P/S: 3-4
A. A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores The answer to this question is A because a valid measure is one that actually measures what it is intended to assess. Because both the DMQ (a self-report measure) and the CG (a behavioral measure) were intended to assess risky behavior, a positive correlation between the two measures would support the validity of the DMQ measure.
A study was designed to examine the role of peer pressure on risky behaviors across different age groups. The participants were post-pubescent adolescents, young adults, and adults. The majority of the participants were White. The measures were a decision-making questionnaire (DMQ) and a computer game (CG). The DMQ presented the participants with hypothetical dilemmas that involved risky decisions and asked them what they would do if they were faced with these dilemmas. In the CG, the player watched an animated car move toward a stoplight that was yellow. The player was instructed to press a button to stop the car before the light turned red. The objective of the game was for the car to advance as much as possible without running a red light. For both the DMQ and the CG, higher scores indicated riskier behavior Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ measure? A. A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores B. A negative correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores C. A positive correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ D. A negative correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ
C. a drive drives are internal states of tension that we are motivated to reduce. we use defense mechanisms as a way to reduce our drive (unconscious conflict)
According to the psychodynamic theory, conflict between the superego and the id leads to unconscious conflict. The ego attempts to reduce this conflict through the use of defense mechanisms. Based on this description, the unconscious conflict functions as: A. a need B. negative reinforcement C. a drive D. negative punishment
B. extinction of an classically conditioned response Phobias are acquired through classical conditioning. Counter conditioning is very similar to extinction seen in classical conditioning. It is the process of getting rid of an unwanted response. But in counter conditioning the unwanted response does not just disappear, it is replaced by a new, wanted response.
An individual experiences shortness of breath and panic in confined spaces. To overcome this reaction, the individual decides to spend time in a confined space until the shortness of breath and panic response are eliminated. The patient is using which method to eliminate the symptoms? A extinction of an operantly conditioned response B. extinction of an classically conditioned response C. counter conditioning D. aversive conditioning
B. Disinhibition The passage states that excessive alcohol use is associated with preventable injuries, which are more often due to binge drinking than to alcohol dependence. Disinhibition is associated with binge drinking and often leads to risk taking, which can lead to preventable injuries.
Excessive alcohol use is also associated with preventable injuries, which are more likely to result from binge drinking than alcohol dependence. The distinction between binge drinking and alcohol dependence in the passage is best described as attributing preventable injuries to which effect of alcohol use? A. Tolerance B. Disinhibition C. Negative reinforcement D. Positive reinforcement
A. the dependent variable is temporally prior to measurement of the independent variable Temporal is related to time and spatial to space/area. What does prior mean? Prior means before. So they are saying "in time before the effects". They are asking if physiological responses to stress are associated with low birth weights. Why would it be important to know if the had the psychological responses before giving birth when asking this question? So the answer is saying that there is a flaw because the dependent variable (low birth weight) is being measured before the independent variable (psychological response to stress). Which is why there is a flaw because you want to measure the independent variable before the dependent variable.
In the United States, low birth weight is disproportionately prevalent among racial and ethnic minority groups and has been linked to specific environmental and social characteristics of neighborhoods. Using data from approximately 100,000 live births in Chicago, a study found low birth weight to be related to the presence of environmental stressors, such as high violent crime rates, and to a scarcity of social resources, such as limited reciprocal exchange among neighbors. In addition to these neighborhood characteristics, the investigators discovered a spatial distribution to birth weight, observing that mean birth weight in a given neighborhood was systematically related to mean birth weight in adjacent neighborhoods. A researcher wants to determine whether the findings from the first study are also influenced by psychological responses to stress. To test this idea, a random sample of mothers from the first study is later given a stress assessment. What is the flaw in this research design? A. the dependent variable is temporally prior to measurement of the independent variable B. the independent variable is temporally prior to measurement of the dependent variable C. the updated sample contains too little variation to draw reliable conclusions D. the updated sample is not representative of the population of mothers
D. Craving Craving symptoms (strong desire to ingest a drug) are consistent with the description in the relevant passage section (identified in the question).
