PTCB app practice questions

Which of the following is the Federal Legend that must appear on all prescriptions? A. "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription" B. "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this prescription to anyone other than the intended" C. "Package Not Child Resistant" D. "Warning-May be habit forming"

A. "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription" Rationale: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 requires that the Federal Legend ("Federal law prohibits the dispensing of this medication without a prescription") appear on all prescription medication containers. "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this prescription to anyone other than the intended" is required by the Controlled Substance Act of 1970 to appear on all prescriptions of control substances. "Package Not Child Resistant" is required on any OTC product that is not in a child-resistant package as a result of the Poison Control Act of 1970. "Warning—May be habit forming" is a warning required by Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938.

A pharmacy wants to mark up a product by 30%. How much would an item cost with this markup if its original cost was $4.50? A. $5.85 B. $6.23 C. $6.40 D. $7.10

A. $5.85 Rationale: This can be solved by using the following formula: Cost + [(Markup rate)(Cost)] = Retail price, or $4.50 + [(0.30) (4.50)] = $5.85.

Which of the following suffixes indicates a condition of the blood? A. -emia B. -itis C. -pathy D. -malacia

A. -emia Rationale: -emia indicates a condition of the blood, -itis means inflammation, -pathy means disease, and -malacia means softening.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a prescription of oxycodone + APAP if authorized by the prescriber? A. 0 B. 5 C. 12 D. Unlimited

A. 0 Rationale: Oxycodone + acetaminophen is the generic name for Percocet, which is a Schedule II drug under the Controlled Substance Act. Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled. The physician must write a new prescription if the patient requires additional medication.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed on Accutane prescriptions? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12

A. 0 Rationale: Prescriptions for Accutane (isotretinoin) may not have refills. The patient must return to see the physician on a monthly basis and be provided with a new written prescription.

How many refills may a physician order for a Schedule II drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. Unlimited refills in a 1-year time frame

A. 0 Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 allows 0 refills for Schedule II medications.

Insulin is available in a concentration of 100 units/mL. A patient order reads 0.8 units/kg/day in two divided doses. The patient weighs 102 lb. How many milliliters should the patient receive each day? A. 0.18 B. 0.36 C. 36 D. 81

A. 0.18 Rationale: Calculate the weight of the patient in kg (102 lb × 1 kg/2.2 lb = 46 kg). Calculate the daily dose by multiplying the patient's weight by the amount of drug (46 kg × 0.8 units/kg/day = 36 units). Because the medication is given in two doses, divide the total daily dose by 2 (0.36 mL/2 doses per day = 0.18 mL).

Which of the following is the proper size of a sterilizing filter? A. 0.2 microns B. 0.45 microns C. 1.2 microns D. 5.0 microns

A. 0.2 microns Rationale: A sterilizing filter's pores cannot be any larger than 0.2 microns in size.

What is the concentration of ½ NS? A. 0.45% B. 0.5% C. 0.9% D. 1%

A. 0.45% Rationale: 1/2 normal saline (NS) has a concentration of 0.45%, and NS has a concentration of 0.9%.

Which of the following capsule sizes would contain the largest quantity of ingredient? A. 00 B. 1 C. 3 D. 5

A. 00 Rationale: A size 00 capsule would contain more ingredient than a size 1, 3, or 5. The smaller the capsule size, the greater the capacity of the capsule.

A patient has been ordered PB ¼ gr. How many 15-mg tablets should the patient receive? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A. 1 Rationale: 1 gr ¼ gr ----- = ---- 60 mg X mg Cross-multiplying and dividing will yield X = 15 mg. 15 mg 15mg -------- = --------- 1 tablet X tablets, where X = 1 tablet

In how many direction(s) does air flow in a laminar flow hood? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A. 1 Rationale: Air flows in only one direction in a laminar flow hood, away from the hood in a horizontal flow hood and upward in a vertical flow hood.

What size syringe should be used to measure 0.6 mL of fluid? A. 1 mL B. 5 mL C. 10 mL D. 20 mL

A. 1 mL Rationale: A proper size syringe should not contain more than five times the volume to be measured.

What is the maximum volume a tuberculin syringe can hold? A. 1 mL B. 3 mL C. 5 mL D. 10 mL

A. 1 mL Rationale: Tuberculin syringes can hold volumes from 0.01 to 1.0 mL.

How many grams of 2.5% hydrocortisone cream should be mixed with 240 g of 0.25% hydrocortisone cream to make a 1% hydrocortisone cream? A. 120 B. 180 C. 240 D. 360

A. 120 Rationale: This is an alligation problem, where the 2.5% is the highest concentration, 0.25% is the lowest concentration, and 1% is the concentration of the final product. 2.5 - 1 = 1.5 parts of the 0.25%; 1.0 - 0.25 = 0.75 parts of 2.5%. The total number of parts is 2.25 (0.75 + 1.5 = 2.25). Set up a proportion to calculate the total weight: 1.5 parts of 0.25%/2.25 total parts of compound = 240 g of 0.25%/total weight of compound, where the total weight is 360 g. Total weight of compound - Weight of 0.25% = Weight of 2.5% (360 g - 240 g = 120 g).

What is the minimum weighable quantity for a class A balance? A. 120 mg B. 150 mg C. 250 mg D. 500 mg

A. 120 mg Rationale: 120 mg is the minimum weighable amount on a class A or class III balance.

Which of the following syringes is most likely to cause coring? A. 13 gauge B. 16 gauge C. 20 gauge D. 23 gauge

A. 13 gauge Rationale: The smaller the gauge of the needle, the greater the possibility that coring will occur.

A 44-lb child is to receive 4 mg of phenytoin per kilogram of body weight daily as an anticonvulsant. How many milliliters of pediatric phenytoin suspension containing 30 mg per 5 mL should the child receive? A. 13.3 mL B. 50 mL C. 80 mL D. 176 mL

A. 13.3 mL Rationale: Convert pounds to kilograms (44 lb × 1 kg/2.2 lb = 20 kg). Next calculate the amount the patient is to receive each day (4 mg/kg × 20 kg = 80 mg/day). Then calculate the volume to be given to the patient (30 mg/5 mL = 80 mg/X mL, where X = 13.3 mL).

If a patient receives a prescription for 60 tablets and is instructed to take "1 tab po q6-8 hours" how many days will the prescription last? A. 15 days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 60 days

A. 15 days Rationale: 15 days. A day's supply can be calculated by the total number of tablets dispensed divided by the maximum number of tablets taken per day. In this situation, it would be 60 tablets/4 tablets per day.

How many tablets should be given to a patient with the following prescription? Hctz 50 mg one month supply 1 tab po qod ref x 6 A. 15 tablets B. 30 tablets C. 90 tablets D. 180 tablets

A. 15 tablets Rationale: A month is considered to have 30 days in it. Because the patient is only taking the medication every other day, he or she would take 15 tablets in 30 days.

What age must a woman be in order to purchase the "morning after pill" without a prescription? A. 15 years of age B. 16 years of age C. 18 years of age D. There is no minimum age

A. 15 years of age Rationale: The FDA allows a 15-year-old woman to purchase the "morning after pill" without a prescription.

How many milliliters of a 15% solution of sodium chloride and water should be used to prepare 1 L of a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride? A. 15%—60 mL; 0%—940 mL B. 15%—141 mL; 0%—859 mL C. 15%—859 mL; 0%—141 mL D. 15%—940 mL; 0%—60 mL

A. 15%—60 mL; 0%—940 mL Rationale: Water has a concentration of 0. This problem can be solved using alligation, where the highest concentration is 15% and the lowest concentration is 0%: 0.9 parts of the 15% will be used, and 14.1 parts of the water (0%) will be used to prepare a 0.9% solution. To prepare 1 L of the 0.9%, one will need to use 60 mL of the 15% and 940 mL of the 0%.

How many days will the following prescription last? Albuterol Inhaler 200 Inh. 2 sprays qid A. 25 days B. 3 days C. 50 days D. 100 days

A. 25 days Rationale: The prescription will last 25 days.

You have received a medication order for Lasix 40 mg bid for 10 days. You prepare a unit dose of Lasix suspension (10 mg/mL). How much would you dispense for a unit dose? A. 4 mL B. 8 mL C. 10 mL D. 18 mL

A. 4 mL Rationale: A unit dose is the amount of medication required for one dose of the medication. The order is for 40 mg. To solve for the volume desired, use 10 mg/mL = 40 mg/X mL, or 4 mL.

How many days will the following prescription of 60 tablets last if the directions read "i-ii tabs po q 6-8 hr"? A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15

A. 5 Rationale: The patient would take a maximum of 2 tablets per dose with a maximum of 4 doses per day. 60 tablets/2 tablets/dose/6 doses/day will last 5 days.

In how many minutes should a pharmacy be allowed to deliver a "stat" order? A. 5 to 15 min B. 5 to 30 min C. 30 to 45 min D. 45 to 60 min

A. 5 to 15 min Rationale: A pharmacy is to prepare a "stat order" as quickly as possible, within 5 to 15 minutes of receiving the order.

A pharmacy technician is preparing heparin 25,000 units in 500 mL of D5W. What concentration should be on the label? A. 50 units/mL B. 75 units/mL C. 100 units/mL D. 125 units/mL

A. 50 units/mL Rationale: Set up the following proportion: 25,000 units/500 mL = X units/1 mL, where X = 50 units.

Within how many days of receiving a prescription for Accutane (isotretinoin) must it be filled? A. 7 days B. 30 days C. 6 months D. 1 year

A. 7 days Rationale: Federal law requires that Accutane (isotretinoin) be dispensed to the patient within 7 days of receiving the prescription from the physician.

How many grams of sodium chloride are in 1 L of normal saline solution? A. 9 g B. 90 g C. 90 mg D. 900 mg

A. 9 g Rationale: Normal saline is a 0.9% solution, which means there is 0.9 g in 100 mL of solution. One liter is equal to 1000 mL. The problem can be solved using a proportion.

Which category of fetal risk factors is defined as "controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters) and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote"? A. A B. B C. C D. D

A. A Rationale: An "A" rating indicates that tests performed on humans do not result in harm to the fetus. A "B" rating indicates that the medication will need more FDA study and review before a final designation can be made.

The warning "Not recommended for use in households with children" might be found on a label for which product? A. A bottle of acetaminophen dispensed without a childproof cap B. A bottle of an antibiotic C. A bottle of a controlled substance D. A bottle of a Lanoxin

A. A bottle of acetaminophen dispensed without a childproof cap Rationale: The Poison Prevention Act of 1970 allows for OTC medications to be sold without child-resistant tops; however, the warning "Not recommended for use in households with children" must be prominently displayed on the package.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of automation? A. A minimum number of prescriptions must be filled daily to be cost effective. B. It allows pharmacist to provide clinical skills to patients and reduce the amount of time checking prescriptions. C. It is capable of counting and prefilling containers of medication. D. It leads to improved efficiency and accuracy in prescription filling and dispensing.

A. A minimum number of prescriptions must be filled daily to be cost effective. Rationale: Pharmacy automation is expensive to implement and therefore requires a predetermined number of prescriptions processed on a daily basis to be cost effective.

Which of the following might increase the likelihood of a medication error? A. A physician using abbreviations not found in a hospital's formulary B. Asking a pharmacy technician to check your pharmacy math calculations C. Provide an in-service on medication orders D. Reading the drug label carefully when obtaining the drug from the pharmacy shelf

A. A physician using abbreviations not found in a hospital's formulary Rationale: An important component of a hospital's formulary is a list of approved abbreviations that may be used on medication orders. Writing medication orders with unapproved abbreviations may have multiple meanings and cause health care workers to guess with dispensing and administering medications.

Which of the therapeutic equivalence codes states that the product meets the necessary bioequivalence requirements? A. AA B. AB C. B D. BC

A. AA Rationale: According to the FDA classification system, AA shows that the medication meets bioequivalence requirements.

Which drug classification should not be taken with potassium-sparing diuretics? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta-blockers C. Calcium channel blockers D. Nitrates

A. ACE inhibitors Rationale: ACE inhibitors have a potassium-sparing effect, which, if taken with potassium-sparing diuretics, may result in hyperkalemia.

Which drug classification ends in -pril? A. ACE inhibitors B. Benzodiazepines C. Corticosteroids D. H2 antagonists

A. ACE inhibitors Rationale: The suffix -pril designates the medication is an ACE inhibitor used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease.

Which law is being violated if an employer discriminates against a potential employer because of medical reasons that would not prevent him or her from properly performing the job? A. ADA B. Any Willing Provider C. OSHA D. Prescription Drug Equity Act

A. ADA Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination against individuals with physical, mental, and emotional disabilities. The employer must make a reasonable accommodation for the employee. If the disability does not interfere with the individual's ability to perform a particular task, he or she must be considered for employment.

Which of the following medications does not possess antiinflammatory properties? A. APAP B. ASA C. Ibuprofen D. Naproxen sodium

A. APAP Rationale: Acetaminophen possesses analgesic and antipyretic activity. In addition to these two properties, aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen sodium have an antiinflammatory property.

What should a patient take for a headache if he or she is taking warfarin? A. APAP B. ASA C. Narcotic analgesics D. NSAIDs

A. APAP Rationale: Acetaminophen should be taken because it does not thin the blood like aspirin, NSAIDs, or narcotic analgesics.

Which of the following medications if taken in combination with alcohol may cause liver damage? A. APAP B. ASA C. Cyclobenzaprine D. Metronidazole

A. APAP Rationale: Alcohol may cause cirrhosis of the liver. Doses of acetaminophen (APAP) may also irritate the liver. If both alcoholic beverages and acetaminophen are taken together, there is a possibility that the patient may die from liver damage.

A hospital may adopt for specific medications, such as antibiotics, an automatic stop-order policy that requires a physician to reorder the medication after a predetermined period. Which of the following is an acronym for this process? A. ASO B. ASOP C. Autostop D. Stop

A. ASO Rationale: An automatic stop order is abbreviated ASO.

Which of the following antiplatelet medications must be administered parenterally? A. Abciximab B. Clopidogrel C. Dipyridamole D. Ticlopidine

A. Abciximab Rationale: Abciximab must be administered parenterally.

Which of the following drugs does not cause stomach irritation? A. Acetaminophen B. Aspirin C. Corticosteroids D. NSAIDs

A. Acetaminophen Rationale: A common side effect of aspirin, corticosteroids, and NSAIDs is stomach irritation; acetaminophen does not produce this side effect.

For which of the following conditions may a dermatologist prescribe medications? A. Acne rosacea B. Asthma C. Dental caries D. Osteoarthritis

A. Acne rosacea Rationale: Dermatologists treat conditions of the skin. Acne rosacea is a dermatologic condition.

What is the meaning of AAC? A. Actual acquisition cost B. Average acquisition cost C. Average assessed cost D. Average acquisition cost containment

A. Actual acquisition cos Rationale: AAC means actual acquisition cost, which means the pharmacy is reimbursed for what they actually paid for the medication after receiving discounts from either the manufacturer or wholesaler.

Which of the following terms refers to the price a pharmacy pays for a drug after all discounts and shipping costs have been applied? A. Actual acquisition cost (AAC) B. Average wholesale price (AWP) C. Discounted price D. Premium

A. Actual acquisition cost (AAC) Rationale: The actual acquisition cost is the price that is paid for a drug after all discounts and costs have been applied; average wholesale price is the national calculated average price that a pharmacy might pay for a given package size of a drug.

Which step in the processing of a prescription will inform the pharmacy that a prescription claim has been rejected? A. Adjudication B. Counseling C. Entering information into the computer D. Translating the prescription

A. Adjudication Rationale: Adjudication is the process of electronically billing an insurance carrier for payment of a prescription.

Which of the following is not an advantage of health information technology? A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur B. Improved communication and health care delivery C. Improvement in reimbursement processes D. Ability to track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care

A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur Rationale: Answers b, c, and d are all advantages of health information technology. Alert fatigue occurs when the user is continually receiving alerts regarding medication interactions, which results in the user ignoring the alerts.

Which of the following is true regarding pharmacy department security? A. All entrance and exit doors to the pharmacy must be closed. B. Schedule II, III, and IV drugs must be stored in a safe or locked in a secure cabinet. C. Employees from other parts of the store and sales representatives are allowed in the prescription department when the pharmacy is not too busy. D. The pharmacy department's hours must always be the same as the hours as the rest of the store.

A. All entrance and exit doors to the pharmacy must be closed. Rationale: All doors to the pharmacy must be closed.

What does the term "overhead" refer to in business? A. All of the costs associated with a business B. Ceilings C. Inventory D. Payroll

A. All of the costs associated with a business Rationale: Overhead is the sum of all the expenses in a business. Examples of overhead found in a pharmacy include the salaries of all the employees, cost of inventory, expense-associated utilities, supplies, licenses, and computer hardware and software.

Which of the following is not a component of HIPAA's privacy rule? A. Allow patients' records to be easily accessed at all times. B. Have privacy practices that are appropriate for the services provided. C. Educate employees about these privacy practices. D. Notify patients about how their information can be disclosed or used.

A. Allow patients' records to be easily accessed at all times. Rationale: Patients' records must be controlled to avoid breaks in patient privacy.

What components would be found in a total nutrient admixture? A. Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids B. Amino acids, dextrose, and proteins C. Amino acids, dextrose, and vitamins D. Amino acids, dextrose, minerals, and vitamins

A. Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids Rationale: Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids are used to prepare a total nutrient admixture.

Which of the following medications is not identified as a "high-alert medication" by the ISMP? A. Amoxicillin B. Heparin C. Metformin D. Propranolol

A. Amoxicillin Rationale: Drug classifications considered as "high-alert classifications" include antithrombotic agents (heparin), oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin), and adrenergic antagonists (propranolol).

Which of the following is an example of a "legend" drug? A. Amoxil B. Cat's claw C. Prilosec OTC D. Vitamin C

A. Amoxil Rationale: A "legend drug" is defined as bearing the Federal Legend, which states: "Federal Law prohibits the dispensing of this medication without a prescription." Legend drugs are prescription drugs.

What type of medication is infused using a PCA? A. Analgesic B. Antibiotic C. Antineoplastic agent D. TPN

A. Analgesic Rationale: PCAs are used to infuse analgesics, a CADD Plus pump may be used for antibiotics, and CADD-TPN may be used to infuse TPNs.

Which of the following drug classifications should be avoided in elderly adults? A. Anticholinergic medications B. ACE inhibitors C. Proton pump inhibitors D. SSRIs

A. Anticholinergic medications Rationale: Anticholinergic medications have a tendency to cause confusion, constipation, and dry mouth, especially in elderly adults.

To what classification does Tessalon Perles belong? A. Antitussive B. Antihistamine C. Decongestant D. Expectorant

A. Antitussive Rationale: Tessalon Perles (benzonatate) is used as antitussive because it anesthetizes the stretch receptors in the airway, lungs, and pleura but not the respiratory center.

How would an automated touch-tone response system be classified? A. Application B. Data C. Operating system D. All of the above

A. Application Rationale: This is an application with which a patient can telephone in prescription refills; the system assigns it to the proper pharmacy and places it in the proper order sequence.

Which of the following is not a suppository base? A. Aquaphor B. Cocoa butter C. Glycerinated gelatin D. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

A. Aquaphor Rationale: Aquaphor is not used as a suppository base; rather, it is used as an absorption ointment base.

What term refers to an abnormal heartbeat? A. Arrhythmia B. Bradycardia C. Flutter D. Tachycardia

A. Arrhythmia Rationale: An arrhythmia is an abnormal heartbeat. Bradycardia, flutter, and tachycardia are examples of various arrhythmias.

Which of the following symptoms may indicate digoxin toxicity? A. Arrhythmias B. Auditory disturbances C. Fever D. Hypotension

A. Arrhythmias Rationale: An individual with "dig toxicity" may experience the following: arrhythmias, nausea, and vomiting. The person may see yellow-green halos around objects.

What is the meaning of prn? A. As needed B. Per rectal needs C. Practical registered nurse D. Physician requires notice

A. As needed Rationale: prn means as needed for a particular indication. Also, it may refer to unlimited refills for a specific period as determined by either federal or state laws, whichever is the more stringent.

What term refers to the processes involved in the preparation of sterile product to prevent contamination of the product? A. Aseptic technique B. Extemporaneous compounding C. Geometric dilution D. Levigation

A. Aseptic technique Rationale: An aseptic technique is the process of preparing sterile product to be injected into the body. Extemporaneous compounding, geometric dilution, and levigation are terms used in the production of nonsterile compounds.

Which of the following products is not used to treat hyperlipidemia? A. Aspirin B. Fibric acid derivatives C. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors D. Metamucil

A. Aspirin Rationale: Aspirin does not have the ability to reduce the level of cholesterol in the body. Fibric acid derivatives and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are used to treat hyperlipidemia. Metamucil has been shown to lower cholesterol in the body.

What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription? A. At bedtime B. Hours C. House D. None of the above

A. At bedtime Rationale: The abbreviation "hs" means at the hour of bed or hour of sleep.

What is the generic name for Tenormin? A. Atenolol B. Carisoprodol C. Nadolol D. Propranolol

A. Atenolol Rationale: The drugs are atenolol (Tenormin), carisoprodol (Soma), nadolol (Corgard), and propranolol (Inderal).

Which of the following combination products contains a beta-blocker and a diuretic? A. Atenolol + chlorthalidone B. Benazepril + hydrochlorothiazide C. Oxycodone + acetaminophen D. Spironolactone + hydrochlorothiazide

A. Atenolol + chlorthalidone Rationale: Atenolol + chlorthalidone is a combination product containing a beta-blocker and a diuretic used in the treatment of hypertension.

What is the generic name for Lipitor? A. Atorvastatin B. Fluvastatin C. Pravastatin D. Simvastatin

A. Atorvastatin Rationale: Atorvastatin is the generic name for Lipitor, which is used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol).

What type of label is placed on medications to warn patients or provide additional information? A. Auxiliary label B. Patient product insert C. Patient profile D. Prescription label

A. Auxiliary label Rationale: An auxiliary label provides additional information to the patient. PPIs are required for products containing estrogens. Patient profiles provide the pharmacist information about the patient, such as illness, OTC and prescription medications being taken, drug allergies, and demographic and payment information. A prescription label provides information to the patient containing the name, strength, quantity of drug, and directions for usage as prescribed by the physician.

Which of the following would not be a correct auxiliary label for a patient taking doxycycline? A. Avoid dairy products B. Avoid sunlight C. Not to be taken by pregnant women or children younger than age 9 D. Take on an empty stomach

A. Avoid dairy products Rationale: Doxycycline is the only tetracycline that can be taken with dairy products.

What is the generic name for Zithromax? A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Dirithromycin D. Erythromycin estolate

A. Azithromycin Rationale: The drugs are Zithromax (azithromycin), Biaxin (clarithromycin), Dynabac (dirithromycin), and Ilosone (erythromycin estolate).

Which organization oversees the practice of pharmacy in a particular state? A. BOP B. FDA C. NABP D. USP

A. BOP Rationale: The board of pharmacy (BOP) is responsible for the practice of pharmacy within a state; the FDA is responsible to ensure that all medications are pure, safe, and effective; the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) evaluates national trends and their impact on the practice of pharmacy and pharmacy law.

A patient is allergic to sulfa medications. Which of the following medications found in the patient's profile should be brought to the attention of the pharmacist? A. Bactrim DS B. Cymbalta C. Duricef D. Lescol

A. Bactrim DS Rationale: Bactrim DS is classified as a sulfa antibiotic, Cymbalta is an SNRI, Duricef is a cephalosporin, and Lescol is an HMB CoA reductase inhibitor.

A patient with glaucoma is prescribed the following medications: inhaled beclomethasone, furosemide, naproxen, and theophylline. Which of these medications should be brought to the attention of the pharmacist? A. Beclomethasone (inhaled) B. Furosemide C. Naproxen D. Theophylline

A. Beclomethasone (inhaled) Rationale: During the drug utilization evaluation process the computer system should warn the pharmacy technician that caution should be used in patients with glaucoma receiving beclomethasone. This type of warning must be brought to the attention of the pharmacist.

How often should a laminar flow hood be cleaned? A. Beginning of each shift B. Every 8 hours C. Once per day D. Once per week

A. Beginning of each shift Rationale: Laminar flow hoods should be cleaned at the beginning of every shift using isopropyl alcohol.

Which of the following drugs may be used to counteract the side effects of antipsychotic medications? A. Benztropine B. Citalopram C. Propranolol D. Zolpidem

A. Benztropine Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to minimize the effects by responding to the excess muscle activity of antipsychotics.

Which of the following medications may be used to minimize the side effects of antipsychotics? A. Benztropine B. Olanzapine C. Prednisone D. Propranolol

A. Benztropine Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin), which is an anticholinergic, is used to treat some of the adverse effects of antipsychotics, such as trembling.

Which term indicates the measurement of both the drug absorption and total amount of drug that reaches the systemic blood circulation? A. Bioavailability B. Duration of action C. Half-life D. Therapeutic index

A. Bioavailability Rationale: Bioavailability is a pharmacokinetic parameter used to determine a safe and effective dosage for a patient. Bioavailability compares the amount of drug administered with how much actually reaches the site. The duration of action calculates the amount of time needed to obtain a therapeutic level before a therapeutic response is experienced. A half-life measures the amount of time necessary for half of the amount of the medication to be eliminated by the body. The therapeutic index illustrates the minimum amount of medication required to obtain a response and the maximum amount of drug safe enough for the patient to take without experiencing toxicities.

Which of the following provides the greatest security with a computer system? A. Biometrics B. Swipe card C. User log in and password D. All provide the same level of security

A. Biometrics Rationale: Biometrics such as a fingerprint or handprint provides the greatest level of computer security.

Which formula for calculating a child's dosage is the most accurate? A. Body surface area B. Clark's rule C. Fried's rule D. Young's rule

A. Body surface area Rationale: Body surface area is the most accurate method because it takes into consideration both the height and weight of the patient.

Which of the following types of pharmaceutical products does not require a beyond-use date? A. Bulk medications B. Nonsterile compounded products C. Repackaged unit-dose medications D. Sterile compounded products

A. Bulk medications Rationale: A beyond-use date is used for any medication that is repackaged from a bulk container or compounded.

Which of the following drugs is not an MAO inhibitor? A. Bupropion B. Phenylzine C. Selegiline D. Tranylcypromine

A. Bupropion Rationale: Bupropion (Wellbutrin or Zyban) is not an MAO inhibitor. MAO inhibitors include phenelzine (Nardil), selegiline (Eldepryl), and tranylcypromine (Parnate).

Which of the following products can be used as a smoking cessation product and as an antidepressant? A. Bupropion B. Nicotine C. Trazodone D. Zolpidem

A. Bupropion Rationale: Bupropion is the generic name for the antidepressant Wellbutrin and the generic name for the smoking cessation product Zyban.

Which of the following narcotics is not a Schedule II drug? A. Butorphanol B. Hydrocodone C. Meperidine D. Oxycodone

A. Butorphanol Rationale: Butorphanol (Stadol) is a Schedule IV substance. Hydrocodone (Dilaudid), meperidine (Demerol), and oxycodone (OxyContin) are Schedule II medications.

Which of the following migraine preparations is a controlled substance? A. Butorphanol B. Sumatriptan C. Tramadol D. Zolmitriptan

A. Butorphanol Rationale: Butorphanol (Stadol) is a controlled substance.

Which of the following is true regarding the storage of CII medications in a pharmacy? A. CII medications must always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. B. CII medications must be stored separately from CIII, CIV, and CV medications. C. CII medications may be dispersed on the shelves with CIII, CIV, and CV medications D. All of the above

A. CII medications must always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. Rationale: CII medications must be stored either in a locked safe or cabinet to reduce theft.

Which organization replaced the HCFA? A. CMS B. DEA C. FDA D. TJC

A. CMS Rationale: The Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS) replaced the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).

Which of the following organizations set regulations regarding the standards for resident care as a result of OBRA '87? A. CMS B. FDA C. TJC D. USP

A. CMS Rationale: The Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services is responsible for enforcing many of the conditions which were enacted under OBRA '87 regarding long-term care facilities.

Whose regulations require that a long-term care facility must ensure that is free of significant medication error rates? A. CMS B. FDA C. ISMP D. TJC

A. CMS Rationale: This is a CMS regulation; a significant medication error is one that causes the patient discomfort or puts the patient's health or safety at risk. A significant medication error rate is one in which the error rate is greater than 5%.

What term refers to a pharmacy receiving a predetermined amount of money for a patient regardless of the number of prescriptions filled or the value of the prescriptions each month? A. Capitation B. Copayment C. Deductible D. Fee for service

A. Capitation Rationale: Capitation is a form of reimbursement used by insurance companies. This form of reimbursement favors the insurance company when the cost of the prescriptions exceeds the capitation being paid.

Which of the following is not a copayment arrangement used by third-party providers? A. Capitation B. Fixed copayment C. Percentage copayment D. Variable copayment

A. Capitation Rationale: Capitation is a form of reimbursement whereby the pharmacy is paid a predetermined amount of money per patient per year regardless of the number of prescriptions filled by a patient or the value of the prescriptions.

What type of dosage form is prepared using the "punch method"? A. Capsules B. Emulsions C. Suppositories D. Tablets

A. Capsules Rationale: Capsules can be prepared using the "punch method."

Which of the following is an example of a sound-a-like, look-a-like drug? A. Captopril-carvedilol B. Ceftin-cephalexin C. Cozaar-Hyzaar D. Depo-Medrol-Depo-Provera

A. Captopril-carvedilol Rationale: Captopril and carvedilol have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors because of their sound-a-like, look-a-like names.

Which of the following is the part of the computer that does all of the computing? A. Central processing unit (CPU) B. Hardware C. Random access memory (RAM) D. Software

A. Central processing unit (CPU) Rationale: The CPU performs all calculations, the hardware is the part of the computer you can touch, RAM is storage memory, and software provides electronic communication to the system.

What type of drug delivery system occurs when the processing, preparation, and distribution occur in the main area? A. Centralized B. Decentralized C. Floor stock D. Satellite

A. Centralized Rationale: A centralized system provides medications for an entire institution such as a hospital. Decentralized, floor stock, and satellite systems provide medications for a specific floor or unit.

Which of the following is an example of an automated dispensing system? A. Centralized system B. Modernized system C. Process control devices D. All of the above

A. Centralized system Rationale: A centralized system is located in a central pharmacy that is used to improve the manual unit-dose cart-fill process.

What is essential in order to be prepared for handling cytotoxic drug spills? A. Chemo spill kits B. Disposable, absorbent towels C. Laminar flow hood D. Latex gloves

A. Chemo spill kits Rationale: A chemo spill kit is necessary in handling cytoxic drug spills. Disposable paper towels and latex gloves are two components of a chemo spill kit.

Which of the following is not a medical doctor? A. Chiropractor B. Ophthalmologist C. Psychiatrist D. Veterinarian

A. Chiropractor Rationale: Chiropractors are not medical doctors and are unable to prescribe medications, an ophthalmologist's specialty is eye diseases, psychiatrists are concerned with affective disorders, and veterinarians are medical doctors for animals.

Which of the following products would not be used to treat inflammation? A. Citalopram B. Etodolac C. Naproxen D. Piroxicam

A. Citalopram

What type of pharmacy balance is required in all pharmacies? A. Class A B. Class B C. Electronic D. Triple beam

A. Class A Rationale: A class A balance is a piece of required equipment for all pharmacies. Class A balances have a sensitivity of 6 mg.

What type of balance is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg? A. Class A balance B. Class B balance C. Counterbalance D. Triple-beam balance

A. Class A balance Rationale: A class A (class III) balance is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg. Counterbalances can weigh quantities up to 5 kg.

What type of drug recall results in irreversible harm or a patient's death? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

A. Class I Rationale: There are three classifications of drug recalls; a class I recall is the most severe and occurs when the patient may experience irreversible harm or even death.

Which of the following is not a barrier to e-prescribing? A. Clear instructions and lack of personal handwriting make it easier for pharmacy to interpret B. Must adhere to state and federal standards C. Must meet all requirements of HIPAA standards D. Use of proper software by pharmacy to ensure patient privacy

A. Clear instructions and lack of personal handwriting make it easier for pharmacy to interpret Rationale: Other benefits of e-prescribing include money and time savings, faster prescription processing, and a reduction in medication errors.

What type of formulary is a limited list of drugs? A. Closed formulary B. Open formulary C. Restricted formulary D. None of the above

A. Closed formulary Rationale: A closed formulary is a limited list of medications, which may be used in filling prescriptions in an institution or allowed by a managed care third party provider, an open formulary allows for any medication to be dispensed, and a restricted formulary is a hybrid of both an open and closed formulary system.

What term describes the willingness of the patient to take a drug in the amounts and on schedule as prescribed? A. Compliance B. Ease of administration C. First-pass effect D. Second-pass effect

A. Compliance Rationale: Compliance is an act of adhering to particular directions. The ease of administration is a factor in a patient's compliance of taking a medication. Both first and second pass are components of pharmacokinetics.

Which of the following would not be a reason for a prescription to be rejected by an insurance provider? A. Compounded drugs with one ingredient being a legend drug B. Incorrect NDC number C. Invalid ID number D. Prescription coverage has expired

A. Compounded drugs with one ingredient being a legend drug Rationale: One of the ingredients of a compound must be a legend drug.

Which of the following types of drugs cannot be returned for credit? A. Compounded medications B. Controlled substances C. Expired medications D. Misordered drugs

A. Compounded medications Rationale: Compounded drugs cannot be returned because of safety reasons and must be disposed after they expire.

Which of the following is not an example of a computer output? A. Computer mouse B. Plotter C. Printer D. Speaker

A. Computer mouse Rationale: A computer mouse is an input device.

What should a patient do if he or she misses a scheduled dose of medication? A. Consult with the pharmacist or physician regarding the missed dose. B. Double up when the next dose is due. C. Stop taking the medicine because the condition cannot be controlled because a dose was missed. D. Take the missed dose immediately.

A. Consult with the pharmacist or physician regarding the missed dose. Rationale: It is best that either the pharmacist or physician addresses this issue. Depending on the medication, the pharmacist or physician will determine what the proper course of action would be for the patient.

If a pharmacy technician is having problems processing a prescription claim to a third-party drug plan provider, what should he or she do? A. Contact the third-party help desk for the plan. B. Inform the patient that he or she will need to pay the regular price for the prescription. C. Inform the patient to contact his or her employer. D. All of the above

A. Contact the third-party help desk for the plan. Rationale: Call the help desk whose telephone number is found on the back of the prescription drug card for assistance.

Which of the following methods is used in the preparation of an emulsion? A. Continental method B. Fusion method C. Heat method D. Punch method

A. Continental method Rationale: The continental method may be used in the preparation of emulsions.

What is the meaning of the acronym CQI? A. Continuous quality improvement B. Continuous quality inventory C. Coronary quality-of-life incidents D. Cutaneous quality improvements

A. Continuous quality improvement Rationale: Continuous quality improvement is the process whereby the probability of desired outcomes increases and undesirable outcomes decrease.

What type of drug requires a DEA number? A. Controlled substance B. Investigational drug C. Legend drug D. OTC

A. Controlled substance Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that all prescriptions for controlled substances have the physician's DEA number on them.

Which of the following medications would be contraindicated with vitamin K therapy? A. Coumadin B. Heparin C. Lovenox D. Plavix

A. Coumadin Rationale: Coumadin is an anticoagulant, but vitamin K causes the blood to coagulate.

Which of the following medications is not a leukotriene inhibitor used in the treatment of asthma? A. Cromolyn sodium B. Montelukast C. Zafirlukast D. Zileuton

A. Cromolyn sodium Rationale: Cromolyn sodium (Intel or Nasacort) is a mast cell stabilizer used prophylactically for the treatment of asthma.

Which pharmacy law classified herbal products as dietary supplements rather than medications? A. DSHEA 1994 B. FDCA 1938 C. OBRA '87 D. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

A. DSHEA 1994 Rationale: DSHEA is the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act, which classifies herbal products as dietary supplements instead of drugs. A manufacturer of such products is not allowed to make disease claims.

How often do pharmacies back up their data? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Bimonthly D. Monthly

A. Daily Rationale: Pharmacies back up their data daily.

Which of the following does not need to appear on the label of a sterile product prepared in the pharmacy? A. Date and time the medication is to be administered B. Diluent name and volume C. Pharmacy technician's initials D. Stability expiration date and time

A. Date and time the medication is to be administered Rationale: The date and time of administration do not need to appear on the medication label.

Lovenox is indicated for prevention of DVT. What is DVT? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Deep venous thrombin C. Direct vein temperature D. Direct vein thrombosis

A. Deep vein thrombosis Rationale: DVT is an acronym for deep vein thrombosis.

What is the signa in a prescription? A. Directions for the patient to follow B. Instructions to the pharmacist on dispensing the medication C. Name, strength, and quantity of medication D. Physician's signature

A. Directions for the patient to follow Rationale: The signa on a prescription are directions on the prescription on how to take their medication and should include when to take it, the route of administration, and the frequency of taking it.

Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"? A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature B. Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product company with lot number C. Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the product sold, and lot number of the product sold D. Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and expiration date of the product

A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature Rationale: The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48 hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist must sign his or her name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic."

What does the "tall man" list issued by the ISMP and the FDA highlight? A. Dissimilarities in drug names B. Dissimilarities in nonproprietary drug names C. Dissimilarities in proprietary drug names D. Similarities in drug names

A. Dissimilarities in drug names Rationale: The "tall man" list capitalizes the dissimilarities in similarly spelled drug names, both proprietary and nonproprietary drugs.

Which of the following drugs will produce an adverse effect if alcohol is consumed during the course of therapy? A. Disulfiram B. Guaifenesin C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Triamcinolone

A. Disulfiram Rationale: Disulfiram (Antabuse) is used to treat patients with alcohol abuse. Disulfiram stops the metabolism of alcohol at the aldehyde stage, which causes aldehyde to accumulate in the body. If alcohol is consumed, the patient becomes extremely sick. This sickness is characterized by symptoms of blurred vision, confusion, difficult breathing, intense throbbing in the head and neck, chest pain, nausea, severe headache, severe vomiting, thirst, and uneasiness.

What is the generic name for Depakote? A. Divalproex B. Gabapentin C. Primidone D. Valproic acid

A. Divalproex Rationale: The medications are Depakote (divalproex), Neurontin (gabapentin), Mysoline (primidone), and Depakene (valproic acid).

What is the meaning of the term "non rep"? A. Do not repeat B. No known allergies C. Nothing by mouth D. Refill

A. Do not repeat Rationale: "Non rep" means do not repeat and is used to indicate that no additional refills are authorized.

Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription? A. Dosage schedule B. Drug name C. Drug strength D. Patient name

A. Dosage schedule Rationale: A dosage schedule states exactly when a medication is to be administered to the patients such as 8 am or 4 pm.

Which reference book contains the USP and NF drug standards and dispensing requirements? A. Drug Topics Orange Book B. Drug Topics Red Book C. USP DI, volume I D. USP DI, volume III

A. Drug Topics Orange Book Rationale: The Drug Topics Orange Book provides USP and NF drug standards and dispensing requirements.

Who establishes the expiration date on the original manufacturer's package? A. Drug manufacturer B. FDA C. USP D. Pharmacist

A. Drug manufacturer Rationale: The drug manufacturer establishes the expiration date for a specific lot of medication. By assigning an expiration date, the drug manufacture is guaranteeing the potency of the medication is good; any time after the expiration date, the drug manufacturer will not guarantee the potency of the medication.

A patient comes to the pharmacy to refill a prescription. She knows the name of the medication but does not have the prescription number. The pharmacy technician uses the computer at the prescription drop-off counter to look up this information. What type of computer is used here? A. Dumb terminal B. Mainframe C. Microcomputer D. Minicomputer

A. Dumb terminal Rationale: A dumb terminal allows a number of users to access patient information. Mainframe computers are large, expensive, powerful computers used to process large quantities of data. Microcomputers or personal computers (PCs) are stand-alone systems that run software programs and manage data accessed from a larger source. Microcomputers include a monitor, central processing unit (CPU), and printer. Microcomputers are used in pharmacies for quality assurance, drug information, drug utilization evaluations, adverse drug reporting, non-formulary drug use, and workload statistics. Minicomputers are smaller scaled mainframes used by several people in an organization through the use of local area network (LAN).

Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment

A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision.

Which piece of legislation distinguished the difference between prescription and over-the-counter medications? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment B. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act C. New Drug Listing Act D. Pure Food and Drug Act

A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment defined both prescription and over-the-counter medications. It required that all prescription medications bear the Federal Legend.

