much of this hormone cause?
Testosterone Too much can lead to masculine characteristics such as increased facial and body hair, a deeper voice, and the potential to develop a little more muscle bulk
What term describes, "reimbursement by the policyholder's insurance company for services performed by health care professionals"?
Third-party reimbursement
What are fat soluble vitamins? Which vitamins are considered this?
They are found in the fatty portions of foods and in oils. They are stored in the body's fat and therefore its possible to consume excess amounts and show the effects of vitamin poisoning A, D, E, K
Why in the middle of a movement is the most tension able to be generated?
The myosin and actin myofilaments have maximum interaction at that position
What term describes "solid mass larger than .5 inch"? What are some examples of this?
Tumor Ex: Cavernous hemangioma (tumor filled with blood vessels)
What 7 locations are used for skin fold measurements?
Thigh, abdomen, suprailiac, pectoral (chest), mid axillary, subscapular, and triceps
What does TPA stand for and how does it work?
Third-Party Administrators are frequently used to administer services and to pay claims for self-insured group plans and thus function as pseudo insurance companies. Perform member services (enrollment/billing) and assist with controlling utilization without financial risk
Crutch fitting: The crutch tips should be placed _____ inches from the outer margin of the shoe and _____ inches in front of the shoe. The underarm crutch brace should be _____ inch below the anterior fold of the axilla. The hand brace is placed even with the patient's hand, with the elbow flexed approximately _____ degrees
The crutch tips should be placed SIX inches from the outer margin of the shoe and TWO inches in front of the shoe. The underarm crutch brace should be ONE inch below the anterior fold of the axilla. The hand brace is placed even with the patient's hand, with the elbow flexed approximately THIRTY degrees
What is negligence?
The failure to use ordinary or reasonable care
What is assumption of risk?
The individual, through express or implied agreement, assumes that some risk or danger is involved in the particular undertaking. In other words, a person takes his/her own chances Typically a signed waiver form signed by patient or parent/guardian
CAPs and CATs are scholarly papers that analyze what?
The level and quality of the evidence of a specific research study or topic, that is developed and written to answer the three questions (valid, reliable, applicable)
What happens to the liability of a piece of equipment when it's modified (such as taking helmet pads out)?
The liability of the manufacturer is voided
What is duty cycle?
The percentage of time the ultrasound is being generated
What is liability?
The state of being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person
What is stroke volume?
The volume of blood being pumped out with each heart beat. The heart pumps out about 70 ml of blood per beat
Why is being at an elevation a disadvantage? What happens?
There is a decrease in maximal oxygen uptake which causes a deterioration in athletic performance in endurance vents which the athlete's body compensates by increasing heart rate (tachycardia) and hyperventilation. Fewer red blood cells than necessary to adequately capture the available oxygen in the air
What are water soluble vitamins? What are some examples?
They cannot be stored to any significant extent in the body and should be supplied in the diet every day Vitamin C, B6, B12, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folate, biotin, and pantothenic acid
What is pulsatile?
Three or more pulses grouped together. Groups are interrupted for a short periods of time and repeat themselves at regular intervals
Put these steps of blood coagulation in order: fibrinogen, thromboplastin, insoluble fibrin clot, prothrobin, thrombin
Thromboplastin, prothrobin, thrombin, fibrinogen, insoluble fibrin clot
What term describes "fluid-filled elevation less than .5 inch just below epidermis"? What are some examples of this?
Vesicle Ex: Smallpox, chickenpox
What is the purpose of the AOSSM?
To encourage and support scientific research in orthopedic sports medicine; the organization works to develop methods for safer, more productive, and more enjoyable fitness programs and sports participation. Through the programs developed from the AOSSM, members receive specialized training in sports medicine, surgical procedures, injury prevention, and rehabilitation
What is the mission of the NATA?
To enhance the quality of health care provided by certified athletic trainers and to advance the athletic training profession
When wrapping/tapping, abnormally cold or blue colored phalanges/nailbeds is is a sign of?
Too tight-> cutting off circulation
Macrocycles can be divided into mesocycles. What are the three mesocycle periods?
Transition period- early part of off-season, generally unstructured, recreational Preparatory period- occurs in three phases 1. Hypertrophy/endurance (low intensity with high volume of reps) 2. strength (intensity/volume moderate, more specific to sport), and 3. power phase (high intensity at or near level of competition, volume decreased to ensure full recovery) Competition period- high intensity conditioning at low volume. More skill and strategy sessions.
What is cranial nerve 5? How is it tested?
Trigeminal, facial sensation
What is cranial nerve 4? How is it tested?
