*Recalls*

f a potential donor has received a live attenuated or bacterial vaccine such as MEASLES (RUBEOLA), MUMPS, oral polio, typhoid, or yellow fever, there is ____ deferral. * 2 weeks 4 weeks 12 months No deferral, if donor is symptom - free and afebrile

2 weeks

29. REACTION RATE IS DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL TO SUBSTRATE CONCENTRATION

First order kinectics

Select the needle most commonly used in standard venipuncture in an adult: * One inch, 18 gauge One inch, 21 gauge One-half inch, 23 gauge One-half inch, 25 gauge

One inch, 21 gauge

27. ENZYME CLASSIFICATION OF LD

Oxidoreductase

Common dilution for manual platelet count: * 1:10 1:20 1:100 1:200

1:100

Conversion factor for glucose: * 88.40 0.357 0.05551 0.05948

0.05551 88.40 - CREATININE 0.357 - UREA 0.05551 - GLUCOSE 0.05948 - URIC ACID

Plasma glucose level increases rapidly after a carbohydrate-rich meal, returning to normal ____ hours after eating (postprandial level). * 1 ½ to 2 hours 3 to 4 hours 8 to 12 hours 12 to 14 hours

1 ½ to 2 hours The plasma glucose level increases rapidly after a carbohydrate-rich meal, returning to normal 1½ to 2 hours after eating (postprandial level).

The values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within: * 1% 2% 5% 10%

1% The values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within 1% (0.01 L/L).

After charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for ___ minutes before counting the WBCs to give them time to settle. (RODAK) * 1 minute 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes

10 minutes After charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for 10 minutes before counting the WBCs to give them time to settle. Care should be taken not to disturb the coverslip

For manual WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for ___ minutes to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed. * 1 minute 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes

10 minutes Allow the dilution to sit for 10 minutes to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed. The solution will be clear once lysis has occurred. WBC counts should be performed within 3 hours of dilution.

If the WBC count is ____ x 10 9th/L or greater, it would be more precise and accurate to count 300 or 400 cells. * 10 x 10 9th/L 20 x 10 9th/L 40 x 10 9th/L 100 x 10 9th/L

100 x 10 9th/L

23. TRUE ABOUT SERUM MYLOID A

1000x increased

To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion a patient's hemoglobin should be at least: * 8 g/dL 11 g/dL 13 g/dL 15 g/dL

11 g/dL

Prospective donors with a history of SYPHILIS or GONORRHEA, of treatment for either, or of a reactive screening test for syphilis, or where no confirmatory test was performed, should be deferred for ___months AFTER COMPLETION OF THERAPY. * 4 weeks 3 months 6 months 12 months

12 months AABB: SYPHILIS, GONORRHEA (12 MONTHS)DOH: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS (PERMANENT)

Place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for ____ minutes to allow the platelets to settle. * 5 minutes 8 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes

15 minutes Place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for 15 minutes to allow the platelets to settle.

If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to: * 1:10 1:20 1:100 1:200

1:20 If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to 1:20. If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a 1:200 dilution should be made.

If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a _____ dilution should be made. * 1:10 1:20 1:100 1:200

1:200

A target INR range of _______ is recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction). * 1.0 to 2.0 2.0 to 3.0 2.5 to 3.5 3.0 to 4.0

2.0 to 3.0 A target INR range of 2.0 to 3.0 is recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction).

An INR of ______ is recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves. * 1.0 to 2.0 2.0 to 3.0 2.5 to 3.5 3.0 to 4.0

2.5 to 3.5 An INR of 2.5 to 3.5 is recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves.When the INR is used to guide anticoagulant therapy, there are fewer bleeding events.

42. AGE GROUP WITH MODERATE RISK AT 240 MG/DL TC AND HIGH RISK AT 260 MG/DL

20-29 years old

To increase accuracy, it is advisable to count at least ___ cells when the WBC count is higher than 40 x 10 9th/L. * 50 100 200 300

200

47. According to Asia Pacific Regulation, body mass index of obese (kg/m2]

30

Formaldehyde is commercially supplied as: * 5% solution 10% solution 20% solution 37 to 40% solution

37 to 40% solution COMMERCIALLY AVAILABLE, STOCK SOLUTION: 37 to 40%FOR TISSUE FIXATION: 10% formalin

If the donor has received a live attenuated vaccine for GERMAN MEASLES (RUBELLA) or chickenpox, there is _____ deferral. * 2 weeks 4 weeks 12 months No deferral, if donor is symptom - free and afebrile