Which of the following medications is not a proton pump inhibitor? A. Econazole B. Omeprazole C. Pantoprazole D. Rabeprazole

A. Econazole Rationale: Econazole (Spectazole) is an antifungal agent. Omeprazole (Prilosec), pantoprazole (Protonix), and rabeprazole (Actiphex) are proton pump inhibitors.

Which dosage form releases carbon dioxide when it comes in contact with a liquid such as water? A. Effervescent salts B. MDI C. Nebulizer D. Plaster

A. Effervescent salts Rationale: When an effervescent salt is released in water, a bubbling occurs that indicates carbon dioxide is being released from the dosage form.

What is the meaning of the acronym EDI? A. Electronic data interchange B. Employee data inquiry C. Erectile dysfunction injury D. Extemporaneous drug investigation

A. Electronic data interchange Rationale: Electronic data interchange (EDI) plays a very important role in a pharmacy's billing process.

What is the meaning of the acronym EHR? A. Electronic health record B. Electronic health response C. Emergency health response D. Esophageal health reaction

A. Electronic health record Rationale: EHR means electronic health record.

Which liquid form is a dispersion in which one liquid is dispersed in another immiscible liquid? A. Emulsion B. Lotion C. Ointment D. Suspension

A. Emulsion Rationale: An emulsion is a dispersion in which one liquid is dispersed into another immiscible liquid. Emulsions can be either water/oil or oil/water. Emulsions contain a third phase, which is an emulsifying agent used to prevent the emulsions from separating.

What is the generic name for Lexapro? A. Escitalopram B. Fluoxetine C. Sertraline D. Venlafaxine

A. Escitalopram Rationale: The generic name for Lexapro is escitalopram.

Which of the following medications is the generic name for Nexium? A. Esomeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Pantoprazole D. Rabeprazole

A. Esomeprazole Rationale: Esomeprazole is the generic name for Nexium.

When is a hospital's drug formulary updated? A. Every 12 to 18 months B. Monthly C. When a new drug is approved by the FDA D. When a new drug indication is approved by the FDA

A. Every 12 to 18 months Rationale: An institution's drug formulary is evaluated approximately once a year to take into consideration new drug products, changes in drug therapies, and additional information that has become known since the drug was approved.

What is the purpose of a membrane filter? A. Filters a solution as it is expelled from a syringe B. Filters a solution before it is injected into a person's vein C. Filters a solution as it is being pulled into or expelled from a syringe but not both in the same procedure D. Filters the transfer of a solution between two syringes

A. Filters a solution as it is expelled from a syringe Rationale: A membrane filter is used when handling parenteral injections to filter a solution as the solution is expelled from a syringe.

Which of the following organizations oversees MEDWATCH, the medication error reporting program? A. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B. Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) C. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) D. The Joint Commission (TJC)

A. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Rationale: MEDWATCH is the FDA Safety Information and Adverse Event Reporting Program.

When weighing a substance, what should be used in handling the metric weights? A. Forceps B. Glassine papers C. Nonlatex gloves D. Weighing boats

A. Forceps Rationale: Forceps are used to prevent oils from the skin from getting onto the weight and affecting the metric weight.

What form must be submitted to the DEA to destroy controlled substances? A. Form 41 B. Form 49 C. Form 224 D. Form 225

A. Form 41 Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 requires that pharmacies submit DEA Form 41 in triplicate before the destruction of any controlled substances.

What is the direction for airflow in a horizontal laminar airflow hood? A. From the back of the hood to the front B. From the bottom of the hood to the top C. From the front of the hood to the back D. From the top of the hood to the bottom

A. From the back of the hood to the front Rationale: Outside air flows into the back of the horizontal airflow hood, through the hood's HEPA filter, and out toward the opening, and the air is recirculated into the room. A vertical airflow hood is similar to the horizontal except that the air cannot be recirculated into the room. This air goes through two HEPA filters and is released into an open area or is vented to the outside.

Which of the following is not a use for computers in a pharmacy? A. Generating prescriptions B. Identifying patient contraindications C. Maintaining drug files D. Maintaining prescriber information

A. Generating prescriptions Rationale: Only a prescriber may generate a prescription.

What type of diabetes may occur during pregnancy? A. Gestational B. Secondary C. Type I D. Type II

A. Gestational Rationale: Gestational diabetes may occur during pregnancy, secondary diabetes occurs as a result of medications being taken by a patient, type I diabetes occurs because the pancreas is unable to produce insulin, and type II diabetes occurs because the body is unable to meet the needs of the body.

Which type of mortar and pestle is used to mix liquids or semisolid dosage forms? A. Glass B. Porcelain C. Wedgwood D. All of the above

A. Glass Rationale: A glass mortar and pestle is used to mix liquids and semisolid dosage forms. Wedgwood is used in the trituration of crystals, granules, and powders. Porcelain is similar to Wedgwood and is more commonly used in the blending of powders.

What type of mortar and pestle should be used in mixing liquid compounds? A. Glass B. Latex C. Porcelain D. Wedgwood

A. Glass Rationale: Glass mortars and pestles are best used for mixing liquids because of the smooth surface, and they will not stain like porcelain or Wedgwood.

What type of mortar and pestle should be used in mixing liquids? A. Glass B. Porcelain C. Wedgwood D. All of the above

A. Glass Rationale: Glass mortars and pestles are used with liquids because they are nonporous and nonstaining. Porcelain and Wedgwood are used for triturating substances.

Which of the following is responsible for negotiating prices for hospitals but is not responsible for their purchase? A. Group purchasing organization (GPO) B. Hospital buyer C. Pharmacist in charge D. Prime vendor

A. Group purchasing organization (GPO) Rationale: A GPO negotiates prices with drug manufacturers for a group of institutions. It is the responsibility of the institution to purchase the medications.

Which of the following is a benefit of belonging to a group purchasing organization? A. Guaranteeing preferred pricing over a period of 1 year or more B. Lower inventory and carrying cost C. Reduced order turnaround times D. Singular system for processing credits and returns

A. Guaranteeing preferred pricing over a period of 1 year or more Rationale: An organization that belongs to a group purchasing organization has the following benefits: preferential pricing, reducing pharmacy staff time involving contracts, and guaranteeing preferred pricing over a period of 1 year or more.

What type of spatula should be used in handling iodine? A. Hard rubber B. Plastic C. Stainless steel D. All of the above

A. Hard rubber Rationale: A hard rubber spatula is used in handling iodine because of the corrosive nature of iodine when it comes in contact with metal.

What type of product requires that an SDS be provided to the purchaser? A. Hazardous chemicals and drugs B. Injectable drugs C. Investigational drugs D. All of the above

A. Hazardous chemicals and drugs Rationale: OSHA requires that an SDS, formerly known as a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), must be provided to the purchaser of all hazardous chemicals and drugs.

The following medications—Diovan HCT, Dyazide, Hyzaar, and Zestoretic—are combination products used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease. Which medication is found in all of them? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Lisinopril C. Triamterene D. Valsartan

A. Hydrochlorothiazide Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is one of the ingredients found in all of the following medications: Diovan HCT, Dyazide, Hyzaar, and Zestoretic. Diovan HCT is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide, Dyazide is triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide, Hyzaar is losartan and hydrochlorothiazide, and Zestoretic is lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide.

Which of the following is not a side effect of glucocorticoids? A. Hypotension B. Hypokalemia C. Impaired wound healing D. Peptic ulcer disease

A. Hypotension Rationale: Glucocorticoids may cause hypertension from sodium retention, not hypotension.

Which gland influences water balance, body temperature, appetite, and emotions? A. Hypothalamus B. Pancreas C. Thymus D. Thyroid

A. Hypothalamus Rationale: The hypothalamus regulates the body, and its goal is to maintain homeostasis within the body.

What type of area contains no more than 100 particles 0.5 micron and larger per cubic foot of air? A. ISO class 5 B. ISO class 7 C. ISO class 9 D. ISO class 11

A. ISO class 5 Rationale: According to USP 797, ISO class 5 (previously known as a class 100) contains no more than 100 particles 0.5 micron and larger per cubic foot of air.

Which of the following is a true about CPOE systems? A. If a CPOE system is not properly integrated with the pharmacy system, the pharmacy will need to obtain a copy of the printout and enter the information manually, which may result in an error. B. CPOE systems are used in community pharmacies. C. CPOE systems require a printer to be used. D. CPOE systems are able to reduce medication errors by 100% when used.

A. If a CPOE system is not properly integrated with the pharmacy system, the pharmacy will need to obtain a copy of the printout and enter the information manually, which may result in an error. Rationale: CPOE systems are paperless systems used in hospitals that are capable of reducing medication errors, but they are unable to eliminate all medication errors.

Where would you prepare hazardous drugs in a pharmacy? A. In a biological safety hood B. In a horizontal laminar airflow hood C. In a vertical laminar airflow hood D. On an ointment slab

A. In a biological safety hood Rationale: Hazardous drugs are prepared in a biological safety hood, IVs in a horizontal flow hood, antineoplastics in a vertical flow hood, and various extemporaneous products using an ointment slab.

How should an otic product be administered? A. In the ear B. In the eye C. In the rectum D. Under the tongue

A. In the ear Rationale: Otic refers to the ear.

Which of the following statements is false? A. Interfaces can provide laboratory results to the pharmacy system. B. Manual data input is simplified using mnemonics. C. Pharmacy systems require a database to input patient information. D. Pharmacy stand-alone systems must have an interface to the mainframe to display demographic information.

A. Interfaces can provide laboratory results to the pharmacy system. Rationale: Interfaces are not required to display laboratory test results.

What unit of measurement is used to indicate the strength of heparin? A. International units B. mEq C. mg D. mL

A. International units Rationale: Heparin is a biological substance that is measured in international units. International units measure the activity of the substance.

What does IV mean? A. Intravenous B. Intravenous piggyback C. Intravenous push D. Involuntary

A. Intravenous Rationale: IV is an approved pharmacy abbreviation for intravenous.

Which part of the body is referred to with the root word nephro? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Skin D. Tooth

A. Kidneys Rationale: Nephro is the root word for kidney, hepatic indicates liver, cutan means skin, and dent means tooth.

Which form is used to document medication being administered to a patient? A. MAR B. MDR C. POS D. TAR

A. MAR Rationale: MAR stands for medication administration record.

Which of the following is true regarding unused unit dose medications in a hospital? A. May be returned to the pharmacy, credited to the patient's account, and redispensed B. May be returned to the pharmacy, credited to the patient's account, and not redispensed C. May not be returned to the pharmacy D. These medications should be placed in a "crash cart."

A. May be returned to the pharmacy, credited to the patient's account, and redispensed Rationale: Unused unit dose medications may be returned to the pharmacy, should be credited to the patient's account, and redispensed. If there is any sign an attempt has been made to open the medication, it should not be redispensed because the integrity of the medication may have been compromised.

Which Medicare program covers charges incurred by the patient in the hospital? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D

A. Medicare Part A Rationale: Medicare Part A covers inpatient health care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and some home healthcare.

What device is used to transfer information from one computer to another computer using telephone lines and servers? A. Modem B. Monitor C. Operating systems D. Scanner

A. Modem Rationale: Modems transfer information from one computer to another.

Which of the following standard development organizations has developed and maintained standards for each step in the prescribing process? A. NCPDP B. SCRIPT C. PSTAC D. All of the above

A. NCPDP Rationale: NCPDP is the only standards development organization that focuses on pharmacy services. NCPDP works to develop and maintain standards for each step in the prescribing process. NCPDP has established e-prescribing standards known as SCRIPT. SCRIPT standards facilitate the transfer of prescription data among pharmacies, prescribers, intermediaries, and payers. PSTAC has established HIPPA-compliant Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) billing codes for pharmacists when performing Medication Therapy Management (MTM) services.

Which of the following is the strongest dose? A. NTG 1/100 gr B. NTG 1/150 gr C. NTG 1/200 gr D. NTG 1/400 gr

A. NTG 1/100 gr Rationale: The smaller the number in the denominator, the larger the value of the number.

What is the meaning of the term NPI? A. National provider identifier B. Normal protamine sulfate injection C. Nothing by mouth or injection D. Nothing per injection

A. National provider identifier Rationale: NPI is an acronym for national provider identifier, which a physician must have to participate in Medicare.

What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies

A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies Rationale: Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual purchase of medications for hospitals.

How many times may a prescription for a noncontrolled medication be transferred? A. Once B. Twice C. Five times D. As many times as there are refills on the prescription

A. Once Rationale: Any prescription with refills may only be transferred one time during the period of time the prescription is valid.

What is the meaning of PDA? A. Personal digital assistant B. Professional digital assistant C. Pharmaceutical-doctoral assistant D. Pharmacist daily assistant

A. Personal digital assistant Rationale: PDA is an acronym for a personal digital assistant, which is a handheld device capable of storing and transferring information.

What is the meaning of PHI? A. Personal health information B. Physician Health Insurance C. Prior health information D. Private health insurance

A. Personal health information Rationale: PHI refers to personal health information as explained under HIPAA.

Who may accept new prescriptions phoned in from a physician's office? A. Pharmacists B. Pharmacy aides C. Pharmacy clerks D. Pharmacy technicians

A. Pharmacists Rationale: Presently, only pharmacists are allowed to accept new prescriptions being telephoned into a pharmacy from a physician's office.

What is the study of the action of drugs within the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion? A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacology C. Pharmacopoeia D. Pharmacy

A. Pharmacokinetics Rationale: Pharmacokinetics examines the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of medications. Pharmacology is the study of how drugs work, such as their mechanism of action. A pharmacopoeia is a listing of drugs. Pharmacy is the art of preparing and dispensing drugs.

What term can be described as "the rules of a facility or institution?" A. Policy B. Procedure C. Protocol D. Standard

A. Policy Rationale: Policies are rules, procedures are involved with processes, protocol is concerned with appropriate behavior, and standards are expectations.

What are the four elements of medical and pharmaceutical nomenclature? A. Prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining vowels B. Prefixes, suffixes, key words, and combining vowels C. Prefixes, suffixes, key words and combining consonants D. Prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining consonants

A. Prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining vowels Rationale: A prefix occurs before the root word, which is followed by a suffix. Vowels combine the prefix, root word, and suffix together.

What type of pharmacy literature provides the original reports of scientific, clinical, technical, and administrative research projects? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. None of the above

A. Primary Rationale: Primary literature provides the original reports of scientific, clinical, technical, and administrative research projects.

How much SWFI and D10W are required to make 250 mL of D6W? A. SWFI—100 mL; D10W—150 mL B. SWFI—167 mL; D10W—83 mL C. SWFI—83 mL; D10W—167 mL D. SWFI—150 mL; D10W—100 mL

A. SWFI—100 mL; D10W—150 mL Rationale: Solve using alligation, where D10W (10% dextrose in water) is the highest concentration, D6W (6% dextrose in water) is the desired concentration to be made, and SWFI (sterile water for injection) has a 0% concentration and is the lowest strength. Subtract the desired concentration (6%) from the higher concentration (10%) and will provide the number of parts of the lower concentration (4 parts); subtract the lower concentration from the desired concentration to obtain the number of parts of the higher concentration (6 parts). Calculate the total number of parts 10 parts. 10% concentration: (6/10) × 250 mL = 150 mL 0% concentration: (4/10) × 250 mL = 100 mL

What is the meaning of SDS? A. Safety Data Sheets B. Material Sterile Delivery System C. Miscellaneous Secondary Drug Supplier D. Morphine sulfate depot system

A. Safety Data Sheets Rationale: SDS means Safety Data Sheets. SDS contain information about hazardous products.

Which schedule of medications has no medical use in the United States and possesses an extremely high potential for abuse? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

A. Schedule I Rationale: According to the DEA and the Controlled Substances Act, medications placed in Schedule I have no medicinal use in the United States and have the highest potential for abuse.

Which of the following is not an automated dispensing system? A. TJC B. Pyxis C. Robot Rx D. SureMed

A. TJC Rationale: TJC is an acronym for The Joint Commission. Pyxis, Robot Rx, and SureMed are automated dispensing systems.

Which of the following is not an example of a patient-caused error? A. The patient did not receive a sufficient quantity of medication from the pharmacy. B. The patient forgot to take his or her prescription medicine yesterday but doubled up on the medication today. C. The patient took his or her medication on an empty stomach when the prescription label indicated it should be taken with a meal. D. The patient took an antibiotic he or she found in his or her medication cabinet that was left over from an infection 1 year ago.

A. The patient did not receive a sufficient quantity of medication from the pharmacy. Rationale: This indicates a dispensing error made by the pharmacy.

Which of the following is the primary reason employees do not report prescription errors when they are discovered? A. They fear being punished. B. It did not hurt the patient. C. The institution does not have a procedure to report prescription errors. D. They do not know who they should tell about the error.

A. They fear being punished. Rationale: The fear of punishment (probation, suspension, or termination) prevents many individuals from reporting prescription errors.

What is the meaning of URI? A. Upper respiratory infection B. Urethral and rectal infection C. Urine receptacle infection D. Upper respiratory influenza

A. Upper respiratory infection Rationale: URI is an acronym for upper respiratory infection.

How are unused cytotoxic medications disposed? A. With biohazardous waste B. With controlled substances C. With investigational drugs D. With prescription drugs

A. With biohazardous waste Rationale: Cytotoxic medications are destroyed with biohazardous waste goods.

How would a prescriber write a prescription for "Zolpidem 5 mg at bedtime as needed"? A. Zolpidem 5 mg q hs prn B. Zolpidem 5 mg q hs ad C. Zolpidem 5 mg q 9 PM ad. lib. D. Zolpidem 5 mg q hs qs

A. Zolpidem 5 mg q hs prn Rationale: At bedtime is abbreviated "hs," and as needed is abbreviated "prn.

If a patient is receiving a prescription for isotretinoin, for what program must he or she be registered? A. iPledge B. Medicaid C. Medicare D. Worker's compensation

A. iPledge Rationale: The Accutane iPledge program of 2006 requires physicians, pharmacists, and patients to register in the iPledge program before prescribing, dispensing, or receiving a prescription for isotretinoin.

What unit of measurement is used to measure electrolytes? A. mEq B. mg C. mL D. units

A. mEq Rationale: Electrolytes are substances necessary to carry out the electrical activity of nerves and muscles in the body. A milliequivalent is 1/1000 of an equivalent weight and is used to measure replacement of electrolytes in the body.

When opening a glass ampule always use a gauze swab A. to protect your finger from cuts. B. to prevent contamination of the product inside the ampule. C. to disinfect the ampule. D. to do none of the above.

A. to protect your finger from cuts. Rationale: The gauze swab will protect the finger from being cut by fine pieces of glass.

What is the gross profit on a prescription that retails at $29.99, costs the pharmacy $19.99 from a wholesaler, and has a dispensing cost of $4.50? A. $5.50 B. $10.00 C. $25.49 D. None of the above

B. $10.00 Rationale: Selling price - Cost = Gross profit ($29.99 - $19.99 = $10.00).

A pharmacy receives a drug shipment that costs $75 per case for 12 bottles. The price markup is 150%. What price should be charged for one bottle? A. $6.25 B. $15.63 C. $75.00 D. $112.50

B. $15.63 Rationale: The cost of one bottle is $6.25 ($75.00/12 bottles per case). The markup for one bottle will be $9.38 ($6.25 × 150%/100%). The cost + markup = retail price ($6.25 + $9.38 = $15.63).

Use the following table to calculate the retail price for the prescription below: --------------------------------------------------------- AWP ....................................... Professional Fee Less than $15.00 ......................$4.00 $15.01-$50.00 ............................$4.50 Greater than $50.00 ..............$5.00 --------------------------------------------------------- Glyburide 5 mg tablets#30 AWP $440.05/1000 tablets. How much should the patient be charged for this prescription? A. $13.20 B. $17.20 C. $44.01 D. $48.51

B. $17.20 Rationale: Calculate the cost of 30 tablets using the following proportion: 1000 tablets/$440.05 = 30 tablets/X, where X = $13.20. Find where the cost falls in the equation and add the professional fee: $13.20 + $4.00 = $17.20.

How much would a patient pay for a prescription with a retail value of $30.00 if he or she is to receive a 10% discount? A. $3.00 B. $27.00 C. $29.70 D. $33.00

B. $27.00 Rationale: Solve by using the following formula: Retail - (% Discount)(Retail) = price after discount; $30.00 - (0.10)(30.00) = $27.00.

A pharmacy is reimbursed by an insurance company for AWP + $3.25 per prescription. If the AWP for 100 tablets is $120.00, how much will the pharmacy be reimbursed for a prescription of 30 tablets? A. $36.00 B. $39.25 C. $120.00 D. $123.25

B. $39.25 Rationale: AWP + dispensing fee is a common method of reimbursing pharmacies for medications. Calculate the cost of 30 tablets (100 tablets/$120.00 = 30 tablets/X), where X is $36.00 and the AWP for this medication; $3.25 is added to the AWP ($36.00), yielding $39.25.

The pharmacy fills a prescription for John Doe, who is covered under a prescription plan entitled "Your Meds." The PBM reimburses the pharmacy based on the following formula: AWP + $3.50. The patient has a prescription being filled for 30 tablets of hydrocodone/APAP with an AWP of $14.80/100 tablets. The patient has a copay of $5.00. How much will the pharmacy collect from the patient? A. $4.44 B. $5.00 C. $7.94 D. $18.30

B. $5.00 Rationale: The pharmacy will collect $5.00 from the patient because the patient is responsible for the first $5.00 of each prescription, and the third-party payer will pay the balance, which is $2.94 in this situation.

What is the gross profit for a prescription of 30 capsules of fluoxetine 20 mg with an AWP of $39.80, a retail price of $45.99, and a dispensing expense cost of $3.00? A. $3.19 B. $6.19 C. $9.19 D. None of the above

B. $6.19 Rationale: Gross profit = Retail price - Cost of goods ($45.99 - $39.80 = $6.19).

How many milligrams are in Nitrostat 1/150 gr? A. 0.65 B. 0.4 C. 0.325 D. 0.1625

B. 0.4 Rationale: 1 gr = 65 mg; using a proportion, 1 gr/65 mg = 1/150 gr/X mg, which is equal to approximately 0.4 mg.

Which DAW code is used when the physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B. 1 Rationale: DAW 1 means the physician is requesting that the patient receive the brand name drug.

How many times may a controlled substance with five refills be transferred to another pharmacy? A. 0 times B. 1 time C. 5 times D. 6 times

B. 1 time Rationale: Controlled substances can be transferred only once.

The infusion rate of an IV is over a 12-hour period. The total exact volume is 800 mL. What would be the infusion rate in mL/min? A. 0.56 mL/min B. 1.11 mL/min C. 2.7 mL/min D. None of the above

B. 1.11 mL/min Rationale: Calculate rate/hour and then divide by 60 min/hr: 800 mL/12 hr = 66 mL/hr; 66 mL/hr/60 min/hr = 1.11 mL/min.

How many days will the following prescription last? Ampicillin 250 mg #40 1 cap po qid Ref x ii A. 4 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30

B. 10 Rationale: Days' supply = Total quantity dispensed/Quantity taken per day (40 capsules/4 capsules/day = 10-day supply).

What is the maximum number of different items that may be ordered on a Form 222? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

B. 10 Rationale: The maximum number of different Schedule II medications legally allowed on a Form 222 is 10, which is found in the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.

What is the Roman numeral equivalent to an Arabic number X? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 100

B. 10 Rationale: X represents 10.

How many inventory turns would a pharmacy experience if its initial inventory of the accounting period was $225,000, the final inventory of the period was $250,000, and it had sales of $2.75 million? A. 12.22 turns B. 11.58 turns C. 11.00 turns D. 5.79 turns

B. 11.58 turns Rationale: Inventory turnover rate is calculated by dividing the total sales by the average inventory value. $2,750,000/[($225,000 + $250,000)/2] = 11.58 turns.

You have a solution of heparin 100,000 units/L, with an infusion apparatus labeled 60 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate to deliver a dose of 20 units/min? A. 3 gtt/min B. 12 gtt/min C. 15 gtt/min D. 20 gtt/min

B. 12 gtt/min Rationale: Calculate the number of units per hour (20 units/1 min = X units/60 min (1 hr), where X = 1,200 units). Calculate the volume to be infused per hour (100,000 units/1000 mL = 1200 units/ X mL, where X = 12 mL in 1 hr). Calculate the number of gtt/min by using the following formula: (mL/hr)(Drop size)(1 hr/60 min) = gtt/min. (12 mL/hr)(60 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 12 gtt/min.

How many inventory turns will a pharmacy experience in a calendar year if the beginning inventory is $425,000, the ending inventory is $410,000, and the pharmacy has sales of $5.2 million? A. 12.23 turns B. 12.45 turns C. 12.68 turns D. Not enough information is provided to perform the calculations

B. 12.45 turns Rationale: Inventory turns is defined as total sales/divided by the average inventory. To calculate the average inventory, add the initial inventory and the final inventory and divide by 2. $425,000 (beginning inventory) + $410,000 (ending inventory)/2 = $417,500 (average inventory). 5,200,000 (Total sales)/417,500(Average inventory) = 12.45 inventory turns.

A 50-mL IVPB bag of ampicillin 500 mg in normal saline is to be run infused in 20 minutes. What is the infusion rate in milliliters per hour? A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

B. 150 Rationale: Rate = Volume/Time (hr); 50 mL/0.33 hr = 150 mL/hr.

How much guaifenesin with codeine would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin c Codeine 5cc q 4 h po prn"? A. 120 mL B. 150 mL C. 450 mL D. 480 mL

B. 150 mL Rationale: A patient would receive a maximum of six doses of (5 cc = 5 mL)/day for 5 days. The pharmacy would need to dispense 150 mL (5 fl oz) to fill the prescription.

What is the correct dosage for a 25-lb child if the adult dose is 100 mg? A. 7.6 mg B. 17 mg C. 68 mg D. 113 mg

B. 17 mg Rationale: Solve using Clark's rule: (Wt [lb]/150) × Adult dose (25/150) × 100 mg = 16.67 mg (17 mg).

You have been asked to prepare 20 mL of a drug dilution of 50 mg/mL from a stock solution of 2 g/5 mL. How many milliliters of diluent will be needed? A. 2.5 B. 17.5 C. 140 D. 160

B. 17.5 Rationale: The problem can be solved using the following formula: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV), where 2 g/5 mL is the initial strength, 20 mL is the final volume, and 50 mg/mL is the final strength, which will yield an initial volume of 2.5 mL. Final volume (20 mL) - Initial volume (2.5 mL) = Amount of diluent (17.5 mL).

How old must one be to purchase an exempt narcotic? A. 16 years B. 18 years C. 21 years D. 65 years

B. 18 years Rationale: According to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, an individual must be at least 18 years of age to purchase exempt narcotics.

How many 500-mg doses can be prepared from a 10-g vial of cefazolin? A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 50

B. 20 Rationale: Convert 10 g to milligrams: 10 g × 1000 mg/g = 10,000 mg. Divide the total weight by the weight per dose: 10,000 mg/500 mg per dose = 20 doses.

A technician is given 120 mL of a 50% (w/v) potassium chloride solution and is told to add 6 oz of sterile water to it. What will the final (w/v) percentage concentration be of the solution? A. 10 B. 20 C. 33 D. 47

B. 20 Rationale: To solve this problem, the following formula should be used: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV). The following should be substituted: (50%)(120 mL) = (FS)(300 mL), where the final volume is calculated by adding 6 oz (180 mL) to the initial volume of 120 mL. The final strength is 20%.

What is the minimum amount that you should measure using a 100-mL graduated cylinder? A. 10 mL B. 20 mL C. 50 mL D. There is no minimum.

B. 20 mL Rationale: You should never use a graduated cylinder that is more than five times the volume being measured.

A pharmacy has available 1 cup of a 10% povidone-iodine wash concentrate. The physician has ordered a diluted wash of 1%. If 1 cup of 1% povidone-iodine wash is ordered, how many milligrams of the 10% will be needed? A. 2.4 B. 24 C. 120 D. 240

B. 24 Rationale: This is a dilution problem with an initial strength of 10% and one is preparing a final volume of one cup (240 mL) of a 1% strength. To solve the dilution, use the following equation: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV). Substituting the data into the equation will yield (10%)(IV) = (1%)(240 mL), where the IV = 24 mL.

How many milliliters of water must be added to 250 mL of a 0.9% (w/v) stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a ½ NS solution? A. 125 B. 250 C. 375 D. 500

B. 250 Rationale: Normal saline is 0.9%; therefore, ½ NS would be 0.9%/2 or 0.45%. Solve using the following equation: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV), substituting the following values: (0.9%)(250 mL) = (0.45%)(X mL), where X = 500 mL, which is the final volume. FV - IV = Amount of water to be added. 500 mL - 250 mL= 250 mL of water.

In what proportion should a 20% zinc oxide be mixed with white petrolatum (diluent) to produce a 3% zinc oxide ointment? A. 1 part ZnO and 1 part white petrolatum B. 3 parts ZnO and 17 parts white petrolatum C. 3 parts ZnO and 14 parts white petrolatum D. 17 parts ZnO and 3 parts white petrolatum

B. 3 parts ZnO and 17 parts white petrolatum Rationale: This problem can be solved using alligation, where 20% is the highest concentration, 3% is the concentration to be prepared, and petrolatum has a concentration of 0%. For the 20%, subtract the 0% from the 3%, which will require 3 parts of 20%; for the 0%, subtract 3% from 20%, which will give 17 parts of the 3%.

How much pseudoephedrine may be purchased at one time? A. 2.4 g B. 3.6 g C. 5 g D. 9 g

B. 3.6 g Rationale: The Combat Methamphetamine Act allows an individual to purchase 3.6 g per day or a maximum of 9 g per month.

How long must a laminar airflow hood be on before being used? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 2 hour

B. 30 minutes Rationale: Both horizontal and vertical laminar airflow hoods must be on for at least 30 minutes before being used in the preparation of aseptic products.

What is the markup rate for a prescription that costs $35.00 and retails for $50.00? A.30% B. 43% C. 57% D. 70%

B. 43% Rationale: Selling price - Cost = Markup ($50.00 - $35.00 = $15.00). Markup/Cost × 100% = Markup rate ($15.00/$35.00) - 100% = 43%.

What is the angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection? A. 10 to 15 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 75 degrees D. 90 degrees

B. 45 degrees Rationale: Subcutaneous injections should have angle of insertion of 45 degrees. Intradermal injections should have a 10- to 15-degree angle, and intramuscular should go in at 90 degrees.

What is the minimum amount of time that a patient must wait before purchasing another bottle of an exempt narcotic? A. 24 hr B. 48 hr C. 72 hr D. 96 hr

B. 48 hr Rationale: According to the Controlled Substance Act, an individual may only purchase one 4-oz bottle of an "exempt narcotic" every 48 hours.

How many days will the following prescription last? Amoxicillin 125 mg/5mL 75 cc i tsp po tid A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15

B. 5 Rationale: One teaspoon is equal to 5 mL. "TID" means three times per day. The patient will be receiving 1 tsp three times per day, or 15 mL. The total amount of medication to be dispensed is 75 mL. 75 mL/15 mL per day = 5 days.

Which of the following is least likely to lead to a wrong dose error? A. .5 mg B. 5 mg C. 5.0 mg D. 5U

B. 5 mg Rationale: A zero should always precede a number whose value is less than 1, trailing zeroes should never be used because they may increase the dosage by a factor of 10, and the abbreviation "U" should be spelled out.

What is the meaning of D5W? A. 5% distilled water B. 5% dextrose in water C. Discontinue 5% water D. Dispense for 5 weeks

B. 5% dextrose in water Rationale: D5W means 5% dextrose dissolved in water.

A patient weighs 130 lb. The physician orders gentamicin at 3 mg/kg per day in three 50-mL piggyback bags. How many milligrams will be added to each bag? A. 43 B. 59 C. 130 D. 177

B. 59 Rationale: Convert the patient's weight to kilograms: 130 lb × 1 kg/2.2 lb = 59.09 kg. Calculate the amount needed to be given daily: 59.09 kg × 3 mg/kg = 177.27 mg/day. The total amount of medication is to be administered in three doses: 177.27 mg/day/3 doses/day = 59 mg/dose.

How many inches inside a laminar airflow hood should one prepare a sterile product? A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 12

B. 6 Rationale: One must be at least 6 inches inside of the laminar airflow hood to use proper aseptic technique.

An intravenous solution containing 20,000 units of heparin in 500 mL of a 0.45% sodium chloride solution is to be infused at a rate of 1000 units per hour. How many drops per minute should be infused to deliver the desired dose if the intravenous set is calibrated at a rate of 15 gtt/mL? A. 0.42 gtt B. 6 gtt C. 16 gtt D. 32 gtt

B. 6 gtt Rationale: An individual must determine how long the bag will last (1000 units/hr = 20,000 units/X hr). The bag will last 20 hr. The rate of infusion can be calculated by dividing 500 mL by 20 hr, resulting in 25 mL/hr. Then use the following formula: Rate × Drop size × 1 hr/60 min = gtt/min. Therefore, using (25 mL/hr)(15 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) will yield 6 gtt/min.

What is the sensitivity of a class A balance? A. 0.6 mg B. 6 mg C. 12 mg D. 60 mg

B. 6 mg Rationale: The USP requires that a class A balance has a sensitivity of 6 mg or less with no load.

How many 150-mg clindamycin capsules are required to compound a prescription reading: "Clindamycin 2%, propylene glycol 5%, isopropyl alcohol qs ad 480 mL"? A. 10 B. 64 C. 96 D. 112

B. 64 Rationale: Calculate the amount of active ingredient by multiplying the final volume by the percent of clindamycin expressed as a decimal (480 mL × 0.02 = 9.6 g). Convert 9.6 g to milligrams by multiplying 9.6 g × 1000 mg/g = 9600 mg. Divide the total weight of clindamycin by the weight of each capsule (9600 mg/150 mg per capsule = 64 capsules).

What is the minimum passing score on the PTCB examination? A. 350 B. 650 C. 800 D. 900

B. 650 Rationale: The minimum passing score on the PTCB examination is 650.

A 35-kg child is prescribed amoxicillin with a dosage of 10 mg/kg. The pharmacy has in stock amoxicillin 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the child be given in one dose? A. 3.2 B. 7 C. 15.4 D. 350

B. 7 Rationale: Calculate the amount of medication the child will need (35 kg × 10 mg/kg = 350 mg). To calculate the volume required use a proportion: 50 mg/mL = 350 mg/X, where X = 7 mL. The patient will need to be given 7 mL for each dose.

How many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of Accutane (isotretinoin)? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days

B. 7 days Rationale: All Accutane (isotretinoin) prescriptions must be handwritten by the prescriber and filled within 7 days of being written with the approved yellow seal attached and having no refills authorized.

At what standard time would a patient receive medication if it was 0800 hr military time? A. 7 am B. 8 am C. 7 pm D. 8 pm

B. 8 am Rationale: Military time begins at 12:01 am and ends at midnight, which is 24:00 hours; 0800 is the same as 8 am.

A pharmacy has a beginning inventory of $200,000 and an ending inventory of $250,000. During this period, the pharmacy obtains sales of $2,150,000. How many inventory turns will the pharmacy experience? A. 8.6 B. 9.56 C. 10.75 D. 12.0

B. 9.56 Rationale: Inventory turnover rate is calculated by dividing the total sales ($2,150,000) by the average inventory ([$200,000 + $250,000]/2).

What is a TPN? A. A bolus injection B. A large-volume parenteral C. A small-volume parenteral D. An IM injection

B. A large-volume parenteral Rationale: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a type of large-volume parenteral.

What type of drug is dextromethorphan? A. A leukotriene antagonists B. A nonopioid cough suppressant C. An opioid cough suppressant D. A xanthine derivative

B. A nonopioid cough suppressant Rationale: Dextromethorphan is a nonopioid cough suppressant considered equivalent to codeine, but that does not possess the analgesic behavior.

What is a purchase order? A. A number assigned to a specific pharmacy B. A number used to identify an order C. A number assigned by the state boards of pharmacy D. A number that is the same on all orders from a given pharmacy

B. A number used to identify an order Rationale: A purchase order is an order for non-schedule drugs, devices, and supplies that may be ordered electronically by fax, e-mail, or computer. A number assigned to the purchase order is to be used to track the order.

Which of the following tasks would not be performed by a pharmacy technician in a hospital? A. Assisting the pharmacist in preparing IVs for the patients B. Advising patients on their medications C. Inspecting nursing unit drug stocks D. Preparing unit doses

B. Advising patients on their medications Rationale: Pharmacy technicians are permitted to perform technical skills, not judgmental skills such as advising or counseling a patient.

What is the generic name for Fosamax? A. Albuterol B. Alendronate C. Amlodipine D. Raloxifene

B. Alendronate Rationale: The generic name for Fosamax is alendronate. The other drugs are albuterol (Proventil), amlodipine (Norvasc), and raloxifene (Evista).

Which of the following patients must have a patient profile? A. All patients B. All new patients C. All patients who have transferred prescriptions into a pharmacy D. All patients receiving controlled substance prescriptions

B. All new patients Rationale: OBRA '90 requires that all patients receiving prescriptions in a pharmacy have a patient profile.

Which of the following antiviral agents is used in the prophylaxis of influenza A? A. Acyclovir B. Amantadine C. Cidofovir D. Vidarabine

B. Amantadine Rationale: Amantadine (Symmetrel) is used as a prophylaxis treatment for influenza A. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is used to treat genital herpes, herpes zoster, and varicella. Cidofovir (Vistide) is used to treat cytomegalovirus. Vidarabine (Vira A) is an ophthalmic agent.

What does ASHP mean? A. American Schools of Health Practices B. American Society of Health-System Pharmacists C. American Society of Hospital Pharmacists D. Association of Specialty Health Practitioners

B. American Society of Health-System Pharmacists Rationale: ASHP is an acronym standing for American Society of Health-System Pharmacists.

What is MEDMARX? A. A national medication error reporting system B. An international adverse drug effect reporting system C. A vaccine adverse effect reporting system D. The FDA adverse effect reporting system

B. An international adverse drug effect reporting system Rationale: MEDMARX is an international adverse drug effect reporting system that is used to prevent medication errors leading to adverse drug effects to gain a better understanding of adverse drug reactions.

Which classification of medications may yield side effects such as dry eyes, dry mouth, or difficult urination or defecation? A. Alpha-blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Beta-blockers D. Cephalosporins

B. Anticholinergics Rationale: Anticholinergics have a tendency to dry up all bodily secretions as a side effect.

What classification of drugs may yield side effects such as dry mouth, difficult urination, or constipation? A. Alpha-blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Beta-blockers D. Cholinergics

B. Anticholinergics Rationale: Side effects of anticholinergic drugs include drying up of body fluids, which may cause a dry mouth, difficulty urinating or defecating, an inability to perspire, or the eye lens to become dry. Special caution should be observed in prescribing anticholinergic medications to elderly patients.

Which of the following medications, if taken with aspirin, may result in prolonged or increased bleeding? A. Antacids B. Anticoagulants C. Beta-blockers D. Corticosteroids

B. Anticoagulants Rationale: Aspirin and anticoagulants should not both be part of a patient's drug regimen. Both medications prevent blood clotting; if taken together, a patient may hemorrhage.

If a patient is experiencing a dry, nonproductive cough, what classification of drug should the patient take? A. Antihistamine B. Antitussive C. Decongestant D. Expectorant

B. Antitussive Rationale: Whereas antitussives are used in the treatment of a dry, nonproductive cough, expectorants are used if a patient has mucus or phlegm.

Today's date is January 14, 2014. You are preparing unit doses of drug A, which will expire in December of this year. What expiration date would be placed on the packaging? A. January 2014 B. April 2014 C. July 2014 D. December 2014

B. April 2014 Rationale: There are two methods to calculate the expiration date of repackaged medication, the 6-month method or 1/4 of the manufacturer's time. The life of a repackaged drug is 6 months. To determine which method should be used, calculate the total number of months for which the medication is good (12 months in this situation). Divide this number by 4 (12 months/4 = 3 months). In this situation, set an expiration date of 3 months because it is less than the maximum of 6 months. Add 3 months to today's date, which would make it April 2014.

