Quiz 7 - Endocrine Problems

Which class of oral glucose-lowering agents (OA) is most commonly used for people with type 2 diabetes because it reduces hepatic glucose production and enhances tissue uptake of glucose? a. Insulin b. Biguanide c. Meglitinide d. Sulfonylurea

b. Biguanides (e.g., metformin [Glucophage]) are most commonly used with type 2 diabetes. They reduce glucose production by the liver and increase insulin sensitivity at the tissue level that improves glucose transport into the cells. Insulin is not taken orally, as it is ineffective. Meglitinides and sulfonylureas increase insulin production from the pancreas.

What assessment findings occur with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) (select all that apply)? a. Thirst b. Ketonuria c. Dehydration d. Metabolic acidosis e. Kussmaul respirations f. Sweet, fruity breath odor

a, b, c, d, e, f. In DKA, thirst occurs to replace fluid used to eliminate ketones in the urine in trying to decrease the blood glucose and ketonemia. The metabolic acidosis leads to the Kussmaul respirations trying to decrease the acid in the system. The sweet, fruity breath odor is from acetone. Thirst and dehydration are found with both DKA and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS).

What characterizes type 2 diabetes (select all that apply)? a. β-cell exhaustion b. Insulin resistance c. Genetic predisposition d. Altered production of adipokines e. Inherited defect in insulin receptors f. Inappropriate glucose production by the liver

a, b, c, d, e, f. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by β-cell exhaustion, insulin resistance, genetic predisposition, altered production of adipokines, inherited defect in insulin receptors, and inappropriate glucose production by the liver. The roles of the brain, kidneys, and gut in type 2 diabetes development are being studied.

Patient-Centered Care: A black woman with a history of breast cancer has panhypopituitarism from radiation therapy for a primary pituitary tumor. Which medications should the nurse teach her about needing for the rest of her life (select all that apply)? a. Cortisol b. Vasopressin c. Sex hormones d. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) e. Growth hormone (somatropin [Omnitrope]) f. Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine [Parlodel])

a, b, d, e. With panhypopituitarism, lifetime hormone replacement is needed for cortisol, vasopressin, thyroid, and GH. Sex hormones will not be replaced. Her GH will be monitored closely because of the patient's history of breast cancer. Dopamine agonists will not be used because they reduce secretion of GH, which has already been achieved with the radiation.

The nurse is teaching the patient with prediabetes ways to prevent or delay the development of type 2 diabetes. What information should be included (select all that apply)? a. Exercise regularly. b. Maintain a healthy weight. c. Have BP checked regularly. d. Assess for visual changes on a monthly basis. e. Monitor for polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia.

a, b, e. To reduce the risk of developing diabetes, the patient with prediabetes should maintain a healthy weight, learn to monitor for symptoms of diabetes, have blood glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) tested regularly, exercise regularly, and eat a healthy diet.

A patient has been diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. What manifestations should the nurse expect to observe (select all that apply)? a. Skeletal pain b. Dysrhythmias c. Dry, scaly skin d. Personality changes e. Abdominal cramping f. Muscle spasms and stiffness

a, c, d, e, f. In hypoparathyroidism, the patient has inadequate circulating parathyroid hormone (PTH) that leads to hypocalcemia from the inability to maintain serum calcium levels. With hypocalcemia, there is muscle stiffness and spasms, which can lead to dysrhythmias and abdominal cramps. There can be personality and visual changes and dry, scaly skin.

The patient with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 248 mg/dL. Which assessment findings would be related to this blood glucose level (select all that apply)? a. Headache b. Unsteady gait c. Abdominal cramps d. Emotional changes e. Increase in urination f. Weakness and fatigue

a, c, e, f. Manifestations of hyperglycemia include abdominal cramps, polyuria, weakness, fatigue, and headache. The headache may also be seen with hypoglycemia that is manifested by the remaining options.

When teaching the patient with type 1 diabetes, what should the nurse emphasize as the major advantage of using an insulin pump? a. Tight glycemic control can be maintained. b. Errors in insulin dosing are less likely to occur. c. Complications of insulin therapy are prevented. d. Frequent blood glucose monitoring is unnecessary.

a. Insulin pumps provide tight glycemic control by continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion based on the patient's basal profile, with bolus doses at mealtime at the patient's discretion and related to blood glucose monitoring. Errors in insulin dosing and complications of insulin therapy are still potential risks with insulin pumps.

Priority Decision: When caring for a patient with metabolic syndrome, the nurse should give the highest priority to teaching the patient about which treatment plan? a. Achieving a normal weight b. Performing daily aerobic exercise c. Eliminating red meat from the diet d. Monitoring the blood glucose periodically

a. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of abnormalities that include elevated glucose levels, abdominal obesity, elevated BP, high levels of triglycerides, and low levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs). Overweight persons with metabolic syndrome can prevent or delay the onset of diabetes through a program of weight loss. Regular physical activity is also important, but normal weight is most important.

A 72-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes. What does the nurse recognize about managing diabetes in the older adult? a. It is harder to achieve strict glucose control than in younger patients. b. Treatment is not warranted unless the patient develops severe hyperglycemia. c. It does not include treatment with insulin because of limited dexterity and vision. d. It usually requires that a younger family member be responsible for care of the patient.

a. Older adults have more conditions that may be treated with medications that impair insulin action. Hypoglycemic unawareness is more common, so these patients are more likely to suffer adverse consequences from blood glucose-lowering therapy. Manifestations of long-term complications of diabetes take 10 to 20 years to develop, so the goals for glycemic control are not as rigid as in the younger population. Treatment is indicated and insulin may be used if the patient does not respond to oral agents. The patient's needs rather than age determine the responsibility of others in care.

Patient-Centered Care: The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of fatigue for a patient with hypothyroidism. What should the nurse do while caring for this patient? a. Assess for changes in orientation, cognition, and behavior. b. Monitor for vital signs and cardiac rhythm response to activity. c. Monitor bowel movement frequency, consistency, shape, volume, and color. d. Help in developing well-balanced meal plans consistent with energy expenditure level.

b. Cardiorespiratory response to activity is important to monitor in this patient to determine the effect of activities and plan activity increases. Monitoring changes in orientation, cognition, and behavior are interventions for impaired memory. Monitoring bowels is needed to plan care for the patient with constipation. Assisting with meal planning will help the patient lose weight if needed.

