Quiz 1: Immunizations & Communicable Disease

Mumps is well known for a condition called the "strawberry tongue"? (true or false) Select one: True False

False

Which of the following vaccines should not be given if the child has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to latex? Select one or more: a. HAV (Hepatitis A) b. Influenza (injectable) c. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) d. HBV (Hepatitis B) e. Rotavirus f. MCV4 (Meningococcal) g. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) h. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) i. IPV (inactivated polio) j. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) k. Varicella (chickenpox) l. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B)

e. Rotavirus f. MCV4 (Meningococcal)

What is NOT true about Scarlet Fever? Select one: a. causes fever b. tongue appears like a strawberry c. causes vomiting d. incubation is 1-7 days e. tongue is dusky like a blueberry

e. tongue is dusky like a blueberry

Which disease (usually covered by immunizations) can cause brain and spinal cord damage which can lead to meningitis and paralysis? Select one: a. pneumococcal b. polio c. vericella d. haemophilus influenza e. pertussis

b. polio

Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when caring for a child with herpetic gingivostomatitis (HGS)? Select one: a. Apply topical anesthetics before eating. b. Drink from a cup, not a straw. c. Wait to brush teeth until lesions are sufficiently healed. d. Explain to parents how this is sexually transmitted.

a. Apply topical anesthetics before eating.

For which of the following vaccines is a local injection site reaction a typical side effect? Select one or more: a. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) b. MCV4 (Meningococcal) c. Varicella (chickenpox) d. IPV (inactivated polio) e. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) f. HAV (Hepatitis A) g. HBV (Hepatitis B) h. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) i. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) j. Rotavirus k. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) l. Influenza: live virus (if autumn)

a. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) b. MCV4 (Meningococcal) c. Varicella (chickenpox) d. IPV (inactivated polio) e. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) f. HAV (Hepatitis A) g. HBV (Hepatitis B) i. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal)

A 12 year old child is to receive a tetanus vaccine after stepping on a rusty nail and was found to not be caught up on immunizations. Which of the following sites and needle size is prefered? Select one: a. Deltoid, 3 ml syringe with 1 inch needle b. vastus lateralus, TB syringe with TB needle c. this vaccine is oral d. ventral gluteal, 5 ml syringe, 1 ½ inch needle

a. Deltoid, 3 ml syringe with 1 inch needle

Which of the following immunizations would normally be administered to a 4 month old infant? (Immunizations last administered at 2 months; immunizations up to date). Select one or more: a. IPV (inactivated polio) b. HBV (Hepatitis B) c. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) d. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) e. MCV4 (Meningococcal) f. HAV (Hepatitis A) g. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) h. Rotavirus i. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) j. Varicella (chickenpox) k. Influenza (if autumn) l. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis)

a. IPV (inactivated polio) d. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) h. Rotavirus i. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) l. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis)

The presence of what condition would necessitate change in the standard immunization schedule for a child? Select one: a. Immunosuppression b. Autism c. Congenital defects d. Allergy to wheat

a. Immunosuppression

Which of the following is described as the time interval between infection or exposure to disease and appearance of initial symptoms? Select one: a. Incubation period b. Prodromal period c. Desquamation period d. Period of communicability

a. Incubation period

Which of the following is usually the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)? Select one: a. Itching b. Vesicles c. Scalp rash d. Localized inflammatory response

a. Itching

Which of the following vaccines should not be given to a pregnant adolescent? Select one or more: a. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) b. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) c. Influenza (injectable) d. Varicella (chickenpox) e. Rotavirus f. HBV (Hepatitis B) g. Td (Tetanus, Diptheria)

a. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) d. Varicella (chickenpox)

Impetigo ordinarily results in which of the following? Select one: a. No scarring b. Pigmented spots c. Slightly depressed scars d. Atrophic white scars

a. No scarring

For which of the following vaccines is a mild fever a typical side effect? Select one or more: a. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) b. HAV (Hepatitis A) c. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) d. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) e. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) f. HBV (Hepatitis B) g. Rotavirus h. IPV (inactivated polio) i. Varicella (chickenpox) j. MCV4 (Meningococcal) k. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

a. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) b. HAV (Hepatitis A) c. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) d. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) f. HBV (Hepatitis B) g. Rotavirus i. Varicella (chickenpox) j. MCV4 (Meningococcal) k. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

For which of the following vaccines is a rash a typical side effect? Select one or more: a. Varicella (chickenpox) b. IPV (inactivated polio) c. Rotavirus d. MCV4 (Meningococcal) e. HAV (Hepatitis A) f. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) g. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) h. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) i. Influenza (if autumn) j. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) k. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) l. HBV (Hepatitis B)

a. Varicella (chickenpox) j. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site? Select one: a. Vastus lateralis b. Deltoid c. Ventrogluteal d. Dorsogluteal

a. Vastus lateralis

Lymphangitis ("streaking") is frequently seen in: Select one: a. cellulitis. b. folliculitis. c. impetigo contagiosa. d. staphylococcal scalded skin.

a. cellulitis.