How would a patient take a medication if the directions read "prn?" A. As directed B. As needed C. By mouth D. By rectum

B. As needed 6Rationale: "prn" means as needed for a particular condition.

When a pharmacy technician is performing geometric dilution, when does he or she add the most potent ingredient, which may also have the smallest weight or smallest volume, to the mortar? A. Any time B. As the first ingredient C. As the last ingredient D. Intermittently during the compounding process

B. As the first ingredient Rationale: During the process of geometric dilution, an individual combines more than one ingredient. One begins by using the most potent (normally the smallest quantity) first in the mortar; then an equal amount of the next most potent drug is added. This process continues until all quantities have been added and mixed. During geometric dilution, the total quantity of drug being prepared is approximately doubling with each ingredient added.

What should be done if you have questions about the directions on a prescription? A. Ask the patient to help you with the directions. B. Ask the pharmacist for assistance. C. Attempt to interpret the prescription. D. Call the physician's office immediately.

B. Ask the pharmacist for assistance. Rationale: Whenever in doubt about anything in the pharmacy, ask the pharmacist for assistance.

When should Covera HS be given to a patient? A. After a meal B. At bedtime C. Before a meal D. Anytime during the day

B. At bedtime Rationale: Covera HS is a verapamil product to be taken at the hour of sleep (HS), or at bedtime.

Which of the following products is not used to treat vertigo? A. Antivert B. Auralgan C. Dramamine D. Transderm Scop

B. Auralgan Rationale: Auralgan is used to treat swimmer's ear.

Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dr. A. Shedlock? A. AB135426 B. BS2456879 C. FS1578926 D. MS2254235

B. BS2456879 Rationale: The first letter may be either an A or B. The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber's last name. Next, add the numbers in the first, third, and fifth position. Then add the numbers in the second, fourth, and sixth positions; multiply this sum by two. Add both sums together, and the correct number should be the last number.

What drug classification is lorazepam in? A. Barbiturate B. Benzodiazepine C. Beta-blocker D. TCA

B. Benzodiazepine Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine.

What type of medication has a suffix of -olol? A. Antiviral B. Beta-blocker C. Calcium channel blocker D. Corticosteroid

B. Beta-blocker Rationale: The -olol suffix indicates a medication is a beta-blocker; antiviral agents are identified by a suffix of -vir or -ir; calcium channel blockers may have a suffix of -dipine; and corticosteroids may have a suffix of -olone.

At what temperature should insulin be stored? A. Below 8° C B. Between 8° and 15° C C. Between 15° and 30° C D. Above 40° C

B. Between 8° and 15° C Rationale: Insulin should be stored in a refrigerator. One can convert Celsius to Fahrenheit by using the following formula: 9° C = 5° F - 160.

On a patient's chart, what does the acronym "BS" mean? A. Body surface B. Blood sugar C. Bloody solutions D. Bloody stools

B. Blood sugar Rationale: BS on a patient's chart indicates blood sugar.

The abbreviation "ou" is found on a prescription. What does it mean? A. Both ears B. Both eyes C. Both feet D. Both hands

B. Both eyes Rationale: "ou" means both eyes.

The abbreviation "ou" is found on a prescription. What does it mean? A. Both ears B. Both eyes C. Both feet D. Both hands

B. Both eyes Rationale: "ou" means both eyes.

Which of the following did TRICARE replace? A. BCBSA B. CHAMPUS C. CHAMPVA D. Workers Compensation

B. CHAMPUS Rationale: TRICARE was formerly known as Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS).

Acetaminophen with codeine is classified in what drug schedule? A. CII B. CIII C. CIV D. CV

B. CIII Rationale: Acetaminophen with codeine is a Schedule III controlled substance.

Which of the following is not an effect of narcotics? A. Analgesia B. CNS stimulation C. Euphoria D. Sedation

B. CNS stimulation Rationale: Narcotics have a tendency to sedate an individual (CNS depression). CNS stimulation would have the opposite effect.

Which of the following statements is false regarding continuous quality improvement (CQI)? A. CQI allows decisions to be made based on objective data only; decisions are not made subjectively. B. CQI focuses on people problems. C. CQI is a systemic approach to quality. D. Both answers a and c are false.

B. CQI focuses on people problems. Rationale: CQI is a scientific and systemic approach process of examining, assessing, and recognizing problems and then formulating a plan resulting in the improvement of a situation.

Which of the following is not an example of drug duplication? A. Aldactone and Coreg B. Calan and Isoptin C. Coumadin and Zetia D. Dyazide and Vasotec

B. Calan and Isoptin Rationale: Calan and Isoptin are brand names for verapamil.

Which of the following is not a manner for a new prescription to be presented for filling at a pharmacy? A. Called by the physician B. Called by the patient C. Fax D. Presented by the patient

B. Called by the patient Rationale: Both federal and state law do not allow for a patient to call a new prescription into the pharmacy. A patient may refill a prescription by telephone.

Which of the following medications is not an angiotensin II antagonist? A. Avapro B. Capoten C. Cozaar D. Diovan

B. Capoten Rationale: Capoten is a beta-blocker; Avapro, Cozaar, and Diovan are angiotensin II antagonists.

Which of the following herbal products would be used as a laxative? A. American ginseng B. Cascara sagrada C. Goldenseal D. Melatonin

B. Cascara sagrada Rationale: Cascara sagrada is used as a laxative, American ginseng is used to provide energy for the body, goldenseal is used for the immune system, and melatonin is used to induce sleep.

According to Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (MERP), which category error occurs when an error occurs but did not reach the patient? A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

B. Category B Rationale: This type of error is classified by MERP as a category B error. Although this is an error, it did not cause any harm to the patient.

Which of the following organizations administers Medicare? A. Blue Cross Blue Shield Association (BCBSA) B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) C. Health and Human Services (HHS) D. Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA)

B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Rationale: The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) administers Medicare.

Which organization established the guidelines for medical records? A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) C. National Council for Prescription Drug Programs (NCDPD) D. The Joint Commission (TJC)

B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Rationale: The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services established regulations and guidelines for medical records.

Which of the following medications needs to be packaged in a child-resistant container unless requested by a patient? A. Albuterol inhaler B. Cephalexin 500-mg capsules C. Ortho Novum 7-7-7 D. Nitroglycerin

B. Cephalexin 500-mg capsules Rationale: Cephalexin capsules must be dispensed in a child-resistant container unless the physician or patient requests it or the patient is institutionalized and the medication is being administered to the patient. Oral inhalers, oral contraceptives, and nitroglycerin are a few of the medications that do not need to be placed in a child-resistant container.

Which of the following is true about generically equivalent drugs? A. Chemically different but are expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity B. Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration C. Contain different active ingredients D. Priced exactly the same as brand name drugs

B. Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration Rationale: A generic drug must contain the same active ingredients as the original brand name drug; be identical in strength, dosage form, and route of administration; have the same use indications; meet the same batch requirements for identity, strength, purity, and quality; and yield similar blood absorption and urinary excretion curves for the active ingredient.

Which of the following medications is the generic name for Biaxin? A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Dirithromycin D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

B. Clarithromycin Rationale: Clarithromycin is the generic name for Biaxin. Azithromycin (Zithromax or Z-Pak), dirithromycin (Dynabac), and erythromycin ethylsuccinate (EES) are all macrolide antibiotics, as is clarithromycin.

Which of the following would not be used in the preparation of intravenous medications? A. Ampules B. Class A prescription balance C. Laminar flow hood D. Syringes

B. Class A prescription balance Rationale: Class A balances are used in nonsterile compounding, not in the preparation of intravenous preparations.

Which classification of drug recall occurs if the patient experiences a reversible side effect? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

B. Class II Rationale: A class II drug recall is one in which the probability exists that the use of the product will cause adverse health events that are temporary or medically reversible. A class I drug recall shows that there is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause or lead to serious adverse events or death. A class III recall is one in which use of the product will probably not cause an adverse health event.

Which of the following is not an antiviral agent? A. Acyclovir B. Clotrimazole C. Didanosine D. Zidovudine

B. Clotrimazole Rationale: Clotrimazole is an antifungal agent.

Which of the following is not found on a Master Formula Sheet used in compounding? A. Amount of ingredient needed B. Color of ingredient C. Manufacturer's lot number and expiration date D. Name of individual who weighed or measured ingredient

B. Color of ingredient Rationale: The color of the ingredient does not need to be noted on the Master Formula Sheet.

Which process is the reducing of a substance to small, fine particles? A. Blending B. Comminution C. Sifting D. Tumbling

B. Comminution Rationale: Comminution is the act of reducing a substance to small, fine particles; blending is the act of combining two substances; sifting is used to combine powders; and tumbling is accomplished by combining powders in a bag.

Which of the following is defined as a report summarizing all items that were not purchased on bid? A. 80/20 report B. Compliance report C. PAR report D. Velocity report

B. Compliance report Rationale: A compliance report is a report summarizing all items that were not purchased on bid. An 80/20 report is a detailed summary of purchasing history based on the 80/20 rule, designating medications that account for 80% of the drug costs for that period of time. A PAR report identifies the PAR level for each medication in stock. A velocity report provides a measure of the rate of work accomplished per iteration unit of time.

What is the meaning of CSAR? A. Controlled Studies Are Reviewed B. Controlled Substance Administration Record C. Controlled Substance Audit and Review D. Cost, sales, allocation, and resources

B. Controlled Substance Administration Record Rationale: CSAR means Controlled Substance Administration Record. CSARs are used in hospitals and other institutional facilities to acknowledge the administration of a controlled substance to a patient. The administrator must sign his or her name and the time of administration.

The manufacturer's drug label states to store the medication between 8 and 15° C. What is the storage designation for this medication? A. Cold B. Cool C. Room temperature D. Warm

B. Cool Rationale: The USP assigns terms to specific temperature ranges. Cold is defined as between 2 and 8° C, cool is between 8 and 15° C, room temperature is between 15 and 30° C, and warm is between 30 and 40° C.

What term is used to indicate the amount a patient must pay on a third-party prescription? A. Adjudication B. Copay C. Deductible D. Subscriber

B. Copay Rationale: The patient is responsible for paying for the copay of the prescription at the time of service.

Which of the following is a medication that has been classified by MERP as a "high-alert" medication? A. Bactrim DS B. Cordarone C. Elavil D. Lipitor

B. Cordarone Rationale: Examples of high-alert medications include Coumadin (warfarin), Cordarone (amiodarone), Lanoxin (digoxin), and Synthroid (levothyroxine).

What term refers to fragments of a vial closure that contaminate a parenteral solution? A. Bevel B. Coring C. Hub D. Lumen

B. Coring Rationale: A bevel is the slanted part of the needle, the hub is the place of attachment of a needle, and the lumen is the opening of the needle. Coring refers to the fragments of a vial that contaminate a parenteral solution.

What is the meaning of COGS? A. Cost of generic goods sold B. Cost of goods sold C. Cost of outdated goods D. Cost of overstock goods available for sale

B. Cost of goods sold Rationale: COGS is an acronym used in inventory management for cost of goods sold.

Which of the following is not a duty performed by a pharmacy technician? A. Answering telephones B. Counseling patients C. Preparing prescription labels D. Pricing prescriptions

B. Counseling patients Rationale: Pharmacy technicians may accept new and refill prescriptions from patients, input data into the pharmacy terminal, count medication, process labels, and order medications, but presently they are not allowed to counsel patients.

Which of the following are the two most commonly used floor stock LVPs? A. D5W and 0.45% NS B. D5W and 0.9% NS C. D5W and sterile water for injection D. 0.9% NS and sterile water for injection

B. D5W and 0.9% NS Rationale: 5% dextrose in water (D5W) and normal saline (NS 0.9%) are the two most commonly used large-volume parenterals in a hospital.

Which DEA form is used to report a theft of controlled substances? A. DEA Form 41 B. DEA Form 106 C. DEA Form 222 D. DEA Form 224

B. DEA Form 106 Rationale: DEA Form 106 is used to report the theft of controlled substances, DEA Form 41 is used for the destruction of controlled substances, DEA Form 222 orders Schedule II medications, and DEA Form 224 registers a pharmacy with the DEA.

Which of the following is not an example of a sound-a-like, look-a-like drug? A. Allegra-Viagra B. Dalmane-Dolobid C. Dyazide-Lasix D. Leukeran-Alkeran

B. Dalmane-Dolobid Rationale: Allegra-Viagra, Lanoxin-Levothyroxine, and Leukeran-Alkeran have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors because of their sound-a-like or look-a-like names.

Which of the following is not true of hospital pharmacy dispensing automation? A. Both centralized and decentralized automation make dispensing more efficient. B. Decentralized automation is better than centralized automation. C. Dispensing automation may be centralized in the pharmacy or decentralized at the point of care. D. Some institutions combine both centralized and decentralized automation to use advantages of both systems.

B. Decentralized automation is better than centralized automation. Rationale: Both centralized and decentralized automation systems possess advantages. The institution's objectives will determine which form of automation will used. In many situations, institutions use both centralized and decentralized systems.

What is the first step the pharmacy should do after being notified of a drug recall? A. Contact all patients who have ever been prescribed the medication. B. Determine if any of the recalled medication is in stock and, if so, place it in an area away from all other medications. C. Notify the physicians in the area. D. Run a report identifying all patients who have ever received the medication.

B. Determine if any of the recalled medication is in stock and, if so, place it in an area away from all other medications. Rationale: Check the pharmacy shelves first. If there is any of the recalled medication in stock, pull it aside and notify the pharmacist. The recalled medication should be kept separate from the remaining pharmacy inventory so it is not dispensed to a patient.

Which of the following medications can be mistaken for digoxin? A. Amoxicillin B. Digitoxin C. Imipramine D. Sotalol

B. Digitoxin Rationale: The ISMP has received numerous medication errors that involved digoxin and digitoxin.

What is the subscription on a prescription? A. Directions for the patient B. Dispensing directions for the pharmacist C. Medication prescribed D. Rx symbol

B. Dispensing directions for the pharmacist Rationale: The subscription provides dispensing directions to the pharmacist. The signa are directions to the patient, the inscription is the medication prescribed, and Rx means "take this drug."

What term describes the process by which drug molecules leave the bloodstream and enter the tissues of the body? A. Absorption B. Distribution C. Metabolism D. Elimination

B. Distribution Rationale: Distribution is the process by which drug molecules leave the bloodstream and enter the body tissue. Absorption is the process by which a drug enters the bloodstream, metabolism is the process by which drugs are converted to other compounds, and elimination (excretion) is the removal of a drug from the body.

What do the middle four numbers of an NDC number indicate? A. Drug manufacturer B. Drug entity C. Drug packaging D. Patent expiration date

B. Drug entity Rationale: The first five numbers indicate the drug manufacturer, the middle four numbers identify the drug entity, and the last two numbers indicate the drug packaging.

Who assigns an expiration date? A. FDA B. Drug manufacturer C. Pharmacist D. Pharmacy technician

B. Drug manufacturer Rationale: Expiration dates are assigned by the manufacturer and ensure the amount of time a product will be pure, safe, and effective for use by a patient. The expiration date is the last day of a particular month of a given year.

What do the first five digits of an NDC number represent? A. Drug item B. Drug manufacturer C. Drug package D. None of the above

B. Drug manufacturer Rationale: The first five digits of an NDC identify the drug manufacturer, the next four digits indicate the drug product, and the last two digits refer to the packaging of the drug.

What do the three sets of numbers in an NDC number reflect? A. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and the year an NDA was filed B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size C. Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength D. None of the above

B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size Rationale: The Drug Listing Act of 1972 provided a unique numbering system for each product. This 11-digit number identifies the drug manufacturer, the drug product, and the package size.

Which law is being violated if a prescription is dispensed without a valid prescription? A. Controlled Substances Act of 1970 B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment C. FDCA 1938 D. OBRA 90

B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: If a prescription is dispensed without a valid prescription, the Durham-Humphrey Amendment is being violated.

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of an oral dosage form? A. Delayed onset of action B. Ease of administration C. First pass metabolism D. Taste of medication

B. Ease of administration Rationale: Ease of administration is an advantage of an oral dosage form. There are no special skills required to administer this form.

Which of the following conditions is not contraindicated for patients taking thiazide diuretics? A. Diabetes B. Edema caused by congestive heart failure C. Gout D. Impaired liver function

B. Edema caused by congestive heart failure Rationale: Thiazide diuretics maybe used to remove edema associated with congestive heart failure. Adverse effects of thiazide diuretics include hypokalemia, hypomagnesia, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia, and hypercalcemia.

Which of the following dosage forms is not a solid dosage form? A. Capsule B. Elixir C. Douche D. Powder

B. Elixir Rationale: An elixir is a mixture of alcohol and water.

Which dosage form is a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic solution containing water and ethanol? A. Collodion B. Elixir C. Suspension D. Syrup

B. Elixir Rationale: Elixirs are clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic solutions containing both water and ethanol. Collodions are a liquid dosage form for topical application with pyroxylin dissolved in alcohol and ether. Suspensions are a dispersion in which small particles of a solid are distributed throughout a liquid. Syrup is an aqueous solution thickened with sugar.

Which of the following dosage forms could a patient with diabetes receive? A. Elixir B. Emulsion C. Spirits D. Syrups

B. Emulsion Rationale: Elixirs, spirits, and syrups either contain alcohol or sugar; patients with diabetes should not receive any of them. Emulsions do not contain alcohol or sugar.

Which dosage form may either be oil-in-water or water-in-oil? A. Capsule B. Emulsion C. Suspension D. Suppository

B. Emulsion Rationale: There are two types of emulsions, oil-in-water and water-in-oil. Emulsions are dispersions, in which one liquid is dispersed in another immiscible liquid.

What is the purpose of the DEA? A. Accepting NDAs from manufacturers B. Enforcing the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 C. Licensing pharmacists D. Overseeing the MedWatch program

B. Enforcing the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 Rationale: The Justice Department set up the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) to enforce the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.

Which of the following is not a goal for the security of a patient's health information? A. Ensuring the availability of information to the appropriate individuals in a timely manner B. Ensuring the unavailability of information to the appropriate individuals C. Ensuring the integrity of information D. Protecting the informational privacy of patient-related data

B. Ensuring the unavailability of information to the Rationale: Ensuring the availability of information is a goal for the security of a patient's health information.

What type of dosage form has a special coating to prevent dissolution in the stomach but allows for the dissolution in the intestine? A. Effervescent tablet B. Enteric-coated tablet C. Extended-release tablet D. Matrix tablet

B. Enteric-coated tablet Rationale: Enteric-coated tablets have a special coating that prevents the acids in the stomach from breaking down the substance until it reaches the intestine.

What type of alcohol should be used in cleaning a laminar flow hood? A. Denatured alcohol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Isopropyl alcohol D. Methyl alcohol

B. Ethyl alcohol Rationale: Ethyl alcohol should be used in cleaning a laminar flow hood.

What is the generic name for Lodine? A. Diclofenac B. Etodolac C. Naproxen D. Oxaprozin

B. Etodolac Rationale: The generic name for Lodine is etodolac.

How often should a fentanyl patch be changed? A. Once per day B. Every 3 days C. Once per week D. Once per month

B. Every 3 days Rationale: A fentanyl patch or Duragesic is a transdermal patch that will provide the patient with continuous medication for 3 days (72 hr).

Which of the following organizations may issue a drug recall? A. DEA B. FDA C. TJC D. USP

B. FDA Rationale: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) can issue class I, II, and III recalls. The manufacturer of the medication can also issue a voluntary recall of the drug.

Which law requires that a pharmacy maintain accurate information on durable medical equipment? A. FDA Modernization Act B. FDA Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 D. Medicare Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003

B. FDA Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 Rationale: The FDA Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 requires that pharmacies maintain accurate records for the rental of durable medical equipment such as nebulizers and infusion and breast pumps. This information is necessary in the situation that a product recall occurs.

Which law is being violated if a pharmacist prepares a medication under unsanitary conditions? A. DSHEA of 1994 B. FDCA of 1938 C. OBRA '90 D. HIPAA

B. FDCA of 1938 Rationale: FDCA of 1938 is the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938, which clearly defined adulteration and misbranding. Preparing prescriptions under unsanitary conditions is an example of adulteration.

Which of the following is the generic name for Pepcid? A. Cimetidine B. Famotidine C. Nizatidine D. Ranitidine

B. Famotidine Rationale: The generic name for Pepcid is famotidine.

Which of the following additives is used by pharmaceutical manufacturers to make tablets or capsules large enough to be ingested? A. Buffers B. Fillers C. Solvents D. Waxes

B. Fillers Rationale: Fillers are used to increase the physical size of a tablet.

What is the maximum number of refills for a Schedule IV drug if authorized by the physician? A. Zero B. Five C. 12 D. Unlimited

B. Five Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 allows for a maximum of five refills for Schedules III to V drugs within 5 months of the date the prescription was written.

Which of the following is required when compounding a suspension? A. Emulsifying agent B. Flocculating agent C. Levigating agent D. Surface acting agent

B. Flocculating agent Rationale: A flocculating agent is used to enhance particle "dispersability."

Which of the following medications is available as a capsule? A. Atorvastatin B. Fluvastatin C. Lovastatin D. Pravastatin

B. Fluvastatin Rationale: Fluvastatin (Lescol) is available as a capsule. Atorvastatin (Lipitor), lovastatin (Mevacor), and pravastatin (Pravachol) are available as tablets.

What does the abbreviation FDA refer to? A. Food and drug abuse B. Food and Drug Administration C. Food and Drug Association D. Free Drug Assistance

B. Food and Drug Administration Rationale: FDA stands for Food and Drug Administration.

Which piece of legislation required that pharmaceutical manufacturers submit a New Drug Application with the FDA? A. Pure Food and Drug Act B. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment D. Orphan Drug Act

B. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act Rationale: The Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act established a method of introducing new drug entities into the market. Part of the process involved the submission of a New Drug Application (NDA) to the FDA.

Which pharmacy law clearly defined adulteration and misbranding? A. Pure Drug Act of 1906 B. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 C. Durham-Humphrey Amendment D. Poison Control Act of 1970

B. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 Rationale: The Pure Drug Act introduced the terms "adulteration" and "misbranding," but the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 clearly defined these terms. Adulteration deals with the condition of the product, and misbranding discusses the labeling aspect of the product.

Which of the following should be used in lifting pharmacy weights to be placed on a balance? A. Filter paper B. Forceps C. Latex gloves D. Weighing papers

B. Forceps Rationale: Forceps are used to prevent oils from the hands from being deposited on the weight, which may alter the composition of the weight.

Which form is required to dispense controlled substances? A. Form 222 B. Form 224 C. Form 225 D. Form 363

B. Form 224 Rationale: All pharmacies wishing to dispense controlled substances must register with the DEA by submitting a DEA Form 224.

How many times a day would a patient take a medication if it was q6h? A. Three B. Four C. Six D. Eight

B. Four Rationale: There are 24 hours in a day, and if a drug is taken every 6 hours, it will require four doses in a day's time.

Which of the following medications does not need to be refrigerated? A. Insulin B. Gabapentin C. Latanoprost D. Reconstituted amoxicillin suspension

B. Gabapentin Rationale: Gabapentin (Neurontin) needs to be stored at room temperature. Insulin should be refrigerated but not frozen; latanoprost (Xalatan) is an ophthalmic product that needs to be kept refrigerated; and amoxicillin that has been reconstituted with distilled water should be stored in a refrigerator and is stable for 14 days.

What is another name for a nonproprietary drug? A. Brand name drug B. Generic drug C. Investigational drug D. OTC

B. Generic drug Rationale: A nonproprietary drug is another name for a generic drug. A proprietary or trade drug is another name for a brand name drug. Investigational drugs have not obtained FDA approval. An OTC is an over-the-counter medication that does not need a prescription from a physician to purchase.

What is the established (official) United States adopted name of a drug called? A. Brand name B. Generic name C. Proprietary name D. Trade name

B. Generic name Rationale: The generic or nonproprietary name is the official name for a medication. Brand, proprietary, and trade name are synonymous. They are protected by patents.

What process is used in compounding a product in which one begins with the most potent drug, adding the next potent quantity of drug, and continuing in this manner until all of the ingredients are used? A. Comminution B. Geometric dilution C. Levigation D. Trituration

B. Geometric dilution Rationale: Geometric dilution is a process of adding ingredients in preparing a compound. Comminution and trituration are processes used to reduce the particle size of ingredients. Levigation is the process of adding ingredients in preparing an ointment or cream.

Which of the following products affects drugs metabolized by cytochrome P450? A. Apple juice B. Grapefruit juice C. Orange juice D. Prune juice

B. Grapefruit juice Rationale: Grapefruit juice affects drugs metabolized by cytochrome P450.

Which of the following drugs would not be used to treat COPD? A. Albuterol B. Guaifenesin C. Ipratropium bromide D. Salmeterol

B. Guaifenesin Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant; the other three products are bronchodilators.

A patient does not pick up his filled prescription from the pharmacy. The prescription is reversed in the computer system, and you place the prescription bottle with the inventory in the pharmacy. You black out the patient's name and the prescription number on the prescription bottle. Which pharmacy law are you following? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment B. HIPAA C. Medicare Modernization Act D. OBRA '90

B. HIPAA Rationale: By blacking out the patient's name and the prescription number on the prescription bottle, you are removing all identifiable patient information on the bottle, and therefore you are keeping the patient's information confidential.

Which of the following terms refers to the part of the computer that you can actually touch? A. Data B. Hardware C. Software D. User

B. Hardware Rationale: Hardware refers to the physical components of the computer system. Data are the facts the computer uses, software provides the instructions to the computer to perform an application, and a user is an individual using a computer.

What is the meaning of HSA? A. Health Safety Administration B. Health savings account C. Health Savings Administration D. Health spending account

B. Health savings account Rationale: A health savings account (HSA) combines the benefits of both traditional and Roth 401(k)s and IRAs for medical expenses. Taxpayers receive a 100% income tax deduction on annual contributions. They may withdraw HSA funds tax free to reimburse themselves for qualified medical expenses, and they may defer taking such reimbursements indefinitely without penalties.

Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter? A. Esophagus B. Heart C. Intestine D. Kidneys

B. Heart Rationale: A flutter is a type of arrhythmia in which the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min.

Which of the following is not commercially available? A. Cephalexin tablets B. Heparin tablets C. Lidocaine injection D. Nystatin tablets

B. Heparin tablets Rationale: Heparin is available only as an injectable solution.

Which of the following are characteristics of a Schedule I controlled substance? A. High potential for abuse and possesses an approved medical use in the United States B. High potential for abuse and no approved medical use in the United States C. Low potential for abuse and possesses an approved medical use in the United States D. Low potential for abuse and no medical use in the United States

B. High potential for abuse and no approved medical use in the United States Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 defined a Schedule I medication as one that does not have an approved medical use in the United States and has a high potential for abuse that may result in both physical and psychological dependence.

Which of the following is not used to treat gastrointestinal problems? A. Antacids B. Histamine 2 receptor agonists C. Histamine 2 receptor antagonists D. Proton pump inhibitors

B. Histamine 2 receptor agonists Rationale: Histamine 2 receptor agonists would aggravate a gastrointestinal problem rather than cure it or alleviate the symptoms.

Where should chemotherapy products be prepared? A. Breakdown room B. Horizontal laminar flow hood C. Quality control area D. Vertical laminar flow hood

B. Horizontal laminar flow hood Rationale: Chemotherapy agents should be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood.

Which of the following is covered under Medicare Part A? A. Health care options in addition to services offered under Medicare Parts A and B B. Hospital, nursing facility, home health, and hospice care C. Outpatient services, physician services, and durable medical equipment D. Prescription medication

B. Hospital, nursing facility, home health, and hospice care Rationale: Medicare Part A covers hospital, nursing facility, home health, hospice, and inpatient care. Medicare Part B covers outpatient services, physician services, and durable and medical equipment. Medicare Part C (Medicare + Choice) provides health care options in addition to those covered under Medicare Parts A and B. Medicare Part D covers prescription medications.

The product Hyzaar 25/12.5 mg consists of two ingredients. To which ingredient does the 12.5 mg correspond? A. Enalapril B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Losartan D. Verapamil

B. Hydrochlorothiazide Rationale: Hyzaar is a combination product made of losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. The 12.5 refers to the number of milligrams of hydrochlorothiazide.

How is a U-100 insulin syringe calibrated? A. In 1 unit increments B. In 2 unit increments C. In 5 unit increments D. In 10 unit increments

B. In 2 unit increments Rationale: A U-100 syringe will hold 1 mL of insulin. It is calibrated in 2-unit increments. Low-dose syringes are calibrated in 1-unit increments.

Where would oxycodone be stored in the pharmacy? A. In the refrigerator B. In the pharmacy safe C. With the "fast movers" D. With the pills and tablets

B. In the pharmacy safe Rationale: Oxycodone is a Schedule II drug that must be stored in a safe per the Controlled Substance Act of 1970.

Which of the following is not a method to reduce hypertension? A. Increase physical inactivity to regular aerobic physical activity. B. Increase the amount of sleep an individual receives at night. C. Reduce high sodium intake to moderate sodium intake. D. Reduce excess alcohol consumption to moderate alcohol consumption.

B. Increase the amount of sleep an individual receives at night. Rationale: One of the first things to be done in lowering hypertension is to modify the person's lifestyle, which includes reducing sodium intake, eliminating excess calories from the diet, increasing physical activity levels, and reducing alcohol and nicotine consumption. Increasing the amount of sleep an individual receives has no effect on reducing hypertension.

Which of the following medications could be used as a prophylactic for migraines? A. Imitrex B. Inderal C. Zomig D. Stadol

B. Inderal Rationale: Inderal can be used prophylactically for migraines; Imitrex, Zomig, and Stadol are used as abortive therapies for migraine headaches.

Which of the following is not a side effect of steroidal medications? A. Bruising B. Inflammation C. Moon face D. Weight gain

B. Inflammation Rationale: Inflammation is an indication for the use of steroids rather than a side effect.

An inspector from the state board of pharmacy appears unannounced at your pharmacy on a Monday morning seeking to examine various pharmacy records. Because of the small confines of the pharmacy, these records are not readily accessible. What do you do? A. Because of the confidential nature of these records, you inform the inspector that it would be a violation of HIPAA regulations. B. Inform the inspector they are not readily retrievable but you can have them for the inspector in 72 hours. C. Offer to fax the inspector copies of the required records. D. Request that the inspector provide you with a subpoena.

B. Inform the inspector they are not readily retrievable but you can have them for the inspector in 72 hours. Rationale: Pharmacy regulations require that all pharmacy records are easily retrievable and must be provided within 72 hours of the request.

What process occurs when a drug blocks the activity of metabolic enzymes in the liver? A. Additive effects B. Inhibition C. Potentiation D. Synergism

B. Inhibition Rationale: Inhibition is the process in which an agent can slow or block enzyme activity, which impairs the metabolism of drugs and as a result may increase their concentration. Additive effects are the combined effects of two drugs. Potentiation is an effect that increases or prolongs the action of another drug, and the total effect is the greater than the sum of the effects of each drug taken alone. Synergism is the joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual effects.

Which type of pharmacy is located in a hospital and services patients within the hospital and ancillary areas? A. Clinical pharmacy B. Inpatient pharmacy C. Nursing pharmacy D. Outpatient pharmacy

B. Inpatient pharmacy Rationale: Inpatient pharmacies provide pharmaceutical products to the patients of the hospital where a medication order has been written for the patient. An outpatient pharmacy provides medications for patients who present prescriptions to be filled.

Which of the following is not found in a central processing unit (CPU)? A. Memory B. Input device C. Processor D. Storage

B. Input device Rationale: The CPU contains memory, a processor, and storage; an input device is not a part of the CPU but rather is a piece hardware used to input information.

Which of the following is an example of a control key on a computer? A. Enter key B. Insert and delete keys C. Shift key D. All of the above

B. Insert and delete keys Rationale: Control keys include the Home, End, Insert, Delete, Page Up, Page Down, Control, Alternate, and Escape keys.

What is the correct meaning for signa in the following prescription: "Timoptic 0.25% 15 mL, i gtt ou bid"? A. Instill 1 drop in each ear twice per day. B. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice per day. C. Instill 1 drop in left eye twice per day. D. Instill 1 drop in left ear twice per day.

B. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice per day. Rationale: "Ⅰ" is the Roman numeral for one, "gtt" means drop, "ou" means each eye, and "bid" means twice per day. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice a day.

How is the label for "Instill two gtt ou BID" typed out for the patient? A. Instill 2 ophthalmic disks in both eyes twice per day. B. Instill 2 drops in both eyes twice per day. C. Instill 2 drops in each ear twice per day. D. Instill 2 drops in left ear twice per day.

B. Instill 2 drops in both eyes twice per day. Rationale: Instill 2 drops (gtt) in both eyes (ou) twice per day (bid).

Interpret the following signa: IV gtt ad q 6-8 hr prn pain. A. Inject intravenous drops in left ear every 6-8 hr. B. Instill four drops in right ear every 6-8 hr as needed for pain. C. Instill four drops in left ear every 6-8 hr as needed for pain. D. Instill six drops in right ear every 6-8 hr as needed for pain.

B. Instill four drops in right ear every 6-8 hr as needed for pain. Rationale: IV (Roman numeral for 4) gtt (drops) ad (right ear) q (every) hr (hour) prn (as needed).

A patient has presented the following prescription to the pharmacy: Rx: Timoptic 0.25% 15 mL Signa: i gtt ou bid Which of the following interpretations of the signa is correct? A. Instill one drop in each ear twice per day. B. Instill one drop in each eye twice per day. C. Instill one drop in left eye twice per day. D. Instill one drop in left ear twice per day.

B. Instill one drop in each eye twice per day. Rationale: i (1) gtt (drop) ou (each eye) bid (twice per day).

How is insulin measured? A. Glucose units B. International units C. NPH units D. USP units

B. International units Rationale: Insulin is a biological substance and is measured in terms of its activity in international units.

Which of the following categories of medications is not ordered in a community pharmacy? A. Controlled substances B. Investigational drugs C. Prescription drugs D. Oncology agent

B. Investigational drugs Rationale: Investigational drugs are not stocked in a community pharmacy. They are stocked only in select hospitals that have permission to participate in investigational studies.

What type of medication order is given under the direction of research protocols? A. Emergency medication order B. Investigational medication order C. PRN medication order D. STAT medication order

B. Investigational medication order Rationale: In addition to the strict research protocol, investigational medication orders require strict documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration.

What is the generic name for Avapro? A. Candesartan B. Irbesartan C. Losartan D. Valsartan

B. Irbesartan Rationale: The medications are Irbesartan (Avapro), candesartan (Atacand), losartan (Cozaar), and valsartan (Diovan).

Which of the following should be used in cleaning a vertical laminar flow hood? A. Betadine B. Isopropyl alcohol C. Normal saline solution D. Rubbing alcohol

B. Isopropyl alcohol Rationale: Isopropyl alcohol should be used in cleaning a laminar flow hood.

Which of the following drugs requires prescribers, pharmacists, and patients to register with the FDA iPledge program? A. Erythromycin B. Isotretinoin C. Minocycline D. Tetracycline

B. Isotretinoin Rationale: Accutane (isotretinoin) prescriptions require the participation of the prescriber, pharmacy, and patient in the iPledge program.

Which of the following medications require a woman to use birth control 1 month before, during, and 1 month after treatment has ceased? A. Erythromycin B. Isotretinoin C. Minocycline D. Tetracycline

B. Isotretinoin Rationale: Female patients are required to use birth control before, during, and 1 month after therapy of isotretinoin because of the iPledge program.

Which of the following describes the system approach to medication errors? A. It holds the individual(s) involved in the error responsible for the error. B. It involves analyzing, categorizing, and evaluating the error to develop processes and procedures to prevent the error form occurring again. C. It warns the entire the entire pharmacy department when an error occurs. D. It resolves the issue as soon as possible.

B. It involves analyzing, categorizing, and evaluating the error to develop processes and procedures to prevent the error form occurring again. Rationale: A system approach attempts to find the cause of incident and work to find a solution to prevent the error from occurring again. It is not used to punish the individual(s).

What type of inventory management system results in the medication arriving in a pharmacy shortly before it is required? A. GPO B. JIT C. Min-Max D. Perpetual inventory system

B. JIT Rationale: Just in time (JIT) is an inventory technique used resulting in the ordering and delivery of a product shortly before its use.

What is the generic name for Toradol? A. Etodolac B. Ketorolac C. Nabumetone D. Oxaprozin

B. Ketorolac Rationale: The generic name for Toradol is ketorolac. The other drugs are etodolac (Lodine), nabumetone (Relafen), and oxaprozin (Daypro).

A person with which of the following professional licenses is not allowed to prescribe medications? A. DDS B. LCSW C. MD D. PA

B. LCSW Rationale: An LSCW is a licensed social clinical worker, who works with individuals with affective disorders; they cannot prescribe medications.

What is the generic name for Prevacid? A. Esomeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Omeprazole D. Pantoprazole

B. Lansoprazole Rationale: Brand names and their generics are as follows: Prevacid—lansoprazole, Nexium—esomeprazole, Prilosec—omeprazole, and Protonix—pantoprazole.

Which of the following is not available as an ophthalmic dosage form? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Lansoprazole C. Latanoprost D. Timolol

B. Lansoprazole Rationale: Prevacid (lansoprazole) is an oral proton pump inhibitor. Ciloxan (ciprofloxacin), Xalatan (latanoprost), and Timoptic (timolol) are ophthalmic preparations.

What is another term for suggested retail price? A. Discounted price B. List price C. Net price D. Sale price

B. List price Rationale: A list price is a synonym for suggested retail price. Discounted price, net price, and sale price reflect a reduction in price.

Which of the following is not required on a prescription medication label? A. Expiration date of medication B. Lot number of medication C. Pharmacist's initials D. Trade and generic name of medication

B. Lot number of medication Rationale: Information required on a prescription label includes the name, address, and telephone number of the pharmacy; prescription number; patient's name; drug, strength, or dose; manufacturer's name; instructions; date filled; refill information; prescriber; and expiration date.

Which of the following classifications of antidepressants needs to be washed out of the body before switching to another antidepressant? A. Lithium B. MAOIs C. SSRIs D. TCAs

B. MAOIs Rationale: MAOIs inhibit the activity of enzymes, which break down catecholamine; therefore, the buildup of transmitters occurs at the synapse. Because of this buildup, they must be washed out of the system before continuing with another antidepressant.

What is another name for a pharmacy compounding log? A. Biennial inventory B. Master formula sheet C. SDS D. Prescription record log

B. Master formula sheet Rationale: A master formula sheet is also known as a pharmacy compounding log.

What is the meaning of MAC? A. Mandatory acquisition cost B. Maximum allowable cost C. Medicare acquisition cost D. Minimum allowable cost

B. Maximum allowable cost Rationale: MAC is an acronym for maximum allowable cost, which is used to calculate the amount that will be reimbursed from a third-party payer of a multisource drug.

Which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on a prescription container of antianxiety, antidepressant, or anticonvulsant medication? A. Avoid dairy products B. May cause drowsiness C. Refrigerate D. Shake well

B. May cause drowsiness Rationale: A side effect of antianxiety medications, antidepressants, and anticonvulsants is drowsiness.

What advice should not be given to a patient taking penicillin products? A. Do not take with juices or colas B. May cause drowsiness C. Take on an empty stomach D. Take with water

B. May cause drowsiness Rationale: Penicillin does not cause drowsiness; it should not be taken with juices or soft drinks because the acid in the beverages may break down the drug. It is best if penicillin is taken on an empty stomach because of absorption reasons. Water is the best vehicle for taking medication.

Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for Dyazide or Maxzide? A. Keep refrigerated B. May cause photosensitivity C. May cause drowsiness D. May discolor urine

B. May cause photosensitivity Rationale: An individual taking Dyazide or Maxzide (both products contain triamterene-HCTZ) may become more susceptible to the sun's rays, resulting in a severe rash or sunburn.

Which of the following is not an example of a hospital outpatient dispensing system? A. Amerisource MedSelect B. McKesson Loop Distribution C. Omnicell Medguard D. Pyxis ADS

B. McKesson Loop Distribution Rationale: Amerisource MedSelect, Omnicell Medguard, and Pyxis ADS are outpatient dispensing systems.

Which of the following is not an example of a decentralized automated dispensing system? A. McKesson Acudose-Rx B. McKesson Robot-RXD C. Omnicell SureMed D. Pyxis MedStation

B. McKesson Robot-RXD Rationale: McKesson Acudose-Rx, Omnicell SureMed, and Pyxix MedStation are examples of centralized dispensing systems.