Collaboration: The following interventions are planned for a patient with diabetes. Which intervention can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Discuss complications of diabetes. b. Check that the bath water is not too hot. c. Check the patient's technique for drawing up insulin. d. Teach the patient to use a meter for self-monitoring of blood glucose.

b. Checking the temperature of the bath water is part of assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) and within the scope of care for the UAP. This is important for the patient with neuropathy. Discussing complications, teaching, and assessing learning are appropriate for RNs.

In a patient with central diabetes insipidus, what is the expected outcome of administering ADH during a water deprivation test? a. Decrease in body weight b. Increase in urinary output c. Decrease in blood pressure d. Increase in urine osmolality

d. A patient with central DI has a deficiency of ADH with excessive loss of water from the kidney, hypovolemia, hypernatremia, and dilute urine with a low specific gravity. When desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is administered, the symptoms are reversed, with water retention, decreased urinary output that increases urine osmolality, and an increase in BP.

Priority Decision: When replacement therapy is started for a patient with long-standing hypothyroidism, what is most important for the nurse to monitor for in the patient? a. Insomnia b. Weight loss c. Nervousness d. Dysrhythmias

d. All these manifestations may occur with treatment of hypothyroidism. However, because of the effects of hypothyroidism on the cardiovascular system, when thyroid replacement therapy is started, myocardial oxygen consumption is increased, and the resultant oxygen demand may cause angina, dysrhythmias, and heart failure. So, monitoring for dysrhythmias is most important.

Following the teaching of foot care to a patient with diabetes, the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient makes which statement? a. "I should wash my feet daily with soap and warm water." b. "I should always wear shoes to protect my feet from injury." c. "If my feet are cold, I should wear socks instead of using a heating pad." d. "I'll know if I have sores or lesions on my feet because they will be painful."

d. Complete or partial loss of protective sensation of the feet is common with peripheral neuropathy of diabetes, and patients with diabetes may suffer foot injury and ulceration without ever having pain. Feet must be inspected during daily care for any cuts, blisters, swelling, or reddened areas.

What assessment findings are common in a patient with a prolactinoma? a. Gynecomastia in men b. Profuse menstruation in women c. Excess follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) d. Signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, and vomiting

d. Compression of the optic chiasm can cause visual problems as well as signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, and vomiting. About 30% of prolactinomas will have excess prolactin secretion with manifestations of impotence in men, galactorrhea or amenorrhea in women without relationship to pregnancy, and decreased libido in both men and women. There is decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

The home care nurse should intervene to correct a patient whose insulin administration includes a. warming a prefilled refrigerated syringe in the hands before administration. b. storing syringes prefilled with NPH and regular insulin needle-up in the refrigerator. c. placing the insulin bottle currently in use in a small container on the bathroom countertop. d. mixing an evening dose of regular insulin with insulin glargine in 1 syringe for administration.

d. Insulin glargine (Lantus), a long-acting insulin that is continuously released with no peak of action, cannot be diluted or mixed with any other insulin or solution. Mixed insulins should be stored needle-up in the refrigerator and warmed before administration. Currently used bottles of insulin may be kept at room temperature out of sunlight for 4 weeks.

In addition to promoting the transport of glucose from the blood into the cell, what does insulin do? a. Enhances the breakdown of adipose tissue for energy b. Stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis c. Prevents the transport of triglycerides into adipose tissue d. Increases amino acid transport into cells and protein synthesis

d. Insulin is an anabolic hormone that is responsible for growth, repair, and storage. It facilitates movement of amino acids into cells, synthesis of protein, storage of glucose as glycogen, and deposition of triglycerides and lipids as fat into adipose tissue. Fat is used for energy when glucose levels are depleted. Glucagon is responsible for hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Lispro insulin (Humalog) with NPH (Humulin N) insulin is ordered for a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes. When should the nurse administer lispro insulin? a. Only once a day b. 1 hour before meals c. 30 to 45 minutes before meals d. At mealtime or within 15 minutes of meals

d. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that has an onset of action of approximately 15 minutes and should be injected at the time of the meal to within 15 minutes of eating. Regular insulin is short acting with an onset of action in 30 to 60 minutes following administration and should be given 30 to 45 minutes before meals.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute thyrotoxicosis. On physical assessment of the patient, what should the nurse expect to find? a. Hoarseness and laryngeal stridor b. Bulging eyeballs and dysrhythmias c. Increased temperature and signs of heart failure d. Lethargy progressing suddenly to impaired consciousness

c. A thyroid storm results in marked manifestations of hyperthyroidism. Severe tachycardia, heart failure, shock, hyperthermia, agitation delirium, seizures, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and coma occur. Although exophthalmos may be present in the patient with Graves' disease, it is not a significant factor in thyrotoxic crisis. Hoarseness and laryngeal stridor are characteristic of the tetany of hypoparathyroidism and lethargy progressing to coma is characteristic of myxedema coma, a complication of hypothyroidism.

A patient who is on corticosteroid therapy for treatment of an autoimmune disorder has the following drugs ordered. Which one is used to prevent corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis? a. Potassium b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Alendronate (Fosamax) d. Pantoprazole (Protonix)

c. Alendronate (Fosamax) is used to prevent corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis. Potassium is used to prevent the mineralocorticoid effect of hypokalemia. Furosemide (Lasix) is used to decrease sodium and fluid retention from the mineralocorticoid effect. Pantoprazole (Protonix) is used to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) irritation from an increase in secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid.

A patient suspected of having acromegaly has an increased plasma growth hormone (GH) level. In acromegaly, what would the nurse expect the patient's diagnostic results to show? a. Hyperinsulinemia b. Plasma glucose of less than 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) c. Decreased GH levels with an oral glucose challenge test d. Increased levels of plasma insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)

d. A normal response to growth hormone (GH) secretion is stimulation of the liver to produce insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1). In acromegaly, there are increased levels of IGF-1. When both GH and IGF-1 levels are increased, overproduction of GH is confirmed. GH also causes elevation of blood glucose and normally GH levels fall during an oral glucose challenge but not in acromegaly.

During routine health screening, a patient is found to have fasting plasma glucose (FPG) of 132 mg/dL (7.33 mmol/L). At a follow-up visit, a diagnosis of diabetes would be made based on which laboratory results (select all that apply)? a. A1C of 7.5% b. Glycosuria of 3+ c. FPG ≥127 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L). d. Random blood glucose of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) e. A 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) of 190 mg/dL (10.5 mmol/L)

a, c. The patient has 1 prior test result of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥ to 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) that meets criteria for a diagnosis of diabetes, and the result is confirmed on this follow-up visit. The A1C is 7.5% and greater than diagnostic criteria of 6.5% or higher. The other diagnostic criteria include a 2-hour OGTT level ≥200 mg/ dL (11.1 mmol/L), or a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia (polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, unexplained weight loss) or hyperglycemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL (11.0 mmol/L).

