RAD tech exam part 3 procedures

1. The term valgus refers to (A) turned outward (B) turned inward (C) rotated medially (D) rotated laterally

(A)

22. Which of the following conditions is demonstrated in Figure 2-5? (A) Right upper lobe atelectasis (B) Left upper lobe atelectasis (C) Pneumothorax (D) Dextrocardia

(D)

42. The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones, except (A) the temporal bones (B) the occipital bone (C) the ethmoid bone (D) the sphenoid bone

(B)

48. Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the (A) root (B) hilus (C) carina (D) epiglottis

(B)

5. The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s): 1. the male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. the female coccyx is more vertical (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

55. The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is (A) red marrow (B) yellow marrow (C) endosteum (D) cancellous tissue

(B)

43. A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(C)

20. Which of the following is best demonstrated in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30° caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati? (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina

(A)

21. The RPO position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the (A) anterior rim of the right acetabulum (B) anterior iliopubic column (C) left iliac wing (D) posterior rim of the right acetabulum

(A)

30. Which of the following serves to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand? (A) Oblique the hand no more than 45° (B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges (C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR (D) Use ulnar flexion

(A)

31. Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following, except (A) weight-bearing (B) RAO (C) LAO (D) PA

(A)

34. Small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity can be demonstrated in which of the following positions? (A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up (B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down (C) AP Trendelenburg (D) AP supine

(A)

39. The following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine seen in Figure 2-8: 1. pedicles 2. vertebral foramina 3. zygapophyseal articulations (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A)

41. Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated? (A) AP or PA through the foramen magnum (B) AP oblique with right and left head rotation (C) Horizontal beam lateral (D) AP axial

(A)

44. In which of the following positions was Figure 2-9 made? (A) RPO (B) LPO (C) AP axial (D) Right lateral decubitus

(A)

45. The ascending colon is labeled in Figure 2-9 as number (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

(A)

50. The interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated in which of the following projections? (A) Lateral oblique foot (B) Medial oblique foot (C) Lateral foot (D) Weight-bearing foot

(A)

53. To demonstrate must be examined in esophageal varices, the patient (A) the recumbent position (B) the erect position (C) the anatomic position (D) the Fowler position

(A)

57. The following projection of the ankle best demonstrates the mortise: (A) medial oblique 15°-20° (B) lateral oblique 15°-20° (C) medial oblique 45° (D) lateral oblique 45°

(A)

59. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-L3? (A) Inferior costal margin (B) Greater trochanter (C) Iliac crest (D) ASIS

(A)

66. Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small, bony fragment pulled from a bony process? (A) Avulsion fracture (B) Torus fracture (C) Comminuted fracture (D) Compound fracture

(A)

68. Foot motion caused by turning the ankle outward is termed (A) eversion (B) inversion (C) abduction (D) adduction

(A)

73. The lumbar vertebral pedicle is represented by which part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? (A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Body (D) Ear

(A)

79. Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the (A) right main stem bronchus (B) left main stem bronchus (C) esophagus (D) proximal stomach

(A)

85. The structure located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic sym- physis is the (A) dome of the acetabulum (B) femoral neck (C) greater trochanter (D) iliac crest

(A)

86. The structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-14 is the (A) maxillary sinus (B) sphenoidal sinus (C) ethmoidal sinus (D) frontal sinus

(A)

90. The base of the fifth metacarpal seen in Fig 2-16 is indicated by number (A)7 (B)8 (C)11 (D)12

(A)

94. Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the (A) AP projection (B) lateral projection (C) medial oblique projection (D) lateral oblique projection

(A)

13. Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following: 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

16. Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. Talotibial 2. Talocalcaneal 3. Talofibular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only

(B)

19. Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. abduct 3. oblique (A) I only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3

(B)

25. Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40°, CR directed caudad 40° to the popliteal fossa 2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5°-10° lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

32. The relationship between the fractured ends of long bones is referred to as (A) angulation (B) apposition (C) luxation (D) sprain

(B)

37. In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2-7 made? (A) AP (B) Medial oblique (C) Lateral oblique (D) Acute flexion

(B)

38. Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 3 in Figure 2-7? (A) Medial epicondyle (B) Trochlea (C) Capitulum (D) Olecranon process

(B)

60. A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lum- bosacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendic- ular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

69. During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the (A) subdural space (B) subarachnoid space (C) epidural space (D) epidermal space

(B)