What is another name for Medicare Part C? A. Medicare + Child Plan B. Medicare + Choice Plan C. Medicare+ Co-Dependent Plan D. Medicare + Co-Insurance Plan

B. Medicare + Choice Plan Rationale: Medicare + Choice Plan (also known as Medicare part C) was created to offer a number of health care options in addition to those found under Medicare Part A and Medicare Part B. Plans found in Medicare Part C include health maintenance organizations (HMO), point-of-service (POS), private fee-for service (PFS), provider-sponsored organizations (PSO), and religious fraternal benefit society (RFBS).

When is a filter needle used? A. Medication being compounded is not sterile B. Medication from an ampule is used C. Reconstituting powdered medication in a vial D. All of the above

B. Medication from an ampule is used Rationale: Filter needles must be used when medication is obtained from an ampule.

Which of the following pieces of information is required on the label when the medication is repackaged into a unit-dose form? A. Date the medication was repackaged as a unit-dose medication B. Medication name and strength C. Name of the person responsible for the repackaging D. Patient's name

B. Medication name and strength Rationale: The medication name and strength must appear on the unit-dose package.

Which of the following may be returned to the pharmacy for reuse? A. Medication dispensed in a traditional prescription vial B. Medications dispensed in unit-dose packages C. Controlled substance dispensed in "punch cards" D. All of the above

B. Medications dispensed in unit-dose packages Rationale: Only medications packaged in unit-dose packaging may be returned to a pharmacy.

What is inventory? A. Expired merchandise B. Merchandise available for sale C. Merchandise to be ordered D. Overstock merchandise

B. Merchandise available for sale Rationale: Inventory is the amount of product or goods available for sale.

What does the pharmacy abbreviation MDI mean? A. Measured density of intestines B. Metered-dose inhaler C. Measured-dose insulin D. Mild diabetes insipidus

B. Metered-dose inhaler Rationale: An MDI is a metered-dose inhaler.

Which of the following medications has been identified as a "high-alert medication" by the ISMP? A. Isotretinoin B. Methotrexate C. Naproxen D. All of the above

B. Methotrexate Rationale: Both isotretinoin and naproxen may have significant adverse effects, so they have not been classified as "high-alert medications" by the ISMP. Medications found on this list include epoprostenol (IV), magnesium sulfate (injection), methotrexate (oral, non-oncologic use), opium tincture, oxytocin (IV), nitroprusside sodium for injection, potassium chloride for injection concentrate, potassium phosphates injection, promethazine (IV), and vasopressin (IV or intravenous).

Which of the following allows a computer to communicate over a network? A. Memory B. Modem C. Processor D. Storage

B. Modem Rationale: A modem is a device that allows a computer to communicate over a network. Memory (RAM or random access memory) provides the computer with a temporary workspace; the processor is considered the "brains" of the workstation; and computer storage is a permanent place for read-only memory (ROM) information.

What type of unit-dose system is referred to as a punch card, a bingo card, or a blister pack? A. Blended unit-dose system B. Modified unit-dose system C. Modular cassette D. Multiple medication packages

B. Modified unit-dose system Rationale: A modified unit-dose system is a drug distribution system that combines unit-dose medications blister packaged onto a multiple-dose card instead of being placed into a box. They are referred to as punch cards, bingo cards, or blister packs and may contain 30, 60, or 90 units on one card.

Which of the following abbreviations is not a dosage form? A. emul B. NPO C. supp D. syr

B. NPO Rationale: NOP means nothing to be taken by mouth. Emul (emulsion), supp (suppository), and syr (syrup) are all dosage forms.

Which organization developed the rejection codes for third-party prescriptions? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) B. National Council for Prescription Drug Programs (NCPDP) C. Pharmacist Services Technical Advisory Coalition (PSTAC) D. The Joint Commission (TJC)

B. National Council for Prescription Drug Programs (NCPDP) Rationale: The National Council for Prescription Drug Programs (NCPDP) established the rejection codes that are used when a prescription drug claim is rejected by a third-party drug provider.

Which of the following drugs is not a quinolone? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Norflex C. Norfloxacin D. Floxin

B. Norflex Rationale: Norflex is a skeletal muscle relaxant.

A pharmacy technician is preparing an IV admixture and notices on the medication order the abbreviation NS. What does NS mean? A. Nasal solution B. Normal saline C. Normal solution D. No smoking while the patient is receiving the IV

B. Normal saline Rationale: NS is an abbreviation for normal saline (0.9%), which is one of the vehicles used in IV admixtures.

Who makes notations and signs medication administration records (MARs) in an institution? A. Doctors B. Nurses C. Pharmacists D. Pharmacy technicians

B. Nurses Rationale: Nurses administer medication to patients and therefore would document the MAR. Physicians diagnose and prescribe, pharmacists dispense, and pharmacy technicians assist pharmacists in performing their duties.

Which of the following laws mandated DUE? A. OBRA '87 B. OBRA '90 C. DSHEA 1994 D. HIPAA 1996

B. OBRA '90 Rationale: OBRA '90 mandated drug utilization evaluation (DUE) and patient profiles and that an offer to counsel must be made to every patient regarding his or her medication.

What type of hospital error occurs when there is a failure to administer an ordered dose to a patient before the next dose is due? A. Improper dose error B. Omission error C. Wrong drug administration D. Wrong time error

B. Omission error Rationale: According to the ASHP, this is an example of an omission error.

A drug is available in the following strengths and dosage forms: 125-mg tablets, 250-mg capsules, and 125-mg/5 mL liquid. A child weighs 55 lb, and the recommended dose is 10 mg/kg/24 hr, which is to be given in either 6- or 12-hr intervals. Which of the following would not be an appropriate regimen? A. One 125 mg tablet every 12 hr B. One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr C. One teaspoon of 125 mg/5 mL liquid every 12 hr D. ½ of a 125 mg tablet every 6 hr

B. One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr Rationale: The patient would be receiving 500 mg/day instead of 250 mg/day, which is twice the amount prescribed by the physician

What is the process by which prescriptions are submitted electronically to a third-party provider for pharmacy reimbursement? A. BID B. Online adjudication C. Waiting period D. Universal claim

B. Online adjudication Rationale: Online adjudication is the electronic processing of a prescription to a third-party provider; "BID" is a term used to indicate the purchase of product whose price has been negotiated; "waiting period" refers to the amount of time an individual must wait before becoming eligible for an insurance plan; and a universal claim is a manual process by which a prescription claim is submitted to a third-party provider.

Which of the following is not a cost containment process used by managed care organizations? A. Mail-order pharmacies for maintenance medications B. Open formularies C. Prior authorization D. Tiered copayments

B. Open formularies Rationale: An open formulary is one that allows for any prescription medication to be submitted to a third-party drug provider. Open formularies do not contain medication costs.

Which of the following governs the basic operation of the hardware in a computer system? A. LAN B. Operating system C. Software applications D. WAN

B. Operating system Rationale: The operating system governs the basic operation of the hardware; the software applications support pharmacy practices and user-desired tasks.

What is the route of administration for a prescription to be taken po? A. Buccal B. Oral C. Rectal D. Sublingual

B. Oral Rationale: A prescription taken po is taken by mouth and would be an oral preparation.

What reference book is used to determine if a medication is therapeutically equivalent? A. Blue Book B. Orange Book C. Red Book D. All of the above

B. Orange Book Rationale: The Orange Book is used to determine if a medication is therapeutically equivalent to another product. The Red Book is used as a reference for pricing.

What should be worn when handling a hazardous substance in a pharmacy's order? A. Name tag B. PPEs C. Soft-soled shoes D. White lab jacket

B. PPEs Rationale: OSHA requires that an individual wear PPEs when handling hazardous substances at any time.

By what route should Phenergan 25 mg suppository be taken? A. PO B. PR C. SL D. TOP

B. PR Rationale: Suppositories are inserted into body orifices such as the rectum, urethra, and vagina. PR is an abbreviation meaning "per rectum."

Which of the following should not be taken into consideration in the priority of filling a prescription? A. Patient's expected time of delivery B. Patient identification C. Specific prescriber instructions as to the delivery time D. Type of medication and its indication

B. Patient identification Rationale: Patient identification does not have any impact on the priority of filling a prescription.

Which of the following is not required information on a medication order filled in a hospital? A. Medication name, strength, dosage form, route, and directions B. Patient's home address C. Patient's hospital room number and identification number D. Patient's name, height, and weight

B. Patient's home address Rationale: The patient's home address is not required on a medication order; it is required on a prescription order.

What is the meaning of PDA? A. Personal digital aid B. Personal digital assistant C. Physician digital assistant D. Pharmaceutical data assistant

B. Personal digital assistant Rationale: PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant.

Which of the following could contribute to medication errors? A. Maintaining a clean working environment B. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians failing to be current with new medications and therapies in the treatment of disease C. Scheduling assistance during peak time periods D. Well-lit pharmacy

B. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians failing to be current with new medications and therapies in the treatment of disease Rationale: Both the Pharmacist's and Pharmacy Technician's Code of Conduct call for them to be knowledgeable and current in their profession. It is their responsibility to be current with new medications, disease therapies, pharmacy standards, and laws.

New OTC drugs are required to go through necessary phases. Which phase occurs when a final review is done on the ingredients of the agent in question and the public is able to give feedback? A. Phase I B. Phase II C. Phase III D. Phase IV

B. Phase II Rationale: During phase II, a final review is done on the ingredients of the agent in question. The public is able to give feedback. All data are taken into account. In phase I, advisors evaluate the agent in question as to whether it is safe and effective when taken by the consumer or patient. During phase III, all the final evidence is presented and all aspects of the agent exhausted, and the final monograph is published.

A pharmacy technician does not have enough medication to fill a medication order. He knows that the pharmacy one block away has it in stock. Where would he look to find out if he can borrow the medication from another store? A. Federal Controlled Substances Act B. Policy and Procedure Manual C. The Red Book D. USP

B. Policy and Procedure Manual Rationale: The institution's Policy and Procedure Manual would contain information on whether the pharmacy could borrow a medication from another pharmacy and outline the process in doing so.

What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Phosphate D. Sodium

B. Potassium Rationale: K is potassium. Ca is calcium, Na is sodium, and PO4 is phosphate.

What term is defined by the cost of the coverage that the insurance policy contains, which may be affected by the age and health of the individual? A. Beneficiary B. Premium C. Subscriber D. Third-party payer

B. Premium Rationale: A premium is the cost of the coverage of an insurance policy; a beneficiary is the individual who receives the insurance policy or government health care benefits. The subscriber is the individual or organization protected under the terms of the condition, and a third-party payer is the fee for services provided by an insurance company.

When a purchase order cannot be found when receiving a medication delivery, what should be done? A. Record the date of the receipt, product name, and quantity. B. Record the date of the receipt, name of the receiver, product name, strength, dosage form, and quantity. C. Record the product name and quantity. D. Record the product name, strength, and quantity.

B. Record the date of the receipt, name of the receiver, product name, strength, dosage form, and quantity. Rationale: It is best to record all important information of the delivery to include the date of the receipt, name of the receiver, product name, strength, dosage form, and quantity.

What is the route of administration for a prescription with the following directions: "i supp pr q 6 hr prn"? A. Orally B. Rectally C. Urethrally D. Vaginall

B. Rectally Rationale: "pr" means per rectum.

What does the term "od" mean? A. Right ear B. Right eye C. Left ear D. Left eye

B. Right eye Rationale: "od" is derived from the Latin term "oculo dextro," which is translated to right eye.

What is the trade name for guaifenesin? A. Benadryl B. Robitussin C. Tessalon D. Tussionex

B. Robitussin Rationale: Guaifenesin is the generic name for Robitussin or Humibid. The generic names for the other products are follows: Benadryl—diphenhydramine, Tessalon—benzonatate, and Tussionex—hydrocodone and chlorpheniramine.

In what schedule is methylphenidate classified? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

B. Schedule II Rationale: Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a Schedule II drug according to the Controlled Substance Act.

What schedule is Vicodin? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V

B. Schedule III Rationale: Vicodin is a Schedule III medication

If a patient has been diagnosed with depression, which of the following products could be prescribed? A. Salmeterol B. Sertraline C. Stavudine D. Sumatriptan

B. Sertraline Rationale: Sertraline is the generic name Zoloft, which is an SSRI used in the treatment of depression. Salmeterol (Serevent) is indicated for asthma, stavudine (Zerit) is used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS, and sumatriptan (Imitrex) is used to abort migraine headaches.

Which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on a canister of albuterol spray? A. For nasal use B. Shake well C. Store in box D. Store in refrigerator

B. Shake well Rationale: Albuterol is an oral inhalation agent that should be shaken before used to relieve bronchospasms.

What should a pharmacy technician do with a prescription label that was printed accidentally and not needed? A. Save it until the next time the prescription needs to be filled B. Shred it C. Throw it away in the trash can D. Any of the above

B. Shred it Rationale: The label should be shredded to protect the patient's privacy because of HIPAA regulations.

What does the root word derm mean? A. Brain B. Skin C. Skull D. Tooth

B. Skin Rationale: derm means skin, cerebr means brain, cranio means skull, and dent means tooth.

Interpret the following signa: "ii caps stat, then i cap q hr, max 5 caps/12 hr." A. Take 2 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule at bedtime, maximum of 5 capsules in 5 hours. B. Take 2 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule each hour, maximum of 5 capsules in 12 hours. C. Take 11 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule at bedtime, maximum of 5 capsules within the next 12 hours. D. Take 11 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule each hour, maximum of 5 additional capsules in 12 hours.

B. Take 2 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule each hour, maximum of 5 capsules in 12 hours. Rationale: ii (2) caps (capsules) stat (immediately) then i (one) cap (capsule) q (every) hr (hour), max (maximum) 5 caps (5 capsules)/(per or in) 12 hr (hours).

How would you explain the following directions for acetaminophen with codeine: 1 po q4-6 hr prn HA? A. Take one tablet every 4 hr alternating with one tablet every 6 hr as needed for headache. B. Take one tablet orally every 4-6 hr when needed for headache. C. Take one tablet by mouth every 4-6 hr for heart attack. D. Take one tablet every 4-6 hr when needed for headache.

B. Take one tablet orally every 4-6 hr when needed for headache. Rationale: The order reads: Take 1 tablet po (orally or by mouth) q (every) 4-6 hr (hours) prn (as needed for) HA (headache).

What part of the laminar flow hood is responsible for removing contaminants? A. The blower B. The HEPA filter C. The recovery vent D. The side walls of the laminar flow hood

B. The HEPA filter Rationale: A HEPA filter is a high-efficiency particulate air filter found in a laminar flow hood to remove contaminants.

At which part of the liquid does one look when measuring liquids? A. A point between the bottom and top of the meniscus B. The bottom of the meniscus C. The top of the meniscus D. None of the above

B. The bottom of the meniscus Rationale: Look at the bottom of the meniscus, or the lowest point of the liquid, when a liquid is being measured.

A prescriber writes on the prescription: "Brand Name Medically Necessary" in her own handwriting. What does this mean? A. A generic drug can be dispensed if the patient requests it and signs his or her name on the back of the prescription. B. The brand name drug ordered by the physician must be dispensed. C. Therapeutic interchange is permitted, but a brand name drug must be dispensed. D. All of the above

B. The brand name drug ordered by the physician must be dispensed. Rationale: If a physician writes "Dispense as Written" or "Brand Name Medically Necessary" on a prescription, the brand name drug must be dispensed.

Which of the following is not a requirement for repackaging a medication? A. The container must not interact chemically with the medication. B. The container must contain compliance aids. C. The container must protect the medication from breaking. D. The label must identify the contents completely and precisely.

B. The container must contain compliance aids. Rationale: Compliance aids do not need to be included with unit-dose medications.

Which of the following occurs when the PAR level for a specific medication is reached? A. The medication is automatically reordered for the pharmacy. B. The medication is in stock. C. The medication should be removed from the shelf and disposed of properly. D. The medication should be removed from the shelf and returned to its sponsor.

B. The medication is in stock. Rationale: When a medication level drops below the periodic automatic replenishment (PAR) level, the medication is automatically reordered for the pharmacy.

Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. The name and address of the pharmacy B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances C. The patient's name D. The expiration date of the medication

B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required on all prescriptions for a controlled substance, not all prescriptions.

Which of the following best describes pharmacy compounding? A. The formulations of dosage forms that are requested by patients B. The preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device C. The prevention of contamination of capsules and tablets D. The transfer of medication from stock containers to the prescription container

B. The preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device Rationale: Compounding is the process of preparing, mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling a drug or device.

Which of the following is true regarding the systems approach toward medication errors? A. The systems approach holds the individual involved with the medication error responsible. B. The systems approach involves analyzing and classifying medication errors to establish safe procedures in the pharmacy. C. The systems approach holds the entire pharmacy department responsible, and all employees receive a written warning that is placed in their employee file. D. The systems approach attempts to resolve the error promptly and quietly.

B. The systems approach involves analyzing and classifying medication errors to establish safe procedures in the pharmacy. Rationale: A systems approach investigates the processes and procedures in the pharmacy to identify the cause of prescription errors and therefore find a solution to the problem.

Which of the following analgesics is not a controlled substance? A. Percocet B. Toradol C. Tylenol with codeine D. Vicodin

B. Toradol Rationale: Toradol is not a controlled substance.

What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs when circulating antibodies of the IgG, IgM, or IgA class react with an antigen associated with a cell membrane? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

B. Type II Rationale: A type II (cytolytic) reaction occurs because of the reactions of circulating antibodies of the immunoglobulin (Ig) G, IgM, or IgA class with an antigen associated with a cell membrane. Type I (anaphylactic) reactions are produced when the antigen has stimulated the production of the antibody, which then becomes fixed to basophils and mast cells in the tissues. A type III (toxin-precipitin) reaction occurs when the precipitin complex is removed from the bloodstream by the reticuloendothelial cells in the spleen. A type IV (cell-mediated hypersensitivity) reaction depends on the presence of T-cell lymphocytes that combine with the antigen.

What volume can be measured using a pipette? A. Up to 1.0 mL B. Up to 1.5 mL C. Up to 2.0 mL D. Up to 3.0 mL

B. Up to 1.5 mL Rationale: A pipette is a long, thin, calibrated hollow tube used to measure volumes of liquids less than 1.5 mL.

Which of the following may reduce medication errors in a pharmacy? A. Have the same individual who entered the prescription order into the computer fill the prescription. B. Use the original prescription in preparing a prescription. C. Use the computer-generated prescription label when preparing a prescription. D. All of the above

B. Use the original prescription in preparing a prescription. Rationale: The original prescription should be used in preparing a prescription, not the computer-generated label, because the label may have been entered incorrectly. It is best to have a different person fill the prescription than the individual who entered it into the computer, because the second individual can validate the prescription.

What vitamin deficiency may result in beriberi? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin B1 Rationale: A deficiency in vitamin B1 causes beriberi; deficiencies in vitamin A result in night blindness, dry corneas, and an inability of the epithelial cells to shed; a vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy; and a vitamin D deficiency causes rickets.

Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K

B. Vitamin B12 Rationale: Vitamin B12 is a water-soluble vitamin in which the excess vitamin is eliminated by the body on a daily basis. Vitamins A, D, and K are fat-soluble vitamins and are stored in the body.

How often would a patient take Avonex? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Biweekly D. Monthly

B. Weekly Rationale: Avonex, which is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis, is administered weekly.

Which of the following abbreviations is not a route of administration? A. IM B. non rep C. po D. sl

B. non rep Rationale: The abbreviation "non rep" means do not repeat or no refill. "M" is an abbreviation for intramuscular; "po" indicates that the medication is to be taken by mouth; and the abbreviation "sl" designates that the medication is sublingual, which is to be placed underneath the tongue.

What term refers to the gap in Medicare coverage in which the patient is responsible for 100% of his or her prescription coverage? A. Co-insurance B. "Coordination of benefits" C. "Donut hole" D. TRICARE

C. "Donut hole" Rationale: Patients receiving Medicare Part D are responsible for all prescription costs after $3000 has spent during the year. The patient is responsible for prescription costs incurred between $3000 and $5500. When the patient reaches $5500, Medicare Part D resumes.

A manufacturer's invoice totals $500.00 with the term 3% net. How much should be remitted to the manufacturer if it is paid in 30 days? A. $15.00 B. $150.00 C. $485.00 D. $500.00

C. $485.00 Rationale: The term 3% net means that a purchaser can reduce a purchase by 3% if he or she pays within a stated period (30 days in this case). Multiplying $500.00 by 0.03 = $15.00 (amount of discount). Invoice - Discount = Amount to be remitted ($500.00 - $15.00 = $485.00).

Calculate the retail price of 28 capsules of tetracycline 250 mg using the formula AWP + Professional fee. Tetracycline 250 mg has an AWP of $52.43/1000 capsules. AWP Professional fee <$20.00 $4.00 $20.01-$50.00 $5.00 >$50.01 $6.00 A. $4.00 B. $5.00 C. $5.47 D. $9.24

C. $5.47 Rationale: Calculate the cost of 28 capsules ($52.43/1,000 capsules = $X/28, where X = $1.47). Next look in the chart and find what professional fee is associated for $1.47, which is $4.00: $1.47 + $4.00 = $5.47.

What is the cost for 24 mg of an active ingredient used in a compound if the bulk bottle of the active ingredient costs $250.00/g? A. $1.50 B. $3.00 C. $6.00 D. $9.00

C. $6.00 Rationale: Convert milligrams to grams (24 mg = 0.024 g) and solve the problem using proportions. $250.00/1 g = $X/0.024 g, where X = $6.00.

A pharmacy offers a 10% discount on prescriptions for all senior citizens. How much would a senior citizen pay for a prescription that has a usual and customary price of $75.00? A. $7.50 B. $60.00 C. $67.50 D. $75.00

C. $67.50 Rationale: A 10% discount means the patient will saver 10% or pay 90% of the prescription price ($75.00 × 0.9 = $67.50).

A pharmacy bases its retail prices on AWP plus a professional fee as follows: Fee + AWP $2.25: Less than $25.00 $3.25: $25.01-$50.00 $10.00: $50.01-$75.00 $20.00: More than $75.01 A prescription is presented that reads "Sig: 2 tabs bid x 25 days." If the AWP of this drug is $321.66 for 500 tablets, what will be the retail price of the prescription? A. $66.53 B. $70.20 C. $74.33 D. $85.25

C. $74.33 Rationale: Calculate the total number of doses required (2 tablets/dose × 2 doses/day × 25 days = 100 tablets). Calculate the cost of 100 tablets ($321.66/500 tablets = X/100 tablets, where X = $64.33). Look for the fee on the table that corresponds to an AWP of $64.33, which would be $10.00. Add the AWP to the fee ($64.33 + $10.00 = $74.33).

A pharmacy is provided with a 5% discount if it purchases $1,000,000 in medications during the calendar year. How much will the pharmacy actually pay for the $1,000,000 in inventory? A. $50,000 B. $95,000 C. $950,000 D. $1,000,000

C. $950,000 Rationale: Multiply the cost of the purchases by the discount percent ($1,000,000 × 0.05 = $50,000) to obtain the amount of the discount. Subtract the amount of the discount from the total purchase ($1,000,000 - $50,000 = $95,000), which is the actual amount paid for the inventory.

How many days would 40 capsules of a medication last if the directions were "i cap qid ac and hs"? A. 4 B. 8 C. 10 D. None of the above

C. 10 Rationale: "qid" (four times a day) indicates how many times per day a medication would be taken. The term "ac and hs" tells the patient when during the day the medication is to be taken.

How many days will 40 tablets last if the patient is taking the medication "ii bid"? A. 1 day B. 5 days C. 10 days D. 20 days

C. 10 days Rationale: The patient is taking two tablets twice per day for a total of 4 tablets per day. 40 tablets divided by 4 tablets per day will last 10 days.

What is the sensitivity for a class A balance? A. 1 mg B. 6 mg C. 10 mg D. 20 mg

C. 10 mg Rationale: Class A balances, which are used to measure solid ingredients in compounding in a pharmacy, must have a minimum sensitivity of 6 mg.

How much of a 10% and 60% dextrose solution should be mixed to prepare 1 L of a 40% dextrose solution? A. 10%—600 mL; 60%—400 mL B. 10%—500 mL, 60%—500 mL C. 10%—400 mL, 60%—600 mL D. 10%—300 mL, 60%—700 mL

C. 10%—400 mL, 60%—600 mL Rationale: This is an alligation problem requiring an individual to make a 40% dextrose solution from both 60% and 10% dextrose solutions. Place the 60% in the upper left-hand corner, the 40% in the middle, and the 10% in the lower left-hand corner. 60% - 40% = 20 parts of the 10% solution. 40% - 10% = 30 parts of the 60% solution. The total number of parts is equal to 50 parts. To calculate the required quantities of each solution, use a proportion. 30 parts of 60% solution/50 parts of 40% solution = X mL of 60% solution/1000 mL of 40% solution, where X = 600 mL of the 60% solution. 20 parts of 10% solution/50 parts of 40% solution = X mL of 10% solution/1000 mL of 40% solution, where X = 400 mL of the 10% solution.

How much of a 10% and 60% dextrose solution should be mixed to prepare 1 L of a 40% dextrose solution? A. 10%—600 mL; 60%—400 mL B. 10%—500 mL, 60%—500 mL C. 10%—400 mL, 60%—600 mL D. 10%—300 mL, 60%—700 mL

C. 10%—400 mL, 60%—600 mL Rationale: This is an alligation problem requiring an individual to make a 40% dextrose solution from both 60% and 10% dextrose solutions. Place the 60% in the upper left-hand corner, the 40% in the middle, and the 10% in the lower left-hand corner. 60% -40% = 20 parts of the 10% solution. 40% - 10% = 30 parts of the 60% solution. The total number of parts is equal to 50 parts. To calculate the required quantities of each solution use a proportion. 30 parts of 60% solution/50 parts of 40% solution = XmL of 60% solution/1000 mL of 40% solution, where X = 600 mL of the 60% solution. 20 parts of 10% solution/50 parts of 40% solution = XmL of 10% solution/1000 mL of 40% solution, where X = 400 mL of the 10% solution.

An IV order calls for the addition of 45 mEq of CaCO3 (calcium carbonate). You have a 25-mL vial of calcium carbonate 4.4 mEq/mL. How many milligrams of this concentration do you need to add to this IV? A. 5.6 B. 8.4 C. 10.2 D. 12.8

C. 10.2 Rationale: This problem can be solved by using a proportion. 4.4 mEq/1 mL = 45 mEq/X mL, where X = 10.2 mL.

What is the maximum number of units a standard U-100 insulin syringe will contain? A. 1 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1000

C. 100 Rationale: A U-100 syringe will contain 100 units of insulin.

A 1-L IV bag contains 1,000,000 units of penicillin G. The flow rate is 25 gtt/min, and the infusion set is labeled 15 gtt/mL. How many units does the patient receive per hour? A. 100 B. 1500 C. 100,000 D. 250,000

C. 100,000 Rationale: Calculate the number of hours it will take to infuse the medication [(Rate)(Drop factor)(1 hr/60 min)] = gtt/min. Substitute the numbers into the formula: (1000 mL/X hr)(15 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 25 gtt/min, where X = 10 hr. To calculate the number, divide the number of units by the number of hours it will take to infuse the entire bag, which is 1,000,000 units/10 hr = 100,000 units/hr.

A bag contains 20 mg/mL of a drug. If the bag is being infused at a rate of 50 mL/hr, what is the rate of the bag in mg/hr? A. 10 mg/hr B. 100 mg/hr C. 1000 mg/hr D. None of the above

C. 1000 mg/hr Rationale: (20 mg/mL)(50 mL/hr) = 1000 mg/hr.

How many milliliters of water should be added to 100 mL of 10% stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a 0.9% solution of sodium chloride? A. 10.1 B. 101 C. 1011 D. 1111

C. 1011 Rationale: Solve using the following formula: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV); (10%)(100 mL) = (0.9%)(X mL), where X = 1111 mL. To calculate the amount of diluent, subtract the initial volume from the final volume (1111 mL - 100 mL = 1011 mL of diluent).

How much medication should a 70-lb child receive if the adult dose is 250 mg? A. 70 mg B. 79 mg C. 116 mg D. 1458 mg

C. 116 mg Rationale: Using Clark's rule (Weight [lb]/150) × Adult dose provides the child with the correct dose: 70 lb/150 × 250 mg = 116 mg.

How many inventory turns will a pharmacy achieve if it has a beginning inventory of $235,000, an ending inventory of $258,000, and yearly sales of $3,200,000? A. 6.49 B. 12.4 C. 12.98 D. 13.62

C. 12.98 Rationale: Inventory turns can be calculated by dividing total sales by the average inventory ($3,200,000/$246,500 = 12.98 turns).

A 180-lb man is to receive 1.75 mg/kg/day of tobramycin. The pharmacy technician is to prepare the tobramycin in 100 mL of D5W and it is to be given three times per day. The drug is available in a 40-mg/mL vial and is to be administered over 30 min. How much medication will the patient receive each day? A. 48 mg B. 96 mg C. 143 mg D. 315 mg

C. 143 mg Rationale: Convert pounds to kilograms: 180 lb × 1 kg/2.2 lb = 81.82 kg. Calculate the daily dosage: 81.82 kg × 1.75 mg/kg/day = 143 mg/day.

How many days would a prescription of 60 tablets last if the signa read: 1 tab po q 6-8 hr prn pain? A. 7 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

C. 15 Rationale: Multiply the number of tablets per dose by the most times a day that the medication is to be taken, which will give you the number of tablets taken in 1 day (1 tablet/dose × 4 doses/day = 4 tablets/day). Divide the total quantity of tablets by the number of tablets taken per day (60 tablets/4 tablets/day = 15 days' supply of medicine).

A pharmacy has 300 mL of a 50% solution; 200 mL is added to this solution to decrease the concentration. How many grams of active ingredient would be in the diluted solution? A. 7.5 B. 30 C. 150 D. 300

C. 150 Rationale: Solve by using the following formula: (Initial volume)(Initial strength) = (Final volume)(Final strength): (300 mL)(50%) = (300 mL + 200 mL = 500 mL)(Final strength), where the final strength is 30%. 30% means that there are 30 g in 100 mL. To calculate the number of grams in 500 mL, a proportion is used: 30 g/100 mL = X g/500 mL, where X = 150 g.

Rx: Amoxil 250 mg/5 mL i tsp tid × 10 days How much medication should be dispensed to the patient? A. 75 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. Cannot be determined

C. 150 mL Rationale: Amount per dose (1 tsp or 5 mL) × Daily frequency (tid or 3 times a day) × Duration (10 days) = 5 mL/dose × 3 doses/day × 10 days = 150 mL.

A patient presents a prescription to the pharmacy for Ceclor 125 mg/5 mL with the directions of 1 tsp po tid 10 d. How much should be dispensed to the patient? A. 75 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. 200 mL

C. 150 mL Rationale: One dose is equal to 1 tsp (5 mL), which is taken three times per day for 10 days. The pharmacy will need to dispense 150 mL to the patient.

What temperature is considered room temperature? A. 8° C B. 8° to 15° C C. 15° to 30° C D. 30° to 40° C

C. 15° to 30° C Rationale: Room temperature is 15° to 30° C (59° - 86° F).

How old must a person be to purchase an exempt narcotic? A. 12 years B. 16 years C. 18 years D. 21 years

C. 18 years Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 allows for an individual age 18 years or older to purchase a 4-oz bottle of an exempt narcotic every 48 hr.

A patient weighs 60 lb and has been given a prescription in which he or she is to receive 3 mg/lb each day. How many mg will he or she receive each day? A. 170 B. 175 C. 180 D. 185

C. 180 Rationale: Set up the problem as proportion: 3 mg/1 lb = X mg/60 lb, where X = 180 mg.

Which DAW code should be used if a physician authorizes the use of a generic drug but the patient requests a brand name drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

C. 2

What DAW number is assigned to indicate that the physician has indicated that a generic has been approved but the patient desires the brand name drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 8

C. 2 Rationale: If the physician allows for the use of generic drug, DAW 0 is indicated for billing purposes. DAW 1 indicates that the physician wants the patient to receive the brand name drug. DAW 2 indicates that a physician has approved the usage of a generic drug but the patient is requesting the brand name medication. DAW 8 does not exist.

If a patient receives 10 mL of a 20% (w/v) solution of a drug, how much active ingredient will he or she receive? A. 20 mg B. 200 mg C. 2 g D. 20 g

C. 2 g Rationale: 20% (w/v) means that 20 g is dissolved in 100 mL. The problem can be solved using a proportion: 20 g/100 mL = X g/10 mL, which is 2 g.

An IV line has been ordered for a patient, and it is to be administered at 14:00 hours. What time is that using standard time? A. 2 am B. 12 pm C. 2 pm D. 4 pm

C. 2 pm Rationale: 14:00 is the same as 2 pm.

How long must controlled substance records be retained according to federal law? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 7 years

C. 2 years Rationale: The Federal Controlled Substances Act requires that all pharmacy records be maintained for a minimum of 2 years.

A potassium chloride solution has a concentration of 1.5 mEq/mL. How many milliliters contain 30 mEq? A. 0.05 B. 15 C. 20 D. 45

C. 20 Rationale: 1.5 mEq/1 mL = 30 mEq/X mL, where X = 20 mL.

How many continuing education units are required of a pharmacy technician to renew his or her certification every 2 years? A. 10 CEUs B. 15 CEUs C. 20 CEUs D. 25 CEUs

C. 20 CEUs Rationale: Twenty CEUs are required every 2 years, and one of the credits must be in medication safety.

What is the percentage strength of a solution that is made by adding 100 mL of purified water to 600 mL of a 25% solution? A. 4.2% B. 12.5% C. 21.4% D. 30.00%

C. 21.4% Rationale: Using the formula IS × IV = FS × FV, the initial strength is 25%, the initial volume is 600 mL, the final volume (Initial volume)(600 mL) + Amount of diluent (100 mL) is 700 mL. Inserting these values in the equation yields a final strength of 21.4%.

In this formula, how much talc is needed to fill 120 g of the compound? Nupercainal ointment 4% Zinc oxide 20% Talc 2% A. 1200 mg B. 1500mg C. 2400 mg D. 120 g

C. 2400 mg Rationale: Multiply the percentage (expressed as a decimal) of talc by the total weight (120 g × 0.02 = 2.4 g or 2400 mg).

How many times a day would a patient take his or her medication if it is tid? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C. 3 Rationale: "tid" means three times per day.

The pharmacy technician receives a prescription for Flexeril 10 mg and the instructions read "i po tid." What is the total daily dose? A. 10 mg B. 20 mg C. 30 mg D. 40 mg

C. 30 mg Rationale: The patient is receiving 10 mg per dose and will receive three doses in 1 day. 3 doses × 10 mg/dose will equal 30 mg.

The infusion rate for 50 mL of D5W containing 3.5 g of antibiotic is 200 mL/hr. What is the infusion rate in drops/min if the IV set is calibrated at 10 drops/mL? A. 1 gtt/min B. 8 gtt/min C. 33 gtt/min D. 50 gtt/min

C. 33 gtt/min Rationale: This can be solved by using the following formula: (Rate)(Drop factor)(1 hr/60 min)= gtt/min: (200 mL/hr)(10 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 33 gtt/min.

If a medication is taken qid, how many doses will the patient take in one day? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

C. 4 Rationale: "qid" means to take the medication four times a day.

What is the percentage strength of cocaine hydrochloride of 40 mg/mL? A. 0.04 B. 0.4 C. 4 D. 40

C. 4 Rationale: %w/v is defined as the X g/100 mL. Calculate the number of grams in 100 mL by using the following proportion: 40 mg/1 mL = X mg/100 mL, where x = 4000 mg. Convert milligrams to grams (4000 mg × 1 g/1000 mg = 4 g). 4 g/100 mL= 4% w/v.

What is the flow rate to be used to infuse 1000 mL of NS over 4 hr if the set delivers 10 gtt/mL? A. 25 gtt/min B. 35 gtt/min C. 41 gtt/min D. 82 gtt/min

C. 41 gtt/min Rationale: Calculate the rate (1000 mL/4 hr = 250 mL/hr). Next solve using the following formula: (Rate)(Kit size)(1 hr/60 min) = gtt/min or (250 mL/hr)(10 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 41 gtt/min.

A patient is to receive 1 L of D5/0.45NS with 20-mEq solution over 24 hr. What is the flow rate? A. 21 mL/hr B. 24 mL/hr C. 41 mL/hr D. 84 mL/hr

C. 41 mL/hr Rationale: A flow rate is a volume of liquid infused per period of time (hr). Calculate by dividing 1 L (1000 mL)/24 hr = 41.67 mL/hr. Flow rates are rounded downward instead of upward; therefore, 41.67 mL/hr = 41 mL/hr.

From two stock solutions, 18% and 42%, you are to prepare 1.5 L of a 34% solution. How many milligrams of each of the stock solutions do you need? A. 42%—500; 18%—1000 B. 42%—630; 18%—870 C. 42%—1000; 18%—500 D. 42%—1230; 18%—270

C. 42%—1000; 18%—500 Rationale: This is an alligation problem in which 42% is the higher concentration and 18% is the lower concentration. Subtracting the desired concentration of 34% from 42% yields 8 parts of the 18% concentration. Subtracting 18% from 34% yields 16 parts of the 42% concentration. Using proportions, one can calculate the required quantities of each concentration. 42%: (16 parts/24 parts) × 1500 mL = 1000 mL of the 42%; (8 parts/24 parts) × 1500 mL = 500 mL of the 18%.

How much guaifenesin would you dispense for a 5-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin 15 cc q 4 h po prn"? A. 120 mL B. 180 mL C. 450 mL D. 480 mL

C. 450 mL Rationale: To calculate the total quantity needed, multiply the size of the dose by the number of doses per day by the number of days the patient is to take the medication. 15 cc (mL)/dose × 6 doses/day × 5 days = 450 mL.

How many milliliters are in 1 pint? A. 120 B. 240 C. 480 D. 960

C. 480 Rationale: 5 mL/tsp × 3 tsp/tbsp × 2 tbsp/ fl oz <× 8 fl oz / cup × 2 cups/ pt = 480 mL.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 10

C. 5 Rationale: According to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, the maximum number of refills allowed by a physician is five refills within 6 months of the date the prescription was written.

In multiples of what number should tablets or capsules be counted at a time using a spatula and a pill tray? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10

C. 5 Rationale: Pills, tablets, and capsules should be counted in multiples of fives.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 6

C. 5 Rationale: The maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III medication if approved by the prescriber is five refills within 6 months of the date the prescription was written.

How many units of heparin are in 50 mL of a 100,000 units/L? A. 50 units B. 500 units C. 5000 units D. 50,000 units

C. 5000 units Rationale: Solve using proportions. 1 L = 1000 mL. 100,000 units/1000 mL = X units/50 mL, where X = 5000 units.

What standard time would a patient receive a medication if the military time was 1800 hr? A. Midnight B. 8 am C. 6 pm D. 8 pm

C. 6 pm Rationale: 1800 hours is the same as 6 pm. Military time begins at midnight, and each hour of the day corresponds to a specific time. Military time does not reset at noon. Military time does not consider am or pm.

What size bottle should be used in dispensing 150 mL of a syrup? A. 2-oz bottle B. 4-oz bottle C. 6-oz bottle D. 8-oz bottle

C. 6-oz bottle Rationale: 150 mL is equal to 5 fl oz; therefore, a 6-oz bottle should be used. A 2-oz bottle is equal to 60 mL, a 4-oz bottle is equal to 120 mL, and an 8-oz bottle is equal to 240 mL.

How long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been written? A. 72 hours B. 30 days C. 60 days D. 180 days

C. 60 days Rationale: A DEA Form 222 is valid for 60 days after being written by the pharmacist in charge at a pharmacy.

A pharmacist asks you to prepare 250 mL of a 25% acetic acid solution. How much acetic acid would you need to make this preparation? A. 62.5 mg B. 6250 mg C. 62.5 g D. 6250 g

C. 62.5 g Rationale: Solve using the following formula: Final volume × % Strength (expressed as a decimal) will yield the amount of active ingredient in grams: 250 mL × 0.25 = 62.5 g.

A pharmacy must ensure that its pharmacy records are "readily retrievable" for a pharmacy inspector. How much time is this? A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 72 hours D. 96 hours

C. 72 hours Rationale: Readily retrievable is being able to provide the necessary information to a third party, such as the DEA or representatives from a particular state board of pharmacy, within 72 hours.