Patient-Centered Care: The patient with type 2 diabetes is being put on acarbose (Precose) and wants to know about taking it. What should the nurse include in this patient's teaching (select all that apply)? a. Take it with the first bite of each meal. b. It is not used in patients with heart failure. c. Endogenous glucose production is decreased. d. Effectiveness is measured by 2-hour postprandial glucose. e. It delays glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

a, d, e. Acarbose (Precose) is an α-glucosidase inhibitor that is taken with the first bite of each meal. The effectiveness is measured with 2-hour postprandial blood glucose testing, as it delays glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The other options describe rarely used thiazolidinediones.

Priority Decision: The patient with diabetes is brought to the emergency department by his family members, who say that he has had an infection, is not acting like himself, and he is more tired than usual. Number the nursing actions in the order of priority for this patient. _______ a. Establish IV access. _______ b. Check blood glucose. _______ c. Ensure patent airway. _______ d. Begin continuous regular insulin drip. _______ e. Administer 0.9% NaCl solution at 1 L/hr. _______ f. Establish time of last food and medication(s).

a. 3; b. 2; c. 1; d. 5; e. 4; f. 6. As with all patients, first establish an airway. With a patient with diabetes and abnormal behavior, the blood glucose must then be checked to determine if the patient's symptoms are related to the diabetes. In this case, it is hyperglycemia, so an IV must be started for fluid resuscitation and insulin administration. The last food intake and times at which medications were recently taken may establish a cause for the hyperglycemia and aid in determining further treatment.

Priority Decision: As a precaution for vocal cord paralysis from damage to the superior laryngeal nerve during thyroidectomy surgery, what is the most important equipment to have in the room in case it is needed for this emergency situation? a. Tracheostomy tray b. Oxygen equipment c. IV calcium gluconate d. Paper and pencil for communication

a. A tracheostomy tray must be in the room to use if the emergency situation of vocal cord paralysis occurs from recurrent or superior laryngeal nerve damage or for laryngeal stridor from tetany. The oxygen equipment may be useful but will not improve oxygenation with vocal cord paralysis without a tracheostomy. IV calcium salts will be used if hypocalcemia occurs from parathyroid damage. The paper and pencil for communication may be helpful, especially if a tracheostomy is done, but will not aid in emergency oxygenation of the patient.

Patient-Centered Care: A patient with acromegaly is treated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. What should the nurse do postoperatively? a. Ensure that any clear nasal drainage is tested for glucose and protein. b. Maintain the patient flat in bed to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. c. Aid the patient with tooth brushing every 4 hours to keep the surgical area clean. d. Encourage deep breathing, coughing, and turning to prevent respiratory complications.

a. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves entry into the sella turcica through an incision in the upper lip and gingiva into the floor of the nose and the sphenoid sinuses. Clear nasal drainage with glucose and protein content indicates cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from an open connection to the brain, putting the patient at risk for meningitis. After surgery, the patient is positioned with the head elevated to avoid pressure on the sella turcica. Although mouth care is required every 4 hours, toothbrushing should not be done because injury to the suture line may occur. Coughing and straining are avoided to prevent increased intracranial pressure and CSF leakage.

Priority Decision: Two days after a self-managed hypoglycemic episode at home, the patient tells the nurse that his blood glucose levels since the episode have been between 80 and 90 mg/dL. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. "That is a good range for your glucose levels." b. "You should call your HCP because you need to have your insulin increased." c. "That level is too low in view of your recent hypoglycemia and you should increase your food intake." d. "You should take only half your insulin dosage for the next few days to get your glucose level back to normal."

a. Blood glucose levels of 80 to 90 mg/dL (4.4 to 5 mmol/L) are within the normal range and are desired in the patient with diabetes, even following a recent hypoglycemic episode. Hypoglycemia is often caused by a single event, such as skipping a meal, taking too much insulin, or vigorous exercise. Once corrected, normal glucose control should be maintained.

Priority Decision: A patient with diabetes calls the clinic because she has nausea and flu-like symptoms. Which advice from the nurse will be the best for this patient? a. Administer the usual insulin dosage. b. Hold fluid intake until the nausea subsides. c. Come to the clinic immediately for evaluation and treatment. d. Monitor the blood glucose every 1 to 2 hours and call if it rises over 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L).

a. During minor illnesses, the patient with diabetes should continue drug therapy and fluid and food intake. Insulin is important because counter regulatory hormones may increase blood glucose during the stress of illness. Food or a carbohydrate liquid substitution is important because during illness the body requires extra energy to deal with the stress of the illness. Blood glucose monitoring should be done every 4 hours, and the HCP should be notified if the level is >240 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L) or if fever, ketonuria, or nausea and vomiting occur.

Which statement accurately describes Graves' disease? a. Exophthalmos occurs in Graves' disease. b. It is an uncommon form of hyperthyroidism. c. Manifestations of hyperthyroidism occur from tissue desensitization to the sympathetic nervous system. d. Diagnostic testing in the patient with Graves' disease will reveal an increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

a. Exophthalmos or protrusion of the eyeballs may occur in Graves' disease from increased fat deposits and fluid in the orbital tissues and ocular muscles, forcing the eyeballs outward. Graves' disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism. Increased metabolic rate and sensitivity of the sympathetic nervous system lead to the manifestations. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is decreased in Graves' disease.

Individualized nutrition therapy for patients using conventional, fixed insulin regimens should include teaching the patient to a. eat regular meals at regular times. b. restrict calories to promote moderate weight loss. c. eliminate sucrose and other simple sugars from the diet. d. limit saturated fat intake to 30% of dietary calorie intake.

a. The body needs food at regularly spaced intervals throughout the day. Omission or delay of meals can result in hypoglycemia, especially for the patient using conventional insulin therapy or OAs. Weight loss may be recommended in type 2 diabetes if the person is overweight, but many patients with type 1 diabetes are thin and do not require a decrease in caloric intake. Fewer than 7% of total calories should be from saturated fats and simple sugar should be limited, but moderate amounts can be used if counted as a part of total carbohydrate intake.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. On physical assessment of the patient, what should the nurse expect to find? a. Hypertension, peripheral edema, and petechiae b. Weight loss, buffalo hump, and moon face with acne c. Abdominal and buttock striae, truncal obesity, and hypotension d. Anorexia, signs of dehydration, and hyperpigmentation of the skin

a. The effects of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) excess, especially glucocorticoid excess, include weight gain from accumulation and redistribution of adipose tissue, sodium and water retention, glucose intolerance, protein wasting, loss of bone structure, loss of collagen, and capillary fragility leading to petechiae. Manifestations of adrenocortical hormone deficiency include hypotension, dehydration, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin.

