Proficiency Review

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A patient's feeling of spinning, or the room spinning around them, is called: orthostatic hypotension vertigo epistaxis syncope

...

If a radiographic exposure requires 24 mAs, and a 200 mA station is used, the exposure time would be: 0.02 second 0.06 second 0.16 second 0.12 second

0.12 second

The lead equivalency for a pair of protective gloves must be at least ______ lead equivalent: 0.75 mm 0.25 mm 0.5 mm 1.5 mm

0.25 mm

What is the established monthly fetal dose-limit guideline for pregnant radiographers? 0.5 mSv 100 mSv 5 mSv 50 mSv

0.5 mSv

If the peak energy of the x-ray beam is above 100 kVp, the NCRP recommends that the lead apron should be ____ of lead equivalent. 5 mm 2.5 mm 0.25 mm 0.5 mm

0.5 mm

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration: 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, and 3

1 and 2 only

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. One view with humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. One view with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular. 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular. 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 only

1 and 2 only

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson's disease? 1. short exposure time 2. decreased SID 3. use of a compensating filter 1 and 2 only 1 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3

1 only

Distortion can be caused by: 1. tube angle 2. the position of the organ or structure within the body 3. the positioning of the part 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only

1, 2, and 3

Factors that determine the production of scattered radiation include: 1. field size 2. beam restriction 3. kilovoltage 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 only 1, 2, and 3

1, 2, and 3

The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates: 1. a lateral projection of the shoulder 2. anterior or posterior dislocation 3. an oblique projection of the shoulder 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, and 3 1 only

1, 2, and 3

When should gonadal shielding be used on a patient? 1. if the patient is of reproductive age or younger 2. if the shield will not interfere with the exam 3. if the gonads lie within 5 cm of the primary beam 1, 2, and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a good PA projection of the chest: 1. ten posterior ribs should be visualized 2. sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical scapulae should be outside the lung fields 1 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following factors influence (s) the production of scattered radiation? 1. kilovoltage level 2. tissue density 3. size of field. 1 and 3 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 1 only

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile? 1. Epicondyles parallel to the film 2. Arm in external position 3. Humerus in AP position. 2 and 3 only 1 only 1 and 3 only 1,2, and 3

1,2, and 3

Each time an x-ray photon scatters, its intensity at 1 m from the scattering object is what fraction of its original intensity? 1/500 1/10 1/1000 1/100

1/1000?

A primary barrier should be made of ______ inch thickness of lead: 1/20 1/16 1/6 1/36

1/16

A technique of 100 mA, ½ second at 80 kVp is converted to 100 mA, 1/8 second. In order to maintain the same exposure to the IR, what would be the new kVp? 106 kVp 92 kVp 100 kVp 96 kVp

106 kVp

A skull is normally radiographed using 300 mA, 1/10 second, and 70 kVp. What new mAs would produce the same exposure to the IR at 81 kVp? 7.5 15 5 10

How many degrees and in what direction is the ankle oblique for the Mortise view? 15 to 20 medially 15 to 20 laterally 45 degrees medially 35 to 40 laterally

15 to 20 medially

A decrease in kilovoltage will result in: 1. a decrease in image resolution 2. a decrease in photon energy 3. a decrease in exposure to the IR 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

The following projection(s) should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella has been ruled out: 1. AP knee 2. lateral knee 3. axial/tangential patella 1 only 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 1 only

2 and 3 only

Which projection(s) would be used to demonstrate pneumoperitoneum? 1. Right lateral decubitus 2. Left lateral decubitus 3. Upright. 2 only 2 and 3 only 1,2, and 3 1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen xiphoid process At iliac crest 2 inches above iliac crest T-7

2 inches above iliac crest

If the exposure rate to an individual standing 4 meters from a source of radiation is 10 mR/hour, what will be the dose received after 30 minutes at a distance of 6 meters from the source? 1.48 mR 2.2 mR 7.5 mR 4.44 mR

2.2 mR

The NCRP recommends a minimum filtration of ___________ for x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp. 1.0 mm Pb 2.5 mm Pb 1.0 mm Al 2.5 mm Al

2.5 mm Al

The radiation weighting factor for alpha radiation is: 3 10 20 1

A measurement of 0.02 Roentgens is equal to: 0.0002 mR 20 mR 2000 mR 200 mR

20 mR

For an AP cart chest the CR would enter; 3 inches below jugular notch 8 inches below jugular notch 10 inches below C-7 4 inches below sternal angle

3 inches below jugular notch

How much CR angulation is required for an asthenic patient for an AP axial projection of the clavicle? 30° 45° 15° No CR angulation should be used for this projection.

30°

What CR angulation is required for an AP projection of the knee on a patient with an ASIS-to-tabletop measurement of 18 cm? CR is perpendicular to the IR 10° to 15° cephalad 3° to 5° caudad 3° to 5° cephalad

3° to 5° caudad

An x-ray image of the ankle was made at 40" SID using 200 mA, 50 ms, 70 kVp, 0.6 mm focal spot and minimal OID. Which of the following changes would result in the greatest increase in magnification? 1.2 mm focal spot 44" SID 36" SID 4" OID

4" OID

Which of the following will result in the most magnification on the image? 72" SID, 5" OID 72" SID, 3" OID 40" SID, 3" OID 40" SID, 5" OID

40" SID, 5" OID

In order to provide the appropriate alignment with the x-ray beam, the positioning mirror should be mounted at an angle of ___________ to the central ray? 20 degrees 90 degrees 30 degrees 45 degrees

45 degrees

According to NCRP recommendations, during a fluoroscopy exam there must be an audible timer that sounds after ____ of fluoro has been used: 5 3 20 10

The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose -equivalent limit to be: 100 mSv 50 mSv 25 mSv 200 mSv

50 mSv

Assume that 100 mA at 1 second was used to produce a radiograph. Because of patient motion you want to decrease the exposure time to 1/5 second. What new mA must be used to maintain the same radiographic exposure to the IR? 50 500 300 600

500

How much flexion of the knee is recommended for the lateral projection of the patella? 5° to 10° or less 15° to 20° or more 45° to 50° 45° to 60°

5° to 10° or less

To be in compliance with radiation safety standards, the exposure switch on a mobile radiography unit should be attached to a cord that is a minimum of: 30 ft long 12 ft long 6 ft long 2 ft long

6 ft long

To maintain the same exposure a radiographic technique of 100 mA, ½ second at 80 kVp could be properly converted to 50 mA, 2 seconds at: 62 kVp 84 kVp 76 kVp 68 kVp

68 kVp

Which of the following techniques will result in the least radiation exposure to the patient? 80 kVp, 15 mAs 95 kVp, 100 mAs 70 kVp, 80 mAs 95 kVp, 12 mAs

95 kVp, 12 mAs

The radiographic term projection is defined as: A. Path or direction of the central ray B. Computer-assisted image C. Radiographic image as seen from the vantage of the IR D. General position of the patient

A. Path or direction of the central ray

A properly exposed scout abdomen radiograph should demonstrate the: A. Psoas muscle, kidneys, and inferior margin of the liver B. Kidneys and inferior margin of the liver C. Psoas muscle and kidneys D. Psoas muscle and inferior margin of the liver

A. Psoas muscle, kidneys, and inferior margin of the liver

The effects of central nervous system depressants may be monitored by: A. a pulse oximeter. B. a sphygmomanometer. C. an external defibrillator. D. an electroencephalograph.

A. a pulse oximeter.

A drug that acts by attaching to receptors on a cell, much like a key in a lock, is called an: A. antagonist. B. agonist. C. analgesic. D. antihistamine.

A. antagonist.

The drug that treats a toxic effect is called an: A. antidote. B. agonist. C. anticholinergic. D. analgesic.

A. antidote.

All of the statements regarding hand hygiene and skin care are correct, except: A. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing B. faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels C. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing D. hands should be cleansed before and after each patient exam

A. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing

Chest drainage systems should always be kept: A. below the level of the patient's chest B. above the patient's chest C. the position of the chest drainage system is not important D. at the level of the patient's chest

A. below the level of the patient's chest

What is the most common means of spreading infection? A. human hands B. instruments that are improperly sterilized C. improperly disposed of contaminated waste D. soiled linen

A. human hands

When a patient overreacts or underreacts to a medication or has an unexpected response, the effect is considered to be: A. idiosyncratic. B. allergic. C. toxic. D. synergistic.

A. idiosyncratic.

The Roentgen is defined as the: A. measure of total amount of ionization in air B. measurement that accounts for different types of tissue C. measure of total amount of energy absorbed in any material D. measurement that accounts for different types of radiation

A. measure of total amount of ionization in air

Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine) and mivacurium (Mivacron) are examples of: A. paralytic agents. B. hypoglycemic agents. C. local anesthetics. D. antagonists.

A. paralytic agents.

Flumazenil (Romazicon) and naloxone (Narcan) are prescribed to: A. reverse the sedation of other drugs. B. prevent or treat infection. C. relieve pain. D. calm the patient.

A. reverse the sedation of other drugs.

The only recognized professional society open to all radiologic technologists in the United States today is the: A.ASRT B.AVIR C.AARP D.AHRA

A.ASRT

An avulsion fracture is: A. Anterior dislocation of the wrist B. Fractures that occur in adolescent athletes who experience sudden, forceful, or unbalanced contraction of tendinous and muscular attachments on the bony pelvis C. A malignant tumor of cartilage D. Sprains or fractures involving the bases of the first and second metatarsals.

B. Fractures that occur in adolescent athletes who experience sudden, forceful, or unbalanced contraction of tendinous and muscular attachments on the bony pelvis

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic chest injuries? A. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position B. Include a lateral chest done in dorsal decubitus position C. Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID D. Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained

B. Include a lateral chest done in dorsal decubitus position?

Why is the PA projection of the abdomen less desirable for a KUB than the AP projection? A. There is an increased gonadal dose with the PA projection B. Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with PA projection C. The PA projection is less comfortable for the patient D. It is not less desirable, but is the radiographer's choice

B. Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with PA projection

Which of the following medications is a corticosteroid drug that acts as an antiinflammatory agent, preventing or reducing edema of the tracheobronchial tree and minimizing the possibility of respiratory arrest during allergic reactions? A. Diazepam (Valium) B. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) C. Meperidine (Demerol) D. Midazolam (Versed)

B. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

A radiograph of a transthoracic lateral projection reveals that it is difficult to visualize the proximal humerus due to the ribs and lung markings. The following exposure factors were used: 75 kV, 30 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID, grid, and suspended respiration. Which of the following changes will improve the visibility of the proximal humerus? A. Use a compression band to prevent patient movement B. Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique C. Use a 72-inch (183 cm) SID D. Make the exposure on second inspiration

B. Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique

When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because he/she has been sensitized to a previous dose of the drug, the effect is considered to be: A. idiosyncratic. B. allergic. C. toxic. D. synergistic.

B. allergic.

Drugs given before surgery and certain diagnostic procedures for the purpose of suppressing secretions belong to the category known as: A. analgesics B. anticholinergics C. antihistamines D. anticoagulants

B. anticholinergics

Where should a radiographers dosimeter be placed during a fluoroscopic exam? A. at waist level, under their lead apron B. at the collar level, on the outside of the lead apron C. at collar level, under the lead apron D. behind the control panel

B. at the collar level, on the outside of the lead apron

The term excretion refers to the: A. process by which the body transforms drugs into an inactive form. B. elimination of drugs from the body after they have been metabolized. C. means by which a drug travels from the site of absorption to the site of action. D. process by which a drug enters the systemic circulation in order to provide a desired effect.