The parents of an infant ask the nurse why their baby is scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine rather than the oral vaccine. What is the nurse's best response? Select one: a. ."The oral vaccine is more expensive, so the intramuscular vaccine is preferred unless it is contraindicated." b. "The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer." c. ."The consensus is that either can be used since both produce the same results and are equally safe." d. ."The U.S. Center for Infectious Disease Control and Prevention recommends intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised."

b. "The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer."

What is the minimal level of community vaccination required to achieve effective herd immunity? Select one: a. 80-85% b. 90-95% c. 70-75% d. Over 50%

b. 90-95%

Ringworm, frequently found in schoolchildren, is caused by which of the following? Select one: a. Virus b. Fungus c. Allergic reaction d. Bacterial infection

b. Fungus

Which of the following vaccines should not be given if the child has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to baker's yeast? Select one or more: a. Influenza (injectable) b. HBV (Hepatitis B) c. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) d. MCV4 (Meningococcal) e. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) f. Rotavirus g. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) h. HAV (Hepatitis A) i. Varicella (chickenpox) j. IPV (inactivated polio) k. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) l. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B)

b. HBV (Hepatitis B) g. HPV (Human Papillomavirus)

Which of the following immunizations would normally be administered to a 4 year old? (Immunizations last administered at 18 months; immunizations up to date). Select one or more: a. HAV (Hepatitis A) b. Influenza (if autumn) c. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) d. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) e. Rotavirus f. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) g. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) h. HBV (Hepatitis B) i. IPV (inactivated polio) j. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) k. Varicella (chickenpox) l. MCV4 (Meningococcal)

b. Influenza (if autumn) d. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) g. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) i. IPV (inactivated polio) k. Varicella (chickenpox)

The primary treatment for warts is which of the following? Select one: a. Vaccination b. Local destruction c. Corticosteroids d. Specific antibiotic therapy

b. Local destruction

In which of these communicable diseases are Koplik spots present? Select one: a. Rubella b. Measles (rubeola) c. Chickenpox (varicella) d. Exanthema subitum (roseola)

b. Measles (rubeola)

Rotovirus is a GI bug which causes severe diarreah and dehydration due to fluid loss. In the early 2000's a vaccine was presented which has decreased the in-patient dehydration cases by 40-80% in the U.S. What is the name of the vaccine? Select one: a. Rotovir b. Rotorix c. Deroto d. Rotovac

b. Rotorix

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by the bite of which of the following? Select one: a. Flea b. Tick c. Mosquito d. Mouse or rat

b. Tick

Which of the following vaccines should not be given if the child has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to gelatin? Select one or more: a. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) b. Varicella (chickenpox) c. HAV (Hepatitis A) d. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) e. HBV (Hepatitis B) f. MCV4 (Meningococcal) g. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) h. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) i. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) j. IPV (inactivated polio) k. Influenza (injectable) l. Rotavirus

b. Varicella (chickenpox) d. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

Which of the following are live virus vaccines? Select one or more: a. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) b. Varicella (chickenpox) c. HBV (Hepatitis B) d. Rotavirus e. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) f. MCV4 (Meningococcal) g. IPV (inactivated polio) h. HAV (Hepatitis A) i. Influenza (if autumn) j. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) k. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) l. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis)

b. Varicella (chickenpox) d. Rotavirus e. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

Which of the following vaccines should not be given if the child has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to neomycin? Select one or more: a. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) b. Varicella (chickenpox) c. MCV4 (Meningococcal) d. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) e. Rotavirus f. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) g. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) h. HAV (Hepatitis A) i. HBV (Hepatitis B) j. Influenza (injectable) k. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) l. IPV (inactivated polio)

b. Varicella (chickenpox) f. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) l. IPV (inactivated polio)

When is a child with chickenpox considered to be no longer contagious? Select one: a. When fever is absent b. When lesions are crusted c. 24 hours after lesions erupt d. 8 days after onset of illness

b. When lesions are crusted

Strict isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with: Select one: a. mumps. b. chickenpox. c. exanthema subitum (roseola). d. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease).

b. chickenpox.

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is given to children with chickenpox to: Select one: a. minimize scarring. b. decrease the number of lesions. c. prevent aplastic anemia. d. prevent spread of the disease.

b. decrease the number of lesions.

