Quiz 3

What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes? a. 7 b. 14 c. 26 d. 30

c. 26

The muscles of a professional sprinter are most likely to have ________. a. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers b. 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers c. 50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers d. 40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers

a. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers

Which of the following statements is false? a. Slow fibers have a small network of capillaries. b. Slow fibers contain the pigment myoglobin. c. Slow fibers contain a large number of mitochondria. d. Slow fibers contract for extended periods

a. Slow fibers have a small network of capillaries.

Which of the following statements describes smooth muscle cells? a. They are resistant to fatigue. b. They have a rapid onset of contractions. c. They cannot exhibit tetanus. d. They primarily use anaerobic metabolism.

a. They are resistant to fatigue.

What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula? a. acromion b. coracoid process c. supraglenoid tubercle d. glenoid cavity

a. acromion

Which of the following are joined by a symphysis? a. adjacent vertebrae b. the first rib and the sternum c. the end and shaft of a long bone d. the radius and ulna bones

a. adjacent vertebrae

A sprinter would experience muscle fatigue sooner than a marathon runner due to ________. a. anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter b. anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the marathon runner c. aerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter d. glycolysis in the muscles of the marathon runner

a. anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter

Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion? a. ball-and-socket b. hinge c. condyloid d. plane

a. ball-and-socket

The clavicle ________. a. develops via intramembranous ossification b. develops via endochondral ossification c. is the last bone of the body to begin ossification d. is fully ossified at the time of birth

a. develops via intramembranous ossification

Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus? a. greater tubercle b. trochlea c. lateral epicondyle d. lesser tubercle

a. greater tubercle

The pelvis ________. a. has a subpubic angle that is larger in females b. consists of the two hip bones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx c. has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments d. has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis

a. has a subpubic angle that is larger in females

Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone? a. ilium b. pubis c. ischium d. sacrum

a. ilium

Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they ________. a. lack myofibrils b. are under voluntary control c. lack myosin d. lack actin

a. lack myofibrils

The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________. a. synchondrosis b. synostosis c. symphysis d. syndesmosis

a. synchondrosis

Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula? a. syndesmosis b. symphysis c. suture d. gomphosis

a. syndesmosis

Depolarization of the sarcolemma means ________. a. the inside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate b. the outside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate c. the inside of the membrane has become more negative as sodium ions accumulate d. the sarcolemma has completely lost any electrical charge

a. the inside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate

An example of a wide fibrous joint is ________. a. the interosseous membrane of the forearm b. a gomphosis c. a suture joint d. a synostosis

a. the interosseous membrane of the forearm

Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis? a. the metacarpophalangeal joint b. the hip joint c. the elbow joint d. the pubic symphysis

a. the metacarpophalangeal joint

The muscles of a professional marathon runner are most likely to have ________. a. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers b. 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers c. 50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers d. 40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers

b. 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers

How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

b. 3

Which element is important in directly triggering contraction? a. sodium (Na+) b. calcium (Ca++) c. potassium (K+) d. chloride (Cl-)

b. calcium (Ca++)

Muscle fatigue is caused by ________. a. buildup of ATP and lactic acid levels b. exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of lactic acid levels c. buildup of ATP and pyruvic acid levels d. exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of pyruvic acid levels

b. exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of lactic acid levels

The radius bone ________. a. is found on the medial side of the forearm b. has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna c. does not articulate with any of the carpal bones d. has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end

b. has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna

Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement? a. saddle joint b. hinge joint c. condyloid joint d. ball-and-socket joint

b. hinge joint

Condyloid joints ________. a. are a type of ball-and-socket joint b. include the radiocarpal joint c. are a uniaxial diarthrosis joint d. are found at the proximal radioulnar joint

b. include the radiocarpal joint

A cartilaginous joint ________. a. has a joint cavity b. is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage c. anchors the teeth to the jaws d. is formed by a wide sheet of fibrous connective tissue

b. is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage

Which of the following supports body weight when sitting? a. iliac crest b. ischial tuberosity c. ischiopubic ramus d. pubic body

b. ischial tuberosity

Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments? a. fovea capitis b. lesser trochanter c. head d. medial condyle

b. lesser trochanter

What aspect of creatine phosphate allows it to supply energy to muscles? a. ATPase activity b. phosphate bonds c. carbon bonds d. hydrogen bonds

b. phosphate bonds

The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called ________. a. myofibril b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasm d. myofilament

b. sarcolemm

Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium? a. shaft b. sternal end c. acromial end d. coracoid process

b. sternal end

Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis? a. the pubic symphysis b. the manubriosternal joint c. an invertebral disc d. the shoulder joint

b. the manubriosternal joint

Which of the following statements is true? a. Fast fibers have a small diameter. b. Fast fibers contain loosely packed myofibrils. c. Fast fibers have large glycogen reserves. d. Fast fibers have many mitochondria.

c. Fast fibers have large glycogen reserves.