B. elimination of drugs from the body after they have been metabolized.

Insulin, tolbutamide (Orinase), chlorpropamide (Diabinase), rosiglitazone (Avandia), and metformin (Glucophage) are examples of: A. antagonists. B. hypoglycemic agents. C. controlled substances. D. opioids.

B. hypoglycemic agents.

A nosocomial infection is a(n): A. type of rhinitis B. infection acquired in a hospital C. upper respiratory infection D. infection acquired at a large gathering

B. infection acquired in a hospital

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile techniques? A. a sterile field should not be left unattended B. persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face C. gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms D. sterile gloves should be kept above waist level

B. persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face

When a patient arrives in the medical imaging department with a Foley urinary catheter, it is important to: A. clamp the foley catheter B. place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder C. place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder D. place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder

B. place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder

A particular mAs, regardless of the combination of mA and time, will reproduce the same radiographic density/exposure to the IR. This is a statement of the: A. law of the conservation of energy B. reciprocity law C. 15% rule D. inverse square law

B. reciprocity law

What is the main reason why beam filtration is used in diagnostic radiography? A. improves spatial resolution B. reduced patient dose C. improves subject contrast D. prolongs the x-ray tube life

B. reduced patient dose

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that: A. the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg B. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position C. the patient appears to have a productive cough D. the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast

B. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position

The term pharmacokinetics refers to the study of: A. the electrical potential of the brain. B. the physiological movement of medications. C. the chemical action of medications. D. the history of pharmacology.

B. the physiological movement of medications.

An example of a stochastic effect of radiation exposure is: A. Cataract formation B. Catarant formation and skin reddening C. Cancer D. Skin reddening

C. Cancer

The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to: A. Bacteria on the skin B. Failure to keep warm C. Lack of adequate circulation D. Improper use of restraints

C. Lack of adequate circulation

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions? A. lateral recumbent B. seated with feet supported C. dorsal recumbent with feet elevated D. dorsal recumbent with head elevated

C. dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

Controlled substances include: A. all analgesics. B. only opiates. C. drugs with a high abuse potential. D. only intravenously administered drugs

C. drugs with a high abuse potential.

Somatic effects may become evident: A. in the exposed individuals first offspring B. several generations later C. in the exposed individual D. in viruses only

C. in the exposed individual

Increasing kVp will result in which of the following? A. producing higher subject contrast B. decreasing photon energy C. increasing photon energy D. decreasing distortion

C. increasing photon energy

The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to: A. bacteria on the skin B. improper use of restraints C. lack of adequate circulation due to pressure D. failure to keep warm

C. lack of adequate circulation due to pressure

The CR enters ___________ for an axial projection of the calcaneus. A. mid heel area B. at the base of the 2nd metatarsal exiting just distal to the medial malleolus C. near the base of the 3rd metatarsal D. mid-malleolus

C. near the base of the 3rd metatarsal?

When a patient with one strong side and one weak side is being assisted onto an x-ray table, the radiographer should: A. always use a two-person lift B. start with the weaker side to the table C. start with the stronger side closer to the table D. lift the patient carefully onto the table

C. start with the stronger side closer to the table

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? A. pulse oximeter, stethoscope, and sphygmomanometer B. pulse oximeter and stethoscope C. stethoscope and sphygmomanometer D. pulse oximeter and sphygmomanometer

C. stethoscope and sphygmomanometer?

Which of the following is the first step to be taken in the performance of a radiographic examination? A. provide appropriate patient assistance B. use appropriate infection control C. verify patient identity D. obtain clinical history

C. verify patient identity

All of the following are correct concepts of good body mechanics during patient lifting/moving except: A. the radiographer should stand with feet approximately 12" apart and with one foot slightly forward B. the back should be kept straight; avoid twisting C. when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body D. the body's center of gravity should be positioned over it's base of suport

C. when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body

Where does the CR enter for an AP knee? A. ½ inch distal to the base of the patella B. 2 inches below patella C. ½ inch distal to the apex of the patella D. 2 inches below the tibial condyles

C. ½ inch distal to the apex of the patella

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile techniques? A.Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. B.Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. C.Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. D.A sterile field should not be left unattended.

C.Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face.

A geriatric patient comes to the radiology department for a study of the knee. The patient is unsteady and unsure of himself. Which intercondylar fossa projection would provide the best results without risk of injury to the patient? Holmblad method Rosenberg method Hughston method Camp Coventry method

Camp Coventry method

There are a number of different ways to obtain a notch view of the knee. What view would we be doing if the patient is prone, with the lower leg flexed 40 to 50 degrees. Holmblad Beclere Camp-Coventry Humpty- Dumpty

Camp-Coventry

Lead aprons are worn during fluoroscopy to protect the radiographer from exposure to radiation from: Classic scatter Primary beam Compton scatter Photoelectric effect

Compton scatter

Which of the following is responsible for the majority of a radiographers occupational exposure? Classical scatter Thompson scatter Compton scatter Photoelectric effect

Compton scatter

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees away from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? Olecranon process Radial head Coronoid process Ulnar head

Coronoid process

Toxic effects of medication can occur when the drug accumulates in the body due to: 1. overdose. 2. impaired elimination. 3. advanced age. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

What is recommended to demonstrate the lateral knee joint without superimposition of the medial femoral condyle? A. CR perpendicular to IR entering at knee joint B. Cross-table lateral C. CR directed 5-7 degrees caudal to enter 1 inch proximal to lateral epicondyle D. CR directed 5-7 degrees cephalad to enter 1 inch distal to medial epicondyle

D. CR directed 5-7 degrees cephalad to enter 1 inch distal to medial epicondyle

A 16-year-old female patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible kidney stone. She complains of pain in the right lower pelvis region. Which of the following options should be taken in regard to gonadal shielding? A. Ask the patient or her parents for their permission to not shield the gonads B. Use it on the preliminary projection only C. Use it on all projections if correctly placed D. Do not use it

D. Do not use it

Which of the following types of medication may cause respiratory depression? A. Anticholinergics and antagonists B. Diuretics and antiemetics C. Antihistamines and steroids D. Opiates and opioids

D. Opiates and opioids

If the radiographer is unable to achieve a short OID because of the structure of the body part or patient condition, which of the following adjustments can be made to minimize magnification? A. a smaller focal spot size should be used B. a shorter SID should be used C. a lower ratio grid should be used D. a longer SID should be used

D. a longer SID should be used

Which of the following can be done to help compensate for an angled part? A. angle the tube in the opposite direction B. angle the IR in the opposite direction C. align the IR to the part D. align the tube, part, and IR

D. align the tube, part, and IR

Primary barriers can be struck by ___________: A. secondary radiation only B. primary radiation only C. scattered radiation only D. both primary and secondary radiation

D. both primary and secondary radiation

Fear and anxiety cause many patient to suffer from a dry mouth. When an inpatient complains of thirst, you should: A. offer a choice of fruit juice, water, or ice chips B. offer a drink of water with a straw C. provide a cup of ice chips within reach D. check their chart before offering anything

D. check their chart before offering anything

Decreasing field size from 14 x 17 inches to 8 x 10 inches, with no other changes, will: A. decrease x-ray penetration of the part B. increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part C. increase x-ray penetration of the part D. decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part

D. decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part

Filtration can be defined as: A. eliminating high energy photons from the primary beam B. eliminating fog from the image C. eliminating scattered photons from the primary beam D. eliminating low energy photons from the primary beam

D. eliminating low energy photons from the primary beam maybe?

The role of the radiographer in medication administration involves: A. determining what drug is needed. B. determining the dose to be administered. C. determining the route of administration. D. preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.

D. preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.

The trade name of a medication is also called its: A. chemical name. B. generic name. C. medical name. D. proprietary name.

D. proprietary name.

The external oblique elbow should demonstrate the ____________. A. coranoid B. olecranon process C. fat pads D. radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition

D. radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition

When an elderly female outpatient has bruises, abrasions, and decubitus ulcers, you should: A. ignore it, as it is not your business B. be careful not to contaminate your equipment C. confront the caregivers D. report suspected elder abuse to your supervisor while the patient is still present

D. report suspected elder abuse to your supervisor while the patient is still present

In which of the following ways does SID affect spatial resolution? A. SID is not a resolution factor B. spatial resolution is inversely related to SID C. as SID increases, spatial resolution decreases D. spatial resolution is directly related to SID

D. spatial resolution is directly related to SID

Inherent filtration includes: A. insulating oil around the x-ray tube B. added aluminum sheets in the collimator assembly C. the glass envelope of the x-ray tube D. the glass envelope of the tube and the insulating oil surrounding the tube

D. the glass envelope of the tube and the insulating oil surrounding the tube

Generic medications are usually: A. over-the-counter (OTC) medications. B. outdated supplies of proprietary medications. C. the same drug, but of lower quality than proprietary medications. D. the same as, but less expensive than, proprietary medications.

D. the same as, but less expensive than, proprietary medications.

To reduce an individual's exposure to ionizing radiation, each one of the following principles should be applied except: A. use a shielding material between the individual and the primary beam B. reduce the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radiation source C. increase the distance between the patient and the radiation source D. wear a radiation dosimeter at collar level

D. wear a radiation dosimeter at collar level

Which of the following is recommended for the pregnant radiographer? A. wear two dosimeters and switch their locations periodically B. leave radiation areas for the duration of the pregnancy C. change dosimeters weekly D. wear a second dosimeter under the lead apron

D. wear a second dosimeter under the lead apron

You and a fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor vehicle accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you: 1.Refer to the patient by name. 2.Make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient. 3.Reassure the patient about what you are doing. A.1 only B.1 and 2 only C.2 and 3 only D.1,2, and 3

D.1,2, and 3

When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said to be in the: Fowlers position Sims position Decubitus position Trendelenburg position

Decubitus position

The following agency is responsible for a control program regulating the design and manufacture of radiographic equipment. FDA NRC EPA OSHA

FDA

Filtration can be expressed as: PBL HVL kVp mAs

HVL?

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch? 30-degree medial oblique Lateral weight-bearing Mediolateral Lateromedial

Lateral weight-bearing

Where does the CR enter for a lateral hand? PIP of 3rd digit DIP of 3rd digit MCP joint of 3rd digit MCP joint of 2nd digit

MCP joint of 2nd digit

The CR will enter at _______ for an AP thumb. IP MCP joint DIP PIP

MCP joint?

Which AP projection of the shoulder and proximal humerus is created by placing the affected palm of the hand facing inward toward the thigh? Supination External rotation Neutral rotation Internal rotation

Neutral rotation

The Ball-Catchers view is also known as the _________ view. Roberts Smith Norgaard Bennett

Norgaard

Which of the following is the controlling factor for spatial resolution? OID mAs SID focal spot size

OID

Which of the following is the most commonly used personnel radiation monitoring device? OSL pocket dosimeter film badge TLD

OSL

What is the name of the structure that serves as a common passageway for both food and air? Pharynx Carina Larynx Esophagus

Pharynx

Which of the following results in the total absorption of the primary x-ray photon? Coherent scattering Compton effect Pair Production Photoelectric absorption

Photoelectric absorption

Which of the following projections of the foot would best demonstrate the sesamoids? Supine (Holly) method Prone (Lewis) method Norgard method Mortise method

Prone (Lewis) method

The radiation quantity unit for equivalent dose is: Gray (Rad) Sievert (Rem) Roentgen (C/kg) Becquerel

Sievert (Rem)

A fractured wrist with anterior displacement is called a ______ fracture. Boxers Colle's Smith Bennett

Smith?