During care of the patient with SIADH, what should the nurse do? a. Monitor neurologic status at least every 2 hours. b. Teach the patient receiving diuretic therapy to restrict sodium intake. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to prevent antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release. d. Notify the health care provider (HCP) if the patient's BP decreases more than 20 mm Hg from baseline.

a. The patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has marked dilutional hyponatremia and should be monitored for decreased neurologic function and seizures every 2 hours. Sodium intake is supplemented because of the hyponatremia and sodium loss caused by diuretics. ADH release is reduced by keeping the head of the bed flat to increase left atrial filling pressure. A reduction in BP indicates a reduction in total fluid volume and is an expected outcome of treatment.

To prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia related to exercise, what should the nurse teach the patient using glucose-lowering agents about the best time for exercise? a. Plan activity and food intake related to blood glucose levels b. When blood glucose is greater than 250 mg/dL and ketones are present c. When glucose monitoring reveals that the blood glucose is in the normal range d. When blood glucose levels are high, because exercise always has a hypoglycemic effect

a. To plan for exercise, a person with diabetes must monitor blood glucose and make adjustments to insulin dose (if taken) and food intake to prevent exercise-induced hypoglycemia. Exercise is delayed if blood glucose is ≥250 mg/dL with ketones. Before exercise if blood glucose is ≤100 mg/dL a 15-g carbohydrate snack is eaten. Blood glucose levels should be monitored before, during, and after exercise to determine the effect of exercise on the levels.

What preoperative instruction should the nurse give to the patient scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy? a. How to support the head with the hands when turning in bed b. Coughing should be avoided to prevent pressure on the incision c. Head and neck will have to remain immobile until the incision heals d. Any tingling around the lips or in the fingers after surgery is expected and temporary

a. To prevent strain on the suture line after surgery, the patient's head must be manually supported while turning and moving in bed. Range-of-motion exercises for the head and neck are taught preoperatively to be gradually implemented after surgery. There is no contraindication for coughing and deep breathing. These should be carried out after surgery. Tingling around the lips or fingers is a sign of hypocalcemia, which may occur if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently removed during surgery. This sign should be reported at once.

A patient with diabetes is learning to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient does what? a. Withdraws the NPH dose into the syringe first b. Injects air equal to the NPH dose into the NPH vial first c. Removes any air bubbles after withdrawing the first insulin d. Adds air equal to the insulin dose into the regular vial and withdraws the dose

a. When mixing regular and intermediate-acting insulin, regular insulin should always be drawn into the syringe first to prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with intermediate-acting insulin additives. Air is added to the NPH vial first. Then air is added to the regular vial and the regular insulin is withdrawn, bubbles are removed, and then the dose of NPH is withdrawn.

Which characteristics most accurately describe the use of RAI (select all that apply)? a. Decreases release of thyroid hormones b. Often causes hypothyroidism over time c. Blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 d. Treatment of choice in nonpregnant adults e. Often used with iodine to produce euthyroid before surgery f. Decreases thyroid hormone secretion by damaging thyroid gland

b, d, f. RAI causes hypothyroidism over time by damaging thyroid tissue. This decreases thyroid hormone secretion and is the treatment of choice for nonpregnant adults. Potassium iodine decreases the release of thyroid hormones and the size of the thyroid gland before surgery. Propylthiouracil blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 and may be used with iodine to produce a euthyroid state before surgery.

What disorders and diseases are related to macrovascular complications of diabetes (select all that apply)? a. Chronic kidney disease b. Coronary artery disease c. Microaneurysms and destruction of retinal vessels d. Ulceration and amputation of the lower extremities e. Capillary and arteriole membrane thickening specific to diabetes

b, d. Macrovascular disease causes coronary artery disease and ulceration and results in amputation of the lower extremities. However, neuropathy may contribute to not feeling ulcerations. The remaining options are related to microvascular complications of diabetes.

The patient with diabetes has been diagnosed with autonomic neuropathy. What problems should the nurse assess for in this patient (select all that apply)? a. Painless foot ulcers b. Erectile dysfunction c. Burning foot pain at night d. Loss of fine motor control e. Vomiting undigested food f. Painless myocardial infarction

b, e, f. Autonomic neuropathy affects most body systems. Manifestations of autonomic neuropathy include erectile dysfunction in men and decreased libido, gastroparesis (nausea, vomiting, gastroesophageal reflux and feeling full), painless myocardial infarction, postural hypotension, and resting tachycardia. The remaining options would occur with sensory neuropathy.

What is an appropriate nursing intervention for the patient with hyperparathyroidism? a. Pad side rails as a seizure precaution. b. Increase fluid intake to 3000 to 4000 mL daily. c. Maintain bed rest to prevent pathologic fractures. d. Monitor the patient for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.

b. A high fluid intake is indicated in hyperparathyroidism to dilute the hypercalcemia and flush the kidneys so that calcium stone formation is reduced. Seizures are not associated with hyperparathyroidism. The patient with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for pathologic fractures resulting from decreased bone density, but mobility is encouraged to promote bone calcification. Impending tetany of hypoparathyroidism after parathyroidectomy can be noted with Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.

A patient with type 1 diabetes uses 20 U of Novolin 70/30 (NPH/regular) in the morning and at 6:00 pm. When teaching the patient about this regimen, what should the nurse emphasize? a. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur before the noon meal. b. A set meal pattern with a bedtime snack is necessary to prevent hypoglycemia. c. Flexibility in food intake is possible because insulin is available 24 hours a day. d. Premeal glucose checks are required to determine needed changes in daily dosing.

b. A split-mixed dose of insulin requires that the patient adhere to a set meal pattern to provide glucose for the peak action of the insulin, and a bedtime snack is usually required when patients take an intermediate-acting insulin late in the day to prevent nocturnal hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur with this dose late in the afternoon and during the night. When premixed formulas are used, flexible dosing based on glucose levels is not recommended.