7. The structures visualized when positioned as in Figure 2-2 could also be seen when performed with the patient in the following position(s): 1. lateral recumbent 2. seated 3. erect AP (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

72. Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(B)

75. Which of the following places the anatomical points of the hand's third digit in correct order from proximal to distal? (A) Base of metacarpal, head of middle phalanx, carpometacarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, distal interphalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft (B) Carpometacarpal joint, base of metacarpal, metacarpophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalange, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft (C) Ungual tuft, distal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalanx, proximal interphalangeal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, base of metacarpal, carpometacarpal joint (D) Carpometacarpal joint, metacarpophalan- geal joint, base of metacarpal, head of middle phalanx, proximal interphalangeal joint, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft

(B)

76. Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? (A) Ewing sarcoma (B) Osgood-Schlatter disease (C) Gout (D) Exostosis

(B)

80. The PA chest radiograph shown in Figure 2-13 demonstrates 1. rotation 2. scapulae removed from lung fields 3. adequate inspiration (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

83. Types of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. fibrous 2. cartilaginous 3. synovial (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B)

91. The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an (A) AP projection (B) 30° oblique (C) 45° oblique (D) AP axial projection

(B)

92. The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to (A) permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position (B) avoid superimposition on the apices (C) assist in maintaining an upright position (D) keep the MSP parallel

(B)

95. What part of the "Scotty dog," seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the lumbar transverse process? (A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Body (D) Neck

(B)

99. During a double-contrast BE, which of the follow- ing positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? (A) AP or PA erect (B) Right lateral decubitus (C) Left lateral decubitus (D) Ventral decubitus

(B)

100. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image seen in Figure 2-18? 1. The unaffected arm is adjacent to the IR 2. It provides a lateral view 3. It is useful in trauma situations (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

12. Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the hemidiaphragms? (A) Pneumothorax (B) Pleural effusion (C) Emphysema (D) Pneumonia

(C)

14. Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2-4 is correct? (A) The right kidney is more parallel to the IR (B) The image was made in the LPO position (C) The right ureter is better visualized (D) The image was made post-void

(C)

17. The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. plantar surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

23. Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstrate a nearly frontal view of the sternum? (A) AP (B) PA (C) RAO (D) LAO

(C)

24. What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra upon the vertebra below it? (A) Spondylitis (B) Spondylolysis (C) Spondylolisthesis (D) Spondylosis

(C)

26. How should a chest examination to rule out air- fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries? (A) Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position (B) Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained (C) Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position (D) Perform the examination AP supine at 44-in SID

(C)

28. Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2-6? (A) Erect PA, chin extended, OML forming 37° to IR (B) Erect PA, OML, and CR perpendicular to IR (C) Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15° from horizontal (D) Erect PA, chin extended, OML 30° from horizontal

(C)

3. What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric PA hand image seen in Figure 2-1? (A) Diaphysis (B) Epiphysis (C) Metaphysis (D) Apophysis

(C)

35. Which of the most anteriorly following anatomic structures is seen in a lateral projection of the chest? (A) Esophagus (B) Trachea (C) Cardiac apex (D) Superimposed scapular borders

(C)

40. An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations? (A) Intravenous urogram (B) Retrograde pyelogram (C) Myelogram (D) Cystogram

(C)

46. Persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is referred to as (A) an atrial septal defect (B) a ventricular septal defect (C) a patent ductus arteriosus (D) coarctation of the aorta

(C)

49. Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

51. The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the (A) T2-T3 interspace fifth thoracic vertebra (B) T9-T10 interspace (C) T5 (D) costal margin

(C)

52. The condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs is referred to as (A) pneumothorax (B) atelectasis (C) pulmonary embolism (D) hypoxia

(C)

54. Select the incorrect statement regarding Figure 2-10. 1. The degree of obliquity is to great 2. The midphalanges are foreshortened 3. The interphalangeal joints are well demonstrated (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

56. All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur, except (A) popliteal surface (B) intercondyloid fossa (C) intertrochanteric line (D) linea aspera

(C)

58. What condition(s) is/are demonstrated in Figure 2-11? 1. Emphysema 2. Pneumothorax 3. Pleural Effusion (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

6. Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduo- denal surfaces of a barium-filled high and trans- verse stomach? (A) Place the patient in a 35°-40° right anterior oblique (RAO) position (B) Place the patient in a lateral position (C) Angle the CR 35°-45° cephalad (D) Angle the CR 35°-45° caudad