The diaphragms lie at the level of ____. T-10 C-10 T-8 C-7

T 10?

The CR enters at the level of ___ for a PA chest x-ray. T-7 C-7 T-8 T-10

T-7

Partial restriction of blood supplied to the brain as a result of a temporary or mild occlusion of a cerebral vessel is referred to as: epistaxis syncope TIA CVA

TIA

For non-safety needles, if asked when do we recap a needle?

The correct answer is NEVER

All of the following are useful resources for non-English-speaking patients, except: special dual-headset phones certified interpreter automated language lines a family member or friend

a family member or friend

Lyme disease is caused by a bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by: a vector a vehicle the airbourne route droplet contact

a vector

A patient diagnosed with a contagious respiratory infection is being transported to the radiology department. Which of the following must be done to prevent transmission of the patient's infection? a.The patient must wear a mask. b.The radiographer must wear a mask. c.The patient must wear an isolation gown. d.The radiographer must wear gloves.

a. The patient must wear a mask. Of course everyone is wearing a mask today, but remember that the main principle of wearing the mask is not about catching the contagion, but rather, to not infect others with the contagion.

A patient suffering from severe abdominal pain will be most comfortable when: 1. the head is elevated. 2. a bolster is placed under the knees. 3. the head is lower than the feet. 4. the head is flat and in alignment with the body. a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 2 only

a. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following blood pressure readings would fall within the range of the "new" normal? a. 115/75 b. 120/80 c. 140/90 d. 160/100

a. 115/75

Which of the following sterilization methods is most practical in the hospital setting for items that can withstand heat and moisture? a. Autoclaving b. Gas plasma c. Chemical d. Dry heat

a. Autoclaving

Which microorganisms are classified according to their shape and a staining process? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Rickettsiae d. Protozo

a. Bacteria

A numeric system developed to evaluate the changing status of coma patients that can be used by a variety of healthcare workers is called the: a. Glasgow Coma Scale. b. Centigrade Scale. c. LOC detection scale. d. Clark Standard Scale.

a. Glasgow Coma Scale.

When possible, trauma patients with massive life-threatening conditions will be treated at a: a. Level I trauma center b. Level II trauma center c. Level III trauma center d. Level IV trauma center

a. Level I trauma center

A topical antiseptic solution, such as Betadine, is used to perform which of the listed procedures? a. Skin preparation for a sterile injection b. Surgical hand rub c. Application of a sterile dressing d. Chemical sterilization

a. Skin preparation for a sterile injection

Which of the following statements does NOT meet infection control guidelines with regard to the handling of patient linens? a. Soiled linens should be shaken to remove loose material before being placed in the hamper. b. No item should be used for more than one patient without being laundered first. c. Fold the edges of used linens to the middle without shaking or flapping. d. Used linen is considered contaminated even when no soil is apparent.

a. Soiled linens should be shaken to remove loose material before being placed in the hamper.

Which of the following is an acceptable alternative to a surgical hand scrub? a. Surgical hand rub b. Antiseptic hand wash c. Sterile gloves d. Soap and water hand wash

a. Surgical hand rub

A patient diagnosed with a contagious respiratory infection is being transported to the radiology department. Which of the following must be done to prevent transmission of the patient's infection? a. The patient must wear a mask. b. The radiographer must wear a mask. c. The patient must wear an isolation gown. d. The radiographer must wear gloves.

a. The patient must wear a mask.

Which of the following sites is preferred when giving IM injections to children? a. The vastus lateralis muscle of the lateral thigh b. The deltoid muscle of the upper arm c. The gluteus maximus muscle d. The quadriceps muscle of the anterior thigh

a. The vastus lateralis muscle of the lateral thigh

When does the CDC recommend handwashing in place of the use of alcohol based hand rubs? a. When hands are visibly soiled following patient contact b. Before patient contact c. Before donning gloves d. Following contact with objects in the vicinity of the patient

a. When hands are visibly soiled following patient contact

A sensation of pain or discomfort in the chest that occurs when the coronary arteries are unable to supply the heart with sufficient oxygen may be precipitated by exertion or stress and is usually relieved by rest or the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin. This condition is called: a. angina pectoris. b. reactive airway disease. c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. d. myocardial infarction.

a. angina pectoris.

A conscious patient whose hands are moist and trembling is most likely suffering from: a. anxiety. b. shock. c. fever. d. acute illness.

a. anxiety.

If extravasation occurs during IV infusion, you should remove the needle or catheter, apply pressure, and then: a. apply cold packs to the site. b. apply hot packs to the site. c. elevate the arm over the patient's head for 30 to 60 minutes. d. apply a tourniquet above the site.

a. apply cold packs to the site.

The vital sign that most accurately indicates the condition of shock is the: a. blood pressure. b. pulse rate. c. temperature. d. respiratory rate

a. blood pressure.

When items inside tubes, ointments, and powders must be sterilized, the best method is: a. dry heat. b. autoclaving. c. gas plasma technology. d. chemical sterilization.

a. dry heat.

A multi-drawered cabinet on wheels that contains medications, supplies, and equipment needed in the event of a cardiac arrest is called a(n): a. emergency cart b. defibrillator c. trauma chest d. team support vehicle

a. emergency cart

Direct placement of the medication into the digestive tract, orally, rectally, or via nasogastric tube, is referred to as the ______________route of administration. a. enteral b. parenteral c. sublingual d. subcutaneous

a. enteral

If a patient complains of sudden, intense chest pain, often described as a crushing pain, you should assume, until proven otherwise, that the patient is having a(n): a. heart attack. b. asthma attack. c. attack of indigestion. d. grand mal seizure.

a. heart attack.

Tom Borg, 23, is very anxious about being subjected to radiation from x-rays and complains that his hands and feet are tingling and that he feels dizzy. His temperature is 99° F, pulse rate is 86 beats per minute, and respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute. The most likely reason for his symptoms is: a. hyperventilation. b. hypoventilation. c. pyrexia. d. tachycardia.

a. hyperventilation.

Body temperatures vary during the day and usually are lowest: a. in the morning. b. at noon. c. in the evening. d. late at night.

a. in the morning.

A drug usually takes effect most rapidly when administered: a. intravenously. b orally. c. intradermally. d intramuscularly.

a. intravenously.

The process of placing an artificial airway through the mouth or nose and into the trachea is commonly called: a. intubation b. tracheotomy c. ventilation d. defibrillation

a. intubation

An emergency drug given to reverse bronchospasm is: a. isoproterenol b. digoxin c. acetaminophen d. succinylcholine chloride

a. isoproterenol

The portal of entry describes the: a. method by which the pathogen enters the body. b. method by which the pathogen exits the body. c. reservoir or place where the pathogen resides. d. carrier of the pathogen.

a. method by which the pathogen enters the body.

The purpose of a Swan-Ganz catheter is to: a. monitor cardiac function. b. drain the thoracic cavity. c. facilitate the administration of chemotherapy. d. facilitate the drawing of blood for testing.

a. monitor cardiac function.

A Salem-Sump tube is an example of a(n): a. nasogastric tube. b. nasoenteric tube. c. endotracheal tube. d. flow-directed catheter.

a. nasogastric tube.

To avoid respiratory motion blur when obtaining a bedside radiograph on a patient connected to a mechanical ventilator, the radiographer should: a. observe the rhythm of the patient's respirations. b. ask the patient to stop breathing. c. turn off the ventilator during the x-ray exposure. d. disconnect the ventilator tubing from the patient's endotracheal tube.

a. observe the rhythm of the patient's respirations.

When an infection causes the body to produce an inflammatory response, white blood cells engulf microorganisms in a process called: a. phagocytosis. b. endospore production. c. vehicle transmission. d. enveloped viruses.

a. phagocytosis.

The three greatest risks to survival that determine priority in a trauma unit are paralysis, cardiac arrest, and: a. respiratory arrest b. fracture c. concussion d. syncope

a. respiratory arrest

Administering nitroglycerine under the patient's tongue is an example of: a. sublingual administration. b parenteral administration. c. subcutaneous injection. d intravascular administration.

a. sublingual administration.

The tip of a correctly placed central venous catheter, like the PICC, lies in the: a. superior vena cava. b. pulmonary artery. c. right ventricle. d. right atrium.

a. superior vena cava.

A body position in which the patient is lying on his or her back with the head and upper body elevated is called: a. the Fowler position. b. the Sims position. c. the supine position. d.the Trendelenburg position.

a. the Fowler position.

A common site for blood draws and emergency IV injections is: a. the median cubital vein. b. the brachial artery. c. the saphenous vein. d. the pulmonary vein.

a. the median cubital vein.

In the language of body mechanics, the center of gravity refers to: a. the point around which body weight is balanced. b. a line between the points of contact with a horizontal surface. c. an imaginary vertical line passing through the center of the body. d. an imaginary horizontal line passing through the shoulders.

a. the point around which body weight is balanced.

A surgical opening made into the trachea with placement of a tube to establish a temporary or permanent airway is a: a. tracheostomy. b. tracheotomy. c. tracheoscopy. d. tracheoplasty.

a. tracheostomy.

Malaria, bubonic plague, Lyme disease, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever are examples of diseases that are spread by: a. vectors. b. vehicles. c. droplet contamination. d. fomites.

a. vectors.

Properties of pathogens that distinguish them from normal flora are called: a. virulence factors. b. endospores. c. capsids. d. vectors.

a. virulence factors.

Endocrine glands that are near (above) each kidney are called __ glands. a.Adrenal b.Prostate c.Subcostal d.Parathyroid e.Transurethral

a.Adrenal

Surgical repair to open blocked vessels with a balloon and stent is a(n): a.Angioplasty b.Angiography c.Mammoplasty d.Rhinoplasty e.Anastomosis

a.Angioplasty

A protein made by white blood cells and capable of destroying bacteria and viruses is a(n): a.Antibody b.Antibiotic c.Antigen d.Hemoglobin e.leukopcyte

a.Antibody

A slow heartbeat is called: a.Bradycardia b.Tachypnea c.Cardiomegaly d.Myocardial infarction e.Tachycardia

a.Bradycardia

Visual examination of the urinary bladder is called: a.Cystoscopy b.Cytology c.Cystogram d.Nephoscopy e.Cystoscope

a.Cystoscopy

The muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the: a.Diaphragm b.Mediastinum c.Pleura d.Peritoneum e.Esophagus

a.Diaphragm

The tailbone is the sacrum. a.True b.False

a.False - coccyx is the tailbone

A condition in which blood is held back from an organ is: a.Ischemia b.Uremia c.Hematuria d.Leukemia e.Menorrhea

a.Ischemia

Incision of the abdomen is called: a.Laparoscopy b.Rhinotomy c.Laparotomy d.Gastrotomy e.Gastroscopy

a.Laparoscopy

The voice box is the: a.Larynx b.Pharynx c.Trachea d.Esophagus e.Bronchial tube

a.Larynx

The space in the chest containing the heart is the: a.Mediastinum b.Pleural cavity c.Cranial cavity d.Adbomen e.Spinal cavity

a.Mediastinum

An opening from the kidney to the outside of the body is a: a.Nephrostomy b.Tracheostomy c.Laparostomy d.Colostomy e.Thoracotomy

a.Nephrostomy

An instrument used to visually examine the eye is a(n): a.Ophthalmoscope b.Otoscope c.Bronchoscope d.Endoscope e.Gastroscope

a.Ophthalmoscope

The double membrane surrounding the organs in the abdomen is the: a.Peritoneum b.Esophagus c.Pleura d.Diaphragm e.Mediastinum