Patient-Centered Care: During discharge teaching for the patient with Addison's disease, which patient statement indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I should always call the doctor if I develop vomiting or diarrhea." b. "If my weight goes down, my dosage of steroid is probably too high." c. "I should double or triple my steroid dose if I undergo rigorous physical exercise." d. "I need to carry an emergency kit with injectable hydrocortisone in case I can't take my medication by mouth."

b. A weight reduction in the patient with Addison's disease may indicate a fluid loss and a dose of replacement therapy that is too low rather than too high. Because vomiting and diarrhea are early signs of crisis and because fluid and electrolytes must be replaced, patients should notify their HCP if these symptoms occur. Patients with Addison's disease are taught to take 2 to 3 times their usual dose of steroids if they become ill, have teeth extracted, or engage in rigorous physical activity and should always have injectable hydrocortisone available if oral doses cannot be taken.

A patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes has been given a prescription to start an oral hypoglycemic medication. The patient tells the nurse she would rather control her blood sugar with herbal therapy. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient that herbal therapy is not safe and should not be used. b. Advise the patient to discuss using herbal therapy with her HCP before using it. c. Encourage the patient to give the prescriptive medication time to work before using herbal therapy. d. Teach the patient that if she takes herbal therapy, she will have to monitor her blood sugar more often.

b. Advise the patient to seek the guidance of the HCP regarding the safety, efficacy, and specifics of using herbal therapy rather than or with the medication prescribed. Not all herbal therapy is unsafe, but dosages are not universal.

A patient with hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine (Synthroid). What should the nurse include when teaching the patient about this therapy? a. Explain that alternate-day dosage may be used if side effects occur. b. Provide written instruction for all information related to the drug therapy. c. Tell the patient that the drug must be taken until the hormone balance is reestablished. d. Assure the patient that a return to normal function will occur with replacement therapy.

b. Because of the mental sluggishness, inattentiveness, and memory loss that occur with hypothyroidism, it is important to provide written instructions and repeat information when teaching the patient. Replacement therapy must be taken for life and alternate-day dosing is not therapeutic. Although most patients return to a normal state with treatment, cardiovascular conditions and psychoses may persist.

Patient-Centered Care: When caring for a patient with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would question an HCP's prescription for which drug? a. Ketoconazole b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Eplerenone (Inspra) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

b. Hyperaldosteronism is an excess of aldosterone, which is manifested by sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic that would increase the potassium deficiency. Ketoconazole decreases adrenal corticosteroid secretion. Eplerenone and spironolactone are potassium-sparing diuretics.

When caring for a patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse expect the treatment to include? a. Fluid restriction b. Thiazide diuretics c. A high-sodium diet d. Metformin (Glucophage)

b. In nephrogenic DI, the kidney is unable to respond to ADH, so vasopressin or hormone analogs are not effective. Thiazide diuretics may reduce flow to the ADH-sensitive distal nephrons and produce a decrease in urine output. Fluids are not restricted because the patient could easily become dehydrated. Low-sodium diets (<3 g/day) are also thought to decrease urine output. An antidiabetic drug is not needed.

When teaching the patient with diabetes about insulin administration, the nurse should include which instruction? a. Pull back on the plunger after inserting the needle to check for blood. b. Consistently use the same size of insulin syringe to avoid dosing errors. c. Clean the skin at the injection site with an alcohol swab before each injection. d. Rotate injection sites from arms to thighs to abdomen with each injection to prevent lipodystrophies.

b. Patients should consistently use the same size of insulin syringe to avoid dosing errors. Errors can be made if patients switch back and forth between different sizes of syringes. Aspiration before injection of the insulin is no longer recommended, nor is the use of alcohol to clean the skin. Because the rate of peak serum concentration varies with the site selected for injection, injections should be rotated within a particular area, such as the abdomen, before changing to another area. Lipodystrophies are rare with the use of human insulin.

Priority Decision: What is the priority nursing intervention during the management of the patient with pheochromocytoma? a. Administering IV fluids b. Monitoring BP c. Administering β-adrenergic blockers d. Monitoring intake and output and daily weights

b. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor of the adrenal medulla, which may cause severe, episodic hypertension and severe, pounding headache; tachycardia; and profuse sweating. Monitoring for a dangerously high BP before and after surgery is critical, as is monitoring for BP fluctuations during medical and surgical treatment.

In type 1 diabetes, glucose has an osmotic effect when insulin deficiency prevents the use of glucose for energy. Which classic symptom is caused by the osmotic effect of glucose? a. Fatigue b. Polydipsia c. Polyphagia d. Recurrent infections

b. Polydipsia is caused by fluid loss from polyuria when high glucose levels cause osmotic diuresis. Cellular starvation from lack of glucose and the use of body fat and protein for energy contribute to fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia in type 1 diabetes.

Priority Decision: The nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with diabetes. Which observation should be addressed as the priority by the nurse? a. Bilateral numbness of both hands b. Rapid respirations with deep inspiration c. Stage II pressure injury on the right heel d. Areas of lumps and dents on the abdomen

b. Rapid deep respirations are symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), so this is the priority of care. Stage II pressure injuries and bilateral numbness are chronic complications of diabetes. The lumps and dents on the abdomen indicate the patient has lipodystrophy and may need to learn about site rotation of insulin injections.

When the patient with parathyroid disease has symptoms of hypocalcemia, what is a measure that can be used to temporarily raise serum calcium levels? a. Administer IV normal saline. b. Have patient rebreathe in a paper bag. c. Administer oral phosphorus supplements. d. Administer furosemide (Lasix) as ordered.

b. Rebreathing in a paper bag promotes carbon dioxide retention in the blood, which lowers pH and creates an acidosis. An acidemia enhances the solubility and ionization of calcium, increasing the proportion of total body calcium available in physiologically active form and relieving the symptoms of hypocalcemia. Saline promotes calcium excretion, as does furosemide. Phosphate levels in the blood are reciprocal to calcium and an increase in phosphate promotes calcium excretion.

A nurse working in an outpatient clinic plans a screening program for diabetes. What recommendations for screening should be included? a. OGTT for all minority populations every year b. FPG for all persons at age 45 years and then every 3 years c. Testing people under the age of 21 years for islet cell antibodies d. Testing for type 2 diabetes in all overweight or obese persons

b. The American Diabetes Association recommends that testing for type 2 diabetes with a FPG, A1C, or 2-hour OGTT should be considered for all persons at the age of 45 years and above and, if normal, repeated every 3 years. Testing for immune markers of type 1 diabetes is not recommended. Testing at a younger age or more frequently should be done for members of a high-risk ethnic population, including blacks, Hispanics, Native Americans, Asian Americans, and Pacific Islanders. Overweight adults with additional risk factors should be tested.

Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, and growth hormone are referred to as counterregulatory hormones because they a. Decrease glucose production b. Stimulate glucose output by the liver c. Increase glucose transport into the cells d. Independently regulate glucose level in the blood

b. The counter regulatory hormones have the opposite effect of insulin by stimulating glucose production and output by the liver and by decreasing glucose transport into the cells. The counter regulatory hormones and insulin together regulate the blood glucose level.

Which statement best describes atherosclerotic disease affecting the cerebrovascular, cardiovascular, and peripheral vascular systems in patients with diabetes? a. It can be prevented by tight glucose control. b. It occurs with a higher frequency and earlier onset than in the nondiabetic population. c. It is caused by hyperinsulinemia related to insulin resistance common in type 2 diabetes. d. It cannot be modified by reducing risk factors, such as smoking, obesity, and high fat intake.

b. The development of atherosclerotic vessel disease seems to be promoted by the altered lipid metabolism common in diabetes. Although tight glucose control may help delay the process, it does not prevent it completely. Atherosclerosis in patients with diabetes does respond somewhat to a reduction in general risk factors, as it does in nondiabetics, and reduction in fat intake, control of hypertension, abstention from smoking, maintenance of normal weight, and regular exercise should be carried out by all patients.

A patient with SIADH is treated with water restriction. Which findings would indicate that treatment has been effective? a. Increased urine output, decreased serum sodium, and increased urine specific gravity b. Increased urine output, increased serum sodium, and decreased urine specific gravity c. Decreased urine output, increased serum sodium, and decreased urine specific gravity d. Decreased urine output, decreased serum sodium, and increased urine specific gravity

b. The patient with SIADH has water retention with hyponatremia, decreased urine output, and concentrated urine with high specific gravity. Improvement in the patient's condition is reflected by increased urine output, normalization of serum sodium, and more water in the urine, thus decreasing the specific gravity.

What should the goals of nutrition therapy for the patient with type 2 diabetes include? a. Ideal body weight b. Normal serum glucose and lipid levels c. A special diabetic diet using dietetic foods d. Five small meals per day with a bedtime snack

b. The specific goals of nutrition therapy for people with diabetes include maintaining near-normal blood glucose levels and achievement of optimal serum lipid levels and BP. Dietary modifications are believed to be important factors in preventing both short-and long-term complications of diabetes. Loss of weight, which may or may not be to ideal body weight, may improve insulin resistance. There is no longer a specific "diabetic diet," and use of dietetic foods is not necessary for glucose control. Most patients with diabetes eat 3 meals a day, and some require a bedtime snack for control of nighttime hypoglycemia. The other goals of nutrition therapy include prevention of chronic complications of diabetes, attention to individual nutritional needs, and maintenance of the pleasure of eating.

A patient with Addison's disease comes to the ED with reports of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. What interprofessional care should the nurse expect? a. IV administration of vasopressors b. IV administration of hydrocortisone c. IV administration of D5W with 20 mEq KCl d. Parenteral injections of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

b. Vomiting and diarrhea are early indicators of Addisonian crisis. Fever indicates an infection, which is causing added stress for the patient. Treatment of a crisis requires immediate IV hydrocortisone replacement. Large volumes of 0.9% saline and 5% dextrose fluids are given to reverse hypotension and electrolyte imbalances until BP returns to normal. Addison's disease is a primary insufficiency of the adrenal gland and ACTH is not effective, nor would vasopressors be effective with the fluid deficiency of Addison's disease. Potassium levels are increased in Addison's disease and KCl would be contraindicated.

The patient is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Decreased body weight b. Decreased urinary output c. Increased plasma osmolality d. Increased serum sodium levels

b. With increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH), the permeability of the renal distal tubules is increased, so water is reabsorbed into circulation. Decreased output of concentrated urine with increased urine osmolality and specific gravity occur. In addition, fluid retention with weight gain, serum hypoosmolality, dilutional hyponatremia, and hypochloremia occur.

Which tissues require insulin to enable movement of glucose into the tissue cells (select all that apply)? a. Liver b. Brain c. Adipose d. Blood cells e. Skeletal muscle

c, e. Adipose tissue and skeletal muscle require insulin to allow the transport of glucose into the cells. Brain, liver, and blood cells require adequate glucose supply for normal function but do not depend directly on insulin for glucose transport.

A patient is scheduled for a bilateral adrenalectomy. During the postoperative period, what should the nurse expect related to the administration of corticosteroids? a. Reduced to promote wound healing b. Withheld until symptoms of hypocortisolism appear c. Increased to promote an adequate response to the stress of surgery d. Reduced with excessive hormone release during surgical manipulation of adrenal glands

c. Although the patient with Cushing syndrome has excess corticosteroids, removing the glands and the stress of surgery require that high doses of corticosteroids (cortisone) be given after surgery for several days before weaning the dose. The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs to detect whether large amounts of hormones were released during surgical manipulation, obtain morning urine specimens for cortisol measurement to evaluate the effectiveness of the surgery, and provide dressing changes with aseptic technique to avoid infection as usual inflammatory responses are suppressed.

The nurse assesses the technique of the patient with diabetes for self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) 3 months after initial instruction. Which error in the performance of SMBG noted by the nurse requires intervention? a. Doing the SMBG before and after exercising b. Puncturing the finger on the side of the finger pad c. Cleaning the puncture site with alcohol before the puncture d. Holding the hand down for a few minutes before the puncture

c. Cleaning the puncture site with alcohol is not necessary and may interfere with test results and lead to drying and splitting of the fingertips. Washing the hands with warm water is adequate cleaning and promotes blood flow to the fingers. Blood flow is also increased by holding the hand down. Punctures on the side of the finger pad are less painful. Self-monitored blood glucose (SMBG) should be performed before and after exercise.

Patient-Centered Care: A patient with diabetes insipidus is treated with nasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The nurse determines that the drug is not having an adequate therapeutic effect when the patient experiences a. headache and weight gain. b. nasal irritation and nausea. c. a urine specific gravity of 1.002. d. an oral intake greater than urinary output.

c. Normal urine specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.030. A urine with a specific gravity of 1.002 is very dilute, indicating that there continues to be excessive loss of water and that treatment of DI is inadequate. Headache, weight gain, and oral intake greater than urinary output are signs of volume excess that occur with overmedication. Nasal irritation and nausea may also indicate overdosage.