(C)

62. Which of the following is/are distal to the tibial plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

63. Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. superimposed epicondyles (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

70. The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the (A) diploe (B) lambda (C) bregma (D) pterion

(C)

77. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

78. Which of the following is/are part of the bony thorax? 1. Manubrium 2. Clavicles 3. 24 ribs (A) I only (B) I and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

81. The letter A in Figure 2-13 indicates (A) a left anterior rib (B) a right posterior rib (C) a left posterior rib (D) a right anterior rib

(C)

82. With the patient seated at the end of thex-ray table, elbow resting on table and flexed 80°, and the CR directed 45° laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? (A) Radial head (B) Ulnar head (C) Coronoid process (D) Olecranon process

(C)

84. The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s): 1. lateral cervical spine 2. lateral thoracic spine 3. lateral lumbar spine (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

89. The radiograph shown in Figure 2-15 demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus 2. calcaneus and the cuboid 3. talus and the navicular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(C)

9. All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true, except (A) the OML is perpendicular to the IR (B) the petrous pyramids fill the orbits (C) the MSP is parallel to the IR (D) the CR is perpendicular to the IR and exits the nasion

(C)

93. That portion of a long bone from which it lengthens/grows is the (A) diaphysis (B) epiphysis (C) metaphysis (D) apophysis

(C)

97. Which of the following positions best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular articulation? (A) AP (B) 90° mediolateral (C) 45° internal rotation (D) 45° external rotation

(C)

10. An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in Figure 2-3 would include the following: 1. the pulmonary apices are demonstrated 2. the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated 3. ten posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

11. A pacemaker electrode can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, and advanced to the (A) left atrium (B) right atrium (C) left ventricle (D) right ventricle

(D)

15. During an upper GI examination of a stomach of average size and shape, a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb are demonstrated. The position used is most likely (A) AP erect (B) РА (C) RAO (D) LPO

(D)

18. The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the (A) mucosa (B) muscularis (C) submucosa (D) serosa

(D)

2. Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90° flexion 3. insufficient flexion (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(D)

27. According to ACR (2017), patients with acute kidney injury or severe chronic kidney disease, or those undergoing arterial catheter study, should adhere to the following guideline(s) for iodinated contrast medium administration: 1. patients should temporarily discontinue met- formin at time of (or prior to) the procedure 2. withhold metformin for 48 h after the procedure 3. metformin may be reinstituted only after renal function studies have been re-evaluated and found acceptable (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

(D)

29. Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-6 is/are true? 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses 2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits 3. The perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity (A) 1 only (В) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

33. Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radio- graphic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest? (A) AP abdomen (B) PA abdomen (C) Ventral decubitus position (D) Dorsal decubitus position

(D)

36. For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm. joint? (A) 5° caudad (B) 10° caudad (C) 5° cephalad (D) 0° (perpendicular)

(D)

4. The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection: (A) scapular Y (B) AP scapula (C) medial oblique elbow (D) lateral oblique elbow

(D)

47. Which of the following projections/positions will best demonstrate a subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation? (A) Tangential (B) AP axial (C) Transthoracic lateral (D) PA oblique scapular Y

(D)

61. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

64. Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. Heart 2. Trachea 3. Esophagus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

65. With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle? (A) 5°-15° caudad (B) 5°-15° cephalad (C) 15°-30° cephalad (D) 15°-30° caudad

(D)

67. That portion of the humerus which articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint is the (A) semilunar/trochlear notch (B) radial head (C) capitulum (D) trochlea

(D)

71. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-12? 1. The patient is placed in an RAO position 2. The midcoronal plane is about 60° to the IR 3. The acromion process is free of superimposition (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

74. An injury to a structure located on the side oppo- site that of the primary injury is referred to as (A) blowout (B) Le Fort (C) contracture (D) contrecoup

(D)

8. All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true, except (A) the right lung has two fissures (B) the inferior portion of a lung is its base (C) each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane (D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure

(D)

87. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in Figure 2-14? (A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method) (B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) (C) Lateral projection (D) Submentovertex projection

(D)

88. Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D)

96. All the following statements regarding the position shown in Figure 2-17 are true, except (A) a left pleural effusion could be demonstrated (B) a right pneumothorax could be demonstrated (C) a left lateral decubitus position is illustrated (D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7

(D)

98. At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? (A) Foramen magnum (B) Trachea (C) Pharynx (D) C4

(D)