a.Peritoneum

Prediction about the outcome of treatment is called: a.Prognosis b.Psychosis c.Diagnosis d.Biopsy e.Pathology

a.Prognosis

A doctor who specializes in operating on the chest is called a(n): a.Thoracic surgeon b.Colorectal surgeon c.Otolaryngologist d.Orthopedist e.Oncologist

a.Thoracic surgeon

Removal of pharyngeal lymph tissue is called: a.Tonsillectmy b.Mastectomy c.Nephrectomy d.Neurotomy e.tracheotomy

a.Tonsillectmy

A gastrectomy is a gastric resection. a.True b.False

a.True

A pathologist performs autopsies and examines biopsy samples. a.True b.False

a.True

An optometrist can prescribe glasses and contact lenses and medications for eye disorders. a.True b.False

a.True

Ectopic pregnancies occur most often in the fallopian tubes. a.True b.False

a.True

Epithelial cells line the inner and outer surfaces of the body. a.True b.False

a.True

Nosocomial infections arise as a result of hospital procedures. a.True b.False

a.True

Surgical repair (augmentation or reduction) of breast tissue is a mammoplasty. a.True b.False

a.True

The combining form for "blood vessel" is: a.angi/o b.Erythr/o c.Hem/o d.Leuk/o e.Arthr/o

a.angi/o

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed abduction eversion adduction inversion

adduction

What type of precautions is used to prevent the spread of bronchial secretions during coughing? protective isolation contact precautions airbourne precautions strict isolation

airbourne precautions

Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe: bronchial asthma acute chest pain allergic shock an inflammatory reaction

allergic shock

A piece of paper will provide adequate protection from which of the following types of radiation? gamma x-ray alpha beta

alpha

Which of the following crystals are used in an optically stimulated luminescent dosimetry system? ferrous sulfate lithium fluoride silver bromide aluminum oxide

aluminum oxide

The functional unit of the lungs where the exchange of gasses takes place is termed; carina alveoli pleura hilum

alveoli

The photoelectric effect is an interaction between an x-ray photon and: an inner-shell electron another photon the nucleus of the atom an outer-shell electron

an inner-shell electron

As kilovoltage is applied, the electrons are accelerated toward which part of the x-ray tube? cathode window stem anode

anode

Define the acronym "ALARA". as low as reliably accepted as low as reasonably achievable as low as reliably achievable as low as reasonably accepted

as low as reasonably achievable

The reduction in radiation intensity as it passes through a material is termed: absorption attenuation scattering divergence

attenuation

Special mattresses used to improve circulation in ICU and CCU patients include: 1. alternating pressure mattresses. 2. air-filled mattresses. 3. the Bair Hugger. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

When taking a radiograph of a patient with a contagious disease, the "dirty" radiographer positions the: 1. patient. 2. covered image receptor. 3. radiographic equipment. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following are involved in the body's first line of defense against infection? 1. Intact skin and mucous membranes 2. Upper respiratory tract cilia 3. Inflammatory response a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 2 only. The covered image receptor is considered clean because it has not come in contact with the patient.

Respiratory depression is a side effect of which of the listed drug classes? 1. Benzodiazepines 2. Antihistamines 3. Opioids 4. Hypoglycemics a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

b. 1 and 3 only

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, an inexpensive environmental surface germicide that is effective against HIV is a solution of: a. 1 part Lysol to 10 parts water b. 1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water c. soap and water d. isopropyl alcohol

b. 1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, an inexpensive environmental surface germicide that is effective against Human immunodeficiency virus or (HIV) is a solution of: a. 1 part Lysol to 10 parts water b. 1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water c. soap and water d. isopropyl alcohol

b. 1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water

The proper height for an IV bottle or bag is: a. 10 to 12 inches above the vein. b. 18 to 20 inches above the vein. c. at least 36 inches above the vein. d. at the same level as the vein

b. 18 to 20 inches above the vein.

Sterile technique is necessary when: 1. removing a surgical dressing. 2. applying a surgical dressing. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

b. 2 only

Lack of effective circulation to the central nervous system can cause irreparable brain damage in: a. 35 seconds. b. 3 to 5 minutes. c. 35 minutes. d. 3 hours

b. 3 to 5 minutes.

A urologist normally operates to resect a colon and create a colostomy. a.True b.False

b. False - a general or colorectal surgeon would perform this

An acute condition continues over a long period of time. a.True b.False

b. False - chronic is of long duration

A cancerous tumor of bone marrow is anemia. a.True b.False

b. False - decrease in number of red blood cells

Anterior refers to the back side of the body. a.True b.False

b. False - front side

A spinal cord injury at the lumbar level can lead to hemiplegia. a.True b.false

b. False - hemiplegia occurs on one half or side of the body such as with a stroke.

A doctor who performs autopsies and biopsies is an oncologist. a.True b.False

b. False - pathologists perform autopsies and biopsies

The neonatal ICU is for treatment of newborns. a.True b.False

b. False - premature infants

A rheumatologist is a specialist in allergies and infectious diseases. a.True b.False

b. False - rheumatologists specialize in autoimmune diseases

Hysterectomy is the removal of the uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes. a.True b.False

b. False - uterus only. Complete hysterectomy includes uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes.

A subdural hematoma is a malignant tumor. a.True b.False

b. False subdural hematoma is a bleed below the dura of the brain

A platelet is an erythrocyte. a.True b.False

b. False- bone marrow cells that have clotting factors

Instruments with long, narrow lumina must be sterilized using which method? a. Autoclaving b. Freon and ethylene oxide c. Chemical sterilization d. Dry heat

b. Freon and ethylene oxide

These microorganisms occur as yeasts or molds and can infect the skin, nail beds, and scalp. a. Protozoa b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Viruses

b. Fungi

What is the special precaution taken when obtaining a mobile abdomen x-ray on a patient lying on an air mattress? a. Deflate the mattress to soften the bed before placing the image receptor. b. Inflate the mattress to firm up and level the bed before placing the image receptor. c. Use care to avoid damaging the mattress. d. Turn off the rocking motion to avoid blur on the x-ray.

b. Inflate the mattress to firm up and level the bed before placing the image receptor.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to taking a medical history for a radiographic examination? a. It is always taken by the radiologist. b. It includes pertinent information about the patient and indicates the reason for the examination. c. It is not considered confidential information. d. It is required only for inpatients.

b. It includes pertinent information about the patient and indicates the reason for the examination.

Which of the following devices is no longer used in hospitals to monitor body temperature? a. Electronic oral and rectal thermometers b. Mercury glass thermometers c. Tympanic thermometers d. Temporal artery thermometers

b. Mercury glass thermometers

What type of question should you ask the patient to begin a patient history? a. Closed-ended b. Open-ended c. Probing d. Direct

b. Open-ended

The hospital unit that is designed and staffed for close observation and care of patients following operative procedures that require a general anesthetic agent is called the: a. surgical suite. b. PACU. c. ICU. d. CCU.

b. PACU.

Which of the following items will NOT be needed if you are going to perform a pre-surgical skin preparation? a. Antiseptic solution b. Sterile gown c. Gauze sponges d. Medicine cup

b. Sterile gown

A position in which the patient is on his or her back with the head lower than the feet is termed: a. supine. b. Trendelenburg. c. Sims position. d. prone.

b. Trendelenburg.

A position in which the patient is on his or her back with the head lower than the feet is termed: a. supine. b. Trendelenburg. c. Sims position. d.prone.

b. Trendelenburg.

The type of oxygen mask most appropriate for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, such as emphysema, is a: a. simple face mask b. Venturi mask c. nonrebreathing mask d. particulate respirator

b. Venturi mask

An acute attack of asthma or other reactive airway disease may be treated by the administration of oxygen and: a. buccal application of glucose paste. b. a bronchodilating medication. c. cardiopulmonary resuscitation. d. sublingual nitroglycerine.

b. a bronchodilating medication.

When patients who suffer from a chronic lung disease, such as emphysema, experience respiratory distress, they should receive: a. no oxygen b. a low flow rate of oxygen (2 L/min or less) c. oxygen at the rate of 3 to 5 L/min d. CPR

b. a low flow rate of oxygen (2 L/min or less)

A noninvasive treatment that is appropriate for any patient who experiences acute anxiety accompanied by a rapid heart rate and shortness of breath is: a. a tracheotomy b. a low rate of oxygen administration c. suction administration d. defibrillation

b. a low rate of oxygen administration

A patient placed under airborne precautions requires a bedside chest radiograph. The radiographer must follow standard precautions and must don: a. a surgical mask. b. a particulate respirator. c. a gown and gloves. d. a gown, gloves and surgical mask.

b. a particulate respirator.

An infusion is a slow delivery of medication by means of gravity flow into: a. an artery. b. a vein. c. a muscle. d. the fat layer beneath the skin.

b. a vein.

When gloving by the closed gloving method, the gloves are put on: a. immediately following the sterile scrub. b. after donning the sterile gown. c. before putting on cap and mask. d. before opening the sterile pack.

b. after donning the sterile gown.

A defibrillator stimulates the heart to contract effectively by delivering: a. a premeasured dose of epinephrine (Adrenalin). b. an electrical shock. c. an abdominal thrust. d. forced ventilation.

b. an electrical shock.

The purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale is to objectively: a. define how long a patient will be in a coma. b. assess changes in a patient's LOC over time. c. indicate if a patient is only sleeping. d. monitor the stages of a coma.

b. assess changes in a patient's LOC over time.

When opening a sterile pack, the first corner of the wrap is opened: a. toward you. b. away from you. c. to the left. d. to the right.

b. away from you.

An infant with newborn atelectasis would most likely require radiographs of the: a. abdomen. b. chest. c. pelvis. d. skull.

b. chest.

A serious, unexpected event that demands immediate attention is correctly termed a(n): a. disaster b. emergency c. trauma d. code

b. emergency

Research has proven that victims of massive trauma who survive the initial injury have a greater chance of recovery if their condition can be stabilized within the "golden" period, which refers to the first: a. 15 minutes. b. hour. c. 4 hours. d. 24 hours.

b. hour.

Shock resulting from the excessive loss of blood or plasma is called: a. anaphylaxis. b. hypovolemic shock. c. septic shock. d. syncope.

b. hypovolemic shock.

Injection of a contrast medium into the subarachnoid space for a myelogram is an example of the ___________________ route of medication administration a. intradermal b. intrathecal c. topical d. subcutaneous

b. intrathecal

When checking a patient for signs of cyanosis, the radiographer should note the coloration of the: a. eyes. b. lips and nail beds. c. palms of the hands and soles of the feet. d. face and neck.

b. lips and nail beds.

Tachycardia, combined with a weak or "thready" pulse, is usually a result of: a. excitement. b. low blood volume. c. a damaged heart. d. exertion.

b. low blood volume.

The term recumbent refers to a position in which the patient is: a. seated. b. lying down. c. upright. d.supine with the head elevated.

b. lying down.

Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual is called: a. sepsis. b. medical asepsis. c. surgical asepsis. d. sterilization.

b. medical asepsis.

An oxygen mask that has an attached reservoir bag that fills with 100% oxygen and a valve to prevent exhaled gas from being inhaled again is called a: a. Venturi mask b. nonrebreathing mask c. partial rebreathing mask d. particulate respirator

b. nonrebreathing mask

When a physician orders NPO for a patient, this means that: a. the patient is on bed rest. b. nothing is to be given by mouth. c. all urine must be saved. d. only water and ice chips can be given by mouth.

b. nothing is to be given by mouth.

b. nothing is to be given by mouth. Sometimes patients come to the department and ask for water. We can never give anything to eat or drink unless ordered or we are given special permission from physician, nurse, or radiologist. This includes outpatients as well.