Interventions that target substance use in adolescents are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors that could lead to dependence. Although psychoactive drugs vary in terms of their risk of dependence, one of the factors associated with substance use disorders (SUD) in adolescents is the strong desire to ingest a drug (or other substance). The description of dependence and substance use disorders in the passage suggests which type of drug-related symptom? A. Habituation B. Tolerance C. Withdrawal D. Craving
D. Classical conditioning and cognitive processes The answer to this question is D because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on classical conditioning of a fear response to bodily sensations, whereas Maintenance Factor 2 focuses on cognitive appraisal (interpretation) of bodily sensations.
Panic disorder (PD) is diagnosed when a patient is preoccupied with the possibility of panic attacks and experiences behavioral changes as a result of this preoccupation. According to some researchers, interoceptive awareness contributes to maintenance factors for PD. Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Another maintenance factor for PD is the misappraisal of bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 2), such as interpreting bodily sensations as signs of imminent death or loss of control. Some researchers suggest that such misappraisals are largely responsible for the excessive panic and fear that PD patients experience during a panic attack. Which two processes best summarize maintenance factors 1 and 2, respectively? A. Operant conditioning and top-down processes B. Classical conditioning and affective processes C. Operant conditioning and physiological processes D. Classical conditioning and cognitive processes
B. A negative correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the personal distress questionnaire the personal distress questionnaire is measuring one's empathy for when you see other's in pain, thus you would expect to see a positive correlation between the empathy questionnaire and the personal distress questionnaire, NOT a negative correlation. A negative correlation could indicate an invalid measure of empathy
Perspective-taking and empathy are two related concepts. Each requires focusing on another person, yet perspective-taking is cognitive and empathy is affective. A group of researchers hypothesized that perspective-taking and empathy are two separate skills and designed two studies to test this hypothesis. At the start of both studies, the participants filled out four self-report questionnaires addressing the following: perspective-taking skills, empathy, personal distress when witnessing other people's pain, and fantasy perspective taking (for example, getting really involved in the feelings and thoughts of characters in a novel). Higher scores on these questionnaires indicated higher levels of perspective-taking skills, empathy, personal distress, and fantasy perspective taking. The researchers' purpose was to see if scores on these variables were associated with participants' success rates in studies 1 and 2. Which of the following findings would suggest that the empathy questionnaire is NOT a valid measure? A. A positive correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the perspective taking skills questionnaire B. A negative correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the personal distress questionnaire C. A positive correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the fantasy perspective taking skills questionnaire D. No correlation between the scores on the empathy questionnaire and the amount of money won in the competition trials
C. Early alcohol use begins with positive reinforcement, while later use is maintained by negative reinforcement. Positive reinforcement in adolescence because you continue to drink because of wanting to add the affects of the positive mood drinking alcohol can bring. Negative reinforcement in adulthood because you are taking away the negative emotions by increasing the behavior (drinking)
Research on stress and alcohol suggests multiple factors contribute to alcohol dependence. Neuronal changes during adolescence have been linked to sensation-seeking behaviors. For adolescents who experiment with alcohol in peer groups, sensation-seeking behaviors may become associated with alcohol's positive effects on mood. Some researchers hypothesize that dependence develops later in life when alcohol is consumed to alleviate negative emotions. Which statement best applies conditioning principles to explain the progression from alcohol experimentation in adolescence to alcohol dependence in adulthood? A. Early alcohol use begins with stimulus discrimination, while later use is maintained by stimulus generalization. B. Early alcohol use is initiated by modeling, while later use is modified by shaping. C. Early alcohol use begins with positive reinforcement, while later use is maintained by negative reinforcement. D. Early alcohol use is an unconditioned response, while later use is a conditioned response.
A. Episodic When participants respond to questions about their childhood health history, they are retrieving autobiographical information, which is an important type of episodic memory. Semantic memory refers to the processing of general world knowledge, which is only tangentially relevant to answering questions about one's childhood.