4 weeks

Specimen for Epstein-Barr Virus PCR amplification: * Nasopharyngeal swab Bronchial washing Pleaural fluid 5 mL EDTA whole blood

5 mL EDTA whole blood Epstein-Barr Virus PCR AmplificationSpecimen:* 5 mL ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) whole blood* Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets should be observed per oil immersion field? * 1 to 4 4 to 10 8 to 20 20 to 50

8 to 20

40. STANDING PLASMA IS A TEST FOR A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. LDL D. HDL

A. Chylomicrons

Susceptible to bacitracin (TAXO A) * Any zone of inhibition Any zone of inhibition greater than 10 mm Any zone of inhibition greater than 14 mm Any zone of inhibition greater than 16 mm

Any zone of inhibition greater than 10 mm Bacitracin Susceptibility This test is used for presumptive identification and differentiation of beta-hemolytic group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes- susceptible) from other beta-hemolytic streptococci. It is also used to distinguish staphylococci species (resistant) from micrococci (susceptible). Positive: Any zone of inhibition greater than 10 mm; susceptible Negative: No zone of inhibition; resistant

9. SCREENING TEST/S FOR CUSHING'S SYNDROME EXCEPT A. 24 hr urinary free cortisol B. midnight plasma cortisol C. midnight salivary cortisol D. Overnight Low Dose dexamethasone suppression test

B. midnight plasma cortisol

20. ASSAY FOR UREA THAT IS INEXPENSIVE BUT LAGS SPEGIFICITY A. Colorimetric, kinetic B. Colorimetric, endpoint C. Enzymatic, colorimetric D. Enzymatic, UV

B. Colorimetric, endpoint

17. MEASURES ABILITY TO TRANSPORT/SECRETE BILE AND CONJUGATE BILIRUBIN A. Serum bile acids and bile salts B. serum bilirubin C. ALP D. Ratio of direct bilirubin to total bilirubin

B. serum bilirubin

Plating media for CSF collected from shunt: * BAP CAP BAP, CAP BAP, CAP, Thio

BAP, CAP, Thio CSF1. Routine: BAP, CAP2. From shunt: BAP, CAP and ThioAdd thio for CSF collected from shunt.

Biological safety cabinet (BSC) wherein 30% air is recirculated, 70% exhausted: * BSC Class I BSC Class II A1 BSC Class II B1 BSC Class II B2

BSC Class II B1 BSC I: In at front through HEPA to the outside or into the room through HEPA BSC II A1: 70% recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit BSC II B1: 30% recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter BSC II B2: No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter BSC II A2: Similar to II, A1, but has 100 Ifm intake air velocity and plenums are under negative pressure to room; exhaust air can be ducted to the outside through a canopy unit; when exhausted outdoors (formally "B3") (minute amounts)

35. CAUSES METABOLIC ALKALOSIS a) Excess loss of CO2 b) Excess accumulation of CO2 C) Excess loss of H d) Excess retention of H

C) Excess loss of H

11. EXTENT OF LIVER DAMAGE IN CIRRHOSIS TO ABOLISH LIVER FUNCTION a. 50% b. 60% c. 80% d. 90%

C. 80%

18. THIS INDICATES THE FUNCTION OF THE BILIARY EPITHELIUM A. Serum bile acids and bile salts B. serum bilirubin C. ALP D. Ratio of direct bilirubin to total bilirubin

C. ALP

32. ARTERIAL BLOOD SAMPLE ONLY a. pH b. pCO2 C. p02

C. p02

10. WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF INCREASED GROWTH HORMONE TO ADULTS A. Cretinism B. Gigantism C.Acromegaly

C.Acromegaly

6. HORMONE WITH DIURNAL VARIATION DECREASE IN THE AFTERNOON

Cortisol ACTH ALDOSTERONE IRON

E + S = ES = E + P * Catalytic mechanism Michaelis-Menten hypothesis Lineweaver-Burk plot First-order kinetics

Catalytic mechanism FROM HUBBARD:The catalytic mechanism is stated as: E + S = ES = E + PThe transition state for the ES complex has a lower energy of activation than S alone, so the reaction proceeds after the ES complex is formed.

The major anion that counterbalances the major cation, sodium: * Bicarbonate Chloride Phosphate Potassium

Chloride The chloride ion (Cl−) is the most important anion of the extracellular fluids in the body. It is the major anion that counterbalances the major cation, sodium. This means that the sum of all the cations equals the sum of all the anions.