With respect to a medication, the term potent means: a. poisonous b. powerful c. ineffective d. outdated

b. powerful

In electrocardiography, PVC stands for: a. partial ventricular contraction. b. premature ventricular contraction. c. pulmonary volume control. d. Preliminary ventricular coordination.

b. premature ventricular contraction.

If an IV infusion runs too fast, it may cause: a. a hematoma. b. pulmonary edema. c. angina pectoris. d. a synergistic effect.

b. pulmonary edema.

Patients with massive trauma are transported on a backboard and are not removed from it until: a. all diagnostic x-rays are completed. b. spinal fracture has been ruled out c. casts are applied. d. an airway has been established.

b. spinal fracture has been ruled out

Patients with massive trauma are transported on a backboard and are not removed from it until: a. all diagnostic x-rays are completed. b. spinal fracture has been ruled out. c. casts are applied. d. an airway has been established.

b. spinal fracture has been ruled out.

Sterilization is essential to: a. medical asepsis. b. surgical asepsis. c. disinfection. d. isolation.

b. surgical asepsis.

Rectal temperatures may be contraindicated because: a. they are embarrassing. b. the procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve. c. they are less accurate. d. rectal temperature is higher than oral temperature.

b. the procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve.

The acronym PASS is a helpful way to remember: a. the basic principles of body mechanics. b. the steps for using a fire extinguisher. c. the steps in preparing a patient for transport. d. the steps involved cleaning up a hazardous spill

b. the steps for using a fire extinguisher.

Patients who suffer from orthopnea need to have: a. padding under bony prominences. b. their heads elevated in order to breathe. c. their feet elevated to relieve pain. d.a skin graft.

b. their heads elevated in order to breathe.

Patients who suffer from orthopnea need to have: a. padding under bony prominences. b. their heads elevated in order to breathe. c. their feet elevated to relieve pain. d. a skin graft.

b. their heads elevated in order to breathe. Orthopnea is shortness of breath caused by lying flat. Patients with congestive heart failure have a lot of difficulty lying flat. We should always double the pillow for these patients. It would be best to ask you patient is they have trouble breathing when lying flat.

The current CDC recommendation for isolating patients with known infections is called: a. Universal Precautions. b. transmission-based precautions. c. Standard Precautions. d. category-specific precautions.

b. transmission-based precautions.

A large area, such as a lobby, used in the event of a disaster for the process of identifying the victims, performing initial examinations, and assigning priorities for further care is called a: a. trauma unit b. triage station c. situational dispatch area d. disaster emergency center

b. triage station

If you smell smoke and smoldering insulation in the area of an x-ray control panel, the first thing you should do is: a. call for an x-ray service engineer. b. turn off the main power switch. c. evacuate the area. d. call a fire code. e. make sure Madge is not cooking

b. turn off the main power switch.

Upon completion of an isolation procedure, the first step is to: a. perform hand hygiene. b. untie your waist belt. c. remove your mask. d. remove your cap.

b. untie your waist belt.

The Pigg-O-Stat is used to immobilize infants for: a. supine abdomen radiography b. upright chest radiography c. extremity radiography d.gastrointestinal radiography

b. upright chest radiography

The transport of microorganisms by means of contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood is referred to as a: a. reservoir. b. vehicle. c. fomite. d. vector.

b. vehicle.

The transport of microorganisms by means of contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood is referred to as a: a. reservoir. b. vehicle. c. fomite. d. vector.

b. vehicle. Remember vehicles are inanimate objects such as the examples given above that transfer disease. Fomites are surfaces such as those given in the prior slide. Vectors are live organisms that disease, such as ticks, fleas, mosquitoes, etc. Reservoir Any person, animal, plant, soil or substance in which an infectious agent normally lives and multiplies. The reservoir typically harbors the infectious agent without injury to itself and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected.

One type of microorganism is very difficult to treat medically because there are few effective medications and those are effective for only a limited number of organisms. This statement refers to: a. bacteria. b. viruses. c. protozoa. d. fungi.

b. viruses.

b. viruses. We certainly are learning about this first hand at this time.

All of the following are important to note during a patient's seizure EXCEPT: a. when the seizure began and ended. b. whether the patient hit anyone during the seizure. c. if both sides of the body were involved. d. if the contractions progressed from one area to another.

b. whether the patient hit anyone during the seizure.

A term meaning "before birth" is: a.Antigen b.Antepartum c.Postpartum d.Postnatal e.Neonatal

b.Antepartum

Eating foods high in cholesterol and fats can cause a collection of fatty plaque in arteries. This condition is known as: a.Aphasia b.Arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis c.Arthritis d.Atelectasis e.Aura

b.Arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis

After a sonogram revealed stones in the gallbladder, Mr. Smith was scheduled for a gallbladder resection or: a.Choledochotomy b.Cholecystectomy c.Salpingectomy d.Hysterectomy e.Tonsillectomy

b.Cholecystectomy

A backbone is an intervertebral disk. a.True b.False

b.False

A myelogram is an x-ray record of the bone marrow after an injection of contrast material. a.True b.False

b.False

Cystitis is the inflammation of a cell. a.True b.False

b.False

Record of the electricity in the brain is an electrocephalogram. a.True b.False

b.False

When a patient experiences a relapse, all signs and symptoms of the disease disappear. a.True b.False

b.False

Which doctor specializes in treating older patients? a.Family medicine specialist b.Geriatrican c.Rheumatologist d.Pediatrician e.Obstrician

b.Geriatrican

A myocardial infarction is a(n): a.Stroke b.Heart attack c.Disease of the brain d.Enlargement of the liver e.Inflammation of a joint

b.Heart attack

When urinating, Ben noticed blood in his urine, a condition known as: a.Hematoma b.Hematuria c.Hemangioma d.Hematemesis e.Hemoglobin

b.Hematuria

A blood protein found in red blood cells is: a.Sarcoma b.Hemoglobin c.Hematoma d.Erythrocyte e.Hepatoma

b.Hemoglobin

Visual examination of the abdomen performed with small incisions and an endoscope is called: a.Arthroscopy b.Laparoscopy c.Bronchoscopy d.Gastroscopy e.Laryngoscopy

b.Laparoscopy

Biopsy of lymph nodes after Sharon's mastectomy revealed three positive axillary nodes. The pathology report indicated that there was a __ (spread) of the primary breast cancer. a.Remission b.Metastasis c.Diagnosis d.Prognosis e.Relapse

b.Metastasis

A term meaning "pertaining to the throat" is: a.Thoracic b.Pharyngeal c.Esophageal d.Tracheal e.Laryngeal

b.Pharyngeal

Which term is not spelled correctly? a.Laryngeal b.Pulmonery c.Vasculitis d.Neuralgia e.Gastroenterology

b.Pulmonery

A malignant (cancerous) tumor of flesh tissue is: a.Carcinoma b.Sarcoma c.Neuroma d.Hepatoma e.Nephroma

b.Sarcoma

A group of signs and symptoms that occur together are called a(n): a.Analysis b.Syndrome c.Dialysis d.Prognosis e.Remission

b.Syndrome

The process of recording sound waves to make an image of organs in the body is called: a.CT scan b.Ultrasongraphy c.MRI d.Endoscopy e.Dialysis

b.Ultrasongraphy

A surgeon specializing in disorders of the male reproductive system and the urinary tract in male and female patients is a(n): a.Nephrologist b.Urologist c.Gynecologist d.Neurosurgeon e.Colorectal surgeon

b.Urologist

To be in compliance with radiation safety standards, the fluoroscopy exposure switch must: sound during fluoro-on time terminate fluoro after 5 minutes be on a 6-foot-long cord be the "dead-man" type

be the "dead-man" type?

The largest amount of diagnostic x-ray absorption is most likely to occur in which of the following tissues? lung bone muscle adipose

bone

Which of the following materials has the highest tissue density? bone fluid soft tissue fat

bone

If a patients heart rate is below 60 beats per minute (bpm), this is termed: hypoxia bradycardia brachycardia hypotension

bradycardia

A condition characterized as an irreversible dilation or widening of bronchi or bronchioles that may result from repeated pulmonary infection or obstruction is termed Pneumonia Asthma Emphysema bronchiectasis

bronchiectasis

To avoid the possibility of decubitus ulcer formation in the elderly, the radiographer should: 1. ensure that the patient's skin stays clean and dry. 2. avoid bumps that may cause contusions and abrasions in the skin. 3. provide padding under bony prominences. 4. leave the patient in the same position for the duration of the examination. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

When you have drained a urinary collection bag, what tasks remain to be completed? 1. Measure the urine and empty the measuring container. 2. Remove your gloves and perform hand hygiene. 3. Chart the amount of urine. 4. Reinsert the catheter into the patient. a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

Which of the following observations should cause you to suspect child abuse? 1. Cigarette burn marks 2. Bruises shaped like hands, fingers, or objects, such as a belt 3. Failure to seek prompt treatment for a serious injury 4. Fracture of the radius a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d.1, 2, 3, and 4

c. 1, 2, and 3 only

c. 1, 2, and 3 only. Although fractures do occur with child abuse, they can also happen from an accidental fall. Bruising shaped like objects of torture and cigarette burns are not accidental. You must be prepared to see this during your rotation at children's. You will learn the dire importance of your role as patient advocate and the voice of those who cannot speak for themselves in those rotations.

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be categorized as stage 1 hypertension? a. 115/75 b. 120/80 c. 140/90 d. 160/100

c. 140/90

When a patient is experiencing tachypnea, the patient is breathing more than: a. 10 breaths/minute. b. 15 breaths/minute. c. 20 breaths/minute. d. 30 breaths/minute.

c. 20 breaths/minute.

When an IV is running at the rate of 15 to 20 gtt/min, the patient will receive approximately: a. 20 ml/hr. b. 30 ml/hr. c. 60 ml/hr. d. 120 ml/hr.

c. 60 ml/hr.

In small children or infants, a foreign body obstruction of the airway should be suspected if there is a sudden onset of: 1. severe coughing. 2 stridor. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 & 2

c. Both 1 & 2

Which set of transmission-based precautions is used for patients with multidrug resistant wound infections? a. Airborne precautions b. Droplet precautions c. Contact precautions d. Combination airborne and contact precautions

c. Contact precautions

In small children or infants, a foreign body obstruction of the airway should be suspected if there is a sudden onset of: 1. severe coughing. 2 stridor. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Either 1 or 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

c. Either 1 or 2

Which of the following methods of sterilization is a safer method of sterilizing heat- and moisture-sensitive items in hospitals? a. Chemicals b. Dry heat c. Gas plasma technology d. Ethylene oxide

c. Gas plasma technology

Which of the following is NOT a sign of shock? a. Restlessness and a sense of apprehension b. Increased pulse rate c. Hypertension d. Pallor accompanied by weakness or a change in thinking ability

c. Hypertension

Which of the following is NOT a sign of shock? a. Restlessness and a sense of apprehension b. Increased pulse rate c. Hypertension d. Pallor accompanied by weakness or a change in thinking ability

c. Hypertension

A patient who suddenly demonstrates increased thirst, increased urinary output, decreased appetite, nausea, weakness, confusion, and coma requires the administration of: a. CPR. b. the Heimlich maneuver. c. Insulin. d. Glucose.

c. Insulin.