Researchers combined data from the U.S. Panel Study of Income Dynamics, which collects information on education, income, work, and marriage, with a retrospective child health history. The health history asked participants to report physical illnesses, such as asthma, or psychological disorders, such as depression, that they experienced before the age of 18. Participant responses to the childhood health history in Study 1 were dependent on retrieving which type of information from memory? A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Procedural D. Implicit
D. The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy is an unintended, though beneficial, outcome of a yoga practice. Out of the answer choices, only D could be from the view of a structural functionalist if they came to the conclusion that yoga's utility is a latent/unintended function of cessation therapy
Researchers designed a study to examine the efficacy of yoga as a smoking cessation therapy. Yoga was specifically chosen because it combines a practice of physical postures with a meditative component. Fifty-five female participants were randomly assigned into groups of eight to ten individuals and were then placed in one of two conditions. The experimental condition paired a weekly hour-long cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program for smoking cessation with a twice-weekly, hour-long Vinyasa yoga practice (N = 32). The control condition consisted of CBT for an hour once a week that included discussion of good health practices and decision-making processes (N = 23). The results of the study indicated that at the end of the eight-week treatment, yoga participants were more likely to have abstained from smoking for seven days prior to the follow-up. Participants in the experimental condition were also more likely to have successfully abstained at the three- and six-month intervals when compared to the control condition, though these differences were not statistically significant. Yoga participants reported both greater increases in positive affect and greater reductions in negative affect compared to those in the control condition. How would a structural functionalist interpret the efficacy of yoga as part of a smoking cessation therapy? A. Yoga provides an alternate understanding of healthful practices that enables the individual to better understand his or her personal needs and motives. B. Yoga provides an inexpensive therapy option for those lacking the financial resources necessary for more expensive medical interventions. C. The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy stems from the transformation of the individual's self-concept as a nonsmoker. D. The utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy is an unintended, though beneficial, outcome of a yoga practice.
A. Immediate performance feedback reduces impulsive responding in children with ADHD. - remember that impulsivity would be associated with ADHD The answer to this question is A because the children in the gaming condition received immediate feedback after each response. In addition, they attempted more sequences and made fewer errors than children in the non-gaming condition. Therefore, children in the gaming condition most likely showed less impulsivity in terms of response selection, compared to children in the non-gaming condition.
Researchers examined whether adding gaming elements to a computerized working memory task for children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) was beneficial. Fifty-one children between 7 and 12 years of age with ADHD were randomly assigned to a computer task with either a non-gaming or gaming format. In the non-gaming condition, squares on a four-by-four grid lit up in random order on a screen. Participants were asked to replicate the pattern by clicking their computer mouse on the squares in the same sequence. Trial difficulty was adjusted depending on participants' performance. In the gaming condition, animated figures were added. Points were earned by responding correctly, which strengthened participants' efforts and weakened animated opponents. Points were lost by responding incorrectly, strengthening the opponents' power. Trials of varying difficulty were presented randomly to participants. The training session for each condition lasted 35 minutes. After 15 minutes, participants were given a choice to continue playing the game or read a magazine. Results indicated that participants in the gaming condition spent more time playing the game, attempted to replicate more sequences, and made fewer errors. These participants also earned higher scores on the block-tapping task compared to children in the non-gaming condition. The same participants were also more likely to report liking the game and wanting a version to play at home. Based on the findings in the study, which conclusion about ADHD is most likely? A. Immediate performance feedback reduces impulsive responding in children with ADHD. B. Exposure to a gaming element increases impulsive responding in children with ADHD. C. Gaming elements on working memory tasks place high demands on divided attention and inhibit focus. D. Low levels of intrinsic motivation in children with ADHD are minimally enhanced with external reinforcers.
D. All participants in the study scored below the threshold for diagnosis for insomnia after treatment. The answer to this question is D because the findings represent group differences and changes rather than changes for individual participants. Be careful with the language used. All participants means every single individual one rather than the overall or average.