12. FIBROSIS, SCARRING AND DESTRUCTION OF THE NORMAL LIVER ARCHITECTURE

Cirrhosis (Marshall)

Which of the following organisms is often confused with the Salmonella species biochemically and on plated media? * E. coli Citrobacter freundii Enterobacter cloacae Shigella dysenteriae

Citrobacter freundii CITROBACTER: H2S +, KCN + SALMONELLA: H2S +, KCN -

1. HORMONE THAT IS ELEVATED AT 8 AM

Cortisol • peaks 6-8am (8-9am), lowest 8pm-12am (10-1 1pm), 50% lower at 8pm than 8am; 1 with stress

16. TEST FOR THE PATENCY OF BILE/BILIARY DUCT A. Serum bile acids and bile salts B. serum bilirubin C. ALP D. Ratio of direct bilirubin to total bilirubin

D. Ratio of direct bilirubin to total bilirubin

1. IN HYPOTHYROIDISM, WHAT IS THE EXPECTED LEVEL OF T4 AND T3 UPTAKE, RESPECTIVELY • A. Increased, Decreased • B. Decreased, Increased •C. Both increased • D. Both decreased

D. Both decreased

2. WHICH TISSUE PRODUCES HORMONE? a. All of the above b. Anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary C. PTH d. Thyroid

D. Thyroid

14. SINGLE MOST IMPORTANT AND WIDESPREAD CLINICAL APPLICATION OF SERUM PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS

Detection of monoclonal gammopathies

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered? * Fructose level Zinc level Mixed agglutination reaction (MAR) test Eosin-nigrosin stain

Eosin-nigrosin stain Normal vitality requires 50% or more living cells and should correspond to the previously evaluated motility. LIVING CELLS: Remain bluish white DEAD CELLS: Red against the purple background

IgE appears to be a nuisance antibody; however, it may serve a PROTECTIVE ROLE by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that RECRUITS _______to the area to help destroy invading antigens that have penetrated IgA defenses. * B cells T cells T and B cells Eosinophils and neutrophils

Eosinophils and neutrophils EOSINOPHILS, especially, play a major part in the destruction of large antigens such as parasitic worms that cannot be easily phagocytized.

Scabies - SARCOPTES SCABIEI: * Endoparasite, infection Ectoparasite, infestation

Ectoparasite, infestation

5. CALCULATED ESTIMATE OF FT4

Free thyroxine index (FTI) or T7

Seminal fluid for fructose level determination should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _____ to prevent fructolysis: * Refrigerated Frozen Maintained at 37 oC Room temperature

Frozen

The order used to put on PPE is: * Gloves, gown, mask Mask, gown, gloves Gown, mask, gloves Gloves, mask, gown

Gown, mask, gloves DONNING (PUTTING ON PPE) Gown → Mask or respirator → goggle or face shield → gloves

28. ENZYME CLASSIFICATION OF ALP

Hydrolase

39. MINOR LIPOPROTEINS

IDL and Lp(a)

The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is ___ for the duration of anticoagulation. * INR of 1.0 INR of 2.0 INR of 3.0 INR of 4.0

INR of 3.0 The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is 3.0 for the duration of anticoagulation.

Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation? * IgA IgG IgD IgM

IgM

8. CHOLESTEROL AND TRIGLYCERIDE IN HYPOTHYROIDISM

Increased

Enzymes affected by low temperature storage: * Increased ALP and LD Decreased ALP and LD Increased ALP, decreased LD Decreased ALP, increased LD

Increased ALP, decreased LD ALP (Increases), LD4 and LD5 (Decreases)

Cytokine(s) that function for STEM CELL MOBILIZATION: * Interleukin-2 and interleukin-3 Interleukin-2 and GM-CSF Interleukin-3 and GM-CSF Interleukin-3, G-CSF and GM-CSF

Interleukin-3, G-CSF and GM-CSF Rodak pages 91 to 92: Stem cell mobilization: 1. Interleukin-3 2. G-CSF 3. GM-CSF

All of the following are true of IgE except that it: * Fails to fix complement. Is heat stable Attaches to tissue mast cells. Is found in the serum of allergic persons.

Is heat stable IgE is the most heat-labile of all immunoglobulins; heating to 56ºC for between 30 minutes and 3 hours results in conformational changes and loss of ability to bind to target cells.