The incubation period of Varicella is ... Select one: a. 7 days b. 2 days c. 14 days d. 21 days

c. 14 days

What is the typical incubation period for whooping cough? Select one: a. 4-5 days b. 24 hours c. 6-20 days d. 2-3 days

c. 6-20 days

The single parent of a 12-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with chickenpox tells the nurse that she cannot afford to stay home with the child and miss work. The parent asks the nurse if some medication will shorten the course of the illness. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? Select one: a. Reassure the parent that it is not necessary to stay home with the child. b. Explain that no medication will shorten the course of the illness. c. Explain the advantages of the medication acyclovir to treat chickenpox. d. Explain the advantages of the medication varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) to treat chickenpox

c. Explain the advantages of the medication acyclovir to treat chickenpox.

Which of the following vaccines may be administered by IM injection? Select one or more: a. Rotavirus b. Varicella (chickenpox) c. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) d. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) e. MCV4 (Meningococcal) f. Influenza (if autumn) g. IPV (inactivated polio) h. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) i. HBV (Hepatitis B) j. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) k. HAV (Hepatitis A) l. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal)

c. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) d. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) e. MCV4 (Meningococcal) f. Influenza (if autumn) g. IPV (inactivated polio) i. HBV (Hepatitis B) j. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) k. HAV (Hepatitis A) l. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal)

Which of the following vaccines may be administered by subcutaneous injection? Select one or more: a. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) b. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) c. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) d. Rotavirus e. Varicella (chickenpox) f. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) g. IPV (inactivated polio) h. HAV (Hepatitis A) i. Influenza (if autumn) j. MCV4 (Meningococcal) k. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) l. HBV (Hepatitis B)

c. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) e. Varicella (chickenpox) g. IPV (inactivated polio)

Vitamin A supplementation may be recommended for the young child who has which of the following? Select one: a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Measles (rubeola) d. Erythema infectiosum

c. Measles (rubeola)

The Plain Language Summary of the Cochrane report, "Vaccines for measles, mumps and rubella in children (Review)" states: Select one: a. The link between MMR and autism has not been determined, further study is needed b. Very little credible evidence of an involvement of MMR with autism was found, and further study is recommended c. No credible evidence of an involvement of MMR with autism was found d. No credible evidence of an involvement of MMR with autism was found, but further study is recommended

c. No credible evidence of an involvement of MMR with autism was found

Treatment for herpes simplex virus (types 1 or 2) includes which of the following? Select one: a. Corticosteroids b. Oral griseofulvin c. Oral antiviral agent d. Topical and/or systemic antibiotic

c. Oral antiviral agent

Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for which of the following? Select one: a. Sympathetic nerve fibers b. Parasympathetic nerve fibers c. Posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord d. Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord

c. Posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord

Which of the following is the primary clinical manifestation of scabies? Select one: a. Edema b. Redness c. Pruritus d. Maceration

c. Pruritus

Routine Chickenpox care includes all the following except: Select one: a. keep nails short b. skin care to prevent skin infections c. Zovirax (acyclovir) d. antihistamines to decrease itching e. antipyretic

c. Zovirax (acyclovir)

2 year old Jimmy has Mumps and is on the Peds unit. What is NOT an expected order: Select one: a. IV fluid maintance for WT b. Antibiotics prophylaxis c. ambulate in hall as tolerated d. Tylenol according to WT prn fever/pain

c. ambulate in hall as tolerated

A parent reports to the nurse that her child has inflamed conjunctivae of both eyes with purulent drainage and crusting of the eyelids, especially on awakening. These manifestations suggest: Select one: a. viral conjunctivitis. b. allergic conjunctivitis. c. bacterial conjunctivitis. d. conjunctivitis caused by foreign body.

c. bacterial conjunctivitis.

Chickenpox used to be thought of as an illness that every child had to go through. Now we realize that we can prevent the illness which not only decreases the incident of shingles but also does which of the following: Select one: a. prevents chickenpox in everyone who gets the immunization b. increases the days the child will be out of school c. decreases the deaths related to the chickenpox d. prevent anyone from getting chickenpox

c. decreases the deaths related to the chickenpox

One of the illnesses covered by the MMR vaccine is Mumps. What is NOT a problem that may occur with this illness? Select one: a. orchitis b. sterility c. strawberry tongue d. dehydration e. deafness f. ear pain g. meningitis h. encephalitis

c. strawberry tongue

The nurse is talking to the parents of a child with pediculosis capitis. Which of the following should the nurse include when explaining how to manage pediculosis capitis? Select one: a. "You will need to cut the hair shorter if infestation and nits are severe." b. "You can distinguish viable from nonviable nits, and remove all viable ones." c. "You can wash all nits out of hair with a regular shampoo." d. "You will need to remove nits with an extra-fine tooth comb or tweezers."

d. "You will need to remove nits with an extra-fine tooth comb or tweezers."