Trochlear, inferior and lateral eye movements
What does a 1/5 muscle grad tell us?
Twitch, muscle shows slight evidence of contractibility
What makes up a synovial joint?
Two articulating bones surrounded by a joint capsule lined with synovial membrane
What are the Salter-Harris Classifications?
Type 1- Separation of physis Type 2- Fracture-separation of growth plate and small part of metaphysis Type 3- Fracture- part of physis Type 4- Fracture- physis and metaphysis Type 5- crushing of physis with no displacement- may cause premature closure
Does professional liability insurance cover negligence in civil and criminal cases?
Typically civil but not criminal
How does long term insurance work with collegiate and high school athletes who suffer a catastrophic injury from sport?
Typically, organizations (collegiate NCAA and NAIA and high school NFHS) cover expenses for extensive medical and rehabilitative care once an amount of expense has been reached ($25k for college, $10k for high school) and not covered by insurance
D2 upper extremity pattern: flexion->extension
UE Flexion -Flexion, ER, supination, abduction, wrist extension, finger extension Extension -Extension, IR, pronation, adduction, wrist flexion, finger flexion
D1 upper extremity pattern: flexion->extension
UE Flexion -Flexion, ER, supination, adduction, wrist flexion, finger flexion Extension -Extension, IR, pronation, abduction, wrist extension, finger extension
What is the gold standard for assessing hydration status?
Urine color
What is Platelet-Rich Plasma injections?
Using blood plasma that has been enriched with platelets to stimulate healing of bone and soft tissue
What is maximum aerobic capacity?
VO2max- greatest rate at which oxygen can be taken in and used during intense exercise
What is cranial nerve 10? How is it tested?
Vagus, swallowing, speech; regulation of pulmonary, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal functions
What is cranial nerve 8? How is it tested?
Vestibulcochlear, hearing and equilibrium
What vitamin deficiency leads to night blindness?
Vitamin A (deep green fruits and veggies, milk) inability to see well at night or low lighting **** page 134 review vitamins/minerals
What vitamin deficiency leads to scurvy?
Vitamin C (fruits and veggies) Swollen joints, bleeding gums, fatigue, bruising
What vitamin deficiency is the cause of rickets?
Vitamin D Rickets- defective bone formation
What is verruca?
Warts
How should weight be monitored in heat at the beginning of the season?
Weight should be measure before and after practice for the first 2 weeks of practice or as long as hot, humid conditions persist. A loss of greater than 2% indicates athlete is severely dehydrated and should be held from practice until normal body weight has returned
What term describes "papule or plaque caused by serum collection into the dermis, allergic reactions"? What are some examples of this?
Wheal Ex: Urticaria
What occurs when the body runs our of usable glucose? What is used in it's place? What's wrong with this? What's the name of this process?
When the body experiences an inadequate intake of dietary carbohydrates, it uses protein to make glucose, but the protein is then diverted from its own important functions. protein sparing
What is an isometric muscle contraction?
When the muscle contracts to increase tension but NO CHANGE IN LENGTH
Low temperature outdoors accompanied by _____ and _____ can pose major problems for athletes
Wind and Dampness
What law states that bone and soft tissue will respond to the physical demands placed on them, causing them to remodel or realign along lines of tensile force?
Wolf's law
How do lacrosse helmets differ in men and women's?
Women only require a protective eye guard while men wear helmets. Goalies wear helmets and throat protects
What is the difference between work conditioning and work hardening?
Work conditioning- intensive rehab 3hrs, 3 days a week Work hardening- intensive therapy 8 hrs, 5 days a week
What are the degrees of motion of the wrist flexion? wrist extension?
Wrist Flexion: 80 Extension: 70
What are the degrees of motion of the wrist radial deviation? wrist ulnar deviation?
Wrist Radial Deviation: 20 Ulnar Deviation: 45
What is required for the release of a patient's medical records?
Written consent
Is creatine a banned substance by the NCAA?
Yes (since 2000)
Is ephedrine banned by the NCAA?
Yes, as it's a stimulant similar to amphetamine (meth is a category of this)
Which individuals are at particular risk (susceptible) to heat stress?
Young, elderly, overweight, relatively poor fitness levels, those with history of heat illness, and anyone with a febrile condition
winging scapula may indicate an injury to which nerve? Choose only one. a. Axillary b. Cranial c. Long thoracic d. Radial e. Musculocutaneous
c. Long thoracic
Under ordinary conditions, how long does it take approximately for a full meal to pass through the stomach and small intestine?
~4 hours