Cells are LARGE AND HOMOGENEOUS in size; nuclear shape is round or oval; one to three prominent nucleoli; cytoplasm is deeply basophilic with VACUOLES OFTEN PROMINENT: * L1 L2 L3

L3 L1 HOMOGENOUS One population of cells within the case; small cells predominant; nuclear shape is regular with an occasional cleft; chromatin pattern is homogeneous and nucleoli are rarely visible; cytoplasm is moderately basophilic L2 HETEROGENOUS Large cells with an irregular nuclear shape; clefts in the nucleus are common; one or more large nucleoli are visible; cytoplasm varies in color L3 BURKITT'S LYMPHOMA Cells are large and homogeneous in size; nuclear shape is round or oval; one to three prominent nucleoli; cytoplasm is deeply basophilic with vacuoles often prominen

The difference between the total cells counted on each side should be less than ___. * Less than 10% Less than 15% Less than 20% Less than 25%

Less than 10% The difference between the total cells counted on each side should be less than 10%. A greater variation could indicate an uneven distribution, which requires that the procedure be repeated.

43. ONE-STEP DIRECT METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL

Liebermann-Burchardt

A fluorescent substance absorbs light of one wavelength and emits light of: * Longer wavelength and lower energy Shorter wavelength and lower energy Longer wavelength and higher energy Shorter wavelength and higher energy

Longer wavelength and lower energy

Deeply and variably condensed chromatin: * MK-I (Megakaryblast) MK-II (Promegakayocyte) MK-III (Megakaryocyte)

MK-III (Megakaryocyte) MK-I (Megakaryblast) HOMOGENOUS MK-II (Promegakayocyte) MODERATE MK-III (Megakaryocyte) DEEPLY, VARIABLY

13. A DECREASE IN THE ALBUMIN LEVEL AND AN INCREASE IN A2-GLOBULIN REGION IN SPE INDICATES

Nephrotic syndrome

The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is * Electron Dark field Light Phase contrast

Phase contrast

Random error: * Deterioration of reagents Sample instability Improper calibration Pipetting error

Pipetting error RANDOM ERRORS Mislabeling a sample Pipetting errors Improper mixing of sample and reagent Voltage fluctuations Temperature fluctuations SYSTEMATIC ERRORS Improper calibration Deterioration of reagents Sample instability Instrument drift Changes in standard materials

The nuclear chromatin is condensed and chunky throughout the nucleus. No nucleoli are seen. The cytoplasm is a muddy, blue-pink color. * Reticulocyte Pronormoblast Orthochromic normoblast Polychromatic normoblast

Polychromatic normoblast

The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in a solution is known as: * Ionization Quenching Phosphorescence Self-absorption

Quenching

Do not require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM): * Salicylates, ibuprofen Salicylates, acetaminophen Acetaminophen, ibuprofen Salicylates, acetaminophen and ibuprofen

Salicylates, acetaminophen and ibuprofen Most analgesics, such as salicylates, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen, do not require TDM because physicians and pharmacists are able to achieve and maintain therapeutic levels with standardized dosing intervals. There is generally a fairly wide therapeutic window for these over-the-counter analgesics.

N95 mask: * Covers mouth Covers nose Snug-fit Moist

Snug-fit A protective N95 mask, if worn properly, is effective against toxin aerosols. However, it is important that a tight fit be achieved because even a small leak could result in significant exposure.

Required tube for synovial fluid glucose determination: * SPS EDTA Heparin Sodium fluoride

Sodium fluoride REQUIRED TUBE TYPES FOR SYNOVIAL FLUID TESTS GRAM STAIN AND CULTURE: Sterile heparinized or SPS CELL COUNTS: Heparin or liquid EDTA GLUCOSE ANALYSIS: Sodium fluoride ALL OTHER TESTS: Nonanticoagulated

Routinely measured electrolytes: * Sodium and chloride Sodium and potassium Sodium, potassium and chloride Sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate

Sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate

All of the following bacterial cell walls CONTAINS MYCOLIC ACID, EXCEPT: * Nocardia Rhodococcus Streptomyces Corynebacteria

Streptomyces CELL WALLS CONTAINING MYCOLIC ACID PRESENT IN: Mycobacterium, Nocardia, Rhodococcus, Gordonia, Tsukamurella and Corynebacterium ABSENT IN: Streptomyces, Actinomadura, Dermatophilus, Nocardiopsis and Oerskovia

26. ENZYME CLASSIFICATION OF GGT

Transferase

Very short wavelengths: * Infrared Ultraviolet Visible None of these

Ultraviolet Ultraviolet (UV) light has very short wavelengths and infrared (IR) light has very long wavelengths. When all visible wavelengths of light (400-700 nm) are combined, WHITE light results.