Which of the following immunizations would normally be administered to a newborn infant? (no previous immunizations). Select one or more: a. Influenza (if autumn) b. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) c. IPV (inactivated polio) d. HBV (Hepatitis B) e. Varicella (chickenpox) f. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) g. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) h. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) i. MCV4 (Meningococcal) j. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) k. HAV (Hepatitis A) l. Rotavirus

d. HBV (Hepatitis B)

Which of the following statements is true concerning susceptibility to pertussis? Select one: a. Neonates will be immune while they are breastfeeding. b. If mother had the vaccine then infant will be immune at birth. c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease. d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.

d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.

Which of the following is a common childhood communicable disease that may cause severe defects in the fetus when it occurs in its congenital form? Select one: a. Erythema infectiosum b. Roseola c. Rubeola d. Rubella

d. Rubella

The most common test for diagnosing pinworms in a child is which of the following? Select one: a. Lower gastrointestinal (GI) series b. Three stool specimens, at intervals of 4 days c. Observation for presence of worms after child defecates d. Tape placed in perianal area in the morning as soon as child awakens

d. Tape placed in perianal area in the morning as soon as child awakens

2 year old Jimmy is admitted to the Peds unit with rule out Mumps. What are some possible complications that you need to be aware of with this communicable illness? Select one: a. sterility b. Meningitis c. Encephalitis d. Dehydration e. All of these are possible

e. All of these are possible

Which of the following immunizations would normally be administered to a 18 month old toddler? (Immunizations last administered at 12 months; immunizations up to date). Select one or more: a. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) b. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) c. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) d. IPV (inactivated polio) e. Varicella (chickenpox) f. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) g. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) h. Rotavirus i. HAV (Hepatitis A) j. Influenza (if autumn) k. MCV4 (Meningococcal) l. HBV (Hepatitis B)

f. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) g. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) l. HBV (Hepatitis B)

Which of the following vaccines should not be given if the child has recently received immune globulin? Select one or more: a. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) b. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) c. MCV4 (Meningococcal) d. HBV (Hepatitis B) e. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) f. Varicella (chickenpox) g. Influenza (injectable) h. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) i. HAV (Hepatitis A) j. Rotavirus k. IPV (inactivated polio) l. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

f. Varicella (chickenpox) l. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

For which of the following vaccines is syncope a possible side effect? Select one or more: a. Varicella (chickenpox) b. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) c. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) d. MCV4 (Meningococcal) e. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) f. HBV (Hepatitis B) g. Rotavirus h. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) i. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) j. Influenza (if autumn) k. HAV (Hepatitis A) l. IPV (inactivated polio)

h. HPV (Human Papillomavirus)

Which of the following vaccines should not be given if the child has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to the DPT vaccine? Select one or more: a. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) b. Influenza (injectable) c. IPV (inactivated polio) d. Rotavirus e. HBV (Hepatitis B) f. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) g. HAV (Hepatitis A) h. Varicella (chickenpox) i. MCV4 (Meningococcal) j. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) k. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) l. HPV (Human Papillomavirus)

i. MCV4 (Meningococcal)

For which of the following vaccines is hand arthritis or arthralgia a possible side effect? Select one or more: a. Rotavirus b. MCV4 (Meningococcal) c. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) d. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) e. HAV (Hepatitis A) f. HBV (Hepatitis B) g. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) h. IPV (inactivated polio) i. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) j. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) k. Influenza (if autumn) l. Varicella (chickenpox)

j. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) c. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis)

Which of the following immunizations would normally be administered to a 6 month old infant? (Immunizations last administered at 4 months; immunizations up to date). Select one or more: a. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) b. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) c. Varicella (chickenpox) d. HAV (Hepatitis A) e. Rotavirus f. IPV (inactivated polio) g. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) h. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) i. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) j. MCV4 (Meningococcal) k. HBV (Hepatitis B) l. Influenza (if autumn)

k. HBV (Hepatitis B) i. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) f. IPV (inactivated polio) a. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal)

Which of the following immunizations would normally be administered to a 2 month old infant? (Immunizations last administered at birth; immunizations up to date). Select one or more: a. IPV (inactivated polio) b. Influenza (if autumn) c. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) d. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) e. HBV (Hepatitis B) f. HAV (Hepatitis A) g. MCV4 (Meningococcal) h. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) i. Varicella (chickenpox) j. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) k. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) l. Rotavirus

k. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) l. Rotavirus h. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) d. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) e. HBV (Hepatitis B) a. IPV (inactivated polio)

For which of the following vaccines are mild GI symptoms a typical side effect? Select one or more: a. DTaP (Diptheria, Tetanus, acellular Pertussis) b. MCV4 (Meningococcal) c. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) d. IPV (inactivated polio) e. Influenza (if autumn) f. HIB (Haemophilus influenzae B) g. HBV (Hepatitis B) h. Varicella (chickenpox) i. PCV (Prevnar, pneumococcal) j. HAV (Hepatitis A) k. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) l. Rotavirus

l. Rotavirus