Researchers were interested in the comparative effectiveness of BT, CT, and CBT in treating insomnia and in extending the studied treatment outcomes to include the improvement of poor daytime functioning linked to insomnia. They recruited 188 adults who met multiple criteria for insomnia. Fewer than 12% of interested individuals met the rigorous exclusion criteria, including irregular sleep schedules and unwillingness to reduce alcohol and caffeine ingestion. Participants were randomly assigned to one of the three therapies (BT, CT, and CBT), all of which involved eight weekly individual sessions with a trained therapist. Participants completed measures of insomnia severity and work/social adjustment (daytime functioning across work, home, social, and interpersonal activities) at three time points: before the start of therapy (baseline), immediately following therapy, and at a 6-month follow-up. Using the diagnostic criteria displayed in Figure 1 to classify individuals for treatment, which of the following statements is NOT supported? A. At baseline, participants in all three therapy groups had similar levels of moderately severe insomnia. B. Immediately after treatment, participants in all three therapy groups scored below the threshold for diagnosis for insomnia. C. Across all three therapy groups, average scores remained below threshold for diagnosis at the 6-month follow-up. D. All participants in the study scored below the threshold for diagnosis for insomnia after treatment.
A. The desire to reach one's goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill. The passage describes autonomous motivation as a drive. Individuals are motivated to initiate behaviors that are consistent with their values.
Self-determination theory (SDT), on the other hand, focuses on autonomous motivation. Autonomous motivation refers to self-initiating behaviors that are tied to one's values and goals Which statement best explains autonomous motivation? A. The desire to reach one's goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill. B. Living a life consistent with one's values is socially reinforced. C. Individuals are motivated to perform behaviors that result in appetitive internal states. D. Individuals are reinforced to perform behaviors that are associated with progress.
D. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes A rigid behaviorist approach rejects SCT's assumption that cognitions can act as motivators for behavior. Instead, it holds that only actual outcomes of a behavior determine whether that behavior will be repeated.
Social cognitive theory (SCT) holds that self-efficacy is a key factor in persevering in attempts to achieve one's goal. In addition to self-efficacy, according to SCT, individuals' beliefs regarding whether their behaviors will lead to positive and negative outcomes also motivate behavior. This theory posits that, in addition to self-efficacy, self-satisfaction has a causal effect on behavior. Self-satisfaction with one's performance leads to perseverance, whereas dissatisfaction leads to abandoning behaviors toward a goal. Are the assumptions of SCT regarding the role of participants' beliefs (paragraph 3) consistent with a traditional behaviorist approach? A. Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach also emphasizes changes in behavior due to desirable and undesirable outcomes B. Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that repeated exposure to certain outcomes shapes beliefs regarding these outcomes C. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that mental states are involved only in classical conditioning, not operant conditioning D. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes
B. Operant conditioning The finding focuses on reward-seeking motivation, which is most closely associated with operant conditioning. they don't say that dopamine was conditioned to be associated with reward seeking behavior. they are just saying that the increase dopamine causes a change in behavior that increases reward-seeking which is more similar to operant conditioning
Some studies have found that increases in dopamine activity are associated with increased reward-seeking motivation. This finding suggests an association between dopamine levels and which type of learning? A. Classical conditioning B. Operant conditioning C. Latent learning D. Observational learning
B. Presence of withdrawal symptoms Although aggressive behaviors can be associated with alcohol use, the presence of such behaviors can be the result of several other factors besides alcohol dependence. Alcohol dependence is most strongly indicated by withdrawal symptoms.
Statistical analyses revealed that retrospective reports of depressive symptoms or alcohol dependence were associated with lower income during adulthood. The findings of Study 1 suggest that the assessment of alcohol use involved which indicator? A. Presence of aggressive behaviors B. Presence of withdrawal symptoms C. Difficulty with memory function D. Difficulty with impulse control
B. Different types of perceptual organization become functional over time. The results show that infant preference for a novel stimulus depends on the age of the infant. Younger infants show preference for lightness-darkness perception but not form perception, and older infants show a preference for form perception. This difference suggests that different types of perceptual organization mature over time.