A patient with mild iatrogenic Cushing syndrome is on an alternate-day regimen of corticosteroid therapy. What does the nurse explain to the patient about this regimen? a. It maintains normal adrenal hormone balance. b. It prevents ACTH release from the pituitary gland. c. It minimizes hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal suppression. d. It provides a more effective therapeutic effect of the drug.

c. Taking corticosteroids on an alternate-day schedule for pharmacologic purposes is less likely to suppress ACTH production from the pituitary and prevent adrenal atrophy. This method is not used when corticosteroids are given as hormone therapy. Normal adrenal hormone balance is not maintained nor is it more effective.

A patient with hypoparathyroidism from surgical treatment of hyperparathyroidism is preparing for discharge. What should the nurse teach the patient? a. Milk and milk products should be increased in the diet. b. Parenteral replacement of parathyroid hormone will be needed for life. c. Calcium supplements with vitamin D can effectively maintain calcium balance. d. Bran and whole-grain foods should be used to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) effects of replacement therapy.

c. The hypocalcemia that results from PTH deficiency is controlled with calcium and vitamin D supplementation and possibly oral phosphate binders. Replacement with PTH is not used because of antibody formation to PTH, the need for parenteral administration, and cost. Milk products, although good sources of calcium, have high levels of phosphate, which reduce calcium absorption. Whole grains and foods containing oxalic acid impair calcium absorption.

During assessment of the patient with acromegaly, what should the nurse expect the patient to report? a. Infertility b. Dry, irritated skin c. Undesirable changes in appearance d. An increase in height of 2 to 3 inches a year

c. The increased production of GH in acromegaly causes an increase in thickness and width of bones and enlargement of soft tissues, resulting in marked changes in facial features, feet, and head; oily and coarse skin; and speech difficulties. Infertility is not a common finding because GH is usually the only pituitary hormone involved in acromegaly. Height is not increased in adults with GH excess because the epiphyses of the bones are closed.

What describes the primary difference in treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)? a. DKA requires administration of bicarbonate to correct acidosis. b. Potassium replacement is not necessary in management of HHS. c. HHS requires greater fluid replacement to correct the dehydration. d. Glucose is withheld in HHS until the blood glucose reaches a normal level.

c. The management of DKA is similar to that of HHS except that HHS requires greater fluid replacement because of the severe hyperosmolar state. Bicarbonate is not usually given in DKA to correct acidosis unless the pH is <7.0 because administration of insulin will reverse the abnormal fat metabolism. Total body potassium deficit is possible in both conditions, requiring monitoring and possibly potassium administration, and in both conditions glucose is added to IV fluids when blood glucose levels fall to 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L).

Priority Decision: A patient taking insulin has recorded fasting glucose levels above 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) on awakening for the last 5 mornings. What should the nurse have the patient to do first? a. Increase the evening insulin dose to prevent the dawn phenomenon. b. Use a single-dose insulin regimen with an intermediate-acting insulin. c. Monitor the glucose level at bedtime, between 2:00 am and 4:00 am, and on arising. d. Decrease the evening insulin dosage to prevent night hypoglycemia and the Somogyi effect.

c. The patient's high glucose on arising may be the result of either dawn phenomenon or Somogyi effect. The best way to determine whether the patient needs more or less insulin is by monitoring the glucose at bedtime, between 2:00 am and 4:00 am, and on arising. If the 2:00 am to 4:00 am blood glucose levels are below 60 mg/dL, the insulin dose should be reduced to prevent Somogyi effect; if it is high, the insulin should be increased to prevent dawn phenomenon.

What medication is given in thyrotoxicosis to block the effects of the sympathetic nervous stimulation of the thyroid hormones? a. Potassium iodine b. Propylthiouracil c. Propranolol (Inderal) d. Radioactive iodine (RAI)

c. The β-adrenergic blocker propranolol is usually used to block the sympathetic nervous system stimulation by thyroid hormones. Atenolol would be used with asthma or heart disease. Potassium iodine is used to prepare the patient for thyroidectomy or for treatment of thyrotoxic crisis to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Propylthiouracil, an antithyroid medication, inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine (RAI) therapy destroys thyroid tissue, which limits thyroid hormone secretion.

Which patient should the nurse plan to teach how to prevent or delay the development of diabetes? a. An obese 40-year-old Hispanic woman b. A 20-year-old man whose father has type 1 diabetes c. A 34-year-old woman whose parents both have type 2 diabetes d. A 12-year-old boy whose father has maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

c. Type 2 diabetes has a strong genetic influence (8% to 14% risk for offspring) and offspring of parents who both have type 2 diabetes have an increased chance of developing it. In contrast, type 1 diabetes is associated with a genetic susceptibility that is related to human leukocyte antigens (HLAs). Offspring of a mother with type 1 diabetes have a 1% to 4% chance of developing the disease, while offspring of a father with diabetes have 5% to 6% risk. Other risk factors for type 2 diabetes include obesity; Native American, Hispanic, or African ancestry; and age of 55 years or older. Although 50% of people with a parent with maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) will develop MODY, it is autosomal dominant, and treatment depends on which genetic mutation caused it. It is not associated with obesity or hypertension and is not currently considered preventable.

The nurse should observe the patient for symptoms of ketoacidosis when a. illnesses causing nausea and vomiting lead to bicarbonate loss with body fluids. b. glucose levels become so high that osmotic diuresis promotes fluid and electrolyte loss. c. an insulin deficit causes the body to metabolize large amounts of fatty acids rather than glucose for energy. d. the patient skips meals after taking insulin, leading to rapid metabolism of glucose and breakdown of fats for energy.

c. When insulin is insufficient and glucose cannot be used for cellular energy, the body uses stored fats to meet energy needs. Free fatty acids from stored triglycerides are metabolized in the liver in such large quantities that ketones are formed. Ketones are acidic and alter the pH of the blood, causing acidosis. Osmotic diuresis from the elimination of both glucose and ketones in the urine causes dehydration, not ketosis. The loss of bicarbonate and skipping a meal after insulin administration do not cause ketosis.

A patient with diabetes is found unconscious at home, and a family member calls the clinic. After determining that a glucometer is not available, what should the nurse advise the family member to do? a. Have the patient drink some orange juice. b. Administer 10 U of regular insulin subcutaneously. c. Call for an ambulance to transport the patient to a medical facility. d. Administer glucagon 1 mg intramuscularly (IM) or subcutaneously.

d. If a patient with diabetes is unconscious, immediate treatment for hypoglycemia must be given to prevent brain damage, and IM or subcutaneous administration of 1 mg of glucagon should be done. If the unconsciousness has another cause, such as ketosis, the rise in glucose caused by the glucagon is not as dangerous as the low glucose level. Following administration of the glucagon, the patient should be transported to a medical facility for further treatment and evaluation. Oral carbohydrates cannot be given when patients are unconscious, and insulin is contraindicated without knowledge of the patient's glucose level.