How much time does a pharmacist have to complete the partial filling of a Schedule II prescription? A. 24 hr B. 48 hr C. 72 hr D. 96 hr

C. 72 hr Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act requires that a partially filled Schedule II prescription be filled within 72 hours if the pharmacy does not have the entire quantity for the patient. If it is not filled within 72 hours, the remaining quantity will become void.

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription to make 4 oz of a 10% solution and has a 25% stock solution on hand. How much diluent will be added to fill this prescription? A. 7.2 mL B. 48 mL C. 72 mL D. 300 mL

C. 72 mL Rationale: Use the following equation: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV), where IS is initial strength or 25%; IV is the initial volume being calculated; FS is final strength or 10%; and FV is final volume, which is 4 fl oz or 120 mL. This calculation yields 48 mL. Subtract the initial volume (48 mL) from the final volume (120 mL), which will yield the amount of diluent (72 mL).

How many tablets need to be dispensed to a patient if the directions are "i tab po tid for one month"? A. 3 B. 30 C. 90 D. 100

C. 90 Rationale: "tid" means three times a day, and a month is equal to 30 days. 3 tablets/day × 30 days/month = 90 tablets.

When does a "code blue" occur? A. When a patient is experiencing a heart attack B. When a patient quits breathing C. A and B D. None of the above

C. A and B Rationale: A code blue is a system to communicate to hospital staff that a patient is experiencing a life-threatening situation, such as his or her heart or breathing has ceased. A code blue allows the hospital staff to respond with appropriate emergency procedures.

When a new prescription is called in to the pharmacy, who can take the prescription over the phone? A. Any pharmacy employee B. A certified pharmacy technician C. A pharmacist D. Answers b and c

C. A pharmacist Rationale: Only a pharmacist can take the new prescription from a physician's office.

What is MedWatch? A. A device that signals that an another IV bag needs to be hung in an institution B. A reporting program available to pharmacies indicating physicians who may be overprescribing narcotics C. A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose a serious health threat D. A service established by the AARP to monitor polypharmacy in elderly adults

C. A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose a serious health threat Rationale: MedWatch is a program instituted by the FDA that involves a voluntary reporting of adverse health events and medical products.

What does "qsad" mean on a prescription? A. A sufficient quantity B. A sufficient quantity for the right ear C. A sufficient quantity to make D. To make for the right ear

C. A sufficient quantity to make Rationale: "qsad" is an abbreviation for a sufficient quantity to make.

Which organization accredits pharmacy technician programs? A. ACPE B. APHA C. ASHP D. PTEC

C. ASHP Rationale: The American Society of Health System Pharmacists is the only pharmacy organization that accredits pharmacy technician programs in the United States.

Which of the following is the generic name for Percocet? A. Acetaminophen + codeine B. Acetaminophen + hydrocodone C. Acetaminophen + oxycodone D. Acetaminophen + propoxyphene

C. Acetaminophen + oxycodone Rationale: Percocet is oxycodone + acetaminophen; Tylenol C codeine is acetaminophen + codeine, Vicodin-Lortab is hydrocodone + acetaminophen, and Darvocet N is propoxyphene + acetaminophen.

Which of the following classifications is not used as an antineoplastic agent? A. Alkylating agents B. Antimetabolites C. Antiviral agents D. Hormonal agents

C. Antiviral agents Rationale: Alkylating agents, antimetabolites, and hormones are classifications of agents used as antineoplastics. Other categories used as antineoplastics are nitrogen mustards, plant alkaloids, and topoisomerase I inhibitors. Antiviral agents are not used to treat neoplastic disease.

What is the meaning of AF on a patient's chart? A. Acute fibromyalgia B. Aortic flutter C. Atrial fibrillation D. Atrial flutter

C. Atrial fibrillation Rationale: AF on a patient's medication chart indicates that the patient has atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation occurs when a patient's heart is beating more than 350 beats/min. Atrial flutter occurs when a patient's heart beating between 200 and 350 beats/min.

What is the brand name for the drug rosiglitazone? A. Actos B. Amaryl C. Avandia D. Zithromax

C. Avandia Rationale: Rosiglitazone is the generic name for Avandia. The other medications are Actos (pioglitazone), Amaryl (glimepiride), and Zithromax (azithromycin).

What does AWP represent? A. Actual warehouse price B. Actual wholesale price C. Average wholesale price D. Average wholesale promotion

C. Average wholesale price Rationale: AWP stands for average wholesale price and is a term used in determining costs and calculating the profitability of a product.

When would you take a medication if the directions stated "ac"? A. After a meal B. At bedtime C. Before a meal D. In the morning

C. Before a meal Rationale: "ac" means before meals.

Which of the following products should not be chewed? A. Azatadine B. Azelastine C. Benzonatate D. Fexofenadine

C. Benzonatate Rationale: Chewing benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) would result in excessive salivation.

Which of the following is not a valid DEA number for Dr. Shedlock? A. AS1234563 B. BS1234563 C. CS1234563 D. FS1234563

C. CS1234563 Rationale: The first letter of a DEA number is an A, B, F, or M.

To which medication class does digoxin belong? A. Beta-blocker B. Calcium channel blocker C. Cardiac glycoside D. Sodium channel blocker

C. Cardiac glycoside Rationale: Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside.

What is the meaning of the root word cyte? A. Breast B. Blood C. Cell D. Liver

C. Cell Rationale: cyte means cell. The other root words are breast (mast), blood (hema), and liver (hepat).

Which of the following practices should a pharmacy technician perform to ensure the patient is receiving the correct dose? A. Ask the patient if he or she has any questions for the pharmacist. B. Check the medication label three times before completing the prescription. C. Check to see that you have the correct birth date for the patient. D. Verify the data after entering into the computer to ensure the label has the correct drug name, strength, and dosage form as written on the prescription.

C. Check to see that you have the correct birth date for the patient. Rationale: The pharmacy technician should make sure he or she has the correct birth date for the patient to ensure the dose is appropriate for the person of that age. In addition, some pharmacies may have several patients with the same first and last name; by checking the patient's birth date, the pharmacy technician makes certain the patient is receiving the correct medication and strength.

What type of drug recall occurs when a drug is not likely to cause a temporary adverse health consequence? A. Class I recall B. Class II recall C. Class III recall D. No recall is required

C. Class III recall Rationale: Class I recalls result in serious adverse health consequence or death, class II recalls may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences, and class III recalls are not likely to cause an adverse health consequence.

Which of the following medications is not an anticonvulsant agent? A. Carbamazepine B. Clonazepam C. Clozapine D. Phenytoin

C. Clozapine Rationale: Clozapine is an antipsychotic agent.

Which of the following drugs is a Schedule II drug? A. Acetaminophen with codeine B. Alprazolam C. Cocaine D. Flurazepam

C. Cocaine Rationale: Cocaine is a Schedule II drug under the Controlled Substances Act of 1970. Cocaine does have a medical use in the United States but has a high potential for abuse.

Which of the following medications is not a combination medication? A. Augmentin B. Bactrim C. Covera HS D. Dyazide

C. Covera HS Rationale: Covera HS is not a combination medication.

Which of the following medications must be prepared wearing PPEs? A. Cetirizine B. Cyanocobalamin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Estradiol cypionate

C. Cyclophosphamide Rationale: Cyclophosphamide is an oncology agent; therefore, special precautions must be used when handling this medication.

Which of the following terms is a set amount of money that must be paid by the patient before the insurer will cover additional expenses? A. Coinsurance B. Copay C. Deductible D. Maximum allowable cost

C. Deductible Rationale: A deductible is an amount an individual must pay before the insurance company begins to make a payment; coinsurance occurs when two parties are responsible for the payment; copay means the insured party must pay a given amount of money each time before the insurance company begins to pay; and maximum allowable cost is the most the insurance company will pay for a generic medication.

Which of the following antihistamines requires a prescription? A. Cetirizine B. Diphenhydramine C. Desloratadine D. Loratadine

C. Desloratadine Rationale: Desloratadine (Clarinex) requires a prescription. The other medications are over-the-counter products.

What is the meaning of DX on a patient's chart? A. Date of birth B. Diabetes C. Diagnosis D. Dispense

C. Diagnosis Rationale: DX means diagnosis.

In the Drug Topics Red Book, you see the abbreviation "DP." What does it mean? A. Delivery price B. Destructible product C. Direct price D. Drug price

C. Direct price Rationale: The Drug Topics Red Book is an excellent source of information on various drug costs for community pharmacies. DP refers to the direct price if a pharmacy would purchase the medication directly from the manufacturer.

A physician writes a prescription for a generic medication, but the patient requests the brand name drug. What should the pharmacy technician do? A. Contact the physician and ask if the brand name drug may be dispensed to the patient. B. Dispense the brand name drug to the patient. C. Dispense the brand name drug to the patient but have the patient sign the back of the prescription acknowledging he or she requested the brand name drug. D. Dispense the generic drug to the patient.

C. Dispense the brand name drug to the patient but have the patient sign the back of the prescription acknowledging he or she requested the brand name drug Rationale: It is always best in a pharmacy have the patient sign the back of the prescription when a patient requests the brand name drug to ensure that if the pharmacy is audited by a third-party provider, there is proof the patient requested the brand name drug.

Which of the following might result in a prescription error? A. Clarifying a prescription that is illegible or incomplete B. Consulting available drug references C. Distractions D. Documenting essential patient information such as allergies, age, weight, current diagnoses, and current medication regimen

C. Distractions Rationale: Fatigue, use of alcohol or the use of other drugs, illness, distractions, emotional states, unfamiliar situations, equipment design flaws, inadequate labeling, communication problems, poor handwriting, and unsafe working conditions could result in a prescription error.

Which of the following drugs is not a macrolide? A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Doxycycline D. Erythromycin-sulfisoxazole

C. Doxycycline Rationale: Doxycycline is a member of the tetracycline family of antibiotics.

What is the basic reimbursement formula for pharmacies? A. Copayment B. Drug cost × Standard markup rate C. Drug cost + Dispensing fee D. Drug cost + Dispensing fee - Deductible

C. Drug cost + Dispensing fee Rationale: The basic formula for medication reimbursement is Drug cost + Dispensing fee. There are many variations of this formula taking into consideration AWP, AAC, MAC, and percentages.

Which of the following is not a reason to return medications to the warehouse or manufacturer? A. Drug damaged during delivery B. Drug expired C. Drug incorrectly reconstituted D. Drug recall

C. Drug incorrectly reconstituted Rationale: The pharmacy has terms or agreement with a warehouse, wholesaler, or drug manufacturer regarding purchases and returns. A pharmacy that fails to reconstitutes a drug properly is not able to return the medication to the warehouse, wholesaler or drug manufacturer for credit under the terms and agreements for drug purchases and returns.

What do the last two numbers indicate on an NDC number? A. Dug indication code B. Drug manufacturer C. Drug packaging D. Drug product

C. Drug packaging Rationale: The last two numbers of the 11 digits of an NDC number indicate the packaging of a manufacturers' product.

What type of interaction occurs when a patient takes tetracycline with milk? A. Adverse effect B. Drug-drug C. Drug-food D. Synergistic

C. Drug-food Rationale: A patient taking milk with her tetracycline has a drug-food interaction. Milk chelates (binds) with tetracycline, resulting in a loss of effectiveness of the medication. Adverse effects are undesirable effects of a medication; a synergistic effect occurs when the sum of the effects of two drugs is greater than taking them separately.

Why are medications stored in opaque bottles? A. Drugs are sensitive to heat. B. Drugs are sensitive to humidity. C. Drugs are sensitive to light. D. All of the above

C. Drugs are sensitive to light. Rationale: Many medications are sensitive to light, so their composition may begin to disintegrate. The amber or opaque bottle prevents the light from causing the medication to decompose.

Which of the following is not an abbreviation for extended-release forms of medication? A. CD B. CR C. ERF D. SR

C. ERF Rationale: Controlled dose (CD), controlled release (CR), and sustained release (SR) are time- or extended-release dosage forms. The abbreviation ERF does not exist in the practice of pharmacy.

How often must HEPA filters be certified? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Every 6 months D. Every 12 months

C. Every 6 months Rationale: USP 797 requires that HEPA filters be certified every 6 months.

How often should a patient change his or her Duragesic patch? A. Every 24 hours B. Every 48 hours C. Every 72 hours D. Once a week

C. Every 72 hours Rationale: Duragesic patches should be changed every 72 hours (3 days).

Which of the following is not a cardiovascular medication? A. Coreg B. Diovan C. Evista D. Plavix

C. Evista Rationale: Evista is used to treat osteoporosis.

What is the preparation of a specific dosage form for a patient with specific needs called? A. Aseptic technique B. Bulk compounding C. Extemporaneous compounding D. Product formulation

C. Extemporaneous compounding Rationale: Extemporaneous compounding involves compounding a specific product for a particular patient based on a physician's prescription or medication order. Aseptic technique is used in the preparation of intravenous products. Bulk compounding is similar to extemporaneous compounding with the exception that a large quantity is prepared to be used at a future time.

Which organization is responsible for drug recalls? A. Boards of pharmacy B. DEA C. FDA D. NABP

C. FDA Rationale: The FDA is responsible for ensuring that all medications are pure, safe, and effective. If a product is adulterated or misbranded, the FDA may issue a product recall if the manufacturer does not voluntarily issue one.

Which organization has played an integral role in implementing bar coding in the practice of pharmacy? A. CMS B. DEA C. FDA D. ISMP

C. FDA Rationale: The FDA issued regulations regarding bar coding and the practice of pharmacy.

Which of the following is a transdermal controlled substance? A. Clonidine B. Estrace C. Fentanyl D. Scopolamine

C. Fentanyl Rationale: Fentanyl (Duragesic) is a Schedule II substance. All four products are available as a transdermal dosage form.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule IV drug? A. Zero B. One C. Five D. Unlimited

C. Five Rationale: According to the Controlled Substance Act of 1970, the maximum number of authorized refills for a Schedule III to V drug is five.

Which of the following drugs does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant package? A. Digoxin B. Ibuprofen C. Fluoride tablets D. Simvastatin

C. Fluoride tablets Rationale: The Poison Prevention Act of 1970 permits certain medications (e.g., nitroglycerin, fluoride tablets, and mebendazole) to be dispensed in packages that are not child resistant.

Why is it important to follow the procedures of an institution? A. Following procedures will result in a promotion. B. Following procedures will result in a pay increase. C. Following procedures will prevent errors from occurring in a pharmacy. D. The PTCB and State Boards of Pharmacy follow up with pharmacy technicians to ensure that they are following procedures. Failure to follow procedures may result in either a suspension or revocation of certification.

C. Following procedures will prevent errors from occurring in a pharmacy. Rationale: Procedures are a way to avoid errors in performing a specific task.

What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following signa: "i gtt os bid"? A. For external use B. For the ear C. For the eye D. Use rectally

C. For the eye Rationale: The abbreviation "os" means left eye.

What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding? A. DEA B. FDA C. GMP D. OBRA '90

C. GMP Rationale: GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The DEA is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure, safe, and effective. OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients.

Which of the following is not a reason for a third-party claim to be rejected by an insurance carrier? A. Drug not covered B. Invalid identification number C. Generic drug dispensed D. Refill too soon

C. Generic drug dispensed Rationale: Insurance companies prefer that generic medications are dispensed because of the potential savings to both the insurance company and the patient.

What is the generic name for Micronase? A. Glimepiride B. Glipizide C. Glyburide D. Pioglitazone

C. Glyburide Rationale: Glyburide is the generic name for Micronase. The other drugs are Amaryl (glimepiride), Glucotrol (glipizide), and Actos (pioglitazone).

Which of the following agencies is responsible for approving hospitals for Medicaid reimbursement? A. BOP B. DPH C. HCFA D. TJC

C. HCFA Rationale: HCFA stands for Health Care Financing Administration.

Which of the following medications would not be indicated for a patient with type II diabetes? A. Glipizide B. Glyburide C. Humulin 70/30 insulin D. Metformin

C. Humulin 70/30 insulin Rationale: Humulin 70/30 insulin is prescribed for individuals with type I diabetes. An individual with type I diabetes is unable to produce insulin from their pancreas.

What drug is abbreviated HCTZ? A. Hycomine B. Hycodan C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Hydrea

C. Hydrochlorothiazide Rationale: HCTZ is an abbreviation for the diuretic hydrochlorothiazide.

Which of the following is not an example of a sound-alike, look-alike drug? A. Accupril-Acphex B. Actronel-Actos C. Hydrochlorothiazide-Hytrin D. Clozaril-Colazal

C. Hydrochlorothiazide-Hytrin Rationale: Accupril-Acphex, Actronel-Actos, and Clozaril-Colazal have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors due to their sound-alike or look-alike names.

Which of the following terms is an indication for a potassium chloride supplement? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyponatremia

C. Hypokalemia Rationale: A potassium supplement is taken when there is a deficiency of potassium in the body. Hypo means below, kalemia means blood potassium, hyper means above, and natremia means blood sodium.

Which of the following side effects may result from taking thiazide diuretics? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypourticaria

C. Hypokalemia Rationale: Diuretics have a tendency to remove potassium from the body: hypo- (low); kalemia (potassium).

What will occur if a patient is taking both nitrates and sildenafil? A. Heart murmur B. Hypertension C. Hypotension D. Stroke

C. Hypotension Rationale: Both nitrates and sildenafil cause vasodilation of the blood vessels, which will result in hypotension.

If an individual experiences a sudden loss of NA and H2O from the body, which of the following conditions may occur? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypotension D. Hypothyroidism

C. Hypotension Rationale: Hypotension occurs when the body loses both sodium and water, hypoglycemia indicates that an individual is experiencing low blood sugar, hypokalemia indicates that the body is low in potassium, and hypothyroidism shows that the thyroid gland is not working effectively.

Which of the following drugs is not used for asthma? A. Albuterol B. Ipratropium C. INH D. Salmeterol

C. INH Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat tuberculosis. Albuterol, ipratropium, and salmeterol are used to treat asthma.

In which ISO class environment must a high-risk compounded sterile product (CSP) be prepared? A. ISO class 3 B. ISO class 4 C. ISO class 5 D. ISO class 6

C. ISO class 5 Rationale: USP 797 requires that all low-, medium-, and high-risk CSPs be compounded in an ISO class 5 environment or better. An ISO 5 environment contains a maximum of 100 particles per square foot.

What do we call the administration of a medication into a patient's vein all at once rather than over several hours or days? A. Continuous infusion B. IM injection C. IV push D. Subcutaneous injection

C. IV push Rationale: An IV push is used when the patient requires all of the medication to enter the bloodstream immediately. IM injections are injected into the muscle and subcutaneous injections are injected underneath the skin. Continuous infusion is an injection into the blood vein but over a period of time such as hours.

Which of the following is not true when ordering Schedule II drugs? A. Form 222 is a triplicate form. B. Form 222 must be kept in a secure location. C. If an error is made on a Form 222, one can cross it out and initial it. D. A maximum of 10 different drugs can be ordered on one form.

C. If an error is made on a Form 222, one can cross it out and initial it. Rationale: Any errors made on a Form 222 cannot be corrected. This form must be retained in the pharmacy for at least 2 years.

Where should used needles be placed after use? A. In a biohazard container B. In a red plastic bag C. In a sharps container D. With normal trash

C. In a sharps container Rationale: A used needle should be disposed in a red plastic sharps container to prevent individuals from being injured by needles.

Where should a patient store a prescription of liquid amoxicillin suspension? A. In a bathroom vanity B. In a kitchen cupboard C. In the refrigerator D. Does not matter where it is stored

C. In the refrigerator Rationale: Most liquid antibiotics including amoxicillin need to be stored in a refrigerator after they are reconstituted. Reconstituted antibiotics are good for 10 days after reconstitution.

The storage instructions for a particular medication is 5° to 15° C. Where should the medication be stored? A. In a warm room B. In the freezer C. In the refrigerator D. On the pharmacy shelf

C. In the refrigerator Rationale: The USP has defined a "cool place" as any temperature between 8° and 15° C (46° and 59° F). This temperature corresponds to the temperature in a refrigerator.

What is the meaning of the acronym IPA? A. Independent pharmacy association B. Independent physician association C. Independent practice association D. Independent provider association

C. Independent practice association Rationale: An IPA is an independent practice association, which is a managed care program that contracts with independent practicing physicians.

Which of the following should a pharmacy technician do when he or she receives a drug-drug interaction, drug-allergy interaction, or drug-disease interaction during drug utilization evaluation? A. Contact the physician. B. Continue processing the prescription. C. Inform the pharmacist of the situation. D. Notify the patient of the problem.

C. Inform the pharmacist of the situation. Rationale: Any drug-drug, drug-disease, or drug-allergy problem should be referred to the pharmacist. The pharmacist will make a decision on how to proceed with the prescription.

During the drug utilization evaluation phase, the pharmacy technician receives a message indicating there is a drug-disease interaction with the prescription being filled. What should the pharmacy technician do? A. Ask another pharmacy technician to look at the computer screen. B. Do not fill the prescription and hand the prescription back to the patient. C. Inform the pharmacist of the situation. D. Override the message and continue filling the prescription.

C. Inform the pharmacist of the situation. Rationale: If a pharmacy technician ever encounters a drug-drug interaction, a drug-disease interaction, or a drug allergy, it is extremely important that he or she notifies the pharmacist immediately. Upon reviewing the information, the pharmacist will determine the proper course of action.

Which of the following auxiliary labels would not be appropriate for a prescription of sulfasalazine? A. Avoid sunlight B. Drink plenty of water C. Keep refrigerated D. May discolor urine

C. Keep refrigerated Rationale: Sulfasalazine may cause photosensitivity to an individual if he or she is exposed to direct sunlight; one should drink plenty of water to prevent crystals from developing in the kidneys. Sulfasalazine has the tendency to change the color of one's urine from a yellow to an orange-brown color.

Which of the following can a pharmacy technician do to reduce medication errors? A. Document all clarification on prescription orders. B. Initial all prescriptions. C. Keep work area clutter free. D. Visually check the medication in the bottle.

C. Keep work area clutter free. Rationale: A clutter-free work area reduces the possibility of a medication being placed in the wrong bottle or the wrong label being applied to the prescription bottle. It is the responsibility of pharmacists to document issues raised during the prescription filling process, to initial all filled p rescriptions for which they were responsible, and to check the final product.

Which drug law stated that all drugs must be pure, safe, and effective? A. FDCA 1938 B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment D. Poison Prevention Act of 1970

C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment Rationale: The Kefauver-Harris Amendment requires that all drugs be pure, safe, and effective as a result of the thalidomide incident.

Which organ would be affected if the root word "nephro" was indicated? A. Ear B. Heart C. Kidney D. Liver

C. Kidney Rationale: "Nephro" is the Latin root word for kidney.

What piece of equipment reduces the risk of contamination when preparing IV admixtures? A. Foot pedal sinks B. Humidifiers C. Laminar flow hoods D. Ultraviolet lighting

C. Laminar flow hoods Rationale: Laminar flow hoods used in the preparation of IV admixtures are a critical component of aseptic technique. The class of the HEPA filter used will determine the number of particles allowed per given area.

What is the meaning of "os" on a prescription? A. Each ear B. Each eye C. Left eye D. Right ear

C. Left eye Rationale: The pharmacy abbreviation "os" stands for -oculo which means eye, and sinistro means left.

Which of the following medications is not available as a transdermal dose? A. Estrace B. Fentanyl C. Levothyroxine D. Nitroglycerin

C. Levothyroxine Rationale: Levothyroxine is not available as a transdermal dosage form. Estrace (Vivelle and Climara), fentanyl (Duragesic), and nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur, Nitrodisc, and Transderm Nitro) are available as transdermal dosage forms.

What is the generic name for Zestril? A. Enalapril B. Fosinopril C. Lisinopril D. Quinapril

C. Lisinopril Rationale: Zestril is the brand name for lisinopril. The other drugs are enalapril (Vasotec), fosinopril (Monopril), and quinapril (Accupril).

What is a drug monograph? A. A picture of the drug from the manufacturer B. A price list for the drug from the manufacturer C. Literature on the drug D. Literature on the drug manufacturer

C. Literature on the drug Rationale: A monograph is literature on a specific drug by the drug manufacturer that may include a description, indications, contraindications, adverse effects, and warnings. The PDR is an example of a collection of drug monographs.

What body organ would be affected by hepatotoxicity? A. Intestines B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Thyroid

C. Liver Rationale: "Hepat" means liver.

If a patient has a hepatic disorder, which organ is involved? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Liver D. Stomach

C. Liver Rationale: Hepato is the Latin root word meaning liver.

Which of the following generic medications is available as an OTC product to treat seasonal rhinitis? A. Aluminum hydroxide-magnesium hydroxide B. Fexofenadine C. Loratadine D. Meclizine

C. Loratadine Rationale: Loratadine (Claritin) is an OTC drug used to treat a seasonal allergy that may cause a runny nose. Aluminum hydroxide-magnesium hydroxide (Maalox or Mylanta) is an OTC product used to treat peptic ulcer disease. Fexofenadine (Allegra) is a prescription medication used to treat seasonal respiratory allergies. Meclizine is both an OTC (Bonine) and legend medication (Antivert) used to treat vertigo.

Which of the following drugs is not a Schedule II drug? A. Codeine B. Fentanyl C. Lorazepam D. Methylphenidate

C. Lorazepam Rationale: Lorazepam is a Schedule IV drug.

What is the name of the opening of a needle? A. Bevel B. Hilt C. Lumen D. Point

C. Lumen Rationale: The lumen is the opening in the needle by which medication is expelled from a syringe.

Which two drug classifications should not be taken together? A. TCAs and MAOIs B. TCAs and SSRIs C. MAOIs and SSRIs D. TCAs and lithium

C. MAOIs and SSRIs Rationale: MAOIs and SSRIs should not be taken together. An MAOI must be washed out of the body before SSRI treatment is initiated. This washing-out period is approximately 2 weeks.

Which of the following is the primary source of medication for community pharmacies? A. Chain pharmacy warehouses B. GPOs C. Manufacturers and wholesalers D. Store-to-store vendors

C. Manufacturers and wholesalers Rationale: Pharmacies purchase their medications either directly from the manufacturer or from a secondary vendor such as a wholesaler. A chain pharmacy warehouse is a secondary vendor for a particular chain. GPOs negotiate prices for hospitals.

Why are medication error rates reported in studies underestimated? A. Efficient anonymous reporting systems are common. B. Few errors are identified and corrected during the prescribing phase. C. Many errors go undetected. D. Medication errors are only reported when the patient is injured.

C. Many errors go undetected. Rationale: Unfortunately, many medication errors are never detected; therefore, the exact number of medication errors is not known.

Which of the following warning labels should be affixed to a bottle of Xanax? A. Avoid antacids and dairy products B. Avoid prolonged exposure to the sun C. May be habit forming D. Take with lots of water

C. May be habit forming Rationale: Xanax is a Schedule IV medication and has the potential for abuse.

Which of the following is true of a small-volume parenteral? A. Used to rehydrate a patient B. Used to provide nutrition to a patient C. May be used with large-volume parenterals, in which they are known as a piggyback D. All of the above

C. May be used with large-volume parenterals, in which they are known as a piggyback Rationale: Small-volume parenterals may be used as a "piggyback" to a large-volume parenteral. Large-volume parenterals may be used for rehydration and nutritional purposes.

Which of the following is a federal program for patients older than 65 years of age or with certain diseases? A. ADC B. Medicaid C. Medicare D. Worker's compensation

C. Medicare Rationale: Medicare is a federal program for individuals older than age 65 years. Medicaid is a federal program administered by the state for individuals (families) who meet specific income guidelines. Workers' compensation is for individuals who are injured while working.

What is the largest single medical benefits program in the United States? A. CHAMPUS B. Medicaid C. Medicare D. Workers' compensation

C. Medicare Rationale: Medicare is the largest single medical benefits program in the United States. Medicare provides services to individuals older than 65 years of age, those who are blind, and those who are disabled from long-term disease. CHAMPUS provides coverage for military retirees and dependents of deceased military personnel. Medicaid is a federal program administered by the states for individuals of lower incomes. Workers' compensation is a federal program for workers who are injured on the job.

What is the inscription on a prescription? A. Directions for the patient B. Dispensing directions to the pharmacist C. Medication prescribed D. Rx symbol

C. Medication prescribed Rationale: The inscription is the medication being prescribed to a patient, the signa is the directions to the patient, the subscription is directions to the pharmacist, and the Rx symbol means "take this drug."

Which of the following medications does not require special handling or wearing of protective clothing? A. Adriamycin injection B. Cytadren C. Medrol injection D. Vincristine injection

C. Medrol injection Rationale: Medrol does not require special handling. Adriamycin, Cytadren, and vincristine are antineoplastic agents.

Which herbal remedy can be used to treat insomnia? A. Echinacea B. Green tea C. Melatonin D. St. John's wort

C. Melatonin Rationale: Melatonin is used to treat insomnia. Echinacea is used for its antiviral, immuno-stimulant, and arthritis-treating ability; green tea has antioxidant and cholesterol-lowering capability; and St. John's wort is used as an antidepressant.

What does MDI mean? A. Medical diagnosis included B. Medical doctor under investigation C. Metered-dose inhaler D. Multidose inhaler

C. Metered-dose inhaler Rationale: MDI is an abbreviation meaning metered-dose inhaler.

Which of the following medications needs to be dispensed in a child-resistant container? A. Isosorbide dinitrate SL tablets B. Mebendazole tablets C. Metformin tablets D. Methylprednisolone tablets

C. Metformin tablets Rationale: Metformin (Glucophage) must be dispensed in a child-resistant container unless the patient or physician requests otherwise.

Which of the following drugs will produce an adverse effect if alcohol is consumed during the course of therapy? A. Amoxicillin B. Azithromycin C. Metronidazole D. Nitrofurantoin

C. Metronidazole Rationale: A combination of alcohol in any form or concentration may interact with metronidazole causing extreme, unpleasant side effects from processes occurring in the liver.

Which of the following drugs is not a selective 5-HT receptor agonist used to treat migraine headaches? A. Imitrex B. Maxalt C. Midrin D. Zomig

C. Midrin Rationale: Midrin is a combination product used to abort migraine headaches but is not a selective 5-HT receptor agonist. Imitrex, Maxalt, and Zomig are 5-HT receptor agonists.

Which of the following medications is not a bronchodilator? A. Albuterol B. Ipratropium C. Montelukast D. Salmeterol

C. Montelukast Rationale: Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene inhibitor.

Which of the following is the private Intranet for staff and contractors of the National Health Service? A. ADOBE B. MEDWATCH C. NHSNeT D. RAM

C. NHSNeT Rationale: National Health Service NET (NHSNeT) is the name of the Nation Health Service Intranet.

Which of the following is required for a pharmacy to participate in a third-party reimbursement program? A. DEA number B. NABP number C. NPI number D. All of the above

C. NPI number Rationale: HIPAA mandates that all health care providers possess a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number.

Which of the following classes of medications might contribute to PUD? A. APAP B. H2 blockers C. NSAIDs D. Proton pump inhibitors

C. NSAIDs Rationale: NSAIDs have a tendency to irritate the walls of the stomach and create an ulcer.

Which of the following is not preprinted on a prescription label as required by law? A. Drug, strength, and dosage form B. Expiration date C. Name, address, and telephone number of the prescriber D. Refill information

C. Name, address, and telephone number of the prescriber Rationale: The prescriber's name, address, and telephone number do not need to be on the preprinted label; however, they are required on the original prescription.

Which of the following ophthalmic agents is not used in the treatment of glaucoma? A. Brimonidine B. Latanoprost C. Naphazoline D. Timolo

C. Naphazoline Rationale: Naphazoline (Naphcon or Vasocon A) is a decongestant. Brimonidine (Alphagan), latanoprost (Xalatan), and timolol (Timoptic) are agents used to treat glaucoma.

Which organization was responsible for the development of the Model State Pharmacy Practice Act (MSPPA)? A. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) D. The Joint Commission (TJC)

C. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Rationale: The NABP developed the MSPPA, in which states may model their practice acts on the MSPPA.

Which of the following drugs is not a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor? A. Didanosine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Stavudine

C. Nevirapine Rationale: Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.

Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocker? A. Atenolol B. Metoprolol C. Nifedipine D. Propranolol

C. Nifedipine Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. Beta-blockers are easily identified by the nomenclature syllable of -olol.

Which of the following drugs should be taken with food? A. Amoxicillin B. Minocycline C. Nitrofurantoin D. Tetracycline

C. Nitrofurantoin Rationale: Food aids in the absorption of nitrofurantoin in the body. Amoxicillin (penicillin) is best taken on an empty stomach; minocycline and tetracycline (both tetracyclines) work best if taken on an empty stomach and should not be taken within 1 hour of all dairy products because of chelation.

Which of the following medications may be measured in grains? A. Heparin B. Insulin C. Nitroglycerin D. Potassium chloride

C. Nitroglycerin Rationale: Nitroglycerin can be measured in either grains or milligrams.

Which of the following medications does not require the patient to receive a PPI? A. Accutane B. Estrogen medications C. Nitroglycerin tablets D. Progesterone medications

C. Nitroglycerin tablets Rationale: The pharmacy does not need to provide a patient with a PPI each time he or she receives a prescription for nitroglycerin.

What type of drug is affected by MAC? A. Discontinued drugs B. Investigational drugs C. Nonproprietary drugs D. Proprietary drugs

C. Nonproprietary drugs Rationale: MAC stands for maximum allowable cost and is used in reimbursement of multisource drugs by third-party insurance plans. Whereas generic drugs are nonproprietary, brand or trade drugs are proprietary drugs that are covered by a patent.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation NS? A. Nasal spray B. Nocturnal supplement C. Normal saline D. Normal sensitivity

C. Normal saline Rationale: NS stands for normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride).

What is the brand name for amlodipine? A. Cardizem B. Isoptin C. Norvasc D. Procardia

C. Norvasc Rationale: Amlodipine is the generic name for Norvasc. The other medications are Cardizem (diltiazem), Isoptin (verapamil), and Procardia (nifedipine).

Which of the following is not a feature of MEDMARX? A. Allows anonymous reporting of adverse drug events B. Captures information on actions taken and makes recommendations to avoid future adverse drug events C. Notifies the state board of pharmacy regarding a medication error incident D. Provides automatic completeness of the TJC's root cause analysis template and FDA's MedWatch forms

C. Notifies the state board of pharmacy regarding a medication error incident Rationale: MEDMARX does not notify the state board of pharmacy about medication error incidents.

Which pharmacy law addressed the treatment of patients in long-term facilities? A. FDCA 1938 B. HIPAA 1996 C. OBRA-87 D. OBRA-90

C. OBRA-87 Rationale: OBRA-87 addressed issues affecting the care of patients in long-term facilities, such as proper diagnosis, approved treatments for therapy, and requirements for consultant pharmacists. FDCA 1938 addressed adulteration and misbranding. HIPAA addressed the portability of health insurance and patient confidentiality. OBRA-90 required an offer be made to counsel patients and that Drug Utilization Evaluation (DUE) be performed on all prescriptions.

Which piece of legislation requires a pharmacy to maintain a patient profile for each patient who has had a prescription filled? A. Drug Listing Act of 1972 B. OBRA-87 C. OBRA-90 D. HIPAA

C. OBRA-90 Rationale: The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 mandated that patient profiles be maintained for each patient who has had a prescription, drug utilization be performed on every prescription, and an offer to counsel be made to each patient.

Which services are provided for as a result of OBRA '9? A. Call a physician and recommend a different drug dosage. B. Counsel a patient with regard to their drug therapy. C. Offer to counsel a patient, if allowed by state law. D. Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications.

C. Offer to counsel a patient, if allowed by state law. Rationale: OBRA mandated that both a drug utilization evaluation (formerly known as drug utilization review) and an offer to counsel must be made to every patient. A drug utilization evaluation is a technical task that a technician may perform, but counseling must be performed by a pharmacist.

What is the generic name for Zyprexa? A. Donepezil B. Metaxalone C. Olanzapine D. Risperidone

C. Olanzapine Rationale: The drugs are Zyprexa (olanzapine), Aricept (donepezil), Skelaxin (metaxalone), and Risperdal (risperidone).

Why are medications stored in opaque bottles? A. Opaque bottles protect medications from changing colors. B. Opaque bottles protect medications from extreme changes in temperature. C. Opaque bottles protect medications from light. D. Opaque bottles protect medications from moisture.

C. Opaque bottles protect medications from light. Rationale: Sunlight can cause medications to decompose and therefore may render medications ineffective.

What is the most common route of administration? A. Inhalation B. Inunction C. Oral D. Rectal

C. Oral Rationale: Oral medications are the most commonly used because of the ease of administration.

A patient is taking phenazopyridine. What color may his or her urine become? A. Blue B. Green C. Orange D. Pink

C. Orange Rationale: Phenazopyridine may discolor the urine orange; therefore, an auxiliary label should be affixed to the prescription bottle indicating that the medication may discolor the urine or feces.

Which reference book is included in USP DI, volume III, and contains the FDA's approved drug products? A. American Drug Index B. Blue Book C. Orange Book D. Red Book

C. Orange Book Rationale: The Drug Topics Orange Book is included in USP DI, volume III, and contains the FDA's approved drug products.

A patient is taking warfarin 5 mg po qd. Which of the following products could he or she eat? A. Broccoli B. Legumes C. Oranges D. Spinach

C. Oranges Rationale: The patient could eat oranges. Broccoli, legumes, and spinach are rich in vitamin K, which will counteract the anticoagulant ability of warfarin.

What type of drug is used to treat rare diseases in the United States? A. Investigational drug B. Nonproprietary drug C. Orphan drug D. Proprietary drug

C. Orphan drug Rationale: An orphan drug is one used to treat rare diseases when there are fewer than 200,000 cases. Drug manufacturers are provided tax incentives and provided exclusive licenses to make these drugs for a period of time.

Which of the following reference books is a compilation of drug monographs? A. Ident-a-Drug B. Orange Book C. PDR D. Red Book

C. PDR Rationale: A drug monograph provides information about a medication, such as the nonproprietary name, a chemical description, indications and contraindications of the medication, pharmacology, adverse effects, warnings, how the medication is supplied, and the manufacturer of the product.

Which of the following is not a required text in a pharmacy? A. A copy of the Controlled Substances Act B. Orange Book C. PDR D. USP-NF

C. PDR Rationale: The PDR is not a required reference in a pharmacy. All pharmacies must maintain a library for reference.

Which of the following medications could be used to treat a thyroid disease? A. DPT B. PTT C. PTU D. TCN

C. PTU Rationale: PTU (propylthiouracil) is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism. DPT (diphtheria-pertussis-tetanus) is a vaccine. PTT (prothrombin time) is a diagnostic test used in calculating an individual's bleeding time if he or she is taking anticoagulants. TCN (tetracycline) is an antibiotic.

Which of the following is the most appropriate area to store compounded radiopharmaceutical products? A. Compounding area B. Disposal area C. Packaging area D. Warehouse

C. Packaging area Rationale: USP 797 requires that compounded radiopharmaceuticals be stored in the packaging area.

Which of the following is an example of an outpatient dispensing system? A. Amerisource MedSelect B. Omnicell MedGuard C. Parata RDS (robotic dispensing system) D. Pyxis ADS (automated dispensing system)

C. Parata RDS (robotic dispensing system) Rationale: The Parata RDS is an outpatient dispensing system; Amerisource MedSelect, Omnicell MedGuard, and Pyxis ADS are hospital dispensing systems.

Which of the following could be used to prepare an ointment if another technician is using the ointment slab? A. A graduate B. A mortar C. Parchment paper D. Weighing paper

C. Parchment paper Rationale: Parchment paper may be used if an ointment slab is not available. After use, the parchment paper is discarded.

Which method of administration is used to provide medication to an unconscious patient? A. Inunction B. Inhalation C. Parenteral D. Peroral

C. Parenteral Rationale: An advantage of parenteral medication is that it is injected directly into the patient, and the patient does not need to be conscious.

Which of the following is not required on a prescription? A. Directions for use B. Medication name, strength, and quantity C. Patient's birth date D. Patient's name

C. Patient's birth date Rationale: A patient's birth date is not required on a prescription.

Which of the following pieces of patient information must be kept confidential in a hospital? A. Patient's hospital medical record B. Patient's hospital room C. Patient's medications D. Pharmacist or pharmacy technician's initials

C. Patient's medications Rationale: The medications a patient is receiving in either a hospital or retail pharmacy must be kept confidential.