A syndesmosis is ________. a. a narrow fibrous joint b. the type of joint that unites bones of the skull c. a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones d. the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws

c. a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones

Which of the following is a type of synovial joint? a. a synostosis b. a suture c. a plane joint d. a synchondrosis

c. a plane joint

A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________. a. glenohumeral joint b. costoclavicular joint c. acromioclavicular joint d. sternoclavicular joint

c. acromioclavicular joint

The joint between adjacent vertebrae that includes an invertebral disc is classified as which type of joint? a. diarthrosis b. multiaxial c. amphiarthrosis d. synarthrosis

c. amphiarthrosis

Which of the following properties is not common to all three muscle tissues? a. excitability b. the need for ATP c. at rest, uses shielding proteins to cover actin binding sites d. elasticity

c. at rest, uses shielding proteins to cover actin binding sites

Muscle relaxation occurs when ________. a. calcium ions are actively transported out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. calcium ions diffuse out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

c. calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

During muscle contraction, the cross-bridge detaches when ________. a. the myosin head binds to an ADP molecule b. the myosin head binds to an ATP molecule c. calcium ions bind to troponin d. calcium ions bind to actin

c. calcium ions bind to troponin

Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint? a. trochlea b. styloid process c. capitulum d. olecranon process

c. capitulum

During which phase of a twitch in a muscle fiber is tension the greatest? a. resting phase b. repolarization phase c. contraction phase d. relaxation phase

c. contraction phase

Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly. a. acromial process b. clavicle c. coracoid process d. glenoid fossa

c. coracoid process

During endochondral ossification of a long bone, ________. a. a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis b. mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue c. growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening d. all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth

c. growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening

The tibia ________. a. has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus b. is not a weight-bearing bone c. is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane d. can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends

c. is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane

The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures? a. inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus b. pectineal line and arcuate line c. lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch d. anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine

c. lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch

26. What structure contributes to the knee joint? a. lateral malleolus of the fibula b. tibial tuberosity c. medial condyle of the tibia d. lateral epicondyle of the femur

c. medial condyle of the tibia

From which embryonic cell type does muscle tissue develop? a. ganglion cells b. myotube cells c. myoblast cells d. satellite cells

c. myoblast cells

A bursa ________. a. surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint b. secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint c. prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone d. is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint

c. prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone

If cardiac muscle cells were prevented from undergoing aerobic metabolism, they ultimately would ________. a. undergo glycolysis b. synthesize ATP c. stop contracting d. start contracting

c. stop contracting

How many bones are there in the upper limbs combined? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 60

d. 60

A gomphosis ________. a. is formed by an interosseous membrane b. connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg c. contains a joint cavity d. anchors a tooth to the jaw

d. anchors a tooth to the jaw

Synovial joints ________. a. may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis b. are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage c. may be functionally classified as a amphiarthrosis d. are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

d. are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity

According to the sliding filament model, binding sites on actin open when ________. a. creatine phosphate levels rise b. ATP levels rise c. acetylcholine levels rise d. calcium ion levels rise

d. calcium ion levels rise

Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles in that they ________. a. are striated b. utilize aerobic metabolism c. contain myofibrils d. contain intercalated discs

d. contain intercalated discs

A synchondrosis is ________. a. found at the pubic symphysis b. where bones are connected together with fibrocartilage c. a type of fibrous joint d. found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage

d. found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage

Drug X blocks ATP regeneration from ADP and phosphate. How will muscle cells respond to this drug? a. by absorbing ATP from the bloodstream b. by using ADP as an energy source c. by using glycogen as an energy source d. none of the above

d. none of the above

Thin and thick filaments are organized into functional units called ________. a. myofibrils b. myofilaments c. T-tubules d. sarcomeres

d. sarcomeres

Which cell type helps to repair injured muscle fibers? a. ganglion cells b. myotube cells c. myoblast cells d. satellite cells

d. satellite cells

Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row? a. trapezium b. hamate c. pisiform d. scaphoid

d. scaphoid

At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________. a. forms the fibrous connective walls of the joint cavity b. is the layer of cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces of the bones c. forms the intracapsular ligaments d. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid

d. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid

Muscle that has a striped appearance is described as being ________. a. elastic b. nonstriated c. excitable d. striated

d. striated

Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula? a. suprascapular notch b. glenoid cavity c. superior angle d. supraspinous fossa

d. supraspinous fossa

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula? a. calcaneus b. cuboid c. navicular d. talus

d. talus

At synovial joints, ________. a. the articulating ends of the bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue b. the ends of the bones are enclosed within a space called a subcutaneous bursa c. intrinsic ligaments are located entirely inside of the articular capsule d. the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid

d. the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid

Which event takes place during the seventh week of development? a. appearance of the upper and lower limb buds b. flattening of the distal limb bud into a paddle shape c. the first appearance of hyaline cartilage models of future bones d. the rotation of the limbs

d. the rotation of the limbs

In relaxed muscle, the myosin-binding site on actin is blocked by ________. a. titin b. troponin c. myoglobin d. tropomyosin

d. tropomyosin