Which of the following central venous catheters may be used for either short or long-term therapy and introduced through a vein in the antecubital fossa? a. Hickman b. Groshong c. PICC d. Raaf

c. PICC

Which of the following is not considered a portal of entry for pathogenic organisms? a. Mouth b. Nose c. Rectum d. Wound

c. Rectum

Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate when caring for a patient who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure? a. Observe accurately. b. Place padding under the head. c. Restrain movement as much as possible. d. Maintain the airway.

c. Restrain movement as much as possible.

c. Restrain movement as much as possible. This is also known as a Grand Mal seizures.

A minimal amount of brain damage, characterized by "seeing stars" or very brief loss of consciousness, is called: a. epistaxis. b. a coma. c. a concussion. d. vertigo.

c. a concussion.

Passive immunity is immunity that occurs as a result of: a. intact skin and mucous membranes. b. lysozyme in human tears. c. an injection of preformed antibodies. d. an infection with a specific organism.

c. an injection of preformed antibodies.

A spirochete is an example of a: a. virus. b. fungus. c. bacterium. d. prion.

c. bacterium.

An emergency drug that is a vasoconstrictor, increases cardiac output, raises blood pressure, and relaxes bronchioles is: a. amiodarone b. atropine c. epinephrine d. diazepam

c. epinephrine

When donning sterile gloves using the open gloving technique you should: a. grasp each glove by the fold, touching only the inside of the glove. b. grasp each glove under the cuff, touching only the outside of the glove. c. grasp the first glove by the fold and the second glove by inserting your fingers under the cuff. d. grasp the first glove by inserting your fingers under the cuff and the second glove by the fold.

c. grasp the first glove by the fold and the second glove by inserting your fingers under the cuff.

A common term for myocardial infarction is: a. asthma. b. stroke. c. heart attack. d. nosebleed.

c. heart attack.

Failure to apply pressure to the vein after discontinuing an IV can result in: a. coagulation. b. infiltration. c. hematoma. d. laceration.

c. hematoma.

A dizzy sensation that feels as if the room is spinning and that often causes nausea may be reported by patients who suffer from: a. allergy. b. asthma. c. inner ear disturbances. d. angina pectoris.

c. inner ear disturbances.

Joan Gordon, 72, has dentures, glasses, and a hearing aid. You should: a. instruct her to leave them with her clothes in the dressing room. b. carefully place them in the department office. c. place them in a container in the x-ray room and inform her of their location d. tell her to leave them at home next time.

c. place them in a container in the x-ray room and inform her of their location

c. place them in a container in the x-ray room and inform her of their location.

When you are scheduled for lunch and you have not completed a procedure, the best course of action is to: a. request that someone else take over for you. b. send out for a snack and eat hurriedly. c. postpone your meal until the procedure is completed. d. delay completion of the procedure until you return from lunch.

c. postpone your meal until the procedure is completed.

When you are scheduled for lunch and you have not completed a procedure, the best course of action is to: a. request that someone else take over for you. b. send out for a snack and eat hurriedly. c. postpone your meal until the procedure is completed. d.delay completion of the procedure until you return from lunch.

c. postpone your meal until the procedure is completed.

Following balloon inflation, the tip of a correctly placed Swan-Ganz catheter lies in the: a. right atrium. b. superior vena cava. c. pulmonary artery. d. right ventricle.

c. pulmonary artery.

An instrument that measures heart rate and oxygen saturation of hemoglobin is called a(n): a. oxygen perfusion monitor. b. digital cardio-oximeter. c. pulse oximeter. d. pedal pulsometer.

c. pulse oximeter.

An AED has the ability to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. analyze a cardiac rhythm. b. identify ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. c. remind staff to not touch the patient. d. deliver a shock.

c. remind staff to not touch the patient.

When an elderly female outpatient has bruises, abrasions, and decubitus ulcers, you should: a. understand that the elderly have tender skin and fall easily. b. pay no attention; it is none of your business. c. report suspected elder abuse to your supervisor while the patient is still present. d.ask the patient if she is being mistreated.

c. report suspected elder abuse to your supervisor while the patient is still present.

Any warm, moist place, such as the human body, where microorganisms can grow and reproduce is called a: a. portal of entry. b. susceptible host. c. reservoir of infection. d. carrier of the pathogen.

c. reservoir of infection.

When a patient is unable to cope with secretions or emesis because of a low level of consciousness, the emergency treatment most likely needed is: a. oxygen administration b. medication administration c. suction d. tracheotomy

c. suction

You should not use your thumb to take a pulse because: a. a stethoscope is needed for accuracy. b. your fingers are more sensitive. c. the pulse in your thumb may be felt instead of the patient's pulse. d. you may not detect a weak pulse with your thumb.

c. the pulse in your thumb may be felt instead of the patient's pulse.

The application of medication to the surface of the skin is referred to as the ___________ route of administration. a. dermal b. cutaneous c. topical d. enteral

c. topical

Subcellular organisms that are among the smallest known disease-causing microorganisms are called: a. rickettsiae. b. bacteria. c. viruses. d. fungi.

c. viruses.

Subcellular organisms that are among the smallest known disease-causing microorganisms are called: a. rickettsiae. b. bacteria. c. viruses. d. fungi.

c. viruses.

Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted: a. from contaminated water. b. from an occupational environment. c. within a hospital. d. with poor hygiene.

c. within a hospital.

During sleep, if a person is momentarily unable to contract respiratory muscles or maintain airflow through the nose and mouth, the condition is called sleep: a.Anemia b.Aphasia c.Apnea d.Dysphasia e.Antigen

c.Apnea

The transverse plane: a.Shows a side view of the body b.Divides the body into front and back portions c.Divides the body into upper and lower portions d.Divides the body into right and left parts e.Cannot be viewed with a CT scan

c.Divides the body into upper and lower portions

A specialist who treats glandular disorders is a(n): a.Gastroenterologist b.Rheumatologist c.Endocrinologist d.Hematologist e.Otolaryngologist

c.Endocrinologist

An excessive (more than normal) amount of sugar in the blood is called: a.Hypothyroidism b.Hyperthyroidism c.Hyperglycemic d.Hypoglycemic e.Hypodermic

c.Hyperglycemic

An increase in malignant white blood cells is a condition called: a.Leukocyte b.Leukocytosis c.Leukemia d.Leimypoma e.Leimysarcoma

c.Leukemia

Pain in a muscle or muscles is called: a.Arthralgia b.Arthritis c.Myalgia d.Myoma e.Myositis

c.Myalgia

A benign tumor of muscle is a(n): a.Adenoma b.Adenocarcinoma c.Myoma d.Myosarcoma e.Myocardial infarction

c.Myoma

"Clinical" means pertaining to: a.Time b.The lung c.Patient care d.Skin disorders e.Laboratory research

c.Patient care

The endocrine gland located at the base of the brain is the: a.Adrenal gland b.Prostate gland c.Pituitary gland d.Thyroid gland e.Pancreas

c.Pituitary gland

After Carl's leg was amputated to resect an osteosarcoma, he was fitted with an artificial leg known as a: a.Psychosis b.Resection c.Prosthesis d.Pleura e.neoplasm

c.Prosthesis

Nervous tissue surrounded by backbones is the: a.Vertebrae b.Spinal column c.Spinal cord d.Pelvis e.Brain

c.Spinal cord

Physicians performed an emergency __ to make a new opening in Ms. Jones' windpipe when she choked on a piece of food. a.Colocolostomy b.Colostomy c.Tracheostomy d.Mastectomy e.Cholesystectomy

c.Tracheostomy

The radiographic accessory used to measure the thickness of body parts in order to determine optimal selection of exposure factors is the: ruler fulcrum collimator caliper

caliper

The area where the trachea bifurcates to become the right and left main stem bronchi is called; epiglottis carina hilum alveoli

carina

Which part of the x-ray tube has the filament wires and focusing cup? housing anode cathode impregnated glass

cathode

Under the system of protective precautions, the radiographer who handles the x-ray unit: a.must wear sterile gloves. b.helps lift and move the patient. c.may touch only sterile items. d.drops the image receptor into a clean or sterile cover.

d. drops the image receptor into a clean or sterile cover. Remember the person that handles the equipment is the clean radiographer. The tech that handles the patients and anything that has come in contact with the patient is the dirty radiographer.

When doing a bedside examination of a critical neonate in the ICU, the radiographer should: 1. perform hand hygiene and don a gown before entering the unit. 2. remove the neonate from the incubator before taking the x-ray. 3. x-ray the neonate within the incubator. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3

d. 1 and 3

Fire marshals state that common infractions of fire safety rules in hospitals involve:1. improper storage of flammables.2. fire doors blocked open.3. unapproved extension cords.4. storing equipment in corridors. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2, and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

What type(s) of musculoskeletal disorder(s) is/are more likely to occur in technologists? 1. RMIs (repetitive motion injury) 2. RSIs (repetitive strain injury) 3. CTDs (cumulative trauma injury) 4. Vision problems (darkroom chemicals, computer screens) a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2, and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

When charting the administration of a medication, the record must include 1. the date and time of administration. 2. the name of the medication. 3. the strength of the medication. 4. the route of administration. a. 2 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are accepted methods for administering oxygen? 1. Mask 2. Nasal prongs 3. Ventilator 4. Tent a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are accepted methods for administering oxygen?1. Mask2. Nasal prongs3. Ventilator4. Tent a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following drugs is/are considered controlled substances under the Harrison act? 1. Morphine 2. Cocaine 3. Marijuana 4. LSD a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following is/are pharmacokinetic processes of medications? 1. Distribution 2. Metabolism 3. Excretion 4. Absorption a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A method of sterilization that has special indicators to change color, signifying that sterilization has been achieved, is: 1. autoclaving (steam sterilization). 2. conventional gas sterilization. 3. gas plasma technology. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

A nasogastric tube may be used to: 1. aspirate gas and fluid from the stomach. 2. feed the patient. 3. perform a radiographic exam of the stomach a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

If a patient without a history of vertigo experiences a sudden onset, it could be an indication of: 1. a transient ischemic attack. 2. a cerebrovascular accident. 3. a drug interaction. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

If a patient without a history of vertigo experiences a sudden onset, it could be an indication of:1. a transient ischemic attack.2. a cerebrovascular accident.3. a drug interaction. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Packages are considered sterile if they meet the following criteria: 1. The expiration date has not been exceeded. 2. The sterility indicators have changed to a predetermined color. 3. The package is clean and dry. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Precautions for the compromised patient may include: 1. cleaning equipment before entering room. 2. hand hygiene before entering the room. 3. the use of masks, gowns, and sometimes gloves. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

The 2020 National Patient Safety Goals include: 1. using at least two ways to identify patients. 2. improving staff communication. 3. using hand hygiene guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

When is it not advisable to take a temperature orally? 1. When the patient has had a hot or cold beverage 2. When the patient is receiving oxygen 3. When the patient is breathing through the mouth a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

When taking a radiograph of a patient with a new tracheostomy in diagnostic imaging, the following precautions must be observed: 1. Monitor patient closely for respiratory distress. 2. Ensure that suction equipment is available and functioning. 3 Don't unfasten the ties holding the tube in place a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is involved in the cycle of infection? 1. Pathogen 2. Mode of transmission 3. Susceptible host a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is involved in the cycle of infection? 1. Pathogen 2. Mode of transmission 3. Susceptible host a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following steps should radiographers follow before performing any bedside x-ray examination: 1. Check with the nurse in charge to inquire about the patient's condition. 2. Confirm the order in the patient's chart. 3. Greet the patient and check the room before bringing in the equipment. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following x-ray examinations may be performed in the ICU and CCU: 1. Bronchoscopy using the C-arm fluoroscope 2. Central venous catheter placement using the C-arm fluoroscope 3. Chest radiographs a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