Which of the following has been identified by MEDMARX as the leading cause of medication errors? A. Illegible handwriting B. Knowledge deficit C. Performance deficit D. Transcription inaccuracy

C. Performance deficit Rationale: MEDMARX has identified performance deficit as the largest cause of errors.

What type of inventory identifies the actual quantity of a specific medication on hand at a particular time? A. Biennial inventory B. Initial inventory C. Perpetual inventory D. Physical inventory

C. Perpetual inventory Rationale: A perpetual inventory is an ongoing inventory that identifies the quantity of a specific medication at a particular point in time.

What is the meaning of PPE? A. Peripheral parenteral equipment B. Peripheral portal elimination C. Personal protective equipment D. Prepackaged equipment

C. Personal protective equipment Rationale: PPE refers to personal protective equipment. Examples of PPEs include latex gloves, gowns, goggles, face masks, and shoe covers.

Who assigns a beyond-use date for a medication? A. Drug manufacturer B. FDA C. Pharmacy D. USP

C. Pharmacy Rationale: The pharmacy assigns a beyond-use date whenever a compound is prepared or repackaged. The USP provides the guidelines for beyond-use dating.

Which hospital committee is responsible for creating and maintaining a drug formulary? A. Nursing and pharmacy committee B. Pharmacy and budget committee C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee D. Product evaluation committee

C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Rationale: The pharmacy and therapeutics committee is responsible for developing a pharmacy formulary for an institution. The pharmacy and therapeutics committee is composed of physicians, nurses, pharmacists, and hospital administrators.

What hospital committee is responsible for creating and maintaining the drug formulary? A. Infection control committee B. Nursing and pharmacy committee C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee D. Product evaluations committee

C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Rationale: The pharmacy and therapeutics committee, composed of physicians, nurses, pharmacists, and administrators, determines the formulary based on the advantages and disadvantages of a medication and its cost effectiveness.

Who decides when an institution's formulary is to be updated? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services B. Hospital board of directors C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee D. The Joint Commission

C. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Rationale: The pharmacy and therapeutics committee, consisting of physicians, pharmacists, nurses, and hospital administration, will make a decision on the frequency of updating the institution's formulary.

What is the meaning of DAW 2 in billing a prescription to an insurance carrier? A. Brand dispensed as a generic B. Physician approved the use of a generic drug C. Physician approved the use of a generic drug; the patient requested brand name D. Physician requested brand name

C. Physician approved the use of a generic drug; the patient requested brand name Rationale: A DAW 2 means that a physician approved the dispensing of a generic drug, but the patient requested the brand name drug. A DAW means that the physician approved the dispensing of a generic drug. A DAW 1 indicates that the physician wants the patient to receive the brand name drug only. A DAW 5 means that the pharmacy has designated this drug as its generic drug of choice.

Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. Expiration date of prescription B. Patient's name C. Physician's DEA number D. Physician's name

C. Physician's DEA number Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required only on the hard copy of a prescription or controlled substance; the DEA number is not required on the prescription label of control substances.

Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. Directions for usage B. Drug name with strength and quantity C. Physician's DEA number D. Prescription or serial number

C. Physician's DEA number Rationale: DEA numbers are required only on the hard copy of a prescription for a controlled substance.

Which reference book is a compilation of package inserts? A. Drug Topics Red Book B. Facts and Comparison C. Physicians' Desk Reference D. USP-DI

C. Physicians' Desk Reference Rationale: The Physicians' Desk Reference contains information from the package inserts of more than 4000 prescription drugs.

Which of the following is an antidote for an excess of warfarin? A. Heparin B. Enoxaparin C. Phytonadione D. Protamine sulfate

C. Phytonadione Rationale: Phytonadione (vitamin K) is the antidote to the anticoagulant warfarin. Both heparin and enoxaparin are used to dissolve clots in the body and their antidote is protamine sulfate.

Drug manufacturers are required to print the warning "Must Be Diluted" on the container top for which of the following medications? A. Cephalexin suspension B. Digoxin liquid C. Potassium chloride injection D. Vincristine injection

C. Potassium chloride injection Rationale: The USP requires that potassium chloride injection contain this warning because potassium chloride injection should never be injected directly into a vein because it has the potential to cause an irregular heartbeat and possibly death.

Which type of drug interaction prolongs the effect of another drug? A. Addition B. Antagonism C. Potentiation D. Synergism

C. Potentiation Rationale: Potentiation prolongs the action of a drug through the use of another drug. Addition is the process in which the effects of two are equal to the sum of both of the drugs; synergism occurs when the effect of two drugs is greater than sum of the two medications.

Which of the following pieces of patient information must be protected by a computer system? A. Patient's height and weight B. Patient's religion C. Practitioner's name D. All of the above

C. Practitioner's name Rationale: Protected patient information includes the patient's name, address, and zip code; patient's telephone number, area code, fax number, and e-mail address; patient's date of birth, sex, and race; National Health Service number; name of the residential or nursing home (if appropriate); general practitioner's name; and details of dispensed medications, including the name, form, strength, quantity, quantity units, dosage regimen, and date of dispensing.

Which of the following terms refers to the requirements that patients, providers, or institutions must meet before the insurance company will approve diagnostic testing, hospital admissions, or inpatient or outpatient surgical procedures? A. Coordination of benefits B. Eligibility C. Preauthorization D. Waiting period

C. Preauthorization Rationale: Preauthorization refers to the requirements that patients, providers, or institutions must meet before the insurance company will approve diagnostic testing, hospital admissions, or inpatient or outpatient surgical procedures. Coordination of benefits prevents duplicate payment for the same service. Eligibility can be verified by contacting the "help desk" either over the telephone, through a voice-automated system, or electronically. A waiting period is the amount of time an individual must wait to become eligible for insurance coverage.

For which of the following drugs is it mandatory that a customer receive a PPI? A. Amoxicillin B. Lithonate C. Premarin D. Synthroid

C. Premarin Rationale: All prescriptions containing estrogens require the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient product insert (PPI).

Which pharmacy law prevents a prescription drug plan from requiring participants to use mail-order pharmacy only? A. Any Willing Provider Law B. Freedom of Choice Law C. Prescription Drug Equity Act D. Sherman Antitrust Amendments

C. Prescription Drug Equity Act Rationale: The Prescription Drug Equity Act requires PBMs to have a "brick and mortar pharmacy" in addition to providing a mail-order pharmacy service. The Any Willing Provider Law allows any pharmacy to participate in an insurance plan as long as it is willing to meet the conditions of the contract. The Freedom of Choice Law allows participants to ask a pharmacy to participate in an insurance plan, but the pharmacy must agree to the conditions of the plan. The Sherman Antitrust Laws promote free trade.

Which piece of pharmacy legislation makes it illegal for anyone but the drug manufacturer to reimport a drug into the United States? A. Medicare Modernization Act B. Orphan Drug Act of 1983 C. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 D. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

C. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 Rationale: The Prescription Drug Marketing Act addressed reimportation of medications and the dispensing of pharmaceutical samples.

Which of the following is not an input device for a computer? A. Bar code technology B. Keyboard C. Printer D. Touch screen applications

C. Printer Rationale: A printer is an output device.

Which of the following medications does not need to be in a child-resistant container? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Levothyroxine C. Pro-Air HFA D. Warfarin

C. Pro-Air HFA Rationale: Pro-Air HFA is an example of a metered-dose inhaler and does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant container.

Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocker? A. Coreg B. Inderal C. Procardia D. Tenormin

C. Procardia Rationale: Procardia (nifedipine) is a calcium channel blocker.

Which of the following may be a disadvantage of using a prime vendor? A. Extended price protection B. Fewer back orders C. Product quality may be inconsistent across the supplier's complete line of products D. Simplified paperwork in purchasing, receiving, and paying for the product

C. Product quality may be inconsistent across the supplier's complete line of products Rationale: The disadvantages of using a prime vendor include economic competition may be reduced over a time period, the pharmacy may become overly dependent on the supplier such that a change in the supplier would be disruptive to the pharmacy routines, prices may increase gradually if appropriate safeguards are not in place, and medication quality may be inconsistent across the supplier's complete line of products.

Which of the following medications would be used prophylactically in the treatment of migraine headaches? A. Butorphanol B. Maxalt C. Propranolol D. Sumatriptan

C. Propranolol Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a prophylactic agent used to prevent migraine headaches. Butorphanol (Stadol), Maxalt, and sumatriptan (Imitrex) are agents used to abort migraine headaches.

Which of the following medications would be indicated for a patient experiencing hyperthyroidism? A. Levothyroxine B. Liothyronine C. Propylthiouracil D. Thyroid

C. Propylthiouracil Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine, liothyronine, and thyroid are used to treat hypothyroidism.

Which of the following drugs would be administered to a patient if he or she had received an overdose of heparin? A. Aspirin B. Phytonadione C. Protamine sulfate D. Warfarin

C. Protamine sulfate Rationale: 1 mg of protamine sulfate will neutralize 90 to 120 units of heparin.

Which of the following would be considered examples of counseling under OBRA '90? A. Providing the patient with all reported side effects of the drug B. Providing the patient with the drug manufacturer's name C. Providing the patient with the name and description of the drug D. Providing the patient with the pharmacology and pharmacokinetics of the drug

C. Providing the patient with the name and description of the drug Rationale: Counseling a patient would include identifying the medication and its use, when and how to take it, and warnings about the drug and interactions with other medications and food.

Which of the following is not a type of key found on a computer keyboard? A. Control key B. Function key C. Punctuation key D. Typing key

C. Punctuation key Rationale: There are four basic types of keys on a computer keyboard, and they are typing keys (also known as alphabetic keys), numeric keypad, function keys, and control keys.

Which of the following drugs needs to be placed in a child-resistant container? A. Inhalation products B. Mebendazole tablets C. Ranitidine D. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

C. Ranitidine Rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is not among the drugs to be excluded from using child-resistant containers under the Poison Control Act of 1970.

Which pharmacy reference book contains drug costs? A. Blue Book B. Orange Book C. Red Book D. White Book

C. Red Book Rationale: The Drug Topics Red Book is a good source of drug costs. Information found in the Red Book includes emergency information, clinical reference guides, practice management and professional development, pharmacy and health care organizations, drug reimbursement information, manufacturer and wholesaler information, product identification, Rx product listings, OTC and nondrug products listing, and complementary and herbal product referencing.

Which of the following reference materials would contain information on a medication's cost? A. Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences B. Orange Book C. Red Book Drug Topics D. USP-NF

C. Red Book Drug Topics Rationale: The Red Book Drug Topics is available in both a print and online version that contains the latest drug costs.

What is the purpose of scanning a prescription? A. Filing a prescription B. Inventory management C. Reduction in prescription errors D. All of the above

C. Reduction in prescription errors Rationale: Scanning prescriptions can assist in reducing prescription errors.

Which of the following books would one refer to if he or she were instructed to compound a product and needed to find information on the proper process? A. Drug Facts and Comparisons B. PDR C. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy D. USP DI

C. Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy Rationale: Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy provides information regarding the entire practice of pharmacy (pharmacy abbreviations, math, pharmacology, pharmacy settings, equipment used, and how to compound various dosage forms). Drug Facts and Comparisons contains monographs about pharmaceuticals; the PDR is similar to Drug Facts and Comparisons, but it is a compilation of product inserts by the manufacturers to provide information to physicians. USP DI provides information on both labeled and unlabeled uses of medications and storage conditions and provides advice for pharmacists in counseling patients.

What is the purpose of postmarketing monitoring of new drugs? A. Ensuring GMP B. Monitoring the quality of new drugs C. Removal of unsafe drugs D. Testing for purity and effectiveness of new drugs

C. Removal of unsafe drugs Rationale: Post-monitoring of medications is a tool for quality assurance to ensure medications are pure, safe, and effective. Adverse side effects are monitored, and any potential for harm is noted. If the medication may have detrimental effects on an individual, it may be pulled from the market by the manufacturer or the FDA.

When a clinical study of an investigational drug is concluded, what is done with the remaining medication? A. Removed from the pharmacy shelves and destroyed B. Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the FDA C. Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the sponsor D. Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and stored

C. Removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the sponsor Rationale: Investigational drugs are medications that have not been approved by the FDA. They are medications that are being considered for approval by the FDA. Upon completion of the study, the investigational drugs are removed from the pharmacy shelves, inventoried, and returned to the sponsor.

What type of formulary is sometimes referred to as being selective? A. Closed formulary B. Open formulary C. Restrictive formulary D. Variable formulary

C. Restrictive formulary Rationale: A restrictive formulary is also known as a "selective formulary," "limited formulary," "partially closed formulary," or "managed formulary."

Which of the following medications is often not covered in a prescription drug plan for adults? A. Coumadin B. Naprosyn C. Retin-A D. Wellbutrin XL

C. Retin-A Rationale: Many plans consider Retin-A a cosmetic drug when prescribed for adults.

What condition may result if a child takes aspirin after being exposed to chickenpox? A. Glaucoma B. Herpes zoster C. Reye syndrome D. Toxic shock syndrome

C. Reye syndrome Rationale: Reye syndrome may develop if a child who has been exposed to the virus causing chickenpox takes aspirin. Tylenol is highly recommended for children instead of aspirin.

Which of the following is not a risk factor that could contribute to the human factor resulting in a medication error? A. Fatigue B. Noise C. Rule violations D. Stress

C. Rule violations Rationale: Human factors include fatigue, noise levels, poor lighting, poor management, and stress.

Which of the following forms is associated with hazardous materials? A. DEA Form 106 B. IND C. SDS D. PPI

C. SDS Rationale: A Safety Data Sheet must be provided to a purchaser of hazardous materials.

What type of documentation does OSHA require for pharmacies that handle hazardous chemicals? A. Manufacturer Safety Documentation Sheets B. Manufacturer Sheets for Documentation of Safety C. Safety Data Sheets D. Mixture Safety Documentation Sheets

C. Safety Data Sheets Rationale: Safety Data Sheets (SDS) are required by OSHA and must be provided by the manufacturer, importer, or distributor of a hazardous chemical in the workplace. They must be in English and must contain the following information: chemical and common names; if a mixture, the chemical and common names of the ingredients; physical and chemical characteristics; physical hazards; health hazards; route of entry into the body; OSHA permissible exposure limit; precautions for safe handling and use; procedures for cleanup of spills; emergency and first aid procedures; date of preparation of SDS or date of latest revision; and the name, address, and telephone number of the manufacturer, importer, or distributor.

Which of the following would not be found on a pharmacy technician's job description? A. General responsibilities B. Job title C. Salary D. Specific responsibilities, including internal and external contacts

C. Salary Rationale: A pharmacy technician's salary does not need to be found on his or her job description.

What is net profit? A. Sales - AWP B. Sales - AAC C. Sales - COGS - Expenses D. Sales - MAC + Expenses

C. Sales - COGS - Expenses Rationale: To calculate the net profit of a product, subtract the cost of the product and the expenses associated with the product from the retail price.

Which schedule is Stadol? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V

C. Schedule IV Rationale: Stadol is a Schedule IV drug.

Under which controlled drug schedule is zolpidem classified? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V

C. Schedule IV Rationale: Zolpidem (Ambien) is a Schedule IV drug under the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.

Which term refers to the document presented by the individual delivering an order that identifies the number of boxes or totes? A. Invoice B. Purchase order C. Shipper's manifest D. Statement

C. Shipper's manifest Rationale: The manifest is signed by the individual receiving the order to acknowledge the number of boxes, totes, or bags delivered. It does not acknowledge the merchandise in the containers is correct.

Which of the following is true regarding sign-on or access codes? A. All pharmacy staff members have the same level of security assigned to their access codes. B. Everyone uses the same code. C. Sign-ons identify the individual using the code. D. A technician does not need to sign off before someone else uses the same terminal.

C. Sign-ons identify the individual using the code. Rationale: Access codes should be unique to identify a specific user who has specific authorizations to perform specific functions. If a technician fails to sign off properly, then the next user will be using the previous user's identification. Using someone else's identification may result in disciplinary action.

Which of the following does not anything in common with the other three dosage forms? A. Emulsion B. Magna C. Solution D. Suspension

C. Solution Rationale: An emulsion, a magna, and a suspension are all examples of a dispersion. A solution is not a dispersion because the solute is evenly dissolved in the vehicle.

Which term refers to the vehicle that contains the dissolved drug? A. Solute B. Solution C. Solvent D. Syrup

C. Solvent Rationale: A solvent is the vehicle that contains the dissolved drug, a solute is the drug that is dissolved into the solvent, a solution contains both the solvent and solute, and syrup is an example of a solvent.

Which of the following drugs does not have an adverse interaction with antacids? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Minocycline C. Spironolactone D. Tetracycline

C. Spironolactone Rationale: Patients taking spironolactone (Aldactone) will not experience side effects if it is taken with an antacid. A patient taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro), minocycline (Minocin), or tetracycline with an antacid will find that both products chelate or bind together, resulting in a decreased effectiveness of the medication.

Which of the following orders calls for receiving a specific drug at a specified time each day? A. ASAP order B. prn order C. Standing order D. STAT order

C. Standing order Rationale: A standing order calls for receiving a specific drug at a specified time each day.

Who determines the eligibility requirements for the federally funded Medicaid program? A. Federal government B. Health and Human Services C. State government D. The Joint Commission

C. State government Rationale: Medicaid is a federally funded program that is administered by the states. Each state determines the eligibility requirements for participation.

Who is the person in whose name an insurance policy is held? A. Beneficiary B. Dependent C. Subscriber D. Patient

C. Subscriber Rationale: A subscriber is the policyholder. A beneficiary is the individual who may receive a cash payout on the death of the subscriber; the dependent is an individual covered under an insurance plan. The patient may either be a subscriber or a dependent on an insurance plan.

What term describes directions to a pharmacist on a prescription? A. DAW indicator B. Inscription C. Subscription D. Signa

C. Subscription Rationale: The subscription on a prescription is directions to a pharmacist and may include compounding, packaging, labeling, refills, and use of generic medication.

Which of the following drugs does not require blood work from a patient? A. Lithium B. Phenytoin C. Sulfasalazine D. Warfarin

C. Sulfasalazine Rationale: Sulfasalazine does not require monitoring through blood work. Patients taking lithium, phenytoin, and warfarin need to need to have frequent blood samples tested to ensure they are receiving the appropriate dose of medication.

What type of liquid is amoxicillin? A. Emulsion B. Solution C. Suspension D. Syrup

C. Suspension Rationale: Liquid amoxicillin is reconstituted with distilled water. The amoxicillin particles are dispersed in distilled water, which is a vehicle to introduce the amoxicillin into the body.

Which of the following liquid dosage forms should have an auxiliary label that states "Shake well"? A. Elixirs B. Syrups C. Suspensions D. All of the above

C. Suspensions Rationale: A suspension is a two-phase system in which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid vehicle, which may be oral, topical, or injectable. The suspended material should not settle rapidly and should pour freely. The auxiliary label "Shake well" prevents the suspended material from settling rapidly.

Which of the following does not belong in this group? A. Chantix B. Nicorette C. Synalgos DC D. Zyban

C. Synalgos DC Rationale: Snyalgos DC is a controlled substance analgesic. Chantix, Nicorette, and Zyban are indicated as smoking cessation agents.

What term describes the response when two or more drugs combine to provide a response that is greater than the sum of the two individual drugs? A. Additive effect B. Potentiation C. Synergistic effect D. None of the above

C. Synergistic effect Rationale: A synergistic effect is a joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual effects.

Which organization issued the "do not use" list? A. FDA B. ISMP C. TJC D. Vermont Oxford Network

C. TJC Rationale: The Joint Commission (TJC) issued the "do not use" list.

Which organization establishes standards of care for hospitals and long-term care facilities? A. CMS B. DEA C. TJC D. NABP

C. TJC Rationale: The Joint Commission accredits various health care organizations such as hospitals, long-term care facilities, home health care suppliers, and home infusion pharmacies.

What is the meaning of the Latin abbreviation "Rx" on a prescription? A. Insigna B. Sig C. Take D. Write on label

C. Take Rationale: Rx means to take a given product of a given strength and quantity.

Which of the following auxiliary labels would not be appropriate for a patient receiving a prescription for Naprosyn? A. Do not drink alcohol B. May cause drowsiness C. Take on an empty stomach D. Use caution with machinery

C. Take on an empty stomach Rationale: Naprosyn should not be taken on an empty stomach. It should be taken with food or milk.

When a pharmacist dispenses a Voluntary Formulary product when a prescription is written for a brand name product, how should the drug name appear on the label? A. Brand name B. Generic name C. The generic name followed by the words "generic for" followed by the brand name for which the prescription was written D. The brand name of the product prescribed followed by the generic name in parentheses

C. The generic name followed by the words "generic for" followed by the brand name for which the prescription was written Rationale: The generic name followed by the words "generic for" followed by the brand name of the drug prescribed should appear on the pharmacy label.

What does a pharmacy's inventory turnover rate indicate? A. The number of times in a week the inventory has been used and reordered B. The number of times in a month the inventory has been used and reordered C. The number of times in a year the inventory has been used and reordered D. The number of times in a year the inventory has been used and reordered directly from a specific drug manufacturer

C. The number of times in a year the inventory has been used and reordered Rationale: Inventory turnover rate identifies how well the pharmacy's inventory is being managed. Removing expired medications from the stock and reducing the on-hand quantity of medicine will improve a pharmacy's turnover rate and improve the profitability of the pharmacy.

Why would a pharmacy receive a noncompliance report? A. The pharmacy failed to maintain adequate controlled substance records and has been cited by the DEA on an audit. B. The pharmacy failed to properly fill out a Form 222. C. The pharmacy failed to purchase medications from a specific vendor, which had been negotiated by the GPO. D. The pharmacy purchased more drugs than it is permitted to based on its budget.

C. The pharmacy failed to purchase medications from a specific vendor, which had been negotiated by the GPO. Rationale: Noncompliance reports are a tool used to monitor savings and losses of a pharmacy when a group purchasing organization (GPO) has negotiated specific prices for pharmaceutical products with a specific vendor.

Who pays the freight charges when shipping terms note "FOB destination"? A. The buyer B. Refers to a negotiated contract between the manufacturer and wholesaler C. The seller D. The transportation company

C. The seller Rationale: The seller pays for the freight charges when the shipping is designated as "FOB".

Which of the following statements is true? A. Class A balances only have one pan to weigh powders. B. There is no need to place weights on a Class A balance because the weights are adjusted internally. C. The weight goes on the right pan, and the powder goes on the left pan. D. The weight goes on the left pan, and the powder goes on the right pan.

C. The weight goes on the right pan, and the powder goes on the left pan. Rationale: Class A balances are also known as class III balances; after tarring the balance with powder papers, the weights are placed on the right side of the balance using forceps, and the item to be weighed is placed on the left-hand pan.

Which of the following is true regarding penalties under the HIPAA privacy rule? A. They are enforced by the FDA. B. They only pertain to the pharmacy not the individual who violated the privacy rule. C. They provide for civil and criminal penalties that include both fines and jail time. D. All of the above

C. They provide for civil and criminal penalties that include both fines and jail time. Rationale: HIPAA penalties include both fines and jail time.

How does air blow in a horizontal laminar flow hood? A. Away from the operator B. Down toward the work area C. Toward the operator D. Up toward the HEPA filter

C. Toward the operator Rationale: Horizontal laminar flow hoods are used to prepare IVs and blow toward the operator; vertical laminar flow hoods are used to prepare chemotherapy agents and blow downward.

How many pairs of latex gloves should be worn when preparing IV admixtures? A. Zero B. One C. Two D. Three

C. Two Rationale: One pair of gloves is worn underneath the cuffs of the protective clothing, and the second pair of gloves goes over the top of the cuffs of the protective clothing.

Which reference book provides advice to pharmacists in counseling patients? A. Drug Facts and Comparisons B. USP DI, volume I C. USP DI, volume II D. USP DI, volume III

C. USP DI, volume II Rationale: USP DI, volume II, provides information to assist the pharmacist in counseling patients. Drug Facts and Comparisons provides information on brand, generic, orphan, and investigational medications. Also, Drug Facts and Comparisons provides drug monographs, drug identifications, and dosage calculations. USP DI, volume I, provides information on the labeled and unlabeled uses of medications. USP DI, volume III, contains state and federal requirements of medications.

Which of the following types of containers is a single-unit container intended for administration other than parenteral? A. Hermetic container B. Single-unit container C. Unit-dose container D. Unit-of-use container

C. Unit-dose container Rationale: The USP defines a unit-dose container as a single-unit container intended for administration other than parenteral. A hermetic container is impervious to air or gas. A single-unit container is designed to hold a quantity of drug product intended for administration as a single dose. A unit-of-use container contains a specific quantity of a drug product that is intended to be dispensed as such without further modification except for appropriate labeling.

What is the meaning of the acronym UTI? A. Upper tonsil infection B. Upper trachea infection C. Urinary tract infection D. Uterine tract infection

C. Urinary tract infection Rationale: UTI stands for urinary tract infection.

Which of the following is true regarding recapping needles? A. Direct the point of the needle toward the body. B. Remove used needles from disposable syringes by hand and do not bend, break, or manipulate the needles by hand. C. Use a one-handed "scoop" technique. D. Use both hands when recapping needles.

C. Use a one-handed "scoop" technique. Rationale: Never recap used needles using both hands or perform any other technique that involves directing the point of the needle toward the body. Do not remove used needles from disposable syringes by hand and do not bend, break, or manipulate the needles by hand.

Which of the following should a pharmacy technician avoid doing when receiving a new prescription? A. Cross-check the information on the written prescription with the patient. B. Verify hard-to-read handwriting with the pharmacist or physician. C. Use a trailing zero when the dose written for is a whole number. D. Verify the patient has not experienced any new drug allergies and that all patient profile information is correct.

C. Use a trailing zero when the dose written for is a whole number. Rationale: A trailing zero should never be used with a whole number because it may be misread and therefore result in a dosing error of 10%.

Which of the following statements concerning medication entries to a patient profile is not true? A. Mnemonics and short codes speed up the order entry process. B. There are separate pathways to enter different medication classifications. C. Using mnemonics prevents the wrong medication from being entered on a patient's profile. D. Typing in part of a drug name can search medications.

C. Using mnemonics prevents the wrong medication from being entered on a patient's profile. Rationale: The only way to prevent the wrong medication from being entered into the patient's profile is through entering it carefully into the patient's profile and having it checked by either another pharmacy technician or pharmacist.

What type of copayment is a different dollar amount based on the type of drug being dispensed? A. Fixed copayment B. Percentage copayment C. Variable copayment D. None of the above

C. Variable copayment Rationale: Variable copayment may be affected by the cost of the prescription or if it is considered a lifestyle drug by the managed care provider. Variable copayments may occur if a patient requests the brand name drug when the physician has given permission for a generic to be used. A fixed copayment means that a patient pays the same amount of co-pay regardless of the cost of the prescription; percentage copay indicates that a patient will pay a given percentage on every prescription regardless of the cost.

What is the brand name for enalapril? A. Accupril B. Monopril C. Vasotec D. Zestril

C. Vasotec Rationale: Enalapril is the same as Vasotec. The generic name for Accupril is quinapril; Monopril is fosinopril, and Zestril is lisinopril.

Which of the following medications is not measured in international units? A. Heparin B. Insulin C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin E

C. Vitamin B Rationale: International units are a form of measure to indicate activity of a biological product. Vitamin B is measured in milligrams.

Which vitamin deficiency may result in scurvy? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C Rationale: Scurvy is a deficiency of vitamin C. Deficiencies of vitamin A result in night blindness, vitamin B1 in beriberi, and vitamin D in rickets.

How often should a patient change his or her Catapres TTS patch? A. Once a day B. Every other day C. Weekly D. Monthly

C. Weekly Rationale: Catapres TTS is changed weekly.

How often should a patient change his or her Catapres TTS patch? A. Once per day B. Every other day C. Weekly D. Monthly

C. Weekly Rationale: Catapres TTS is changed weekly.

Which of the following Roman numerals would be used to indicate a quantity of 40? A. LX B. XXXX C. XL D. XXXVV

C. XL Rationale: The Arabic number 40 can be expressed as XL as a Roman numeral. LX is the Roman numeral for 60. XXXX and XXXVV do not follow the rules for expressing Roman numerals.

If a patient is hypokalemic, the patient has A. low sodium. B. high sodium. C. low potassium. D. high potassium.

C. low potassium. Rationale: The hypo- prefix means low, and the root word kalemia means potassium.

After a complete review of a properly maintained patient profile in an ambulatory pharmacy, a pharmacy technician is able to identify all of the following except: A. allergies that may indicate medication should not be identified. B. existing medication orders for the same medication. C. the patient's method of payment for any portion of the prescription that managed care does cover. D. physical disabilities that may require special attention.

C. the patient's method of payment for any portion of the prescription that managed care does cover. Rationale: A patient profile provides information such as patient information (e.g., home address, birth date, telephone numbers), drug and food allergies, medical conditions and disabilities, a complete listing of medications prescribed for the patient, OTC products the patient is taking, and third-party provider information. A patient profile does not indicate how a patient will pay (cash, check, debit card, or credit card) for his or her prescriptions.

The cost of 100 tablets is $8.50. What would the retail price be if there is 30% gross profit? A. $2.55 B. $8.50 C. $8.80 D. $11.05

D. $11.05 Rationale: The problem can be solved two ways; multiply $8.50 × 0.3 = $2.55 (the amount of profit) and add it to the cost ($8.50 + $2.55 = $11.05) or multiply the cost by 1.3 ($8.50 × 1.3 = $11.05).

What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100 tablets, AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets? A. $6.06 B. $8.14 C. $13.01 D. $13.63

D. $13.63 Rationale: Gross profit is equal to the selling price minus the price paid for the product. The acquisition price is the price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30 tablets ($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63.

The cost of 100 tablets of a particular medication is $2.00. What would the retail price be if there was a 30% gross profit? A. $0.60 B. $2.00 C. $2.30 D. $2.60

D. $2.60 Rationale: Multiply the cost ($2.00) by the desired profit (0.3), which yields a profit of $0.60. Adding the profit ($0.60) to the cost ($2.00) will result of a selling price of $2.60.

Listed below are the expenses for a pharmacy for 1 month. Pharmacist's salary (2): $6400 Pharmacy technician's salary (3): $1920 Purchases: $200,000 Rent: $25,000 Electricity: $1250 Gas: $850 Supplies: $150 Water: $125 Software maintenance: $100 Security (alarm system): $225 Liability insurance: $750 Licensing: $350 What is its overhead for 1 month? A. $47,360 B. $200,000 C. $237,120 D. $247,360

D. $247,360 Rationale: $247,360 is the overhead for 1 month. Overhead is defined as the sum of all of the expenses. Because there are two pharmacists and three technicians working in the pharmacy, one must multiply the salary of each of those positions by the number of employees in that position.

A pharmacy has the following expenses: Pharmacist salaries: $100,000 Pharmacy technician salaries: $25,000 Pharmacy inventory: $300,000 Rent: $75,000 Electricity: $12,000 Gas: $6,000 Telephone: $20,000 Trash removal: $3,000 Licenses: $2,000 Equipment: $20,000 Supplies: $10,000 How much in sales is required for a 15% net profit? A. $573,000 B. $601,650 C. $630,300 D. $658,950

D. $658,950 Rationale: Add all the costs together and multiply the sum by 1.15: $573,000 × 1.15 = $658,950.

Which of the following solutions is the most diluted? A. 25% B. 20% C. 2.5% D. 0.25%

D. 0.25% Rationale: The smaller the number, the weaker or more dilute the substance.

How many days would a prescription of 30 tablets last if the directions were "i tab tid ac"? A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10

D. 10 Rationale: "i tab tid" means take 1 tablet three times per day. 30 tablets/3 tablets/day = 10 days' supply.

How many days would 40 capsules of a medication last if the directions were "i cap qid"? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10

D. 10 Rationale: "qid" means 4 times per day. 40 capsules/4 capsules per day would yield 10 days.

How much dextrose does 1 L of D10W contain? A. 10 mg B. 100 mg C. 1 g D. 100 g

D. 100 g Rationale: D10W stands for 10% dextrose dissolved in water. w/v% is the number of grams dissolved in 100 mL of solution. Set the problem where 10 g/100 mL = X g/1000 mL, X= 100 g.

How many capsules should be dispensed for the following prescription? Tetracycline 250 mg one month supply 1 cap po qid A. 25 capsules B. 30 capsules C. 100 capsules D. 120 capsules

D. 120 capsules Rationale: A 1-month supply of medication would require 120 capsules.

How many milliliters is equal to 4 fl oz? A. 40 mL B. 60 mL C. 100 mL D. 120 mL

D. 120 mL Rationale: 4 fl oz is approximately equal to 120 mL. One fluid ounce is equal to 30 mL.

How many milliliters of a 1:50 (w/v) stock solution can be prepared from 1 pint of a 5% stock solution? A. 96 B. 192 C. 720 D. 1200

D. 1200 Rationale: Using the formula (IV)(IS) = (FV)(FS), where 5% is the initial strength, 1 pint (480 mL) is the initial volume, and 1:50 (2%) is the final strength, the final volume would be 1200 mL.

A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of lactated Ringer solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many mL will the patient receive in 1 hour? A. 6.25 mL B. 12.5 mL C. 62.5 mL D. 125 mL

D. 125 mL Rationale: A flow rate is defined as the number of milliliters infused over a period of time (normally hours). 1000 mL /8 hr = 125 mL in 1 hour.

What is the flow rate of 1000 mL of Ringers lactate to be infused over 8 hours? A. 6.25 mL/hr B. 12.5 mL/hr C. 62.5 mL/hr D. 125 mL/hr

D. 125 mL/hr Rationale: Flow rate is a specific volume/unit of time (1000 mL/8 hr = 125 mL/hr).

According to the USP, how long can a low-risk compounded product be refrigerated? A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 7 days D. 14 days

D. 14 days Rationale: USP 797 allows that a low-risk compounded product be stored at room temperature for 48 hours, for 14 days if it is in a "cold environment," and 45 days if it is in a frozen state.

A pharmacy has prescription sales of $5.4 million and an average inventory value of $375,000. How many times was the pharmacy's inventory turned in that year? A. 0.69 turns B. 1.44 turns C. 6.9 turns D. 14.4 turns

D. 14.4 turns Rationale: Sales/Average inventory = Inventory turns: $5,400,000/$375,000= 14.4 turns.

A 1000-mL IV bag was hung at 0800 and is to run at 100 mL/hr. What time would the next bag be needed? A. 1200 B. 1400 C. 1600 D. 1800

D. 1800 Rationale: Calculate how long the bag will last (Volume/Rate or 1000 mL/100 mL per hour), which is 10 hr. Using military time, add 10 hr to 0800 hr to get 1800 hr.

You have received a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg po. The patient is unable to chew or swallow capsules or tablets. How many milliliters should be given in each dose if the concentration is 125 mg/5 mL? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

D. 20 Rationale: The problem can be solved using a proportion: 125 mg/5 mL = 500 mg/X mL, where X = 20 mL.

If 500 mL of D5W is to be infused over 6 hours and the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, what will rate in gtt/min be? A. 1 B. 2 C. 10 D. 20

D. 20 Rationale: Using the following formula: Rate (mL/hr) × Drop factor (gtt/mL) × (1 hr/60 min) = gtt/min. Substituting the following (500 mL/6 hr) × (15 gtt/mL) × (1 hr/60 min) = 20.83 gtt/min. 20.83 gtt/min is rounded down to 20.

You have received a prescription for Robitussin AC, and the signa is "1 tsp qid for 10 day." How much would you dispense? A. 50 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. 200 mL

D. 200 mL Rationale: One teaspoon is equal to 5 mL, and the patient is receiving four doses per day for 10 days (5 mL/dose × 4 doses/day × 10 days = 200 mL).

How many capsules are needed to fill a prescription for 34 days for prazosin 1 mg/capsule, 2 caps tid × 34 d? A. 34 B. 68 C. 112 D. 204

D. 204 Rationale: 2 capsules/dose × 3 capsules/day × 34 days = 204 capsules.

What would be the infusion rate for a 50 mg/mL magnesium sulfate solution to provide 1.2 g/hr? A. 0.4 mL/hr B. 2.5 mL/hr C. 20 mL/hr D. 24 mL/hr

D. 24 mL/hr Rationale: Convert grams to milligrams (1.2 g × 1,000 mg/g = 1,200 mg). Use a proportion to calculate the volume to be infused (50 mg/1 mL = 1200 mg/X mL, where X = 24 mL).

A dermatologist prescribes 2 oz of the following compound: LCD 2% Salicylic acid 5% Yellow petrolatum qs ad The pharmacy prepares a 500-g bulk container and repackages it in 2-oz containers. How much salicylic acid is needed to compound 500 g? A. 0.5 g B. 2.5 g C. 5 g D. 25 g

D. 25 g Rationale: Multiply 500 g by 5% (500 g × 0.05 = 25 g).

A dermatologist prescribes 2 oz of the following compound: LCD2% Salicylic acid5% Yellow petrolatum qs ad The pharmacy prepares a 500-g bulk container and repackages it in 2-oz containers. How much salicylic acid is needed to compound 500 g? A. 0.5 g B. 2.5 g C. 5 g D. 25 g

D. 25 g Rationale: Multiply 500 g by 5% (500 g × 0.05 = 25 g).

A pharmacy technician receives the following prescription: Rx: Amoxicillin 500 mg#14 Signa: i cap po bid x 7 days The pharmacy does not have any 500-mg capsules in stock but does have 250-mg capsules in stock. How many 250-mg capsules should be dispensed? A. 7 B. 14 C. 21 D. 28

D. 28 Rationale: Because you are dispensing capsules that are half the strength, you will need to double the number of capsules per dose; therefore, the total quantity dispensed must be doubled.

Gentamicin 120 mg in 100 mL D5W is administered over 30 minutes every 8 hours with a 10 drop kit. What will the gtt/min be? A. 2 B. 4 C. 16 D. 33

D. 33 Rationale: Solve using the following formula: (Rate)(Kit size)(1 hr/60 min) = gtt/min, where (100 mL/0.5 hr)(10 gtt/mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 33 gtt/min.

Which of the following capsule sizes contains the smallest quantity? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4

D. 4 Rationale: The number size is inversely proportionate to the amount it will contain; the smaller the number, the greater the capacity of the capsule.

How many grams of a 10% and 1% ointment should be used to make 45 g of a 2% ointment? A. 5 g of the 1%; 40 g of 2% B. 5 g of the 1%; 40 g of the 10% C. 5 g of the 10%; 40 g of the 2% D. 5 g of the 10%; 40 g of the 1%

D. 5 g of the 10%; 40 g of the 1% Rationale: This is an alligation problem. Draw a tic-tac-toe table and place the highest concentration (10%) in the upper left-hand corner, the lowest concentration (1%) in the lower left-hand corner, and the quantity to be prepared in the middle (45 g of 2%). Perform the following: 10 - 2 = 8 parts of the 1% solution and 2 - 1 = 1 part of the 10% solution. Add the parts together (8 + 1 = 9 parts); calculate the amounts of each by concentration (10%:1/9 × 45 g = 5 g; 1%:8/9 × 45 g = 40 g).

Which of the following sizes is not available for an insulin syringe? A. 0.3 mL B. 0.5 mL C. 1.0 mL D. 5.0 mL

D. 5.0 mL Rationale: Insulin syringes can contain insulin units ranging from 30 units (3/10 of a milliliter) to 50 units (Lo-dose contains 1/2 mL) to 100 units (1 mL). Insulin syringes do not come in sizes greater than 1 mL.

Rx Codeine phosphate 30 mg/tsp Tussin syrup 30 mL Elixophyllin qs 240 mL Sig: 5 mL qid pc hs If 5 mL of Tussin syrup contains 100 mg of guaifenesin, how many milligrams of the drug would be taken daily? A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 10 D. 50

D. 50 Rationale: 240 mL of the prescription is to be prepared. The patient is to receive four doses of 5 mL daily or a total of 20 mL. To calculate the amount of Tussin to be taken daily, solve using a proportion (30 mL of Tussin/240 mL of total solution = X mL of Tussin/20 mL of total solution, where X = 2.5 mL of Tussin). Calculate the amount of guaifenesin (100 mg of guaifenesin/5 mL of Tussin solution = X mg of guaifenesin/2.5 mL, where X = 50 mg).