The nurse determines that a patient with a 2-hour OGTT of 152 mg/dL has a. diabetes. b. elevated A1C. c. impaired fasting glucose. d. impaired glucose tolerance.

d. Impaired glucose tolerance exists when a 2-hour OGTT level is higher than normal but lower than the level diagnostic for diabetes (i.e., >200 mg/dL). Impaired fasting glucose exists when fasting glucose levels are greater than the normal of 100 mg/dL but < the 126 mg/ dL diagnostic of diabetes. Both abnormal values indicate prediabetes.

What is a cause of primary hypothyroidism in adults? a. Malignant or benign thyroid nodules b. Surgical removal or failure of the pituitary gland c. Surgical removal or radiation of the thyroid gland d. Autoimmune-induced atrophy of the thyroid gland

d. In America, atrophy from Graves' disease or Hashimoto's thyroiditis are autoimmune disorders that eventually destroy the thyroid gland, leading to primary hypothyroidism. Worldwide, iodine deficiency is the most common cause. Thyroid tumors most often result in hyperthyroidism. Secondary hypothyroidism occurs because of pituitary failure. Iatrogenic hypothyroidism results from thyroidectomy or radiation of the thyroid gland.

A patient with Graves' disease asks the nurse what caused the disorder. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "The cause of Graves' disease is not known, although it is thought to be genetic." b. "It is usually associated with goiter formation from an iodine deficiency over a long period." c. "Antibodies develop against thyroid tissue and destroy it, causing a deficiency of thyroid hormones." d. "In genetically susceptible persons, antibodies are formed that cause excessive thyroid hormone secretion."

d. In Graves' disease, antibodies to the TSH receptor are formed, attach to the receptors, and stimulate the thyroid gland to release triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), or both, creating hyperthyroidism. The disease is not directly genetic, but persons appear to have a genetic susceptibility to develop autoimmune antibodies. Goiter formation from insufficient iodine intake is usually associated with hypothyroidism.

What characteristic is related to Hashimoto's thyroiditis? a. Enlarged thyroid gland b. Viral-induced hyperthyroidism c. Bacterial or fungal infection of thyroid gland d. Chronic autoimmune thyroiditis with antibody destruction of thyroid tissue

d. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, thyroid tissue is destroyed by autoimmune antibodies. An enlarged thyroid gland is a goiter. Viral-induced hyperthyroidism is subacute granulomatous thyroiditis. Acute thyroiditis is caused by bacterial or fungal infection.

The patient with diabetes insipidus is brought to the emergency department (ED) with confusion and dehydration after excretion of a large volume of urine today even though several liters of fluid were consumed. What is a diagnostic test that the nurse should expect to be done first to help make a diagnosis? a. Blood glucose b. Serum sodium level c. CT scan of the head d. Water deprivation test

d. Patients with diabetes insipidus (DI) excrete large amounts of urine with a specific gravity of <1.005. A blood glucose may be tested if acetone breath is present to diagnose diabetes, but that is not mentioned in this situation. The serum sodium level is expected to be low with DI but is not diagnostic. To diagnose central DI, a water deprivation test is needed. A CT of the head may be done to determine the cause. Nephrogenic DI is distinguished from central DI with determination of the level of ADH after an analog of ADH is given.

Which laboratory results indicate the patient has prediabetes? a. Glucose tolerance result of 132 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) b. Glucose tolerance result of 240 mg/dL (13.3 mmol/L) c. Fasting blood glucose result of 80 mg/dL (4.4 mmol/L) d. Fasting blood glucose result of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L)

d. Prediabetes is defined as impaired glucose tolerance and impaired fasting glucose or both. Fasting blood glucose results between 100 mg/dL (5.56 mmol/L) and 125 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L) indicate prediabetes. A diagnosis of impaired glucose tolerance is made if the 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) results are between 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) and 199 mg/dL (11.0 mmol/L).

A patient who recently had a calcium oxalate renal stone had a bone density study, which showed a decrease in her bone density. What endocrine problem could this patient have? a. SIADH b. Hypothyroidism c. Cushing syndrome d. Hyperparathyroidism

d. The patient with hyperparathyroidism may have calcium stones, skeletal pain, decreased bone density, psychomotor retardation, or dysrhythmias among other manifestations. The other endocrine problems would not be related to calcium kidney stones or decreased bone density.

The patient with type 2 diabetes has had trouble controlling his blood glucose with several OAs but wants to avoid the risks of insulin. The health care provider (HCP) told him a medication will be prescribed that will increase insulin synthesis and release from the pancreas, inhibit glucagon secretion, and slow gastric emptying. Which medication will have to be injected? a. Dopamine receptor agonist, bromocriptine (Cycloset) b. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor, sitagliptin (Januvia) c. Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor, canagliflozin (Invokana) d. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist, exenatide extended release (Bydureon)

d. This glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist stimulates GLP-1 to increase insulin synthesis and release from the pancreas, inhibit glucagon secretion, slow gastric emptying, and must be injected subcutaneously once every 7 days. The other medications are oral agents (OAs). The mechanism of action for glycemic control for the dopamine receptor agonist is unknown. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors block the action of the DPP-4 enzyme that inactivates incretin so there is increased insulin release, decreased glucagon secretion, and decreased hepatic glucose production. Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors block the reabsorption of glucose by the kidney and increase urinary glucose excretion.

When providing discharge instructions to a patient who had a subtotal thyroidectomy for hyperthyroidism, what should the nurse teach the patient? a. Never miss a daily dose of thyroid replacement therapy. b. Avoid regular exercise until thyroid function is normalized. c. Use warm saltwater gargles several times a day to relieve throat pain. d. Substantially reduce caloric intake compared to what was eaten before surgery.

d. With the decrease in thyroid hormone after surgery, calories must be reduced to prevent weight gain. When a patient has had a subtotal thyroidectomy, thyroid replacement therapy is not given because exogenous hormone inhibits pituitary production of TSH and delays or prevents the restoration of thyroid tissue regeneration. Regular exercise stimulates the thyroid gland and is encouraged. Saltwater gargles are used for dryness and irritation of the mouth and throat after radioactive iodine therapy.