Studies have shown that infants as young as 3 months of age show elements of perceptual organization. In Study 1, groups of 3- to 4-month-old infants in the United States were tested on their ability to organize visual pattern information based on lightness and darkness. The results indicated that 3- to 4-month-old infants preferred novel perceptual stimuli. In Study 2, 3- to 4-month-old and 6- to 7-month-old infants in the United States were tested on their ability to organize visual pattern information based on form. The results indicated that the 3- to 4-month-old infants demonstrated no preference for novel or familiar images, but 6- to 7-month-old infants preferred novel perceptual stimuli. Based on the results of studies 1 and 2, which conclusion about human perceptual development is supported? A. Perceptual organization is innate and constant over time. B. Different types of perceptual organization become functional over time. C. Different types of perceptual organization cannot be reliably measured during infancy due to differences represented in the results. D. Perceptual organization represented in the studies is mainly due to top-down processes.
C. retrieval took place immediately after list presentation The answer to this question is C because the graph shows both a primacy effect and a recency effect as exemplified by enhanced free recall performance for items that are at the beginning and end of the list. Primacy effect refers to the improved memory for items that appear earlier in the list and have been encoded into long-term memory. Recency effect refers to the recall of items that are still in short-term memory. For this to occur, recall needs to take place immediately after encoding, when the final items are still held in short-term memory. If retrieval had taken place 20 minutes after encoding, then the recency effect would not have been possible.
The graph shows the results of a study in which participants are asked to recall a list of fifteen words. Which statement is supported by the graph? A. there is no primacy effect B. there is no recency effect C. retrieval took place immediately after list presentation D. retrieval took place 20 minutes after encoding
C. On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group. Think about group behaviors and look at the answer choices. Because this isn't about the content of the alternatives (more extreme-> group polarization and can't be groupthink because it is comparing individuals vs. group and groupthink only happens in a group) it has to be about social loafing which refers to the fact that people are more productive alone than in a group.
To determine the effectiveness of brainstorming, a researcher designs a study in which participants are asked to produce alternatives to an existing marketing strategy on their own or with a group. Which pattern of results is most likely based on research on group processes? A. Groups arrive at the improved alternatives more often than individuals. B. Groups are more likely to critically evaluate alternatives than individuals. C. On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group. D. On average, participants produce more alternatives in a group than alone.
B. The molecular profile of puberty-accelerating, chemosensory neurons differs between mouse strains. The answer to this question is B because there was most likely a difference in the receptiveness of the two inbred strains of mice, as the same signal applied to two separate strains produced opposing results. The pheromone would be detected by chemosensory neurons.
Urine from inbred strain (Strain A) male mice was swabbed every day for one week on the nostrils of female mice of inbred strain (Strain B). Compared to unswabbed, female Strain B mice, uterine weight, but not total body weight, increased in the swabbed mice. Strain A male urine had no effect on uterine weight or body weight of inbred, female Strain C mice. Which statement best explains these results? A. Conserved evolution of pheromones preserves the ability of male mice to elicit pheromone-mediated behaviors in female mice. B. The molecular profile of puberty-accelerating, chemosensory neurons differs between mouse strains. C. Pheromone-mediated stimulation causes accelerated female reproductive development in Strain C mice compared to Strain B mice. D. Genetic variation between Strain A male mice resulted in inconsistent pheromone concentration in the urine applied to the female groups of mice.
Immigrant groups that are more assimilated (or as they become assimilated) tend to have worse health outcomes (or lose their previous health advantages) than less assimilated immigrant groups.
What are the effects of immigrant assimilation on health outcomes?
It indicates a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal
What does electrical conductivity of the skin measure?
A case study involves an up-close, in-depth, and detailed examination of a particular case or cases, within a real-world context.[1][2] For example, case studies in medicine may focus on an individual patient or ailment; case studies in business might cover a particular firm's strategy or a broader market; similarly, case studies in politics can range from a narrow happening over time (e.g., a specific political campaign) to an enormous undertaking (e.g., a World War). Generally, a case study can highlight nearly any individual, group, organization, event, belief system, or action. A case study does not necessarily have to be one observation (N=1), but may include many observations (one or multiple individuals and entities across multiple time periods, all within the same case study)
What is a case study?
a stage in language development, usually occurring during a child's 2nd year, when a marked increase occurs in the rate at which new words are added to the child's productive vocabulary.