Convert 10 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit. A. -12 B. 32 C. 42 D. 50

D. 50 Rationale: Solving the problem using the formula 9C = 5F - 160 yields an answer of 50°F.

How many grams of 20% zinc oxide ointment would contain 10 g of zinc oxide? A. 5 g B. 10 g C. 20 g D. 50 g

D. 50 g Rationale: Use the formula: Final weight × percent (expressed as a decimal) = Amount of active ingredient Both the percent (20%) and the amount of active ingredient (10 g) are provided in the problem. Placing this information in the equation, one finds: Final weight = Amount of active ingredient/percent (as a decimal) Final weight = 10 g/0.2 or 50 g

You have a 10% solution of dextrose. How many grams of dextrose are in 500 mL of this solution? A. 50 mg B. 500 mg C. 5000 mg D. 50 g

D. 50 g Rationale: w/v% is defined as the number of grams/100 mL. Calculate using the following formula: Final volume × Percent (expressed as a decimal) = Amount of active ingredient: 500 mL × 0.1 = 50 g.

How many grams of boric acid are required to make 4 fl oz of the following boric acid solution? Boric acid 50 g Purified water qs to make 1000 mL A. 0.006 g B. 0.06 g C. 0.6 g D. 6 g

D. 6 g Rationale: Using a proportion, calculate the amount found in 4 fl oz (120 mL): 50 g/1000 mL = X g/120 mL, where X = 6 g.

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate product is available as 15 g/fl oz. The product contains 20% sorbitol. How much sorbitol will the patient ingest with each 30-mL dose? A. 60 mg B. 6.0 mL C. 0.6 g D. 6.0 g

D. 6.0 g Rationale: One can calculate the amount of active ingredient in a compound by multiplying the final volume by the percentage of ingredient (expressed as a decimal). 30 mL × 0.2 = 6 g.

The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy: Hctz 50 mg #30 i tab po qod c OJ How many days will the prescription last the patient? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

D. 60 Rationale: 30 tablets are dispensed, but 1 tablet is being taken every other day; therefore, it will last 60 days.

How many drops per milliliter does a "mini-drip" system provide? A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60

D. 60 Rationale: A mini-drip or microdrip system yields 60 drops/mL.

For how long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been signed by the pharmacist in charge? A. 7 days B. 10 days C. 14 days D. 60 days

D. 60 days Rationale: A signed DEA Form 222 is valid for 60 days from the date it was signed.

Which of the following would not use a standard or macrodrop IV tubing kit? A. 10 gtt/mL B. 15 gtt/mL C. 20 gtt/mL D. 60 gtt/mL

D. 60 gtt/mL Rationale: Drop factors of 10, 15, and 20 gtt/mL require a macrodrop IV kit because of the large size of the drops. A microdrip is used for 60 gtt/mL in which the drops are extremely small.

What is the maximum number of tablets per minute that a Baker Cell system may count and dispense? A. 100 tablets B. 250 tablets C. 500 tablets D. 600 Tablets

D. 600 Tablets Rationale: A Baker Cell automated dispensing system may dispense up to 600 tablets per minute.

What size container would you use in dispensing 240 mL of a liquid medication? A. 2 oz B. 4 oz C. 6 oz D. 8 oz

D. 8 oz Rationale: There is 30 mL to a fluid ounce. 240 mL/30 mL per fluid ounce = 8 oz.

Which of the following percents is considered a wrong dose error? A. 1% B. 3% C. 5% D. 8%

D. 8% Rationale: A wrong dose error occurs when a dose is above or below the intended dose by more than 5%.

How many teaspoon doses are in 1 pint of elixir? A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96

D. 96 Rationale: There is 480 mL in a pint solution, and a teaspoon dose is equal to 5 mL. 480 mL/5 mL/dose = 96 doses.

What is MedWatch? A. A Drug Utilization Review program available for senior citizens and their caretakers who will inform them of possible drug interactions between their diet and medications B. A program of the DEA regarding inappropriate prescribing of controlled substances by physicians C. A program to inform patients of the availability of refills and when they can be refilled based on their current insurance carrier D. A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that can pose a serious health threat

D. A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that can pose a serious health threat Rationale: MedWatch, the FDA Medical Products Reporting Program, is a system to which professionals and consumers can report serious adverse reactions after a product has been placed on the market.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation qs ad? A. A sufficient quantity for the left ear B. A sufficient quantity for the right ear C. A sufficient quantity for the right eye D. A sufficient quantity to make up to

D. A sufficient quantity to make up to Rationale: qs ad are directions to the pharmacist in compounding a prescription "to make up to" a given weight or volume of a substance.

What factor(s) influence(s) the effect of a drug on an individual? A. Age B. Disease C. Gender D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: A person's age affects the physical condition of the organs. A person's disease state can influence other organ systems, such as the liver and kidneys, and whether a medication may be contraindicated with a specific disease. An individual's gender can affect how a medication is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, or excreted from the body.

Which of the following result if a pharmacy technician demonstrates negligence as a pharmacy technician? A. Jail B. Monetary fine C. Restrictions on the ability to practice as a pharmacy technician D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: A pharmacy technician found guilty of negligence may find restrictions to practice as a pharmacy technician, being suspended of the ability to practice as a pharmacy technician, having monetary fines imposed, revoking his or her ability to practice as a technician, and possibly receiving a jail sentence.

Which of the following would have an NPI number? A. Employers B. Health plans C. Health care providers D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: All employers, health plans, and health care providers must have an NPI number to be reimbursed from a third-party provider.

Which of the following pieces of information should be on a prescription in an outpatient pharmacy but would not be required on a medication order for a hospitalized patient? A. Patient's address B. Physician's office address and telephone number C. Refill information D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: All of the above-mentioned information is required on a prescription filled in an outpatient pharmacy but not on inpatient medication order. Information found on an inpatient medication order would the patient's medical record number, room number, and bed number.

Which of the following is a condition for the dispensing of an investigational drug in a hospital? A. Clinical services, such as patient education, staff in-service training, and the monitoring and reporting of adverse drug reactions B. Must be permitted if all other methods of treatment have failed C. Physicians initiate the process of prescribing investigational drugs D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: All of these conditions must be met for an investigational drug to be dispensed from a hospital pharmacy.

Which of the following processes or procedures would be used to reduce prescription errors in a pharmacy? A. Bar scanning of labels B. Be aware of look-a-like names of medications C. Using digital imaging of the medication D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: All of these methods may reduce the possibility of medication errors.

Which of the following pharmacy resources can be used to verify the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill the prescription? A. Generic and brand names on unit stock container B. Drug names on the original prescription C. NDC number D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: All of these resources can be used to reduce medication errors.

Which of the following medications requires that a patient product insert (PPI) be provided to patients when they receive a prescription? A. Ampicillin B. Estrogens C. Phenytoin D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Ampicillin and phenytoin have been added to the list of medications (e.g., estrogens, oral contraceptives) that require that a patient product insert be provided to patients receiving these medications.

What advice should be given to a patient taking metronidazole? A. Avoid alcohol B. Take with food C. Take all of the medication D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: An adverse reaction may occur if alcohol is consumed in any strength or form; stomach irritation is less likely to occur if it is taken with food. Because metronidazole is an antibiotic, it should be taken until completion to ensure the infection has been eradicated.

Who may generate an ePHR? A. Hospital B. Pharmacy C. Physician D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: An ePHR may be generated by physicians, patients, hospitals, and pharmacies.

Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a container of tetracycline? A. Avoid sunlight B. Do not take 1 hr before or 2 hr after taking dairy products or antacids C. Take all medication D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: An individual may experience a severe rash as a result photosensitivity to the sun if he or she is taking tetracycline. A patient should take tetracycline 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal, which will prevent food and the medication from binding together. Antibiotics should be taken until they are completed.

Which of the following drugs should be avoided in the treatment of patients with asthma? A. Antihistamines B. Beta-blockers C. NSAIDs D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Antihistamines should not be used; beta-blockers may constrict the bronchi; and many patients are sensitive to aspirin, NSAIDs, penicillin, cephalosporins, and sulfas.

What factors should be considered when dealing with elderly patients? A. Auditory issues B. Chronic conditions C. Multiple medications D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: As a patient ages, his or her ability to hear properly is reduced; the patient may begin to develop multiple disease states; as a result of multiple disease states, the patient is required to take multiple medications.

Which of the following can be done using pharmacy automation? A. Compounding medications B. Dispensing medications C. Distributing medications D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Automation can compound, package, dispense, distribute, and store medication.

Which of the following is/are an advantage(s) of automation in the practice of pharmacy? A. Accuracy in dispensing B. Inventory control C. Saves time D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Automation improves the accuracy in dispensing, saves money in inventory, and saves time in the prescription processing.

Which of the following is true regarding bar codes? A. Bar codes identify a drug by its NDC number. B. Bar codes identify a drug by its expiration date. C. Bar codes identify the lot number of the drug. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Bar codes can reduce medication errors by identifying the drug through its NDC number, expiration date, and lot number.

Why must care be followed when refilling an ADS system? A. To ensure the right drug is being placed in the correct hopper B. To ensure the hoppers are kept clean to that mistakes are not being made when the medicine is being counted C. To ensure the NDC number on the hopper matches the NDC number of the medication being placed in the hopper D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Care must be taken when refilling ADS machines to reduce the possibility of a medication error.

Which of the following workplace issues has been identified as a cause of medication errors by MEDMARX? A. Multitasking B. Similar medication labels C. Stress D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Common workplace issues include noise, stress, multitasking, similar medication labels (font size and color of font), and medication labels that are difficult to read.

Which of the following are used in telepharmacy? A. Fiberoptics B. High-speed computers C.Modems D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Components of telepharmacy include standard telephone service, high-speed computers linked via modems, phone lines, direct connection lines, fiberoptics, satellites, and sophisticated peripheral equipment and software.

What type of information is contained in a computer file containing data? A. Addresses B. Insurance carriers C. Medical records D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Computer files contain addresses, insurance carriers, medical records, and transactions data.

Which of the following is a way that a computer can reduce prescription errors? A. Allow drug information to be up to date B. Allow patient information to be up to date C. Establish standardized methods of communicating drug orders automatically to reduce errors D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Computer systems can reduce prescription errors by ensuring both patient and drug information are up to date; establishing closed-drug formulary system to limit choices; implementing standardized methods of communicating drug orders; correcting confusing drug names, labeling, and packaging; instituting methods of clearly labeling all drug containers to the point of their administration; and creating standards for intravenous solutions, drug concentrations, doses, and administration times.

Which of the following functions can be performed through automation that assists in inventory management? A. Purchases and usage B. Outdated inventory C. Tracking costs D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Computerized inventory functions are used to track medication costs, purchases and usages, wastage, discarded or outdated inventory, and items that have been loaned or borrowed from another pharmacy. In addition, they are able to generate purchase orders for the pharmacy when the inventory of a specific medication reaches a specific level.

Which of the following tasks do computers perform? A. Communication B. Input and output C. Processing and storage D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Computers do all of these activities.

Which of the following are considered by the pharmacy and therapeutics committee in selecting formulary medications? A. Drug abuse potential B. Drug cost C. Drug effectiveness D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Criteria used in selecting a drug for a formulary includes safety, effectiveness, abuse potential, drug interactions, therapeutic duplication, medication errors, and cost.

According to the ISMP, what problem may occur by using the abbreviation "H.S." on a prescription? A. Mistaken for half-strength B. Mistaken for every hour C. Mistaken for hour of sleep D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Dosing errors may occur and therefore the words should be written out on a medication order instead of using the abbreviation "H.S."

Which of the following can be accessed through the pharmacy terminal? A. Drug Facts and Comparisons B. MEDLINE C. Physicians' Desk Reference D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Drug Facts and Comparisons can be accessed at www.factsandcomparisions.com, MEDLINE can found at www.nlm.nih.gov, and the Physicians' Desk Reference can be accessed at www.pdr.net.

Which of the following is a goal of inventory management? A. Minimize capital charge on average inventory B. Minimize shrinkage, breakage, and obsolescence of inventory C. Provide an adequate stock of pharmaceuticals and supplies D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Goals of inventory management include provide an adequate stock of pharmaceuticals and supplies; reduce unexpected stock-outs and temporary shortages, which may affect patient care; reduce carrying cost (financial investment) in drug products; minimize costs associated with placing orders to the wholesaler; minimize time spent on purchasing functions; minimize capital charge on average inventory; minimize shrinkage, breakage, and obsolescence of inventory; and reduce purchasing dollars spent by selecting products based on organizational formulary requirements, bioequivalence, and cost.

What should one tell a patient with a prescription of griseofulvin suspension? A. Be careful of sunlight; it may cause photosensitivity. B. Shake well. C. Store at room temperature. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Griseofulvin may cause photosensitivity, resulting in a severe sunburn or rash. Because it is a suspension, it should be shaken to prevent precipitation and needs to be stored at room temperature.

Which of the following does HIPAA require covered entities to do? A. Create privacy practices that are appropriate for the services offered. B. Educate employees about privacy practices. C. Have a privacy official oversee the privacy practices. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: HIPAA requires health care organizations to create privacy practices that are appropriate for the services offered, educate employees about privacy practices, have a privacy official oversee the privacy practices, carefully control breaches of privacy, and notify patients about how their information can be disclosed or used.

Which of the following is a type of medication error? A. Administrative B. Dispensing C. Prescribing D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: In addition to errors caused by the physician prescribing the wrong medication, the pharmacist dispensing the incorrect medication, or a nurse administering a medication incorrectly, a physician could make an error in his or her diagnosis of the patient's condition.

Which of the following is/are The Joint Commission National Patient Goals? A. Improved communication among caregivers B. Improved patient identification C. Standardizing and limiting the number of drug concentrations available D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: In addition to the goals mentioned here, The Joint Commission recommends medication reconciliation with patients, e-prescribing, and observing the "five rights of medication administration."

Which of the following work environment practices can be done to reduce medication errors? A. Automate and barcode all fill procedures. B. Maintain a clean, organized, orderly, and well-lit area. C. Provide appropriate computer applications and hardware. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: In addition to these practices, the pharmacy should provide storage areas with clear drug labels on the shelves and encourage prescribers to use common terminology and safe abbreviations.

Which of the following are advantages of optical mice? A. Increased tracking resolution for smoother response B. No moving parts, less wear, and lower chance of failure C. No special surface such as a mouse pad is required D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: In addition to three advantages mentions, there is no way for dirt to enter the mouse and harm the sensors.

Which of the following should be done when a pharmacy receives a manufacturer's drug recall? A. Check the pharmacy shelves for any medication with the affected lot number and expiration date. Place this medication in an isolated area of the pharmacy and follow the directions provided by the drug manufacturer. B. Notify all patients who have received the prescription. C. Notify all physicians who have prescribed this medication from your pharmacy. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: In the event of a drug recall, the pharmacy must determine if it has any of the affected medication on the shelves, the patient and physician should be notified, and directions by the drug manufacturer should be followed.

Which of the following may be found in a formulary? A. An approved listing of medications that may be used within an institution or organization B. Approved pharmacy abbreviations C. Policies and procedures D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Information contained in a formulary may include any of the above plus medical guidelines for prescribing of specific medications, protocols, nutritional products available, and dosing schedules for medications.

Which of the following pieces of information would be found on a prescription drug card? A. BIN B. Help desk telephone number C. Plan code D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Information found on a prescription drug card includes the following: BIN, plan code, group code, issuer, ID, subscriber (cardholder) name, primary care provider (optional) copays (may be identified on the card but not required), and help desk telephone number.

Which of the following needs to appear on a unit-dose log? A. Drug manufacturer B. Drug manufacturer lot number C. Manufacturer's expiration date D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Information required to be found on a unit-dose log includes the date the unit dose was prepared, drug (generic name), medication strength, dosage form, quantity prepared, drug manufacturer, drug manufacturer lot number, manufacturer's expiration date, pharmacy assigned beyond use date, pharmacy lot number, pharmacy technician's initials, and pharmacist's initials.

Who is responsible for ensuring that medications are stored at the proper temperature in the pharmacy? A. Certified pharmacy technician B. Inventory pharmacy technician C. Pharmacist D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: It is the responsibility of the entire pharmacy team to ensure medications are stored at the proper temperature.

Which of the following is a method used by managed care companies to control prescription drug costs? A. Higher member copayments B. Mail-order pharmacy C. Mandatory generic dispensing D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Managed care organizations control costs through using restrictive pharmacy networks, using mail-order and Internet pharmacies, having prescription claims submitted electronically, establishing higher member copayments, using tiered copayments, requiring prior authorization on select medications or drug classifications, engaging in competitive buying, establishing benefit limitations, and requiring mandatory generic dispensing.

Which of the following can be used to address medication errors? A. Conduct educational programs. B. Discuss medication errors during staff meetings. C. Publish summaries of the medication errors in staff newsletters. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Medication errors are taken very seriously because of the possible harm they may cause. The current approach of trying to understand the cause of the error can result in a reduction in errors if individuals are aware of the situation.

Which of the following sources of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill the prescription? A. Check the name of the medication on the prescription with the name on the medication bottle. B. Check the NDC number on the prescription label and the medication bottle. C. Check the original prescription for the strength of the medication and make sure it is the same as the strength on the bottle. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Medication errors can occur because of look-alike medication names and similar labeling. Checking all of the information mentioned may reduce prescription errors.

Which of the following is an NCPDP Standard for electronic prescribing processes? A. Billing Unit Standard B. Medicaid Subrogation C. Universal Claim Form D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: NCPDP standards include the following: Batch Transaction Standard, Billing Unit Standard, Financial Information Reporting Standard, Formulary and Benefit Standard, Medicaid Subrogation, Member Enrollment Standard, Payment Reconciliation Payment Tape Format, Pharmacy Identification Cards, Post-adjudication Standard, Prescription Transfer Standard, Telecommunication Standard, Universal Claim Form, and Medication History Standard.

Which of the following are indications for NSAIDs? A. Analgesic B. Antiinflammatory C. Antipyretic D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: NSAIDs are indicated for use as an analgesic or antiinflammatory agent or to reduce fever as an antipyretic.

Which of the following is an advantage of oral medications? A. Ease of administration B. Lower cost C. Product availability D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Oral medications are easy to administer and do not require special skills or techniques, they are less expensive as a dosage form, and the majority of the medications are available as an oral dosage form.

Which of the following should patients know about their medication? A. Brand or generic names B. How to take the medication C. Why they are taking the medication D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Patients should know the names of their medications, why they are taking the medications, what the medications look like, when and how they should take the medications, common side effects, and what to do if they miss a dose.

Which of the following is/are a way(s) that pharmacy information systems support both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians? A. Advice and support for other health care professionals B. Management of prescribed medications C. Promotion of healthy lifestyles D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Pharmacy information systems support the pharmacy staff through the management of prescribed medications, management of long-term conditions, management of common ailments, promotion of healthy lifestyles, and providing advice and support for other health care professionals.

Which of the following tasks might a pharmacy technician be asked to perform on a computerized pump involving IV admixtures? A. Entering patient orders into the system B. Setting up correct medication solutions C. Operating the device D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Pharmacy technicians enter patient orders into the system, set up correct medication solutions, set up log sheets for quality assurance, and operate the device.

Which of the following duties might a pharmacy technician perform with a robotic dispensing system? A. Cart fill B. Inventory control C. Stocking D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Pharmacy technicians may perform the following tasks with a robotic dispensing system: packaging, stocking, inventory control, cart fill, manual fill, and troubleshooting the system.

Which of the following is an advantage of a plastic bag IV parenteral system? A. The plastic bag is light and cheap to transport. B. The plastic bag takes less room for storage and disposal. C. The quantity remaining in the bags is easy to read. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Plastic is less expensive than glass, the pliability of the bag requires less storage space, and the bags are transparent.

What is an advantage of a point-of-sale computer system? A. Better inventory control B. Improved security C. Up-to-date pricing D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Point-of-sale computer systems provide better inventory control, improved security, up-to-date pricing, and strategic merchandising. In addition, they provide insurance companies with better data that allow for quicker processing of prescription claims, provide customized reports, and improve cash flow.

Which of the following methods may a pharmacy use to address medication errors? A. Conduct educational programs. B. Discuss medication errors as part of regular meetings. C. Publish summaries of errors that have occurred in staff newsletters. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Preventing medication errors can be facilitated through educational means. Providing this information to the staff draws attention to the seriousness of the problem and ways to prevent these errors from occurring in the future.

Which of the following decisions must be made at the time an IV drug is being chosen during a computerized order entry process in the hospital? A. The appropriate dosage form for the route of administration B. The correct dosage for the amount being prepared at that moment of time C. The correct dilute solution D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Process control devices require the pharmacy technician to operate them and to set up the correct medication solutions and log sheets for quality assurance.

Which of the following items should be reviewed when receiving a new prescription from a patient? A. The date of the prescription is valid. B. The name, strength, and medication dosage are appropriate for the patient. C. The prescriber's information is valid. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Reviewing the prescription upon receipt is the first step in eliminating prescription errors.

Which of the following is an advantage of a computer dispensing system? A. As prescription information is being entered into the computer system, the information is transferred to the dispensing system, resulting in an increase in the speed of the medication processing. B. Daily printouts can be generated to identify the amount of medication on the shelf, which can be used in inventory management. C. Reduction in medication errors D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Speed, accuracy, and inventory management are the three primary advantages of computer dispensing systems.

Which of the following can be done by a pharmacy employee to help reduce fatigue and help prevent medication errors? A. Avoid caffeine. B. Exercise regularly. C. Obtain enough sleep each night. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The Healthcare Provider Service Organization (HPSO) recommends that both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians obtain enough sleep each night, exercise regularly, take breaks at work, eat properly, and avoid alcohol and caffeine. These steps can reduce employee fatigue and therefore reduce the possibility of medication errors from occurring.

Which of the following is a criterion for a drug to be placed on the ISMP's "do not crush" list? A. Enteric-coated tablet B. Film-coated tablet C. Skin irritant D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The ISMP has established a list of medications that should never be crushed before administration because of a variety of reasons, including slow-release dosage form, extended-release dosage form, enteric-coated dosage form, may irritate the mucous membranes, rate of absorption may be increased, coating of tablet may release the drug over a period of time, taste, skin irritant, liquid filled sublingual dosage form, film-coated dosage form, effervescent tablet, teratogenic effect, and local anesthesia of the oral mucosa.

Which of the following dosage forms should not be crushed? A. Film coated B. Liquid filled C. Sublingual D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The ISMP has established a list of medications that should never be crushed before administration because of a variety of reasons, which include the following: slow-release dosage form, extended-release dosage form, enteric-coated dosage form, may irritate the mucous membrane, rate of absorption may be increased, coating of tablet may release the drug over a period of time, taste, skin irritant, liquid filled, sublingual dosage form, film-coated dosage form, effervescent tablet, teratogenic effect, and local anesthesia of the oral mucosa.

Which of the following is an explanation for why a drug manufacturer would recall a particular drug product? A. Drug batch was contaminated B. Drug labeling is wrong C. Drug product was not packaged or produced properly D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The Pure Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defined both adulteration and misbranding. Adulteration is concerned about the medication's purity, and misbranding involves truthful disclosure through labeling. The drug batch being contaminated is an example of adulteration. Incorrect drug labeling and the drug product being packaged or produced incorrectly are examples of misbranding.

Which of the following have drug manufacturers done to reduce medication errors? A. Assist the FDA and USP in establishing bar code standards. B. Develop packaging that differentiates the different strengths of the same medication. C. Select drug names that are not similar to current brand or generic names. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The drug manufacturers are being cognizant of the medication errors and are assisting in the reduction of medication errors.

To what does an NDC number on a prescription bottle refer? A. Drug product B. Drug manufacturer C. Quantity package D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The first five digits of an NDC number refer to the drug manufacturer, the next four digits identify the drug product, and the final two digits identify the packaging of the product.

Which of the following may affect a pharmacy's costs? A. Pharmacy efficiency B. Pharmacy's scope of services C. Pharmacy volume of prescriptions filled D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: The following factors may affect a pharmacy's costs: pharmacy efficiency in processing prescriptions, the number of prescriptions filled, and the pharmacy's scope of and quality of services and factor prices.

Which of the following must appear on a unit-dose product label? A. Dose strength of the medication B. Expiration date of the medication C. Medication name D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Unit-dose labels require the name and strength of the medication, expiration date of the medication, manufacturer's name, and lot number.

Which of the following is a goal of technology used in pharmacies? A. Improve the quality of prescription filling processes. B. Process prescriptions faster. C. Reduce errors in cost-effective ways. D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: Work that was previously performed in a pharmacy by pharmacists and pharmacy technicians is being performed through technology and automation, allowing both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians to focus on other patient-related areas.

Which of the following can be used to treat asthma? A. β2 agonists B. Cromolyn C. Corticosteroids D. All of the above

D. All of the above Rationale: β2 agonists, cromolyn, and corticosteroids are all treatments for asthma.

Who is responsible for maintaining the inventory stock in the pharmacy? A. Certified pharmacy technician B. Pharmacist C. Pharmacy technician D. All pharmacy staff

D. All pharmacy staff Rationale: All pharmacy employees are responsible to ensure the correct medications and quantities are being maintained in the pharmacy.

What is the name used to submit prescription claims manually? A. ICD-9 B. Practice management program form C. Universal claim form D. Any of the above

D. Any of the above Rationale: The universal claim form (also known as CMS Form 1500) is used to bill Medicare part B by a pharmacy.

Which type of agent prevents the growth of bacteria but does not kill the bacteria? A. Antineoplastic B. Antifungal C. Bactericidal D. Bacteriostatic

D. Bacteriostatic Rationale: Antineoplastics are agents used to prevent the development, proliferation, and growth of abnormal cells; antifungal agents prevent the spread of fungus and eliminate it; bactericidal agents kill bacteria.

Which of the following medications will not have a drug interaction with oral contraceptives? A. Antibiotics B. Antifungal agents C. Benzodiazepines D. Beta-blockers

D. Beta-blockers Rationale: Beta-blockers do not have a drug interaction with oral contraceptives. Antibiotics reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives from interference of the enterohepatic cycle. Antifungal agents decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives because of an increased metabolism of hormones. Benzodiazepines increase the central nervous system effects of oral contraceptives.

Which of the following drug classifications will not interact with oral contraceptives? A. Antibiotics B. Anticonvulsant agents C. Antifungal agents D. Beta-blockers

D. Beta-blockers Rationale: Beta-blockers do not have a drug interaction with oral contraceptives. Antibiotics, anticonvulsants, and antifungal agents may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for prednisone 20 mg but accidentally dispenses propranolol 20 mg. The lead pharmacy technician notices the error before the pharmacist checks the prescription. What should the lead technician do? A. Check the stock bin to determine if additional propranolol tablets were incorrectly placed in the prednisone bin. B. Correct the error before the pharmacist discovers it. C. Inform the pharmacy technician of the error and have the technician correct the error. D. Both a and c

D. Both a and c Rationale: Whenever an error is discovered, it is best to inform the individual of the situation and have him or her correct it if possible. This will allow the person to learn from his or her error. Checking the stock bin may prevent additional errors from occurring.

Which of the following automated systems is commonly used to manage controlled substances? A. Baker cells B. Bar coding C. Pyxis machine D. Both b and c

D. Both b and c Rationale: Bar coding is used to identify the name, strength, dosage form, lot number, and expiration date of a medication and is one of the more common methods to manage controlled substance levels. Pyxis systems are used in decentralized systems to solve medication management issues that include narcotic diversion and poor record keeping.

Which of the following may happen to a pharmacy technician for violating HIPAA? A. Employee counseling B. Employment termination C. Receive a fine D. Both b and c

D. Both b and c Rationale: Pharmacy technicians must not reveal any patient information outside of the pharmacy or else they may be subject to employment termination, a monetary fine, or both.

What type of container should be used when packaging parenteral medications? A. Glass B. Pyrogen free C. Sterile D. Both b and c

D. Both b and c Rationale: USP 797 was established to prevent harm to patients that could result from microbial contamination, excessive bacterial endotoxins, unintended chemical and physical contaminants, and ingredients of inappropriate quality in sterile compounding.

What is the meaning of the acronym COW? A. Cash on waiting B. Cardio-obstructive window C. Chronic obstructive wheezing D. Computer on wheels

D. Computer on wheels Rationale: COW refers to computer on wheels, which is a movable computer used in hospitals where the point of care is facilitated. The pharmacist attempts to address, identify, resolve, and prevent drug-related problems with the COW.

What is the meaning of the acronym CPOE? A. Certified physician-ordered examination B. Certified physician order entry C. Computerized patient order entry D. Computerized physician order entry

D. Computerized physician order entry Rationale: CPOE is an acronym for computerized physician order entry, with which a physician is able to download medication orders and prescriptions to a pharmacy.

Which of the following is not a task a pharmacy technician would perform? A. Counting medication B. Extemporaneous compounding C. Reconstituting medications D. Counseling a patient

D. Counseling a patient Rationale: Pharmacy technicians perform technical tasks in the pharmacy; counseling is considered a judgmental task performed only by pharmacists.

Which of the following is an example of an angiotensin II antagonist? A. Capoten B. Coreg C. Coumadin D. Cozaar

D. Cozaar Rationale: Cozaar is an example of an angiotensin II antagonist.

Which of the following is not an example of a sound-alike, look-alike drug? A. CeleBREX-CeleXA B. CeleXA-Cerebyx C. CeleXA-ZyPREXA D. Cymbalta-CeleXA

D. Cymbalta-CeleXA Rationale: CeleBREX-CeleXA, CeleXA-Cerebyx, and CeleXA-ZyPREXA have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors because of their sound-alike or look-alike names. Cymbalta and CeleXA have not had medication errors attributed to them because of sound-alike or look-alike names.

What term refers to the amount of money a patient must pay in a given time period before the third-party insurer will make a payment? A. AWP + dispensing fee B. Capitation C. Copayment D. Deductible

D. Deductible Rationale: AWP and capitation + dispensing fee are both types of third-party reimbursement formulas. A copayment is a predetermined amount of money or a percentage of money that one is responsible for paying on every prescription. A deductible is a yearly predetermined sum of money payable before the insurer will begin making payments to an individual or institution.

Which government agency oversees OSHA? A. Department of Education B. Department of Health and Human Services C. Department of Justice D. Department of Labor

D. Department of Labor Rationale: The Department of Labor is responsible for overseeing laws affecting safety in the workplace. The Department of Justice oversees the DEA.

Which of the following drug classifications would not be included on automatic stop orders in a hospital? A. Antibiotics B. Anticoagulants C. Antihistamines D. Diabetic medications

D. Diabetic medications Rationale: Medications for the treatment of diabetes are not included on automatic stop orders in hospitals.

What are the two methods of pharmacy claims submission to third-party payers? A. Electronic and e-mail B. Electronic and fax C. Electronic and FedEx D. Electronic and hard copy

D. Electronic and hard copy Rationale: Online adjudication (electronic) is the method most commonly used to submit payments to insurance carriers. In certain situations, a hard copy of the claim form (Universal Claim Form) may be required to be submitted for payment.

Which of the following is not a requirement of HIPAA's privacy rules? A. Covered entities must have a privacy official. B. Employees must be educated about privacy practices. C. Patients must be notified about the use of their private information. D. Employees are obligated to promptly notify their employers of injuries.

D. Employees are obligated to promptly notify their employers of injuries. Rationale: Employees are required to notify their employers immediately when they are injured on the job in case worker's compensation is filed.

How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy? A. Monthly B. Twice per year C. Yearly D. Every 2 years

D. Every 2 years Rationale: A biennial inventory is required of all controlled substances by the DEA every 2 years.

How often must an inventory of control substances be taken? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Yearly D. Every 2 years

D. Every 2 years Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that a pharmacy perform a biennial inventory of all controlled substances stocked in a pharmacy. An exact count must be performed on Schedule II medications, and an estimated count must be done on Schedules III to V. An institution may perform an inventory more frequently if required by either state law or organizational policy.

Which of the following would not be found on a CSAR? A. Amount of medication administered B. Amount of medication wasted C. Date and time of the administration of a drug D. Expiration date of the drug administered

D. Expiration date of the drug administered Rationale: The amount of medication administered, amount of medication wasted, and date and time of the administration of a drug are required on a Controlled Substance Administration Record (CSAR), which is used to document controlled substance usage in a hospital or long-term care institution.

Which agency supervises the development, testing, purity, safety, and effectiveness of both prescription and OTC medications? A. Consumer Product Safety Commission B. Drug Enforcement Agency C. Federal Trade Commission D. Food and Drug Administration

D. Food and Drug Administration Rationale: These are functions of the FDA.

Which of the following drugs must be taken on an empty stomach 30 minutes before the first meal or beverage of the day? A. Calcium B. Estrace C. Evista D. Fosamax

D. Fosamax Rationale: Fosamax should be taken on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before the first meal or beverage of the day.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation dtd? A. Daily tablet dosing B. Discontinue drug therapy C. Discuss temperature daily D. Give of such doses

D. Give of such doses Rationale: "dtd" is a Latin abbreviation meaning "give of such doses."

A patient presents a prescription and asks that the medication be dispensed in an E-Z open container. What should be done? A. Call the physician to get his or her permission to dispense the medication in an EZ-open container. B. Check the box in the patient's profile that he or she has requested an E-Z open container. C. Fill the prescription and dispense it in an E-Z open container. D. Have the patient sign the back of the prescription indicating that he or she has requested an E-Z open container.

D. Have the patient sign the back of the prescription indicating that he or she has requested an E-Z open container. Rationale: The Poison Prevention Act of 1970 allows for a patient to request a prescription in an E-Z open container. Having the patient sign the back of the original prescription demonstrates that the patient has requested the E-Z open container and helps reduce the pharmacy's liability if an accidental poisoning occurs.

What should a pharmacy technician do while processing a prescription if he or she receives a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen? A. Bypass the screen and continue to process the prescription. B. Contact the physician and ask that a different drug be prescribed. C. Inform the patient that he or she cannot fill the prescription because the physician made an error. D. Inform the pharmacist of the message.

D. Inform the pharmacist of the message. Rationale: Pharmacy technicians perform technical tasks; responding to a potential contraindication is a judgment decision, which only pharmacists can perform.

What is the correct interpretation of the following signa: 10 mg MS IM q 4h prn pain? A. Inhale 10 mg of morphine sulfate every 4 hours as needed for pain. B. Insert 10 mL of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain. C. Inject 10 mg of morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed for pain. D. Inject 10 mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain.

D. Inject 10 mg of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain. Rationale: The abbreviations used and their meaning are: MS (morphine sulfate); IM (intramuscularly); q (every); 4h (4 hr); prn (as needed) pain. The verb "inject" was chosen because of the route of administration.

What is the meaning of the signa "i gtt ou tid ud"? A. Instill 1 drop in each ear three times a day as directed. B. Instill 1 drop in each eye two times a day as directed. C. Instill 1 drop in each eye three times a day as needed. D. Instill 1 drop in each eye three times a day as directed.

D. Instill 1 drop in each eye three times a day as directed. Rationale: i (Roman numeral for 1) gtt (drop) ou (each eye) tid (three times per day) ud (as directed).

Which of the following interpretations of the signa "ii gtt os bid" is correct? A. Instill 2 drops in right ear twice a day. B. Instill 2 drops in right eye twice a day. C. Instill 2 drops in left ear twice a day. D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice a day.

D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice a day. Rationale: "Ⅱ" is the Roman numeral for 2, "gtt" is drops, "os" is the left eye, and "bid" is twice per day.

Which of the following interpretations of the signa "ii gtt bid os" is correct? A. Instill 2 drops in right ear twice per day. B. Instill 2 drops in left ear twice per day. C. Instill 2 drops in right eye twice per day. D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice per day.

D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice per day. Rationale: "os" means left eye, which is the only difference among all of the interpretations.

What does the acronym PAR affect in the practice of pharmacy? A. Compounding B. Customer service C. Drug utilization evaluation D. Inventory management

D. Inventory management Rationale: PAR stands for periodic automatic replacement and is used in inventory management in the practice of pharmacy.

Which of the following is a benefit of health information technology? A. Adverse events occur because of a strain on health care personnel if workflow becomes complicated. B. Medication errors involve mislabeled barcodes and unclear (confusing) computer screens. C. Patient safety risks have been identified during implementation of health information technology if implementation is not carefully planned and followed. D. It will be possible track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care.

D. It will be possible track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care. Rationale: Benefits include improved patient care, increased efficiency and productivity, improved communication and health care delivery, and improvement in reimbursement processes and will be able to track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care.

Which of the following would not be used in extemporaneous compounding? A. Class A balance B. Compounding slab C. Graduate cylinder D. Laminar flow hood

D. Laminar flow hood Rationale: Laminar airflow hoods are used to prepare sterile products. Extemporaneous compounds are not sterile products. A class A balance, a compounding slab, a graduate cylinder, spatulas, and a mortar and pestle are a few of the pieces of pharmacy equipment used in extemporaneous compounding.

Which of the following would require a potassium supplement? A. Aldactone B. Dyazide C. Dyrenium D. Lasix

D. Lasix Rationale: An individual taking Lasix as a diuretic may lose potassium and require a potassium supplement. Aldactone, Dyazide, and Dyrenium are potassium-sparing diuretics.

Which of the following ophthalmic products should be refrigerated? A. Apraclonidine B. Brimonidine C. Brinzolamide D. Latanoprost

D. Latanoprost Rationale: Latanoprost (Xalatan) needs to be refrigerated after opening.

Which of the following is considered a "high-alert" medication? A. Amoxicillin B. Atorvastatin C. Fluoxetine D. Levothyroxine

D. Levothyroxine Rationale: The Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) has identified levothyroxine as being involved in a very large number of prescription errors.

Which of the following is not a Schedule II medication? A. Hydromorphone B. Meperidine C. Oxycodone D. Lorazepam

D. Lorazepam Rationale: Hydromorphone (Dilaudid), meperidine (Demerol), and oxycodone (OxyContin) are Schedule II medications. Lorazepam (Ativan) is a Schedule IV medication.

What does hypoglycemia mean? A. High blood pressure B. High blood sugar C. Low blood pressure D. Low blood sugar

D. Low blood sugar Rationale: Hypo means low, gly means sugar, and emia means blood.

Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D

D. Medicare Part D Rationale: Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage (Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that provides additional services at a higher cost.

Which of the following pieces of information is not required on a medication order label? A. Generic and brand name of the medication B. Medication expiration date C. Pharmacist's name or initial D. Medication order refill number

D. Medication order refill number Rationale: Prescription orders are processed in retail or mail-order pharmacies and receive a prescription number. On the other hand, medication orders are processed in a hospital and are not given a prescription number.

What is the generic name for Glucophage? A. Glimepiride B. Glipizide C. Glyburide D. Metformin

D. Metformin Rationale: Brand names and their generics are as follows: Glucophage—metformin, Amaryl—glimepiride, glipizide—Glucotrol, and Micronase—glyburide.

Which of the following is not an example of a sound-alike, look-alike drug? A. Aciphex-Accupril B. Adderall-Inderal C. Alprazolam-lorazepam D. Metformin-methadone

D. Metformin-methadone Rationale: Aciphex-Accupril, Adderall-Inderal, and alprazolam-lorazepam have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors because of their sound-alike or look-alike names.

What system of measurement is used to weigh ingredients in the United States? A. Apothecary B. Avoirdupois C. English D. Metric

D. Metric 5Rationale: The metric system is the approved system of measurement for pharmacy.

Which group of individuals does TRICARE cover? A. Children B. Disabled C. Financially burdened D. Military dependents

D. Military dependents Rationale: TRICARE is a comprehensive health benefits program that covers the dependents of men and women in the military.

Which of the following organizations represent all 50 boards of pharmacy? A. APHA B. ASHP C. CMS D. NABP

D. NABP Rationale: The National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) represents all 50 state boards of pharmacy. The NABP does not have any regulatory ability; however, it is responsible for ensuring the state boards of pharmacy are administering examinations that are appropriate for pharmacists seeking licensure and the reciprocation of pharmacists' licenses between states.

Which pharmacy organization was founded by pharmacy technicians, run by pharmacy technicians, and promotes the profession of pharmacy technicians? A. AAPT B. APHA C. ASHP D. NPTA

D. NPTA Rationale: The National Pharmacy Technician's Association (NPTA) is the only pharmacy technician organization run and promoted by pharmacy technicians for pharmacy technicians. The American Association of Pharmacy Technicians (AAPT), the America Pharmaceutical Association (APHA), and the American Society of Healthcare Pharmacists (ASHP) allow pharmacy technicians as members.