When a fire extinguisher is needed, you should:1. pull the pin and squeeze the handle.2. aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.3. aim steadily where the fire appears hottest.4. use a sweeping motion from side to side . a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1, 2, and 4 only

d. 1, 2, and 4 only

Bedside radiography is often preferable to radiography in the diagnostic imaging department when patients are in: 1. the PACU. 2. isolation. 3. orthopedic traction. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, or 3

d. 1, 2, or 3

Hand hygiene refers to decontamination of the hands using: 1. soap and water. 2. alcohol-based hand rubs. 3. an antiseptic hand wash. a. 1 only b. 1 or 2 only c. 1 or 3 only d. 1, 2, or 3

d. 1, 2, or 3

A normal oxygen saturation value is represented by which of the following percentages? a. 65-75% b. 75-85% c. 85-95% d. 95-100%

d. 95-100%

Which of the following routes and methods is rarely used to monitor the body temperature of an adult patient? a. An oral electronic probe b. A tympanic probe c. A rectal electronic probe d. A disposable thermometer applied to the forehead

d. A disposable thermometer applied to the forehead

Before suctioning a patient, it is important to check the suction system for which of the following? a. The pump is working and a clean receptacle is connected to the pump b. There is adequate length of tubing connecting the suction catheter to the receptacle c. There are an assortment of disposable catheters available d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following sites should be used to monitor an irregular or slow pulse? a. Wrist - radial pulse b. Groin - femoral pulse c. Neck - carotid pulse d. Apex of the heart - apical pulse

d. Apex of the heart - apical pulse

After removing a dressing, you should dispose of it by: 1. sealing it in a plastic bag. 2. dropping it into the trash. 3. dropping it into a biohazard container. a. 2 only b. 3 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Both 1 and 3

d. Both 1 and 3

The radiographic protocols for trauma units usually state that which of the following radiographs should be taken on all trauma patients? a. Skull, chest, and lumbar spine images b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine images c. Skull, chest, and abdomen images d. Chest, pelvis, and lateral cervical spine images

d. Chest, pelvis, and lateral cervical spine images

Which of the following treatment situations presents the greatest risk to the patient if momentarily disconnected? a. Nasogastric tube b. Oxygen c. Urinary catheter d. Closed chest drainage

d. Closed chest drainage

Which of the listed sterilization methods requires that items be aerated before they can be dispensed for use? a. Autoclaving b. Chemical sterilization c. Gas plasma sterilization d. Conventional gas sterilization

d. Conventional gas sterilization

Which of the following laboratory values is the best indicator of kidney function? a. RBC count b. Serum bilirubin c. BUN d. Creatinine

d. Creatinine

Which of the following are NOT microorganisms? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Protozoa d. Fomites

d. Fomites

Which of the following are NOT microorganisms? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Protozoa d. Fomites

d. Fomites - fomites are surfaces in which microorganisms such as bacteria or viruses can survive on. Examples of fomites would be any surface, such as counter tops, IR cassettes, the portable, lead aprons, etc.

Which of the following laboratory tests would NOT be performed to determine the blood's ability to clot? a. Platelet count b. Prothrombin time c. Partial thromboplastin time d. Hemoglobin concentration

d. Hemoglobin concentration

The acronym RACE stands for: a. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Execute. b. Rescue, Announce, Contain, Evacuate. c. Rescue, Alarm, Calm, Execute. d. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate.

d. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate.

Which of the following describes the proper procedure for disposal of a safety needle and syringe following use? a. Recap the needle; remove from syringe, and dispose of both in a sharps container. b. Recap the needle; do not remove from syringe, and dispose of syringe in a sharps container. c. Recap needle, remove from syringe, discard syringe in garbage, and dispose of needle in sharps container. d. Retract needle, do not remove from syringe, and dispose of syringe in a sharps container.

d. Retract needle, do not remove from syringe, and dispose of syringe in a sharps container.

Which of the following procedures requires an assistant? a. Skin preparation for sterile injection b. Open gloving c. Application of a sterile dressing d. Sterile gowning

d. Sterile gowning

Treatment used to make an item germ-free is called: a. asepsis. b. disinfection. c. microbial dilution. d. Sterilization.

d. Sterilization.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to electrocardiograms? a. They are administered only by physicians. b. They are invasive procedures. c. They are used only to diagnose heart attacks. d. They are frequently used to monitor patients over time

d. They are frequently used to monitor patients over time

Diabetic ketoacidosis can be treated with: a. diet. b. exercise. c. medication. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Xylocaine (Lidocaine) is a drug found on the emergency code cart that can be used for treating cardiac emergencies because it is a(n): a. vasoconstrictor b. vasodilator c. anticonvulsant d. antidysrhythmic

d. antidysrhythmic

Type II diabetics may be at risk for Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic (HHNK) syndrome if they become: a. dehydrated. b. hyperglycemic. c. tired. d. both A and B.

d. both A and B.

Fear and anxiety cause many patients to suffer from a dry mouth. When a patient complains of thirst, you should: a. offer a drink of water with a straw. b. provide a cup of ice chips within reach. c. offer a choice of fruit juice, water, or ice chips d. check the chart before offering anything.

d. check the chart before offering anything.

d. check the chart before offering anything. Double check with immediate care giver, physician, nurse, radiologist.

A fracture that results in crushing of the bone into many small fragments is called a: a. compound fracture. b. depressed fracture. c. greenstick fracture. d. comminuted fracture.

d. comminuted fracture.

An x-ray order designated STAT indicates that the patient's well-being may be jeopardized by: a. x-ray exposure b. failure to supply supplemental oxygen c. lack of caution when moving the patient d. delay in implementing the order

d. delay in implementing the order

HIV and syphilis are examples of infections that are spread by means of: a. droplet contamination. b. airborne contamination. c. vectors. d. direct contact.

d. direct contact.

HIV and syphilis are examples of infections that are spread by means of: a. droplet contamination. b. airborne contamination. c. vectors. d. direct contact.

d. direct contact. Blood and body fluids are the vehicle of transfer.

Under the system of protective precautions, the radiographer who handles the x-ray unit: a. must wear sterile gloves. b. helps lift and move the patient. c. may touch only sterile items. d. drops the image receptor into a clean or sterile cover.

d. drops the image receptor into a clean or sterile cover.

If there is a fire in your immediate area, the FIRST thing you should do is: a. shout "Fire!" b. call a fire code. c. close the fire doors. d. evacuate everyone in the immediate area to a safe location.

d. evacuate everyone in the immediate area to a safe location.

A patient who suddenly demonstrates nervous irritability, cold clammy skin, weakness, hunger, and blurred vision requires the administration of: a. CPR. b. nitroglycerin. c. insulin. d. glucose.

d. glucose.

A "skin test," such as a test for tuberculosis, which is administered to an area on the anterior forearm, is an example of the _________________ route of medication administration. a. topical b. cutaneous c. enteral d. intradermal

d. intradermal

The practice of separating infectious patients from others and carefully controlling items that come in contact with these patients is called: a. microbial dilution. b. surgical asepsis. c. environmental asepsis. d. isolation technique.

d. isolation technique.

The safest posture for maintaining the airway of an unconscious patient who is vomiting is the: a. supine position. b. prone position. c. Sims position. d. lateral recumbent position.

d. lateral recumbent position.

It is important for radiographers to develop and use patient assessment skills so that they can: a. make an accurate diagnosis. b. decide what x-ray procedures to perform. c. decide what medication the patient should have. d. meet patient needs and set priorities.

d. meet patient needs and set priorities.

A position in which the patient is lying flat on his or her stomach is termed: a. supine. b. Trendelenburg. c. Sims position. d. prone.

d. prone.

Single-celled animals that are classified according to whether or not they are motile are called: a. prions. b. rickettsiae. c. virions. d. protozoa.

d. protozoa.

Mark Novak is an ambulatory inpatient who needs to urinate while in the imaging department. His chart states that a urine specimen is needed. You should: a. insist that Mark use a urinal. b. send Mark back to the nursing service immediately because this is not a radiology function. c. urge Mark to wait until the procedure is completed and he has returned to his room. d. provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen.

d. provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen.

The term diaphoretic means: a. cool. b. feverish. c. cyanotic. d. sweating.

d. sweating.

When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because of other medication he/she is taking, the effect is considered to be: a. idiosyncratic b. allergic c. toxic d. synergistic

d. synergistic

When a patient needs to void during an examination in the imaging department: a. it is not necessary to collect a specimen; this is a nursing function. b. all urine should be saved. c. nursing service should be notified. d. the chart should be checked to see if qualitative or quantitative specimens are needed.

d. the chart should be checked to see if qualitative or quantitative specimens are needed.

The most common cause of death for individuals under 40 years of age in the United States is: a. heart attack b. stroke c. cancer d. trauma

d. trauma

The suffix -osis means: a.Inflammation b.Tumor c.Pain d.Abnormal condition e.Visual examination

d.Abnormal condition

A cancerous tumor of glandular (epithelial) cells is a(n): a.Leukemia b.Hematuria c.Adenoma d.Adenocarcinoma e.Sarcoma

d.Adenocarcinoma

Deficiency of hemoglobin in red blood cells is a condition known as: a.Leukemia b.Septicemia c.Ischemia d.Anemia e.Uremia

d.Anemia

d.Antidysrhythmic or rhythms of the heart that are not conducive to life.

A skeletal muscle may undergo __ as a result of lack of physical exercise or as a result of neurologic or muscular disease. a.Aphasia b.Hypotrophy c.Hypertension d.Atrophy e.Nephrosis

d.Atrophy

An irregularity that occurs at birth is called a(n): a.Intrauterine condition b.Neonatal disorder c.Benigh condition d.Congenital anomaly e.Ectopic pregnancy

d.Congenital anomaly

The thyroid gland is an example of an __ gland. a.Epidermis b.Exocrine c.Esophageal d.Endocrine e.Epidural

d.Endocrine

Prefixes with similar meanings are poly- and: a.re- b.Dys- c.Syn- d.Hyper- e.Hypo-

d.Hyper-

Ren/o and nephr/o both mean: a.Heart b.Liver c.Blood d.Kidney e.Intestine

d.Kidney

If an organ slides or falls forward, the resulting condition is called: a.Neoplasm b.Relapse c.Remission d.Prolapse e.Dysmenorrhea

d.Prolapse

A doctor specializing in treatment of diseases using high-energy radiation is a: a.Geriatrician b.Pathologist c.Radiologist d.Radiation oncologist e.Dermatologist

d.Radiation oncologist

The plane that divides the body into right and left sides is called the __ plane. a.Frontal b.Transverse c.Cervical d.Sagittal e.Sacral

d.Sagittal

If an irritating chemical has splashed in your eye, you should: a. go to the emergency department. b. cover the eye with an eye patch. c.go immediately to the eyewash station in the laboratory at the opposite end of the building. d.flood the eye with running water from the most convenient source.

d.flood the eye with running water from the most convenient source.

Mark Novak is an ambulatory inpatient who needs to urinate while in the imaging department. His chart states that a urine specimen is needed. You should: a. insist that Mark use a urinal. b. send Mark back to the nursing service immediately because this is not a radiology function. c. urge Mark to wait until the procedure is completed and he has returned to his room. d.provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen.

d.provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen.