Lymphatic vessel involvement within the RETROPERITONEAL REGION is associated with: * Brugia malayi Loa loa Onchocerca volvulus Wuchereria bancrofti

Wuchereria bancrofti

Susceptible to optochin (TAXO P): * Any zone of inhibition Zone of inhibition ≥ 10 mm in diameter Zone of inhibition ≥ 14 mm in diameter Zone of inhibition ≥ 16 mm in diameter

Zone of inhibition ≥ 14 mm in diameter Optochin (P disk) Susceptibility Test This test is used to determine the effect of Optochin (ethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride) on an organism. Optochin lyses pneumococci (positive test), but alpha-streptococci are resistant (negative test). Expected Results Positive: Zone of inhibition ≥ 14 mm in diameter with 6-mm disk Negative: No zone of inhibition

34. WHAT IS THE NCO3 TO N2C03 RATION a. 20:1 b. 1:20 c. 10:| d. 1:10

a. 20:1

21. CAUSED BY REDUCED BLOOD FLOW, POOR PERFUSION OF THE KIDNEYS RESULTING TO DECREASED GFR a. Pre-renal Azotemia b. Renal Azotemia c. Post-renal azotemia

a. Pre-renal Azotemia

45. EXPECTED SERUM APPEARANCE OF TYPE IN HYPERLIPOPROTEINEMIA a. Turbid b. Creamy layer on top c. Creamy top layer and turbid bottom d. Clear

a. Turbid

22. HIGHEST CONCENTRATION OF MPN IN THE BLOOD a. Urea b. Creatinine c. Uric acid d. Ammonia

a. Urea

46. TG BORDERLINE NIGH a. <150 b. 150-199 c. 200-499 d. ≥500

b. 150-199

44. NCEP RECOMMENDATION FOR LDL-C WHEN PATIENT HAS NO CHD BUT HAS 2 OR MORE RISK FACTORS a. <100 mg/d b. <129 mg/dL C. <159 mg/dL

b. <129 mg/dL

24. 5-10X INCREASE IN AST a. Myocardial infarction b. Myocardial infarction and chronic hepatitis c. Myocardial infarction and acute hepatitis d. Chronic hepatitis

b. Myocardial infarction and chronic hepatitis

15. NEONATE BILIRUBIN LEVEL OF 28 MG/DL. WHEN WILL YOU REPORT RESULTA a. ASAP b.Immediately

b.Immediately

33. DRIVING FORCE OF THE BICARBONATE-CARBONIC ACID BUFFER SYSTEM a. HCO3 b. H2CO3 c. CO2

c. CO2

3. ASSOCIATED WITH FEMALE HORMONAL IMBALANCE a. Hirsutism, Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome b. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome, Infertility c. Hirsutism, Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome, Infertility d. Hirsutism, Infertility

c. Hirsutism, Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome, Infertility

38. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT INCLUDED IN THE COMPUTATION OF LDL-C a. TC b. TG C HDL d VLDL

d VLDL

41. NEGATIVE RISK FACTOR FOR CORONARY HEART DISEASE (CND) a. TC = 230 b. LDL= 199 C. HDL= 38 d. HDL= 60

d. HDL= 60

4. CAUSES SEXUAL UNDERDEVELOPMENT AND INFERTILITY a. Hyposecretion of growth hormone b. Hypersecretion of gonadotropins c. Hypersecretion of growth hormone d. Hyposecretion of gonadotropins

d. Hyposecretion of gonadotropins

25. PATHOGNOMIC CAUSE OF INCREASED GGT a.Alcoholic liver disease b. Hepatitis c. Cirrhosis d. Increased alcohol intake

d. Increased alcohol intake

30. MICHAELIS - MENTEN EQUATION

max [S] Vo= ——————— Km + [S]

36. MEASURED BY POTENTIOMETRY

pH and pCO2 pO2: Amperometry/Polarography

31. PREFERRED TRANSPORT FOR BLOOD GASES

• Ice slurry/ iced • Delivered within 15mins at 4 deg Celsius • No air bubbles • No clots • LIQUID or lyophilized Heparin

19. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE ACUTE PHASE REACTANTS? • A. CRP •B. CRP, alpha I antitrypsin •C. CRP, alpha I antitrypsin, alpha I acid glycoprotein

•C. CRP, alpha I antitrypsin, alpha I acid glycoprotein