Private Pilot Study Unit 3: Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a: a. red light signal. b. pink light signal. c. green light signal.
A
A lighted heliport may be identified by a: a. green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. b. flashing yellow light. c. blue lighted square landing area.
A
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot: a. is cleared to land. b. should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. c. should return for landing.
A
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control? a. When advised by the tower to do so. b. Prior to turning off the runway. c. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
A
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? a. Northwest b. Northeast c. Southwest
A
At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected? a. Mode A/3, Code 1200. b. Mode F, Code 1200. c. Mode C, Code 4096.
A
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as: a. safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft. b. mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program. c. wind-shear warning at participating airports.
A
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. b. The other aircraft is crossing to the right. c. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
A
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? a. The other aircraft is flying away from you. b. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. c. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
A
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should: a. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. b. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds. c. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
A
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport? a. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. b. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings. c. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.
A
The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates: a. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. b. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. c. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.
A
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is: a. "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED." b. "FOUR POINT FIVE." c. "FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."
A
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code? a. 1200 b. 7600 c. 7700
A
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports: a. regardless of weather conditions. b. only when weather conditions are less than VFR. c. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
A
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? a. Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. b. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes. c. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
A
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is: a. "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." b. "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." c. "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
A
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying: a. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point. b. below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point. c. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
A
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? a. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. b. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. c. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
A
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected? a. 1200 b. 7600 c. 7700
A
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? a. When it will compromise safety. b. Only when the tower operator concurs. c. Pilots cannot decline clearance.
A
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)? a. Special Notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). b. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). c. 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules.
A
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace? a. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency. b. Contact the tower and request permission to enter. c. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
A
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi? a. Flashing green. b. Steady green. c. Flashing white.
A
Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace? a. 1200, Mode A/3. b. 1200, Mode F. c. 4600, Mode S.
A
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency? a. 121.5 MHz. b. 122.5 MHz. c. 128.75 MHz.
A
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? a. Pilot in command. b. Air Traffic Controller. c. Second in command.
A
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? a. Pilot in command. b. Owner/operator. c. Second-in-command.
A
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to: a. sink below the aircraft generating turbulence. b. rise into the traffic pattern. c. rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.
A
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits: a. white and green alternating flashes. b. two quick, white flashes between green flashes. c. green, yellow, and white flashes.
B
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is: a. four white lights. b. three white lights and one red light. c. two white lights and two red lights.
B
ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock," this advisory is relative to your: a. true course. b. ground track. c. magnetic heading.
B
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by: a. white directional lights. b. blue omnidirectional lights. c. alternate red and green lights.
B
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only: a. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. b. when the associated control tower is in operation. c. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
B
All operations within Class C airspace must be: a. on a flight plan filed prior to arrival or departure. b. in communications with the responsible ATC facility. c. in an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
B
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? a. east b. south c. west
B
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates: a. there are obstructions on the airport. b. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. c. the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
B
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to: a. hold position. b. exercise extreme caution. c. not land; the airport is unsafe.
B
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is: a. a white light signal. b. a green light signal. c. an amber light signal.
B
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall: a. maintain a 3° glide to the runway. b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. c. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
B
How can a military airport be identified at night? a. Alternate white and green light flashes. b. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. c. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
B
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code: a. 0000 b. 1200 c. 4096
B
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed: a. via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9. b. to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required. c. via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.
B
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be: a. flashing red. b. steady red. c. alternating red and green.
B
It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least: a. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. b. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. c. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
B
Most midair collision accidents occur during: a. hazy days. b. clear days. c. cloudy nights.
B
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should: a. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. b. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. c. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
B
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with: a. the controlling agency. b. all pilots. c. Air Traffic Control.
B
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating: a. in Class B airspace. b. in conditions of reduced visibility. c. within 15 miles of a towered airport.
B
The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that: a. this airport is designated as an airport of entry. b. the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station. c. this airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight Service Station.
B
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use: a. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. b. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector. c. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
B
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally: a. 10 NM. b. 20 NM. c. 30 NM.
B
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is: a. 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude. b. to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. c. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
B
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a: a. light, quartering headwind. b. light, quartering tailwind. c. strong headwind.
B
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on: a. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. b. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. c. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
B
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot: a. may continue taxiing. b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
B
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall: a. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold. b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. c. remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.
B
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft: a. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft. b. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. c. below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
B
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code? a. 1200 b. 7600 c. 4096
B
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? a. Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR. b. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. c. Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.
B
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? a. Runway identification and course guidance. b. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. c. Lateral course guidance to the runway.
B
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should: a. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land. b. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing. c. abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.
B
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall: a. maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI. b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. c. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
B
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a: a. pulsating white light. b. steady white light. c. pulsating red light.
C
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? a. Class B. b. Class C. c. Class D.
C
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to: a. taxi at a faster speed. b. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. c. return to the starting point on the airport.
C
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the: a. satellite airport's UNICOM. b. associated Flight Service Station. c. primary airport's control tower.
C
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that: a. weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums. b. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted. c. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
C
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? a. Between directly ahead and 90° to the left. b. Between directly behind and 90° to the right. c. Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
C
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? a. South b. North c. West
C
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is: a. a white light signal. b. a green light signal. c. an amber light signal.
C
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning: a. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. b. nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion. c. noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
C
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. b. The other aircraft is flying away from you. c. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
C
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations? a. Clearance delivery. b. Tower, just before takeoff. c. Ground control, on initial contact.
C
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? a. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. b. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. c. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
C
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? a. Inward, upward, and around each tip. b. Inward, upward, and counterclockwise. c. Outward, upward, and around each tip.
C
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed? a. Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan. b. Approach control services. c. Airport Advisory Service.
C
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should: a. monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories. b. contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern. c. contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
C
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides: a. IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft. b. warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. c. sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
C
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is: a. "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET." b. "TEN POINT FIVE." c. "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
C
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is: a. light, dirty, and fast. b. heavy, dirty, and fast. c. heavy, clean, and slow.
C
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on: a. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. b. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport. c. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
C
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use: a. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. b. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector. c. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
C
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately: a. 008° and 026° true. b. 080° and 260° true. c. 080° and 260° magnetic.
C
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately: a. 009° and 027° true. b. 090° and 270° true. c. 090° and 270° magnetic.
C
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally: a. 1,200 feet AGL. b. 3,000 feet AGL. c. 4,000 feet AGL.
C
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it: a. one time within 4 seconds. b. three times within 3 seconds. c. five times within 5 seconds.
C
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? a. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. b. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. c. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
C
What does the outbound destination sign identify? a. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. b. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.
C
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. c. Denotes intersecting runways.
C
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve? a. Provides general taxiing direction to named runway. b. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. c. Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
C
When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? a. The airspace designation normally will not change. b. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. c. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
C
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? a. 7200 b. 7000 c. 7500
C
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? a. When visibility is less than 1 mile. b. When parallel runways are in use. c. When departing from a runway intersection.
C
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to: a. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path. b. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport. c. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
C
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? a. Indicates direction to take-off runway. b. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. c. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport? a. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary. b. Make all turns to the left. c. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
C
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated? a. Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing. b. Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal. c. Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
C
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program? a. Recreational pilots only. b. Military pilots. c. Student pilots.
C
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is: a. operating at high airspeeds. b. heavily loaded. c. developing lift.
C