What is the "naming explosion?"
The glass escalator effect describes the differences in upward advancement between men and women in the workplace, particularly those workplaces that are female-dominated. The sociological concept of the "glass escalator" suggests that men who pursue occupations that have high proportions of women (such as teaching or nursing) will quickly ascend the career ladder with promotions. As indicated in this option, the glass escalator concept would predict that men are likely to be granted supervisory roles.
What is the glass escalator concept?
These drugs include benzodiazepines (such as diazepam and lorazepam), barbiturates,
What kind of drugs are sedatives? give example
D. Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus. A. This statement describes retinal height, which is a monocular depth cue. B. This statement describes occlusion, which is a monocular depth cue. C. This statement describes texture gradient, which is a monocular depth cue. D. Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity, which is a binocular depth cue.
Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A. Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B. Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C. Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D. Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.
B. Hallucinogens Hallucinogens have low risk of dependence, whereas the other substances listed as possible answers carry a moderate to high risk of physical or psychological dependence (the question does not require making a distinction between either)
Which type of psychoactive drug has the lowest risk of dependence? A. Stimulants B. Hallucinogens C. Alcohol D. Sedatives
D. locus of control The answer to this question is D because the therapist is attempting to encourage the patient to attribute his/her problems to internal controllable factors rather than an uncontrollable internal factor.
A patient diagnosed with depression blames all professional failure on personal incompetence. The therapist tries to change the patient's thinking by suggesting that the perceived failures may be due to a lack of effort. The therapist is most likely attempting to change the patient's: A. self-serving bias B. belief perseverance C. hindsight bias D. locus of control
D. a dissociative disorder. because the other memory for life events is intact, it can't be retrograde amnesia dissociative disorder is associated with past trauma which could have been caused by the martial problems and symptoms include amnesia
A patient who is experiencing severe marital problems reports having no memory of any life events surrounding the marriage and the spouse. The patient's memory for other life events is intact. This patient is most likely to be diagnosed with: A. a conversion disorder. B. schizophrenia. C. retrograde amnesia. D. a dissociative disorder.
B. negative reinforcement learning to increase behavior (jumping over barrier) to take away the electric shock
A rat in a shuttle box is presented with a tone followed by an electric shock. It can jump over the barrier to the other side of the shuttle box where no shock is delivered. This procedure is repeated over a number of trials. The rat will be conditioned through which type of reinforcement? A. postive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. positive punishment D. negative punishment
B. relatively high response rate with no predictable pauses variable ratio schedule leads to high response rates with no predictable pauses. variable ratio is the most effective reward schedule and produces a very rapid response rate
A rat receives food for pressing a lever on a variable ratio schedule. Which pattern of responding is most likely to be observed? A. relatively high response rate with predictable pauses after reinforcement B. relatively high response rate with no predictable pauses C. relatively low response rate with a predictable increase in responding right before reinforcement D. fluctuating response rate with a predictable increase in responding right after reinforcement
C. The study lacks replicable results. The study lacks random assignment because the two groups were composed of individuals with established exercise habits. Because the participants were not equally likely to be in the two groups, there is a potential bias in the sample. In addition, exercise habits pose a potential confound because the group that already exercises regularly could differ from the comparison group in a number of ways. However, there is nothing about the hypothetical study that excludes the possibility of replicable results. Keeping in mind that the question asks for what is NOT a limitation, the incorrect options identify important methodological limitations of the study whereas the correct answer does not.
A study finds that individuals who follow a weekly exercise routine exhibit less immunity decline compared to those who do not. The exercise group only included participants who exercised regularly, whereas the comparison group only included those who did not exercise regularly. Which statement does NOT identify a limitation of this research design? A. The study lacks random assignment. B. The study has a possible sampling bias. C. The study lacks replicable results. D. The study has a possible confound.