Which of the following medications is not indicated for osteoporosis? A. Actonel B. Evista C. Fosamax D. Naprosyn

D. Naprosyn Rationale: Naprosyn is not indicated for osteoporosis.

Who may recommend an OTC product to a patient? A. All pharmacy technicians B. All PTCB-certified technicians C. All technicians who have completed continuing education in OTC products D. None of the above

D. None of the above Rationale: An individual who recommends a product to a patient is performing a judgmental duty, which only a pharmacist may do.

What organ would be affected if a patient was experiencing rhinitis? A. Bladder B. Ear C. Eye D. Nose

D. Nose Rationale: Rhinitis is a runny nose.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of centralized automation? A. Ability to track expiration dates B. Improved efficiency of dispensing functions C. Less time required for pharmacists to perform checking functions D. Not able to stock all dosage forms such as injectables, bulk products, or refrigerated items

D. Not able to stock all dosage forms such as injectables, bulk products, or refrigerated items Rationale: Disadvantages of centralized automation includes the cost of the equipment; there may be remodeling and other costs; and some systems do not have the ability to stock certain drugs, such as injectables, bulk products, or refrigerated items.

What does NPO mean on a prescription or medication order? A. Do not refill B. Do not place in mouth C. Do not repeat D. Nothing by mouth

D. Nothing by mouth Rationale: "NPO" means that the patient is not to receive anything by mouth, which means no food, liquid, or medication to be taken orally.

Which organization is responsible for overseeing the policies and procedures in a pharmacy preparing and dispensing hazardous drugs or substances? A. CDC B. CMS C. FDA D. OSHA

D. OSHA Rationale: OSHA is concerned with employee safety and therefore oversees the preparation, dispensing, and disposition of hazardous chemicals and drugs.

Which organization is responsible for overseeing the policies and procedures in handling hazardous substances in the pharmacy to protect the employee? A. DEA B. FDA C. TJC D. OSHA

D. OSHA Rationale: OSHA is responsible to ensure the safety and health of all employees at work.

Which organization has regulations involving nuclear pharmacy? A. DOT B. EPA C. FDA D. OSHA

D. OSHA Rationale: OSHA regulations apply to nuclear pharmacy. Nuclear pharmacy is a specialty area of pharmacy for which special regulations at the state level have been established.

Which organization is concerned about employee safety? A. HIPAA B. TJC C. OBRA D. OSHA

D. OSHA Rationale: OSHA stands for the Occupational Safety and Hazards Act, which is concerned with employee safety. HIPAA stands for the Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act, which is concerned with patient confidentiality. TJC is The Joint Commission, which is responsible for establishing standards for hospitals, nursing homes, long-term care facilities, and ensuring that the standards are maintained. OBRA is the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, which requires drug utilization review and that an offer to counsel is to be made to every customer.

Which law ensures a safe environment for employees? A. ADA B. Any Willing Provider C. OBRA D. OSHA

D. OSHA Rationale: The Occupational Safety and Health Act was enacted to protect employees in the workplace and reduce the possibility of employees being injured at work.

A compounding pharmacy does not have a proper eyewash station on site. Which regulatory agency would cite the pharmacy with a violation? A. DEA B. EPA C. FDA D. OSHA

D. OSHA Rationale: This would be an OSHA violation because an employee could be injured if something got into his or her eye during compounding and he or she was unable to wash the eye.

What is the generic name for Patanol? A. Brimonidine B. Ciprofloxacin C. Latanoprost D. Olopatadine

D. Olopatadine Rationale: Olopatadine is the generic name for Patanol. Brimonidine is generic for Alphagan, ciprofloxacin is generic for Ciloxan, and latanoprost is generic for Xalatan.

Who should have access to the pharmacy's computerized narcotic records? A. All pharmacy employees B. All pharmacists C. All pharmacy technicians D. Only pharmacists and pharmacy technicians who are involved with record keeping

D. Only pharmacists and pharmacy technicians who are involved with record keeping Rationale: Appropriate security clearance is necessary for controlled substance control and should be limited to only pharmacists and pharmacy technicians who are involved with the record keeping.

What is Microsoft Windows? A. Central processing unit B. Computer hardware C. Input device D. Operating system

D. Operating system Rationale: Microsoft Windows is an example of an operating system.

Which of the following is an advantage of ordering directly from a drug manufacturer for your medications? A. Dependent on shipping companies for delivery of product B. Large amount of money is invested at one time with the drug manufacturer C. Large storage space area is needed D. Ordering is only done periodically

D. Ordering is only done periodically Rationale: Ordering is done only when it is needed and therefore is not on a regular basis.

What does Medicare Part B cover? A. Hospice care B. Hospital care C. Nursing facility care D. Outpatient services

D. Outpatient services Rationale: Medicare Part B covers outpatient services, physician services, and durable medical equipment. Medicare Part A covers hospital, nursing facility, home health, hospice, and inpatient care. Medicare Part C (Medicare + Choice) provides health care options in addition to those covered under Medicare Parts A and B. Medicare Part D covers prescription medications.

Who develops the formulary for a hospital? A. Board of directors of the hospital B. FDA C. GPO D. P&T committee

D. P&T committee Rationale: The pharmacy and therapeutics (P&T) committee, which is composed of physicians, pharmacists, nurses, and administrative personnel, develops the formulary for a hospital.

What is the name of a company that administers drug benefit programs? A. Employer B. HMO C. MAC D. PBM

D. PBM Rationale: A PBM is a pharmacy benefit manager.

Which of the following abbreviations would not be used for the administration of a parenteral medication? A. IA B. IM C. IV D. PO

D. PO Rationale: PO means by mouth, and oral medications are not a parenteral dosage form.

Which of the following is not considered a scheduled medication, which includes maintenance doses that are administered in a standard, repeated cycle of frequency? A. BID B. Q4H C. QID D. PRN

D. PRN Rationale: The ISMP does not consider the following as regularly scheduled times for maintenance medication: STAT and NOW doses, first doses and loading doses, one-time doses, specifically timed doses, on-call medications, time-sequenced or concomitant medications, medications administered at specific times to ensure accurate drug levels, PRN medications, and investigational drugs.

What Medicare component allows for the reimbursement of prescription medications from a retail pharmacy? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D

D. Part D Rationale: In 2006, Medicare reimbursed retail pharmacies for prescription medication for those patients enrolled in Medicare part D.

Which of the following pieces of information is not needed on a patient's medication profile? A. Administration route for each medication B. Medication's start date C. Name and strength of the medication D. Patient's social history

D. Patient's social history Rationale: A patient's profile includes the name, strength, dosage form, route of administration, frequency of administration, and start date of the medication. The patient's medical record would contain the social history of the patient to include marital status and alcohol, caffeine, tobacco, and drug usage.

Which of the following organizations administers a certification examination for pharmacy technicians? A. Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) B. American Pharmacist Association (APHA) C. American Society of Health System Pharmacists (ASHP) D. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)

D. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) Rationale: The Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) administers one of the two national pharmacy technician certification examinations; the other organization is the NHA.

Who provides pharmacy services under a health care plan? A. Managed care B. Managed care organization C. Managed care providers D. Pharmacy benefit manager (PBM)

D. Pharmacy benefit manager (PBM) Rationale: A PBM focuses on the pharmacy services provided under a health care plan. The PBM contracts with an insurer to provide prescription drugs to members usually through community pharmacies.

What type of inventory is performed to determine the value of the medications in a pharmacy? A. Biennial inventory B. Initial inventory C. Perpetual inventory D. Physical inventory

D. Physical inventory Rationale: A physical inventory is done at least once a year in a pharmacy to determine the actual value of the pharmacy. The inventory value is calculated by multiplying the cost of each medication by the total number of units (e.g., tablets, capsules, milliliters, grams).

Which instrument should be used to measure a volume less than 1.0 mL? A. Beaker B. Conical graduate C. Cylindrical graduate D. Pipette

D. Pipette Rationale: Beakers and graduates are not precise enough to measure a small volume such as 1.0 mL. A measuring device cannot have a capacity greater than five times the amount of volume to be measured.

What is the nonproprietary name for Deltasone? A. Lithium B. Methylprednisolone C. Prednisolone D. Prednisone

D. Prednisone Rationale: Prednisone is the generic name for Deltasone. The generic names for the other products are follows: lithium—Eskalith, methylprednisolone—Medrol, prednisolone—Pediapred.

Which of the following drugs is not a form of estradiol? A. Climara B. Estrace C. Estraderm D. Premarin

D. Premarin Rationale: Premarin is conjugated estrogens, unlike the other three products, which are different dosage forms of estradiol.

What should be done in preparing a prescription for etoposide? A. Flush the remaining contents down a sink or toilet. B. Wear protective clothing if you are allergic to etoposide. C. Place labels on the container so it has a professional appearance. D. Prepare it in a biological safety cabinet.

D. Prepare it in a biological safety cabinet. Rationale: Etoposide needs to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet because it is a plant alkaloid used in the treatment of cancer.

Which of the following is not required on a prescription label for a controlled substance? A. Directions for use B. Medication name C. Pharmacy's address D. Prescriber's DEA number

D. Prescriber's DEA number Rationale: A prescriber's DEA number does not need to appear on the prescription label; it does need to be on the hard copy of the prescription.

Which of the following telephone calls should not be handled by a pharmacy technician? A. Patients calling to transfer prescriptions to the pharmacy B. Patients calling in refills C. Patients who have no more refills and ask you to call their doctor D. Prescribers' calls

D. Prescribers' calls Rationale: Pharmacy technicians cannot accept new telephoned prescriptions from a physician's office.

What is a medication order called when it is presented to a community pharmacy? A. Inscription B. MAR C. Patient profile D. Prescription

D. Prescription Rationale: Prescriptions are medication orders written by a physician to be obtained through a community or mail-order pharmacy.

Which pharmacy law prohibits the sale or trading of drug samples or the distribution of samples to persons other than those licensed to prescribe them? A. HIPPA B. OBRA '87 C. OBRA '90 D. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

D. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 Rationale: HIPAA was concerned with patient privacy, OBRA '87 established standards of care for nursing homes, OBRA '90 required that an offer be made to each patient with a prescription, and the Prescription Drug Marketing Act prohibited drug reimportation and distribution of medication samples to anyone other than those licensed to prescribe them.

Which of the following is considered to be a legend drug? A. BTC medication B. Exempt narcotic C. OTC medication D. Prescription drug

D. Prescription drug Rationale: The federal legend states the following: "Federal Law Prohibits the Dispensing of this Drug without a Prescription." Prescription drugs are legend drugs.

What does a red C indicate on a prescription? A. Prescription has been canceled by the physician B. Prescription has been copied and transferred to another pharmacy C. Prescription has been processed by the pharmacy and has been picked up by the patient D. Prescription is a controlled substance

D. Prescription is a controlled substance Rationale: A red C stamped on a prescription indicates that the medication is a controlled substance. All filled controlled substance prescriptions must be stamped with a 1-inch red C.

A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of agreement is this? A. Preferred agreement B. Preferred vendor contract C. Preferential agreement D. Prime vendor agreement

D. Prime vendor agreement Rationale: A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing.

Which of the following is not found in a total nutrient admixture? A. Amino acid B. Dextrose C. Lipids D. Protein

D. Protein Rationale: Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids are use in preparing a total nutrient admixture, which is a parenteral form of nutrition for patients with specific conditions. Proteins are not used in this preparation.

Which of the following duties may a pharmacy technician not perform? A. Labeling medication doses, preparing intravenous admixtures, and maintaining the cleanliness of the laminar flow hood B. Maintaining patient records, filling and dispensing routine orders for stock supplies, and preparing routine compounding C. Prepackaging drugs in single dose or unit of use, maintaining inventories of drug supplies, and completing insurance forms D. Providing clinical counseling, providing clinical information to medical staff, and providing patient medical history data to requestors

D. Providing clinical counseling, providing clinical information to medical staff, and providing patient medical history data to requestors Rationale: Counseling is a judgmental task that only pharmacists are permitted to perform. Pharmacy technicians are only allowed to perform technical tasks at the current time.

Which of the following medications is contraindicated for an individual with hypertension? A. Diphenhydramine B. Ibuprofen C. Loperamide D. Pseudoephedrine

D. Pseudoephedrine Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is a central nervous stimulant that excites the heart, resulting in the heart's pumping harder at an increased rate.

Which of the following might increase the possibility of a medication error? A. Checking the NDC number on the prescription label with the medication bottle label B. Discussing medication errors at staff meetings C. Having the pharmacist check all pharmacy calculations D. Receiving a telephoned prescription from a nurse in a physician's office who received the verbal prescription from the physician

D. Receiving a telephoned prescription from a nurse in a physician's office who received the verbal prescription from the physician Rationale: Oral prescription orders may be misinterpreted by an individual because of sound-alike, look-alike medication names.

Which of the following vaccines is used to treat hepatitis B? A. Attenuvax B. Havrix C. Meruvax D. Recombivax HB

D. Recombivax HB Rationale: Recombivax HB is used to treat hepatitis B, Attenuvax is used to treat measles, Havrix is used to treat hepatitis A, and Meruvax is used to treat rubella.

Which of the following is not a goal of The Joint Commission to improve patient safety? A. Improve the accuracy of patient identification B. Improve the effectiveness of communication among caregivers C. Improve the safety of using high-alert medications D. Reduce the usage of infusion pumps

D. Reduce the usage of infusion pumps Rationale: The Joint Commission's goal is to improve the safety of infusion pumps, not to reduce their usage.

A patient presents a prescription for Lomotil from Dr. Andrew Shedlock, DDS. What should you do? A. Call the physician. B. Call the police because it is a controlled substance. C. Fill the prescription. D. Refuse to fill the prescription because it is not valid.

D. Refuse to fill the prescription because it is not valid. Rationale: The prescribing of Lomotil (an anti-diarrheal medication) is beyond the realm of a dentist's practice.

You receive a prescription for oxycodone + acetaminophen (a Schedule II medication), and the date on the prescription has been corrected. What would you do? A. Ask the patient why the date was corrected. B. Fill the prescription. C. Inform the pharmacist of the situation. D. Refuse to fill the prescription.

D. Refuse to fill the prescription. Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 states that a prescription for a Schedule II medication is not to filled if it has been altered in any way.

Which of the following is not a branch of the federal government? A. Executive B. Judicial C. Legislative D. Regulatory

D. Regulatory Rationale: The three branches of the federal government are the executive, judicial, and legislative.

Which of the following is false regarding e-prescribing? A. A disadvantages of e-prescribing is the transaction fee the pharmacy incurs B. Connects health providers, patients, and agencies in real time C. Improves efficiency in the pharmacy D. Requires paper to be used

D. Requires paper to be used Rationale: E-prescribing is paperless.

What system does tuberculosis affect? A. Cardiovascular B. Digestive C. Endocrine D. Respiratory

D. Respiratory Rationale: Tuberculosis most often affects the lungs because Mycobacterium tuberculosis prefers an area of high oxygen content.

Which of the following pharmacy settings does The Joint Commission not accredit? A. Hospitals B. Long-term care facilities C. Nursing homes D. Retail pharmacies

D. Retail pharmacies Rationale: The Joint Commission accredits ambulatory health care, behavioral health care, critical access hospitals, home care, laboratory services, and nursing and rehabilitation centers.

How is insulin injected into the body? A. IA B. ID C. IM D. SC

D. SC Rationale: Insulin should be injected subcutaneously in the body, and the administration sites should be rotated.

How is insulin administered? A. ID B. IM C. IV D. SQ

D. SQ Rationale: Insulin is administered subcutaneously above and below the waist, in the buttocks, and in the upper arms.

Which schedule contains medications that do not require a prescription? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V

D. Schedule V Rationale: One may purchase "exempt narcotics" without a prescription if specific conditions are met. Exempt narcotics are Schedule V medications.

Which schedule of medication may be purchased as an "exempt narcotic?" A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V

D. Schedule V Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act allows for certain controlled substances to be purchased without a prescription under specific conditions. These substances are Schedule V drugs. The medications involve products containing specific amounts of codeine and paregoric. To purchase a container, the individual must be at least 18 years of age, the product must be packaged in the manufacturer's original container (4-oz bottle), the exempt narcotic log must be signed, it must be sold by a pharmacist, and the patient may only purchase one 4-oz bottle in 48 hr.

Which of the following does not have anything in common with the three other medications? A. Levothyroxine B. Lithium C. Phenytoin D. Sertraline

D. Sertraline Rationale: Blood work tests must be performed on patients taking levothyroxine, lithium, or phenytoin to ensure that the patients are receiving the proper doses of medication.

Which of the following factors does not affect the route of administration? A. Disease state B. Ease of administration C. Rate of action D. Shape of the dosage form

D. Shape of the dosage form Rationale: A specific disease state, such as angina, requires a prompt response, resulting in nitroglycerin being taken sublingually and bypassing the digestive system. Oral medications do not require specific skills of the patient, unlike injectable medications, with which specific skills are necessary. The rate of action may be affected by the amount of time in which a therapeutic response needs to occur. An example is an IV injection; IVs provide a quicker response because the medication is administered into the bloodstream and gets to the site of action much more quickly than does an oral or topical dose. The shape, color, or taste of a medication does not affect the route of administration; however, the shape, color, or taste may affect the patient's compliance in taking a medication.

Which document do patients sign when they pick up a prescription covered by a third-party payer? A. Exempt narcotic book B. Patient register book C. Patient compliance book D. Signature log

D. Signature log Rationale: They sign the signature log, which verifies that they have received the medication and an offer to counsel was made. The signature log may be either paper or electronic.

Which dosage form contains small pellets or beads? A. Dry fill capsule B. Layered oral tablet C. Pulvule D. Spansule

D. Spansule Rationale: Spansules contain small pellets or beads that are time released.

Which of the following medications is not used to treat acne? A. Azelex B. Benzamycin C. Differin D. Spectazole

D. Spectazole Rationale: Spectazole is used to treat topical fungal infections.

Which of the following diuretics should not be taken with a potassium supplement? A. Bumetanide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

D. Spironolactone Rationale: Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Bumetanide, furosemide, and hydrochlorothiazide are diuretics that deplete the body of potassium.

To which organization would an individual report a medication error? A. DEA B. FDA C. MedWatch D. State board of pharmacy

D. State board of pharmacy Rationale: The state board of pharmacy (BOP) investigates all reported claims of medication error and considers appropriate sanctions against all providers. The state BOP is concerned with the practice of pharmacy in a particular state, which includes the behavior of pharmacists. The DEA is concerned about adherence to the Controlled Substance Act; the FDA's priorities are to ensure that food and medications are pure, safe, and effective; and MedWatch is concerned with adverse effects of medications.

Who licenses pharmacists in each state? A. DEA B. FDA C. Federal government D. State boards of pharmacy

D. State boards of pharmacy Rationale: Each state has a board of pharmacy (BOP), which is responsible for determining the licensing requirements of pharmacists in that state. The state BOP can suspend or revoke the license of a pharmacist in that particular state. The BOP is responsible for the practice of pharmacy in a state, which includes pharmacy technicians.

What is another term for an auxiliary label? A. Block label B. PPI C. Prescription label D. Strip label

D. Strip label Rationale: Another term for auxiliary label is "strip label." Both auxiliary and strip labels provide additional information to the patient regarding the medication such as storage or directions for use.

Which route of administration should be used in taking nitroglycerin? A. Buccal B. Oral C. Rectal D. Sublingual

D. Sublingual Rationale: Nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually because of the urgency of obtaining relief from an angina attack. Sublingual medications bypass the digestive tract and are rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream by being placed under the tongue, which has a large blood supply.

Which term on a prescription is the instructions to the pharmacist? A. Inscription B. Rx C. Signa D. Subscription

D. Subscription Rationale: The subscription is instructions to the pharmacist. These instructions may include the following information: compounding, packaging, labeling, refills, and allowing a generic drug to be dispensed.

What does Syrup USP contain? A. Alcohol in water B. Oleaginous in water C. PEG in water D. Sucrose in water

D. Sucrose in water Rationale: According to the United States Pharmacopoeia, Syrup USP contains sucrose (sugar) dissolved in water.

What is the generic name for the brand name drug Bactrim? A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate B. Cephalexin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim Rationale: The drugs are sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim), amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin), cephalexin (Keflex), and nitrofurantoin (Macrobid).

What is the generic name for Imitrex? A. Salmeterol B. Sertraline C. Sotalol D. Sumatriptan

D. Sumatriptan Rationale: The generic name for Imitrex is sumatriptan. The other medications are salmeterol (Serevent), sertraline (Zoloft), and sotalol (Betapace).

Which of the following is not an example of a dispersion? A. Emulsion B. Lotion C. Ointment D. Suppository

D. Suppository Rationale: A dispersion is not dissolved in a vehicle but rather distributed throughout it. Whereas suppositories are a solid dosage form, dispersions are a liquid dosage form. Emulsions and lotions are liquid dosage forms. An ointment is a type of emulsion.

Which dosage form is described as "solid particles dispersed in liquid vehicle?" A. Emulsions B. Gels C. Lotions D. Suspensions

D. Suspensions Rationale: Even though both lotions and suspensions are dispersions, lotions are dissolved particles, but suspensions contain solid particles.

Which of the following is a contraindication? A. Directions by a pharmacist or physician that the patient should stop taking a certain prescription medication B. Computer alert indication that the patient is getting a prescription too soon C. Situation in which the effect of one medication is changed by another medication that a patient is taking at the same time D. Symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would be otherwise be advisable

D. Symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would be otherwise be advisable Rationale: A contraindication is a symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would be otherwise advisable.

Which of the following does not require bar coding for automated dispensing systems using bar coding? A. Medications B. Patient ID label C. Patient location label D. System operator

D. System operator Rationale: During cart filling, reading bar codes of the medication, the patient ID label, and the patient location allows the automated dispensing system to select the correct drug for the correct patient in the correct location, which are fundamental elements of patient's rights regarding medication.

Who initiated use of the "do not use" list? A. FDA B. ISMP C. MERP D. TJC

D. TJC Rationale: The Joint Commission (TJC) initiated the use of the "do not use" list to be included in all TJC formularies to assist in eliminating prescription errors.

Which type of health care insurance provides benefits for the dependents of men and women in the armed forces? A. Blue Cross-Blue Shield Association B. CHAMPVA C. IPA D. TRICARE

D. TRICARE Rationale: TRICARE is a new program that replaced CHAMPUS. TRICARE is a comprehensive health benefits program for dependents of men and women in the military. Blue Cross-Blue Shield is a national organization of local nonprofit service organizations that offer prepaid health care services to subscribers. CHAMPVA stands for Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Veterans Administration and is a program that covers the expenses of families of veterans with total, permanent service-connected disabilities. An IPA is an individual practitioner association consisting of physicians.

Which of the following interpretations of the signa "i cap qid ac and hs" is correct? A. Take 1 caplet by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. B. Take 1 capsule by mouth 1 hour before meals and bedtime. C. Take 1 capsule by mouth after meals and before bedtime. D. Take 1 capsule by mouth before meals and bedtime.

D. Take 1 capsule by mouth before meals and bedtime. Rationale: i (1) cap (capsule) qid (four times per day) ac (before meals) and hs (bedtime).

Which of the following interpretations of the signa "30 mL MOM po ac and hs prn" is correct? A. Take one teaspoonful of Milk of Magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed. B. Take one tablespoonful of Milk of Magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed. C. Take 1 oz of Milk of Magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed. D. Take 1 oz of Milk of Magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed.

D. Take 1 oz of Milk of Magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed. Rationale: 30 mL (1 oz) MOM (Milk of Magnesia) po (by mouth) ac (before meals) hs (bedtime) prn (as needed).

Which of the following uses all of the recommended components for label directions in an outpatient pharmacy? A. Take one tablet four times a day. B. Take one tablet by mouth four times a day. C. Take one tablet by mouth four times a day for 10 days. D. Take one tablet by mouth four times a day for 10 days for infection.

D. Take one tablet by mouth four times a day for 10 days for infection. Rationale: "Take one tablet by mouth four times a day for 10 days for infection" tells you the route of administration, the duration of the therapy and the usage for the medication.

What is the correct interpretation of the following signa: 1 tsp PCN 250 mg po qid for 10 days? A. Take one tablespoonful of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days. B. Take one teaspoonful of penicillin 250 mg by mouth every other day for 10 days. C. Take one teaspoonful of penicillin G 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days. D. Take one teaspoonful of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days.

D. Take one teaspoonful of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days. Rationale: Answer a is incorrect because it stated that tsp was tablespoonful instead of teaspoon; qod is every other day instead of 4 times per day. Answer c states penicillin G, but the prescription indicates penicillin G. There is a difference between penicillin and penicillin G.

What auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription of ibuprofen? A. Avoid sunlight B. For external use C. Take on an empty stomach D. Take with food

D. Take with food Rationale: A potential side effect of ibuprofen is stomach irritation. To reduce this possibility, food should be taken to act as a buffer against stomach irritation.

A patient applied a heating pad to an area where he had applied a fentanyl transdermal patch to his skin, causing the skin to release all of the medication at once, causing an overdose. What type of error occurred? A. Human error B. Product defect error C. Physician prescribing error D. Technical failure from improper application

D. Technical failure from improper application Rationale: A technical error occurs as a result of applying the medication improperly.

Which of the following products is not available as a transdermal patch? A. Catapres B. Duragesic C. Nitroglycerin D. Tegretol

D. Tegretol Rationale: Tegretol is available as a chewable tablet, an oral tablet, and a suspension. As a transdermal dosage form, Catapres is known as Catapres TTS and needs to be changed weekly; Duragesic is a Schedule II medication, which provides fentanyl as a narcotic analgesic and lasts for 3 days; and nitroglycerin is known as Nitro-dur or Nitro-disc.

What form of pharmacy is defined as proving pharmaceutical care through the use of telecommunication and information technology, sometimes known as "virtual pharmacy"? A. Base pharmacy B. Clinical pharmacy C. Mail-order pharmacy D. Telepharmacy

D. Telepharmacy Rationale: Telepharmacy involves the dispensing of prescriptions and clinical pharmacy services at a location without the physical presence of a pharmacist.

Which of the following drugs, if expired, can result in a fatality? A. Amoxicillin B. Cephalexin C. Clarithromycin D. Tetracycline

D. Tetracycline Rationale: If tetracycline is taken after it has passed its expiration date established by the manufacturer, the patient may die. If the other products are taken after they have expired, the effectiveness will not be guaranteed by the manufacturer, and the patient may experience side effects.

Which of the following medications may prove to be fatal to a patient if it is dispensed after its expiration date? A. Amoxicillin B. Lisinopril C. Macrodantin D. Tetracycline

D. Tetracycline Rationale: Medication should never be dispensed to a patient if the medication will expire before all of the medication is taken as prescribed. The drug manufacturer cannot guarantee the effectiveness of a medication taken beyond its expiration date. If tetracycline is taken by a patient after it has passed its expiration date, the patient may die.

Which of the following medication antibiotics may cause enamel hypoplasia and permanent yellow-gray color of the teeth in young children? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clindamycin C. Streptomycin D. Tetracycline

D. Tetracycline Rationale: Pregnant women and children younger than age 9 years should not take tetracycline because the potential possibility of tooth discoloration.

What is missing or incorrect with the following: "Ranitidine 150 mg po for 7 days"? A. The medication is not taken by this route of administration. B. The strength of the medication is incorrect. C. The medication is taken for a period of time greater than 7 days. D. The frequency is missing.

D. The frequency is missing. Rationale: The signa does not inform the patient how often to take the medication.

If a medication has an expiration date of 3/14, when will it expire? A. Anytime in the month of March 2014 B. March 14 C. The first day of March 2014 D. The last day of March 2014

D. The last day of March 2014 Rationale: A medication is guaranteed by the manufacturer to be effective until the last day of the month.

What assumption should a pharmacy technician make if he or she observes a white, fluffy precipitate in a 250-mL bag of D5W? A. The solution has been contaminated. B. The solution has been exposed to the cold. C. The solution has been exposed to bright light. D. The solution should be shaken to disperse the precipitate before dispensing.

D. The solution should be shaken to disperse the precipitate before dispensing. Rationale: The fluffy precipitate indicates the precipitation of dextrose and needs to be shaken to ensure that dextrose is thoroughly distributed throughout the bag.

What assumption should a pharmacy technician make if he or she observes a white, fluffy precipitate in a 250-mL bag of D5W? A. The solution has been contaminated. B. The solution has been exposed to the cold. C. The solution has been exposed to bright light. D. The solution should be shaken to disperse the precipitate before dispensing.

D. The solution should be shaken to disperse the precipitate before dispensing. Rationale: The fluffy precipitate indicates the precipitation of dextrose, and the solution needs to be shaken to ensure that the dextrose is thoroughly distributed throughout the bag.

What term refers to the selection of a drug in a class of drugs to be dispensed when any drug in that classification is prescribed? A. Bioequivalence B. Brand name medically necessary C. Generic substitution D. Therapeutic substitution

D. Therapeutic substitution Rationale: Therapeutic substitution or therapeutic interchange is permitted in organizations where the pharmacy and therapeutic committee have approved this practice as a means to reduce inventory costs.

Which of the following legal defenses may be used by the pharmacist in a medication error lawsuit? A. I had to work overtime for 3 days in a row. B. The physician used an incorrect dosage strength. C. The prescription was not legible. D. There are no legal defenses for a medication error.

D. There are no legal defenses for a medication error. Rationale: Although the pharmacist did not intentionally plan to cause a prescription error, he or she is still guilty of negligence because he or she failed to provide the patient with the best possible care.

Which of the following is true regarding reconstituted products? A. They are reconstituted with water upon receipt of a prescription to ensure they are ready for the patient when the patient picks the prescription up. B. They are reconstituted with tap water. C. They must have a "Keep Refrigerated" label. D. They must have a "Shake Well" label.

D. They must have a "Shake Well" label. Rationale: Any medication that is reconstituted should have a "Shake Well" auxiliary label affixed to it.

Which of the following is true regarding quality assurance committees within an organization? A. They are created after medication errors become an issue. B. They consist of all employees of the pharmacy. C. They meet once a year. D. They should be in place in all pharmacy departments to create medication safety protocols.

D. They should be in place in all pharmacy departments to create medication safety protocols. Rationale: Quality assurance programs are proactive rather than reactive, and their goal is to provide excellent pharmaceutical care to patients.

Which of the following terms refers to an insurance company's use of three different copays? A. Donut hole B. Dual copay C. Online adjudication D. Tiered copay

D. Tiered copay Rationale: A tiered copay system develops a copay for generic drugs, brand name drugs, and medications that may not be part of the formulary or considered a lifestyle drug.

What type of container protects contents from contamination by liquids, solids, or vapors during normal shipping, handling, storage, and distribution? A. Hermetic container B. Light-resistant container C. Tamper-resistant container D. Tight container

D. Tight container Rationale: This is the USP definition of a tight container.

Why are amber vials used to package medications? A. To clearly identify oral products from topical products B. To prevent an individual from identifying a medication C. To prevent moisture from getting inside the container D. To protect the medication from ultraviolet light and possible degradation

D. To protect the medication from ultraviolet light and possible degradation Rationale: Medications can be degraded by light, temperature, and moisture. Amber containers are used to block ultraviolet rays from breaking the medication down.

How would one administer an "ung?" A. Orally B. Bucally C. Sublingually D. Topically

D. Topically Rationale: "ung" is a Latin abbreviation meaning ointment. Ointments are a dosage form applied externally on the skin unless otherwise directed.

What term in civil law refers to personal injuries? A. Malpractice B. Negligence C. Standard of care D. Tort

D. Tort Rationale: A tort relates to wrongs that one citizen commits against another individual. Negligence is a type of tort in which the minimum standard of care was not met. Malpractice is a type of negligence in which the standard of care was not met. Standard of care is the expected level of care to be provided.

What is another term for hyperalimentation? A. Aseptic technique B. Dietary supplementation C. Extemporaneous compounding D. Total parenteral nutrition

D. Total parenteral nutrition Rationale: Hyperalimentation and total parenteral nutrition are synonymous terms that describe the process of feeding patients who are unable to eat solids and liquids. Compounding hyperalimentation products require the use of automated compounders, and the nutrition flow rate is handled by pumps that are controlled by computers.

Which of the following drugs is not available as an OTC product? A. Ibuprofen B. Naproxen sodium C. Ranitidine D. Tramadol

D. Tramadol Rationale: Ibuprofen is available OTC as Motrin and Nuprin, naproxen sodium is Aleve, and ranitidine is Zantac. Tramadol is the prescription product known as Ultram.

Which reference book is the official compendium of pharmaceutical products in the United States? A. Facts and Comparison B. Physician's Desk Reference C. Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences D. USP-NF

D. USP-NF Rationale: USP-NF stands for United States Pharmacopoeia-National Formulary.

Which insulin has the longest duration of action? A. NPH insulin B. Lente insulin C. Regular insulin D. Ultralente insulin

D. Ultralente insulin Rationale: Ultralente insulin has a duration of 18 to 20 hours, regular insulin lasts 5 to 6 hours, NPH insulin lasts 10 to 16 hours, and Lente insulin has a duration of 12 to 18 hours.

Which of the following statements is false regarding HIPAA? A. A pharmacy may deny a patient's request to amend their PHI. B. Incidental disclosures occur every time PHI is accidentally disclosed to someone other than the patient. C. Under the privacy rule, it is up to the pharmacist to use professional judgment before disclosing PHI to a caregiver. D. Under HIPAA, an employee cannot be penalized criminally for violating the privacy rule.

D. Under HIPAA, an employee cannot be penalized criminally for violating the privacy rule. Rationale: An employee can be criminally penalized for violating the privacy rule.

What type of container is defined as one that holds a specific quantity of drug product that is to be dispensed without any other modification than the label? A. Hermetic container B. Multiple-unit container C. Single-dose container D. Unit-of-use container

D. Unit-of-use container Rationale: The USP establishes standards for the practice of pharmacy, including standards for containers. The USP defines a unit-of-use container as one that holds a specific quantity of drug product that is to be dispensed without any other modification than the label.

How many prescription errors occur each year? A. 100,000 B. 500,000 C. 1,000,000 D. Unknown

D. Unknown Rationale: There is no accurate number of the number of prescription errors that occur each year because many errors are not discovered or reported.

What does the abbreviation UTI stand for? A. Undiagnosed treatment inconclusive B. Upper respiratory infection C. Urethral tract infection D. Urinary tract infection

D. Urinary tract infection Rationale: UTI is an acronym for urinary tract infection.

What does "U&C" mean when billing prescriptions? A. Unusual customer B. Unusual and customary C. Usual customer D. Usual and customary

D. Usual and customary Rationale: U&C means the charge is the usual and customary charge, which a patient would pay if his or her third-party payer were not involved in the transaction.

Which of the following drugs is available as both a tablet and an IV? A. Accupril B. Capoten C. Fosinopril D. Vasotec

D. Vasotec Rationale: Vasotec is available as both an oral and intravenous dosage form.

Which of the following would be appropriate for a pharmacy technician to do to ensure the correct drug name appears on the prescription label? A. Check the medication administration record. B. Look at the medication three times before completing the prescription. C. Make sure the patient understands how to take the medication. D. Verify after the data have been entered into the system that the prescription label contains the accurate drug, strength, and dosage as written on the prescription.

D. Verify after the data have been entered into the system that the prescription label contains the accurate drug, strength, and dosage as written on the prescription. Rationale: Checking the medication administration record would be appropriate to prevent the medication from being administered to the wrong patient. Looking at the medication three times before completing the prescription would be appropriate to make sure the correct drug is dispensed. Verifying after the data have been entered into the system that the prescription label contains the accurate drug, strength, and dosage as written on the prescription would be appropriate to make sure the patient understands how to take the medication.

Which of the following vitamins is the same as cyanocobalamin? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin B12

D. Vitamin B12 Rationale: Vitamin B12 is cyanocobalamin. The other products are vitamin A (retinol), vitamin B1 (thiamine), and vitamin B6 (pyridoxine).

Which vitamin deficiency would result in rickets? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin D Rationale: Rickets is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D. Deficiencies of vitamin A result in night blindness, deficiencies of vitamin B1 result in beriberi, and deficiencies of vitamin C result in scurvy.

Which of the following vitamins is measured in international units? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin E Rationale: Vitamin E is measured in international units. The other three are measured in milligrams.

Which vitamin will increase the blood coagulation of patient taking Coumadin? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin K Rationale: Vitamin K is a warfarin antagonist. It will increase the clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

Which vitamin is used in blood clotting? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D3 C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin K Rationale: Vitamin K may be used to assist in the clotting of blood.

Which USP term refers to a temperature that is 30° to 40° C? A. Controlled room temperature B. Excessive heat C. Room temperature D. Warm

D. Warm Rationale: A controlled room temperature is defined as 20° to 25°C, excessive heat is any temperature above 40°C, and room temperature is defined as the temperature prevailing in a working area.

What type of ointment base is hydrous lanolin? A. Absorption base B. Oleaginous base C. Oil-water emulsion base D. Water-oil emulsion base

D. Water-oil emulsion base Rationale: Hydrous lanolin is a water-oil emulsion base. Examples of other bases are as follows: absorption base (Aquaphor), oleaginous base (white petrolatum), and oil-water emulsion base (hydrophilic ointment).

What does the term "gram" measure? A. Distance B. Vision C. Volume D. Weight

D. Weight Rationale: "Gram" is the basic unit of weight in the metric system.

Patients and caregivers should understand various pieces of information about their prescriptions. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Common side effects of the medications B. What medications or food interact with the medications C. What to do if they miss a dose D. When to pick up the prescription

D. When to pick up the prescription Rationale: When to pick up a patient's medication is not paramount to the patient. Patients and caregivers should know the brand and generic names of each medication, what each medication looks like, why they are taking each medication, how much to take and when to take each medication, whether a medication replaces a medication they were taking, and precautions of their medications in addition to the answers in the question.

Which of the following provides prescription coverage for individuals who are injured while they are working? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part D C. TRICARE D. Worker's compensation

D. Worker's compensation Rationale: Worker's compensation provides insurance coverage to cover medical care and compensation for employees who are injured while at work. Medication covered under worker's compensation only applies to medications needed as result of the injury.

Which of the following ratings indicates that the drug is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. A B. B C. C D. X

D. X Rationale: According to the FDA, an X rating indicates that the medication is contraindicated in pregnant women.

Which of the following medications must be stored in the refrigerator? A. Pred Forte B. Propine C. Timoptic D. Xalatan

D. Xalatan Rationale: Xalatan must be stored in a refrigerator; the other medications may be stored at room temperature.

How often is the Physicians' Desk Reference published? A. Biannually B. Biennially C. Every 6 months D. Yearly

D. Yearly Rationale: The Physicians' Desk Reference is a compilation of monographs submitted by the manufacturers and is published yearly.

Which of the following medications is not indicated to prevent a stroke? A. Aspirin B. Coumadin C. Plavix D. Zetia

D. Zetia Rationale: Zetia is a bile acid sequestrant that is used in the treatment of high cholesterol.

What is the generic name for Retrovir? A. Didanosine B. Lamivudine C. Stavudine D. Zidovudine

D. Zidovudine Rationale: Zidovudine is the generic name for Retrovir.

What is the brand name for sertraline? A. Celexa B. Paxil C. Prozac D. Zoloft

D. Zoloft Rationale: Sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft. The generic names for the other branded medications are as follows: Celexa—citalopram, Paxil—paroxetine, and Prozac—fluoxetine.

A patient calls the pharmacy for a refill on her sleeping pill; however, the patient does not have the bottle with the prescription number and does not remember the name of the medication. Which of the following medications would be her sleeping pill? A. Lisinopril B. Naproxen C. Simvastatin D. Zolpidem

D. Zolpidem Rationale: Zolpidem is the generic name for Ambien, which is indicated for sleep.

Which of the following signa would be printed on a label as: "Instill four drops to the left ear three times a day as needed for ear infection for 10 days"? A. vi gtt a tid prn otitis x 10 B. iv GT as tid prn otitis x 10 d C. iv gtt ad tid prn otitis x 10 d D. iv gtt as tid prn otitis x 10 d

D. iv gtt as tid prn otitis x 10 d Rationale: IV (4) gtt (drops) as (left ear) tid (three times per day) prn (as needed) otitis (ear inflammation) × (for) 10d (10 days).

Levothyroxine is to hypothyroidism as metformin is to _____________. A. ACE inhibitor B. beta-blocker C. oral hyperglycemic agent D. oral hypoglycemic agent

D. oral hypoglycemic agent Rationale: Metformin, an oral hypoglycemic agent, is used in the treatment of diabetes.