Quizz 1 Blood Bank

Parents, who both phenotype as group A, cannot have a group O child.

False

A technologist added 4 drops of a 5% red cell suspension instead of the required 1 drop to a hemagglutination test. What is the potential consequence to the test results?

False negative

What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?

IgG

What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?

IgG

When does crossing over occur?

Meiosis

What method displays a positive reaction as a compact red cell button?

Microtiter plate

The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except:

O

When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test?

Patient's red cells and anti-A

When an individual is group A, which of the following genetic terms applies?

Phenotype

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?

Polyclonal-based

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples?

Pooled screening cells

In the PCR reaction, what is the term for the short pieces of single-stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified?

Primers

Where are product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent located?

Product insert

What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic?

Proteins

How is RNA different from DNA?

RNA usually exists as a single strand. The sugar ribose is substituted for deoxyribose. The base uracil exists only in RNA. All of the above are true.

Which of the following items provides evidence for reagent red cell deterioration?

Spontaneous agglutination Significant hemolysis Loss of agglutination strength over time All of the above

If two traits occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. What does this fact suggest?

The genes are close together on the same chromosome.

When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be TRUE?

The population statistics must be large. Mutations cannot occur. Mating must be random. All of the above are true.

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?

Unable to determine without further testing

Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable record-keeping procedure?

Using dittos in columns to save time

If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-?

Weaker

A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

X-linked dominant

What temperature is used for incubation in the indirect antihuman globulin test?

37

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded?

4+

In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait?

48%

Select the term that describes cells or tissue from a genetically different individual within the same species.

Allogeneic

Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells).

Antiglobulin test

Select the cell involved in humoral immunity.

B lymphocytes

1.- Reagent used to detect the presence of red cell antibodies 2.-Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells 3.-Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells 4.-Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies 5.-Reagent used to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody

1. A1 and B cells 2.Lectins 3.ABO antisera 4.Panel cells 5.Screening cells

Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells?

C5 to C9

Which of the following agencies administers the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments?

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro?

Increase the incubation time in the incubator

Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?

The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.

Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the:

spleen

Blood irradiators require all of the following safety procedures except:

that the user have a degree in radiology

1.- Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent 2.- Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia 3.-Detects IgG or complement-coated red cells 4.-Incubation step is not necessary

1.Indirect antiglobulin test 2.Direct antiglobulin test 3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test 4.-Direct antiglobulin test

What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-positive patient with antibodies to C, E, and K, if the frequency of C is 70%, E is 30%, and K is 10%?

2 out of 10 units

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a:

2+.

In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, how does a negative test appear?

A button of cells on the bottom of the well

What is an advantage of Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT) for viral marker testing?

A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected

What is the meaning of the term autosomal?

A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosome

In a family study, all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. What is the most likely genotypes of the parents?

AO and BO

Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody?

All variations of the antigen can be detected.

What specificities does polyspecific antihuman globulin contain?

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d.

Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?

Antibody bound to antigen An antigen-antibody complex activates the classical complement cascade, whereas bacterial membranes activate the alternative pathway.

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?

Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system

An antigen that originates from the individual is termed:

Autologous

How are most blood group systems inherited?

Autosomal codominant

At what point in the employment process should safety training take place?

Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter

What process is described by opsonization?

Binding to cells or antigens

What is the purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test?

Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies

Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient's serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient's plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions?

Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample.

Which of the following clinical applications applies to molecular testing for blood group antigens?

Confirm the D type of blood donors Identify fetus at risk for HDFN Predict the phenotype of a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia All of the above

Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody's unique class function.

Constant region of the heavy chain

Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors.

Cytokines they help in cell signaling

Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction caused by elevated serum protein levels. Which of the following tests would not likely be affected by an elevated protein level?

Direct antiglobulin test

Quality control is the same as quality assurance.

False Quality control is performed on reagents and equipment; quality assurance is a system to ensure safe and effective products.

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?

False negatives Antigen excess is termed postzone and will lessen the reaction, causing a false-negative.

What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells?

Fc fragment

Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks?

Food and Drug Administration

Which of the following is true regarding good manufacturing practices (GMPs)?

GMPs are legal requirements established by the Food and Drug Administration.

Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix.

Gel technology

What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype?

Heavy chain

Of the following markers used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value?

Human leukocyte antigen typing

Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test?

IgG

Select the immunoglobulin class produced first in the primary immune response.

IgM

What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate-spin?

IgM

Why is polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel?

Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies.

In a routine audit of a facilities blood collection area, the quality assurance department found that the blood bags used on that particular day had expired. What is the appropriate course of action?

Initiate a root cause analysis and quarantine the blood collected in the expired bags.

A laboratory technologist decided she would like to bring her lab coat home for laundering because it had too many wrinkles when returned by the laboratory's laundry service. Is this practice acceptable?

No, because the laboratory is a biosafety level 2, and lab coats may not be removed

A technologist in training noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist's initials. Is this an acceptable procedure?

No; she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention.

Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response?

Size greater than 10,000 daltons

Several units were released to a hospital by mistake before all viral marker testing was completed. What is the appropriate course of action?

The error is reportable, and the Food and Drug Administration must be contacted.

A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome?

The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration.

The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. How do you interpret this result?

The result is a negative reaction.

Which of the following statements is true regarding high-protein anti-D reagents?

They have been largely replaced with low-protein monoclonal reagents. They contain high concentrations of bovine albumin. They may increase the possibility of a false-positive reaction, requiring the use of a control. All of the above are true

Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells?

They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test.

All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor.

True

The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing unsoiled gloves between donors.

True

Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity.

Variable region

A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be:

a heterozygote.

An antibody identified in the transfusion service appeared to be reacting stronger following the second exposure to an antigen from a transfusion. The most likely explanation of this observation is:

affinity maturation of the immunoglobulin molecule. anamnestic response. isotype switching. All of the above

Employee training takes place:

after hiring and following implementation of new procedures.

In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as:

antibody excess

Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are:

continuous quality improvement plan.

The linked HLA genes on each chromosome are inherited as a:

haplotype.

The standard operating procedure is a document that:

helps achieve consistency of results.

In safety training, employees must become familiar with all of the following except:

how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee.

All of the following are true regarding competency testing except:

it is required only if the technologist has no experience.

All of the following are responsibilities of the quality assurance department of a blood bank except:

performing quality control.

Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are:

polyclonal in specificity.

In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is:

present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father.

Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if:

preventive maintenance has not been performed on the cell washer. the technologist performing the test was never trained. the reagents used were improperly stored. All of the above

Personal protective equipment includes:

safety glasses. splash barriers. masks. All of the above

Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because:

the endpoint is more clearly defined.

Mitosis results in ______________________ chromosomes as the original.

two cells with the same number of

Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in:

vitro