B. Reference group Individuals often emulate the attitudes and behaviors of groups that they admire and would like to join. Sociologists refer to these as reference groups, which are important for self-evaluation and identity formation. The scenario in the question suggests that the teen constructs an identity, through modifying his behaviors (dressing, speaking, acting), to match that of teens from the dominant culture of his new country.
An immigrant teen stops participating in the ethnic customs of his family and instead identifies with the dominant culture of the new country by dressing, speaking, and acting like teens from that culture. In this scenario, the teens of the new country's dominant culture become which type of group for the teen? A. Assimilated group B. Reference group C. Majority group D. Peer group
C. Type of communication, established by a training doctor who is also a confederate to use patient-centered communication or communication style that is not patient-centered option D is not a way to tell if there is a causal relationship. the follow-up study described in the passage implies an experimental study design NOT observational To establish a causal relationship between the two variables, the independent variable needs to be manipulated, as described in C, by training the doctor to adopt different communication styles.
Black men are less likely than White men and Black women to attend healthcare appointments. In a number of studies, this has been linked to mistrust toward healthcare professionals. These results suggest that if medical mistrust is to be reduced, it is necessary for healthcare professionals to pay close attention to their interactions with Black men. Related studies showed that when interacting with Black patients, doctors are less likely to assume a patient-centered communication style, which involves focusing on the patients' needs, concerns, and satisfaction. Based on these findings, a follow-up experiment was designed to investigate whether the doctor's communication style caused a difference in the patients' levels of mistrust. Which operationalization is most appropriate for the independent variable of the proposed follow-up experiment? A. Levels of mistrust established by an inventory that measures participants medical mistrust B. Levels of mistrust established by independent judges who rate participant's medical mistrust C. Type of communication, established by a training doctor who is also a confederate to use patient-centered communication or communication style that is not patient-centered D. Type of communication, established by giving doctors in the study an inventory that assesses whether their communication style is patient-centered or not
A. Young adults report attending religious services less often than older adults. Can't assume a correlation (D) when they don't give you data on that. Can only go with the answer that is best supported by the data from the Table which is answer A
By examining trends in religious participation, social scientists can develop a more holistic understanding about the role of religion as a social institution in modern society. Which statement is supported by the data in Table 2? A. Young adults report attending religious services less often than older adults. B. Age is the most significant factor in determining if one will attend religious services. C. Half of all Americans attend religious services weekly. D. There is a significant positive correlation between age and religious attendance.
D. Experimental studies The answer to this question is D because experimental methods are not likely to be used in determining on how Maintenance Factor 1 works. The primary obstacle to using experimental methods in such studies is the difficulty of systematically manipulating participants' physiological states and their sensitivity to changes in those states.
Data on the role of Maintenance Factor 1 on PD is LEAST likely to come from which type of research? A. Correlational studies B. Case studies C. Longitudinal studies D. Experimental studies
A. A positive correlation aka a direct correlation meaning that as X increases, Y increases or as X decreases, Y increases
Early studies have shown that the less attraction individuals feel toward a group to which they belong, the less their opinions are affected by the group. However, commitment to a group has been shown to increase opinion change regardless of attraction. The beginning of the passage indicates that early studies found which relationship between an individual's attraction to the group and the group's influence on an individual's opinion? A. A positive correlation B. A negative correlation C. An inverse effect D. A reverse effect
C. prior feeding history influenced future feeding behavior in monkeys raised on a high-quality protein diet only. when given a choice, the monkeys clearly preferred the high quality protein. low quality protein preference basically remained the same from before treatment to after they were given a choice, indicating that there was not a real preference
Monkeys were raised on a diet of either high- or low-quality protein, and then were given free access to high- and low-quality protein diets. The diet preference for both groups of monkeys is shown. (Note: Both groups of monkeys consumed the same amount of food.) The data indicate that: A. the feeding behavior of monkeys was not affected by either prior diet type. B. prior protein insufficiency was a stronger predictor of future feeding behavior than prior protein sufficiency. C. prior feeding history influenced future feeding behavior in monkeys raised on a high-quality protein diet only. D. the feeding behavior was solely determined by both prior diet types.