If SID is increased and all other factors remain the same, what is the effect on exposure? increase decrease no effect

decrease

How will increasing the focal spot size affect resolution? increase it have no effect on it decrease it

decrease it

When mA is increased, what must be done to exposure time in order to maintain the same exposure to the IR? match the time with the kVp keep the time the same increase time decrease time

decrease time

If the mA is increased, how must the time be changed in order to maintain the same exposure? increased decreased doubled reduced by one half

decreased

Which of the following combinations is most likely associated with quantum mottle? decreased mAs, decreased SID increased mAs, increased SID decreased mAs, increased kVp increased mAs, decreased kVp

decreased mAs, increased kVp

Why is an x-ray tube immersed in oil? dissipate heat reduce noise filtration prevent sparking

dissipate heat

Misrepresentation of the true size or shape of an object is the definition of which of the following? spatial resolution elongation magnification distortion

distortion

A device that is used for detection and measurement of exposure from x-radiation is called a: primary barrier filter dosimeter secondary barrier

dosimeter

Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the fetus is called: a.Arthrocentesis b.Arteriosclerosis c.Hysterectomy d.Laparotomy e.Amniocentesis

e.Amniocentesis

A series of x-ray images that show the body in cross section is called: a.MRI b.Chest x-rays c.Gastroscopy d.Laparoscopy e.CT

e.CT

Flexible connective tissue found between bones at joints is: a.Nervous tissue b.Muscle tissue c.Skin d.Epithelial tissue e.Cartilage

e.Cartilage

Sarah's oncologist prescribed intensive drug treatment known as __ for her breast cancer. a.Radiotherapy b.Cryotherapy c.Dialysis d.Needle biopsy e.Chemotherapy

e.Chemotherapy

An incision of the skull is a(n): a.Gastrotomy b.Laparotomy c.Phlebotomy d.Oophorectomy e.Craniotomy

e.Craniotomy

Two prefixes that mean "within" are: a.Ante and pro b.Extra and ec c.Hypo and sub d.Syn and con e.Endo and intra

e.Endo and intra

Inflammation of the stomach and small intestine is called: a.Enteritis b.Endocarditis c.Appendicitis d.Hepatitis e.Gastroenteritis

e.Gastroenteritis

Separation of waste (urea) from the blood by filtration through a machine is called: a.Electroencephalography b.Arthrocentesis c.Peritoneal dialysis d.Abdominocentesis e.Hemodialysis

e.Hemodialysis

A word part meaning "under," "deficient," or "less than normal" is: a.re- b.Hyper- c.Trans- d.-emia e.Hypo-

e.Hypo-

A disorder unexpectedly caused by treatment prescribed by a doctor is called: a.Neuralic b.Neurogenic c.Oncogenic d.Carcinogenic e.Iatrogenic

e.Iatrogenic

Nerve pain is called: a.Neural b.Arthralgia c.Cephalgia d.Nueuralgia e.Neuralgia

e.Neuralgia

A doctor trained to treat eye disorders and can also perform eye surgeries is an: a.Oncologist b.Optician c.Optometrist d.Orthopedist e.Ophthalmologist

e.Ophthalmologist

Inflammation of the membrane surrounding the lungs is called: a.Bronchitis b.Pleural effusion c.Pneumonitis d.Bursitis e.Pleuritis or pleurisy

e.Pleuritis or pleurisy

A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), commonly known as a stroke, can be caused by: a.Gastritis b.Osteitis c.Adenosis d.Dermatitis e.Thrombosis

e.Thrombosis

Renal failure leads to the blood condition called: a.Vasculitis b.Cystitis c.Menorrhagia d.Thrombosis e.Uremia

e.Uremia

The delivery of medications via parenteral route would be: a.Oral b.Intermuscular c.Subcutanous d.Intradermal e.b, c & d only

e.b, c & d only

Tube angulation will produce which of the following types of shape distortion? minification magnification elongation foreshortening

elongation

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? pleural effusion congestive hear failure (CHF) emphysema pneumonia

emphysema

Which of the following factors that affect scatter radiation can be controlled by the RT? field size added filtration mAs SID

field size

All of the following have an impact on IR exposure except: focal spot size OID SID photon energy

focal spot size

If the central ray is perpendicular to the IR, but the part is angled, what will be the result? foreshortening magnification elongation minification

foreshortening

Increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important considerations when working with which of the following groups? geriatric patients infants adolescents children

geriatric patients

What is the single most effective means of controlling the spread of infectious microorganisms? hand washing sterilization wearing gloves wearing a mask

hand washing

Filtration is sometimes referred to as: beam restriction hardening the beam softening the beam directing the beam

hardening the beam

Another term to describe nosocomial infections is: health care-associated infections iatrogenic airbourne droplet

health care-associated infections

When electrons strike the target of an x-ray tube, most of their energy is converted to what? heat x-rays gamma rays light

heat

Which of the following techniques would you choose to minimize patient dose? low kVp & high mAs high kVp & high mAs low kVp & low mAs high kVp & low mAs

high kVp & low mAs

No practical amount of mAs can ever compensate for which of the following? inadequate exposure time inadequate kVp inadequate grid ratio inadequate SID

inadequate kVp

What line is parallel to the IR with the Mortise view of the ankle? intermediary line intertrochanteric line subtalar line intermalleolar line

intermalleolar line

An ambulatory patient is one who: arrives by ambulance is unable to walk is able to walk has difficulty breathing

is able to walk

How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled? its intensity increases four times its intensity increases two times its intensity decreases two times its intensity decreases four times

its intensity decreases four times

A notch or depression located on the superior portion of the sternum is called; sternal angle sternal border jugular notch xiphoid notch

jugular notch

If kVp is decreased, what happens to the spatial resolution of the image? kVp has no effect on spatial resolution increased decreased

kVp has no effect on spatial

In general, as the thickness of the anatomy increases: no changes need to be made kVp is increased mAs is increased distance is increased

kVp is increased

Which of the following increases the penetrating power of the x-ray beam? kilovoltage seconds distance milliamperage

kilovoltage

Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed: secondary radiation leakage radiation remnant radiation scattered radiation

leakage radiation

The position shown in the diagram is known as: dorsal decubitus left lateral decubitus right lateral decubitus ventral decubitus

left lateral decubitus

Which of the following factors does NOT influence subject contrast? kV atomic number of tissue mAs tissue thickness

mAs

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior & posterior halves, is termed the: sagittal plane transverse plane median sagittal plane midcoronal plane

midcoronal plane

A satisfactory receptor exposure was obtained using 12 mAs and 400 mA. What exposure time would be required to produce the same receptor exposure using 1200 mA? 100 ms 10 ms 1 ms 0.1 ms

not 0.1 ms

Sources of medical radiation exposure include: 1. computed tomography 2. sonography 3. magnetic resonance imaging 1 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 1, 2, and 3

not 1 and 3

In the lateral projection of the scapula the: 1. Vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. 2. Acromian and coracoid processes are superimposed. 3. Patient may be examined in the erect position 1, 2, and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1 only

not 1,2,3

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected. 1 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only

not 2 and 3 only

An image demonstrating many brightness levels or shades of gray, with only slight difference between the levels/shades is said to possess: 1. long-scale contrast 2. low contrast 3. short scale of contrast 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 only 1 and 2 only

not 2 only

Which projection best demonstrates pathology involving the first carpometacarpal joint? A. PA scaphoid, ulnar deviation wrist projection B. Norgaard method C. PA oblique thumb D. AP thumb, modified Robert's method

not A

Which of the following is a measure of energy deposited in material? Sv Gray Air kerma RBE

not Sv

Thick, soft bone marked by bowing and fractures: Metastases Paget's disease Gout Osgood Schlatter's disease

not gout

In which of the following positions / projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? A. Lateral foot B. Medial oblique position of the foot C. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot D. Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

not lateral foot

The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the following positions? medial oblique lateral oblique lateral AP

not lateral oblique

Which portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint? Radial head Semilunar/trochlear notch Capitulum Trochlea

not radial head

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges? 30-degree lateral oblique foot 30-degree medial oblique foot Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toe Tangential metatarsals/toes

not the first one

Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal? lateral foot weight-bearing foot medial oblique foot lateral oblique foot

not weight bearing

When a physician orders that a patient should be NPO, what does this mean? the patient is on bed rest nothing is given by mouth the patient may have ice chips only all urine is saved

nothing is given by mouth

Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position? orthopnea dyspnea oligopnea apnea

orthopnea

What membrane lines the pleural cavity? visceral parietal pleura parietal pulmonary

parietal pleura

The single most important scattering object in both radiography and fluoroscopy is the: patient x-ray table x-ray tube IR

patient

The use of higher mAs and lower kVp will increase which of the following? distortion spatial resolution patient dose production of scatter radiation

patient dose

The primary function of filtration is to reduce: scattered radiation radiographer's dose patient skin dose image noise

patient skin dose

Some patients, such as infants and children, are unable to maintain the necessary radiographic position without assistance. If mechanical restraining devices can not be used, who of the following should be the first choice to help immobilize the patient? patient's mother patient's father radiographer student radiographer

patient's father

Which of the following contributes most to patient dose? Classic scatter Compton scatter Thompson scatter photoelectric effect

photoelectric effect

The medial oblique wrist will demonstrate the ________ in profile. pisiform triquetrum hamate scaphoid

pisiform

Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of: emphysema pleural effusion bronchitis ascites

pleural effusion

Fluid within the pleural cavity is termed; pleural effusion pneumo effusion atelectasis pneumothorax

pleural effusion

Pathologic or abnormal conditions that would require an increase in exposure factors include all of the following except: ascites pneumonia Paget's disease pneumothorax

pneumothorax

Which of the following personnel radiation monitors will provide an immediate reading? TLD pocket dosimeter lithium fluoride chips film badge

pocket dosimeter

When a light illuminated collimator is used, which of the following components remains within the path of the x-ray beam? collimator light bulb none of the options motion timer positioning mirror

positioning mirror

The bucky slot cover is in place to protect the: radiographer and patient radiologist patient radiologist and radiographer

radiologist and radiographer?

Which of the following describes the radiation that makes up the x-ray beam after it has passed through the patient? scatter radiation primary radiation remnant radiation secondary radiation

remnant radiation

A patient comes to the department and they cannot stand. Pleural effusion is suspected in the right lung. What view would you choose to do? left lateral decubitus supine lordotic right lateral decubitus pulmonary oblique's

right lateral decubitus

Which carpal bone is most often fractured? scaphoid pisiform hamate greater multangular

scaphoid

The protective control booth from which the radiographer makes the x-ray exposure is a: primary barrier secondary barrier useful beam barrier remnant radiation barrier

secondary barrier

What bone classification are carpals? flat long irregular short

short

Log rolling is a method of moving patients with suspected: bowel obstruction extremity fracture spinal injury head injury

spinal injury

When a patient is unable to cope with oral secretions because of a low level of consciousness, the treatment most likely needed is: medication administration suction oxygen administration tracheotomy

suction

Which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate? deep arteries deep veins superficial arteries superficial veins

superficial arteries

The anode of an x-ray tube is made from what metal? lead tungsten molybdenum copper

tungsten

The normal adult oral body temperature is: 100.4 degrees F 98.6 degrees F 97.6 degrees F 99.6 degrees F

unsure... 98.6?

The fractional amount of time that a particular barrier is being struck by radiation is referred to as the: occupancy factor workload use factor controlling factor

use factor

Spatial resolution can be improved by which of the following? more exposure to the IR higher subject contrast use of the small focal spot decreasing SID

use of the small focal spot

The transport of microorganisms by means of contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood is referred to as: vehicle reservoir vector fomite

vehicle

C-7 is also known as; costal prominence sternal angle cervical prominences vertebral prominences

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