Quiz 5 - Part 2

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

(Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to

the Chart Supplement.

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when

there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action.

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?

0800 - 0000 hr. local time.

(Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

3 statute miles.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue.

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

An emergency.

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

(Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

When it will compromise safety.

If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is

1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.

(Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

1,403 feet MSL.

At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24.16' W96°23.06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?

118.7 MHz.

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

15,000 feet MSL.

A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

180 days.

(Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

19 feet.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

2,901 feet MSL.

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

200 knots.

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots.

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

250 knots.

(Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?

3,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?

3,549 feet MSL.

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

3402.5 hours.

(Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is

454 feet MSL.

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

5,500 feet.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

500 feet.

An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

60 days.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

8 hours.

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

Attached to the airworthiness certificate.

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Chart supplement and (D) NOTAMs.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

Chart supplement.

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out is mandated for aircraft operations in

Class A, B, and C airspace.

(Refer to Area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Class E.

(Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.

Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.

Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?

Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.

You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may

Depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements.

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must

Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?

Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

(Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

Fischer.

You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"

In the Chart Supplements U.S.

When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with

Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Line of longitude cross the equator at right angles.

The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a

Military Operations Area

(Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?

Northwest approximately 1 mile.

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?

Odd thousand plus 500 feet.

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

Pilot in command.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

Student pilots.

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

Sunset to sunrise.

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

Takeoffs and landings.

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of

The pilot in command.

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

The pilot.

(Refer to Area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Unmarked saloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

Upon request.

(Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

VOR/DME.

(Refer to Area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach control.

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering savannah class C airspace.

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30* or more.

What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3?

Wilderness area.

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

With passengers aboard.

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

You are PIC of a flight and determine that the aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the following is an appropriate decision?

You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance.

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

downloading them from the FAA website.

You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must

obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight.