Renal Chapters Patho
Which of the following phenomena contributes to the difficulties with absorption, distribution, and elimination of drugs that are associated with kidney disease? A) Reductions in plasma proteins increase the amount of free drug and decrease the amount of protein-bound drug. B) Acute tubular necrosis is associated with impaired drug reabsorption through the tubular epithelium. C) Decreased retention by the kidneys often renders normal drug dosages ineffective. D) Dialysis removes active metabolites from circulation minimizing therapeutic effect.
Ans: A Feedback: A decrease in plasma proteins, particularly albumin, that occurs in many persons with renal failure results in less protein-bound drug and greater amounts of free drug. Drug elimination problems do not stem as directly from impaired tubular reabsorption, decreased retention, or the process of dialysis.
A 68-year-old woman with a new onset of vascular dementia has recently begun retaining urine. Which of the following physiological phenomena would her care providers most realistically expect to currently occur as a result of her urinary retention? A) Hypertrophy of the bladder muscle and increased bladder wall thickness B) Decreased urine production and nitrogenous waste excretion by the kidneys C) Decompensation, bladder stretching, and high residual urine volume D) Overflow incontinence and loss of contraction power
Ans: A Feedback: Early accompaniments to urinary retention include hypertrophy of the bladder muscle and increased thickness of the bladder wall. Renal effects are unlikely, and decompensation and loss of contraction power are most often later rather than early effects.
A 4-year-old boy who has been deaf since birth and has bilateral cataracts has been brought to the emergency department by his mother because she noticed blood in the toilet after he last voided. Urinalysis confirms heavy microscopic hematuria as well as proteinuria. What will the health care team's initial differential diagnosis most likely be? A) Alport syndrome B) Systemic lupus erythematosus glomerulonephritis C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis D) Immunoglobulin A nephropathy
Ans: A Feedback: Heavy microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and sensorineural deafness and eye disorders are characteristic of Alport syndrome. This symptomatology is less characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus glomerulonephritis, Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis, or immunoglobulin A nephropathy.
A 73-year-old man presents to his family physician with complaints of recent urinary hesitation and is eventually diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which of the following clinical consequences would his care provider expect prior to the resolution of his health problem? A) Hydroureter and pain B) Development of renal calculi and renal cysts C) Unilateral hydronephrosis and pain D) Development of glomerulonephritis or nephrotic syndrome
Ans: A Feedback: Pain and the distention of the distal ureter would be expected manifestations of BPH. Renal calculi, cysts, glomerulonephritis, and nephrotic syndrome are unlikely to develop consequentially, and unilateral hydronephrosis is unlikely, given that the obstruction is below the level of the ureterovesical junction.
A hospital client with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure has orders for measurement of her serum electrolyte levels three times per week. Which of the following statements best captures the relationship between renal failure and sodium regulation? A) Clients with advanced renal failure are prone to hyponatremia because of impaired tubular reabsorption. B) Renal clients often require a sodium-restricted diet to minimize the excretion load on remaining nephrons. C) Clients with renal failure often maintain high sodium levels because of decreased excretion. D) Restricting sodium intake helps to preserve nephron function and has the additional benefit of lowering blood pressure.
Ans: A Feedback: The compromised ability of the tubular nephrons to reabsorb sodium predisposes renal clients to low serum sodium levels. A sodium restriction is thus not normally indicated.
An 87-year-old male resident of an assisted living facility has been consistently continent of urine until the last several weeks. Which of the following actions by the care providers at the facility is the most likely priority? A) Performing a physical examination and history to determine the exact cause and character of the incontinence B) Providing client education focusing on the fact that occasional incontinence is a normal, age-related change C) Teaching the resident about protective pads, collection devices, and medications that may be effective D) Showing the resident the correct technique for exercises to improve bladder, sphincter, and pelvic floor tone
Ans: A Feedback: The priority in the treatment of incontinence in the elderly is an acknowledgement that it is not an inevitability and that the exact causes should and most often can be identified. This identification by way of history-taking and examination would supersede teaching about protective devices or exercises.
Following the diagnosis of acute renal failure, the nurse knows that one of the earliest manifestations of residual tubular damage is which of the following lab/diagnostic results? A) Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B) Serum creatinine elevation C) Inability to concentrate urine D) Reduced glomerular filtration rate
Ans: A Feedback: Urine tests that measure urine osmolality, urinary sodium concentration, and fractional excretion of sodium help differentiate prerenal azotemia, in which the reabsorptive capacity of the tubular cells is maintained, from tubular necrosis, in which these functions are lost. One of the earliest manifestations of tubular damage is the inability to concentrate urine. Conventional markers of serum creatinine and urea nitrogen, fractional secretion of sodium to assess glomerular filtration rate (GFR), and urine output do not manifest for 1 to 2 days after the acute renal failure has begun.
Which of the following clinical findings among older adults is most unlikely to warrant further investigation and possible treatment? A) An 81-year-old male's serum creatinine level has increased sharply since his last blood work. B) A 78-year-old female's GFR has been steadily declining over several years. C) A 90-year-old female's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is rising. D) An 80-year-old male whose urine dipstick reveals protein is present.
Ans: B Feedback: A gradual decrease in GFR is considered a normal age-related change. Increased creatinine or BUN would warrant follow-up, as would the presence of protein in a client's urine.
A 22-year-old female with a history of intermittent flank pain, repeated UTIs, and hematuria has been diagnosed with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Which of the following phenomena has most likely contributed to the development of this diagnosis? A) UTIs coupled with an impaired immune response have caused her ADPKD. B) She has inherited a tendency for epithelial cells in her tubules to proliferate inappropriately. C) Severe hypertension and portal hypertension are likely precursors. D) She has inherited undersized kidneys that are prone to calculi formation.
Ans: B Feedback: ADPKD is an inherited condition, and the etiology is thought to involve cysts arising in segments of the renal tubules from a few epithelial cells that proliferate abnormally. UTIs are consequent, not causative, of the condition. Severe hypertension and portal hypertension are more commonly associated with ARPKD than ADPKD. Kidneys are typically oversized in ADPKD, and renal calculi are not noted sequelae.
Which of the following clients' diagnostic blood work is most suggestive of chronic kidney disease (CKD)? A) A client with high pH; low levels of calcium; and low levels of phosphate B) A client with low vitamin D levels; low calcitriol levels; and elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels C) A client with low bone density; low levels of calcium; and low levels of phosphate D) A client with low potassium levels; low calcitriol levels; and increased PTH levels
Ans: B Feedback: CKD is associated with low vitamin D and calcitriol levels, which induces increased PTH production. CKD is also associated with acidosis (low pH), high levels of phosphate, and hyperkalemia.
Which of the following pain descriptions would lead the nurse to suspect the client is experiencing ureteral colic? A) Right upper quadrant pain that worsens with deep breaths and palpation B) Excruciating pain in the flank and upper outer quadrant of the abdomen that radiates to the bladder area C) Pain described as "fire poking in their side," pulsating with every heart beat but decreases when in fetal position D) Perineal pain that increases when urinating and then lessens until the time to urinate again
Ans: B Feedback: Classic ureteral colic is manifested by acute, intermittent, and excruciating pain in the flank and upper outer quadrant of the abdomen on the affected side. The pain may radiate to the lower abdominal quadrant, bladder area, perineum, or scrotum in the man.
During male ejaculation, which of the following statements addresses why sperm is not normally seen inside the bladder? A) The parasympathetic nervous system keeps the seminal fluid inside the urethra. B) The musculature of the trigone area, bladder neck, and prostatic urethra contract at the same time. C) With ejaculation, the male expels some urine along with the seminal fluid to wash any extra sperm out of the bladder. D) The detrusor muscle relaxes allowing for the closing of the sphincter at the base of the bladder.
Ans: B Feedback: During male ejaculation, which is mediated by the SNS, the musculature of the trigone area and that of the bladder neck and prostatic urethra contracts and prevents the backflow of seminal fluid into the bladder.
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen prior to measuring the albumin level in a client's urine. A colleague questions the rationale for the test, stating, "I thought albumin was related to liver function, not kidney function." How can the nurse best respond to this statement? A) "Urine should normally be free of any proteins, and albumin is one of the more common proteins to be excreted in chronic renal failure." B) "Urine albumin levels are useful for diagnosing diabetic kidney disease." C) "A urine dipstick test will tell us exactly how much albumin is being spilled by the client's kidneys." D) "A urine test for albumin allows us to estimate the client's GFR quite accurately."
Ans: B Feedback: In clients with diabetes, albumin tests are useful adjunctive test of nephron injury and repair. Urine is not normally completely free of proteins, and a urine dipstick does not allow for the quantification of how much albumin is in a sample. Albumin tests do not allow for an accurate indirect indication of GFR.
A 51-year-old woman diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 5 months prior is distressed that she has had several recent episodes of urinary incontinence. She has asked her nurse practitioner why this is the case. Which of the following statements best captures the fact that would underlie the nurse's response to the client? A) Neurological diseases like MS often result in flaccid bladder dysfunction. B) She may be unable to sense her bladder filling as a result of her MS. C) Lesions to the basal ganglia or extrapyramidal tract associated with MS inhibit detrusor contraction. D) Pathological reductions in bladder volume brought on my MS necessitate frequent micturition.
Ans: B Feedback: MS may result in neurogenic bladder characterized by an inability to sense filling and consequent incontinence. She is not demonstrating the signs of a flaccid bladder, and lesions to the basal ganglia or extrapyramidal tract are associated with Parkinson disease, not MS. Her disease is unlikely to directly reduce bladder volume.
A nurse in an acute medical unit of a hospital has admitted a 62-year-old female from the emergency department who has been diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of the knowledge base that the nurse needs to perform adequate care and teaching? A) Most cases of acute pyelonephritis are attributable to poorly controlled hypertension. B) Flank pain, dysuria, and nausea and vomiting are likely assessment findings. C) The infection in the kidney is most likely a manifestation of a systemic infection. D) Imaging tests are likely to reveal scarring and deformation of the renal calices and pelvis.
Ans: B Feedback: Manifestations of acute pyelonephritis include pain, frequency, urgency, dysuria, nausea, and vomiting. Chronic rather than acute pyelonephritis is often caused by hypertension, while most cases are caused by ascending bacteria, not systemic infections. Scarring is more commonly a result of chronic pyelonephritis.
Which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for the renal failure patient who has hyperphosphatemia? A) Vitamin D (calcitriol) B) Calcium carbonate C) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) D) Sensipar (Cinacalcet)
Ans: B Feedback: Phosphate-binding antacids (aluminum salts, calcium carbonate, or calcium acetate) may be prescribed to decrease the absorption of phosphate from the GI tract.
A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with renal calculi after repeated episodes of excruciating flank pain in recent weeks. The man states that, "I don't know how this could happen to me, since I'm so careful about eating a healthy diet." What is the most appropriate response to the man's statement? A) "Your diet may have played a part in this, but in fact, genetics are likely primarily to blame." B) "What you eat can influence your risk of stone formation, but many other factors like hormones and your metabolism are involved." C) "You likely don't need to change your diet, but now that you have stones in one kidney, you're at very high risk of growing them in the other kidney." D) "Your diet might be normally healthy, but high intake of normally beneficial minerals like calcium and magnesium can lead to stones."
Ans: B Feedback: Renal calculi have a complex etiology that includes diet, but also many other metabolic and endocrine factors, among others. Genetics are not identified as a contributor, and mineral intake is not likely to be the sole factor. Stone formation is normally unilateral.
Which of the following data would a clinician consider as most indicative of acute renal failure? A) Alterations in blood pH; peripheral edema B) Increased nitrogenous waste levels; decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) C) Decreased serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN); decreased potassium and calcium levels D) Decreased urine output; hematuria; increased GFR
Ans: B Feedback: The hallmark of acute renal injury is azotemia, an accumulation of nitrogenous wastes such as creatinine, urea nitrogen, and uric acid, plus a decrease in the GFR of the kidneys. While pH alterations, edema, electrolyte imbalances, and decreased urine output may accompany acute renal failure, they are all potentially attributable to other pathologies. Creatinine, GFR, and BUN would unlikely rise during renal failure.
A 55-year-old man has made an appointment to see his family physician because he has been awakening three to four times nightly to void and often has a sudden need to void with little warning during the day. What is the man's most likely diagnosis and possible underlying pathophysiological problem? A) Stress incontinence due to damage to CNS inhibitory pathways B) Overactive bladder that may result from both neurogenic and myogenic sources C) Overactive bladder due to intravesical pressure exceeding urethral pressure D) Overflow incontinence that can result from displacement of the angle between the bladder and the posterior proximal urethra
Ans: B Feedback: The man's complaints are typical of overactive bladder, a condition that can result from the interaction of both the nervous control of bladder emptying and the muscles of the bladder itself. His symptoms are not characteristic of stress incontinence, and when intravesical pressure exceeds, urethral pressure overflow incontinence results. The angle between the bladder and the posterior proximal urethra is more commonly a factor in the continence of females.
During a family picnic, a relative of a nurse asks what he should do if there is blood in his urine and some pain in his lower abdomen. The best advice the nurse could give this family member would be for him to A) go to the emergency room right away. B) get an appointment with his family doctor. C) wait and see if it goes away without treatment. D) increase his intake of cranberry juice and other fluids.
Ans: B Feedback: There are many causes of blood in the urine (infection, kidney stones, cancer, etc.). Kidney cancer can be a silent disorder with symptoms occurring late into the disease process. Any blood in the urine should be referred to the physician for further testing (ultrasound, CT scan, MRI, etc.).
An 82-year-old resident of a long-term care facility with a recent history of repeated urinary tract infections and restlessness is suspected of having urinary retention. Which of the following actions by the care team is most appropriate? A) Uroflowmetry to determine the rate of the client's urine flow B) Ultrasound bladder scanning to determine the residual volume of urine after voiding C) Renal ultrasound aimed at identifying acute or chronic kidney disease D) Urinalysis focusing on the presence of or absence of microorganisms, blood, or white cells in the man's urine
Ans: B Feedback: Ultrasound bladder scanning yields a fast and noninvasive indication of whether or not an individual is adequately emptying his or her bladder with each void. Uroflowmetry would be less indicative of whether the man is retaining, and renal ultrasound would address deficits in urine production rather than bladder emptying. Urinalysis would be useful in the diagnosis of infections and/or renal issues more than deficiencies in bladder emptying.
Because the associated nephropathy is an important cause of end-stage renal failure in children and adolescents, a toddler who has had an uncomplicated bout of urinary tract infection (UTI) should still be evaluated for A) urethrovesical reflux. B) vesicoureteral reflux. C) neurogenic bladder. D) detrusor muscle instability.
Ans: B Feedback: Urethrovesical reflux occurs when urine from the urethra moves into the bladder. Vesicoureteral reflux occurs when urine moves from the bladder into the ureter. Vesicoureteral reflux is the most commonly associated abnormality in UTIs. Reflux nephropathy is an important cause of end-stage renal disease in children and adolescents; children with a relatively uncomplicated first UTI may turn out to have significant reflux. Therefore, even a single documented UTI in a child requires careful diagnosis. Functional obstructions include neurogenic bladder, infrequent voiding, detrusor (bladder) muscle instability, and constipation.
A frantic mother brings her young child into the emergency department. She states that during the evening bath, she noticed a large mass in her child's abdomen. After diagnostic testing, the pediatrician tells the parents that their child has Wilms tumor, stage IV. After the doctor leaves the room, the parents ask the nurse, "What does this mean?" The nurse will respond, "Your child ('s) A) "has cancer in his stomach." B) "has cancer in the kidney that has spread most likely to his lungs." C) "will need to undergo surgery to remove both kidneys and then go on dialysis." D) "tumor can be easily treated with chemotherapy. We will start this soon."
Ans: B Feedback: Wilms tumor usually is a solitary mass that occurs in any part of the kidney. It usually is sharply demarcated and variably encapsulated. Stage IV means the tumors have undergone hematogenous metastasis, most commonly involving the lung. Treatment involves surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiation therapy. Long-term survival rates are good (90%) for stages I to III.
Because they strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, Kegel exercises are most likely to help A) overflow incontinence. B) urge incontinence. C) stress incontinence. D) mixed incontinence.
Ans: C Feedback: : Stress incontinence is commonly caused by weak pelvic floor muscles, which allow the angle between the bladder and the posterior proximal urethra to change so that the bladder and urethra are positioned for voiding when some activity increases intra-abdominal pressure. Overflow incontinence results when the bladder becomes distended and detrusor activity is absent. Urge incontinence is probably related to CNS control of bladder sensation and emptying or to the smooth muscle of the bladder. Mixed incontinence, a combination of stress and urge incontinence, probably has more than one cause.
The clinical nurse educator on a nephrology unit of a large, urban hospital is orientating recent nursing graduates to the unit. Which of the following teaching points about acute tubular necrosis (ATN) should the educator include in the orientation session? A) "The cardinal signs of ATN are oliguria and retention of potassium, creatinine, and sulfates." B) "Ureteral and bladder outlet obstructions are often contributors to ATN." C) "Trauma, burns, and major surgery are common precursors to ATN." D) "Tubular epithelial cells are sensitive to ischemia and toxins, and damage is irreversible."
Ans: C Feedback: ATN is often preceded by major surgery, burns, or trauma. Many cases of ATN are nonoliguric, and obstructions that are postrenal in nature are not common causes of ATN. Damage to tubular epithelial cells is not necessarily irreversible.
A family physician is providing care for a 61-year-old obese male who has a history of diabetes and hypertension. Blood work has indicated that the man has a GFR of 51 mL/minute with elevated serum creatinine levels. Which of the following statements will the physician most likely provide the client in light of these results? A) "We will regularly monitor your kidney function, but most likely your kidneys will be able to compensate on their own and intervention is not required." B) "You likely have chronic kidney disease, and there may be urine in your blood until it is controlled." C) "Your chronic kidney disease has likely been caused by your diabetes and high blood pressure." D) "You're in kidney failure, and I'll be starting dialysis treatment immediately."
Ans: C Feedback: Diabetes and hypertension are conditions that can cause chronic kidney disease (CKD). While the kidneys do have a remarkable ability to compensate for impaired function, this fact does not mean that treatment would not be undertaken. Hematuria is not a common manifestation of CKD, and the client's GFR of 51 mL/minute does not indicate kidney failure or the need for dialysis.
A 34-year-old man has been taking up to 2400 mg of ibuprofen per day following a motor vehicle accident several months ago and consequent chronic pain. He has recently been diagnosed with chronic analgesic nephritis as a result of his high analgesic intake. The man is surprised at the diagnosis stating, "I thought that taking too many drugs hurts your liver if anything, not your kidneys." What is the most appropriate response to the man's statement? A) "Your liver does perform most of the detoxification in your body, but your kidneys can perform this role if the liver is unable to." B) "High drug intake can cause your kidneys to be very vulnerable to infections, which is likely what happened in your case." C) "Your kidneys are vulnerable to damage because of how much blood flows through them and the fact that they break down many drugs." D) "It is very rare for someone as young as yourself to have kidney damage like this; usually only older people are vulnerable to kidney damage from drugs."
Ans: C Feedback: High flow and pressure combined with the metabolic transformative of drugs make the kidneys vulnerable to drug toxicity. They do not play a backup role to the liver in the metabolism of drugs, and while structural and functional damage may occur with drug overuse, infection is a less likely consequence. The elderly are particularly vulnerable to drug-related nephritis and nephropathies, but it would be incorrect to conclude that younger people are thus immune.
A 25-year-old Asian American man arrives in the emergency room in a panic. Except for a bout with bronchitis a week earlier, he has been healthy his entire life; today he has blood in his urine. What disease has likely caused of his hematuria and how should it be treated? A) Goodpasture syndrome and will be treated with plasmapheresis and immunosuppressive therapy B) Membranous glomerulonephritis and should be treated with corticosteroids C) Immunoglobulin A nephropathy and may be advised to use omega-3 fatty acids to delay progression of disease D) Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome and should be treated with medication to control high blood pressure
Ans: C Feedback: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy (Buerger disease) is a primary glomerulonephritis characterized by the presence of glomerular IgA immune complex deposits. It can occur at any age, but most commonly occurs with clinical onset in the second and third decades of life. It is more common in males than in females and is the most common cause of glomerular nephritis in Asians. There is no satisfactory treatment for IgA nephropathy. Goodpasture syndrome is a form of glomerulonephritis; treatment includes plasmapheresis to remove circulating anti-GBM antibodies and immunosuppressive therapy to inhibit antibody production. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of primary nephrosis in adults, most commonly those in their sixth or seventh decade. It is treated with corticosteroids. In nodular glomerulosclerosis, also known as Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome, there is nodular deposition of hyaline in the mesangial portion of the glomerulus. As the sclerotic process progresses in the diffuse and nodular forms of glomerulosclerosis in many cases, early changes in glomerular function can be reversed by careful control of blood glucose levels. Control of high blood pressure and smoking cessation are recommended as primary and secondary prevention strategies in persons with diabetes.
A 24-year-old man is currently in a rehabilitation facility following a spinal cord injury at level T2. He is discussing his long-term options for continence management. Which of the following statements by the client demonstrates he has a clear understanding of the issue? A) "Self-catheterization can limit the recovery of my neural pathways that control my voiding if I do it too often." B) "It's critical that intermittent catheterization be performed using sterile technique." C) "An indwelling catheter certainly would work well, but it comes with a number of risks and possible complications." D) "An indwelling urethral catheter is the option that best minimizes my chance of a urinary tract infection."
Ans: C Feedback: Indwelling catheters carry a risk of infections and kidney stones. Catheterization does not influence the activity of the neural pathways, and intermittent catheterization can be performed using clean technique. Indwelling urethral catheters carry a high risk of urinary tract infections.
A 61-year-old woman who has had an upper respiratory infection for several weeks has presented to her family physician with complaints of a recent onset of urinary retention. She reveals to her physician that she has been taking nonprescription cold medications over and above the suggested dose for the past 2 weeks. Which of the following phenomena will her physician most likely suspect is contributing to her urinary retention? A) Cholinergic actions of the cold medicine are triggering internal and external sphincter contraction. B) Antihistamine effects inhibit communication between the pons and the thoracolumbar cord. C) The anticholinergic effects of the medication are impairing normal bladder function. D) Over-the-counter medications such as cold medicine stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system and inhibit bladder emptying.
Ans: C Feedback: Many over-the-counter cold medications have an anticholinergic effect that interferes with normal bladder emptying. These effects on micturition are not a result of cholinergic actions or miscommunication between the pontine micturition center and the spinal cord. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would tend to increase rather than decrease bladder emptying.
A 24-year-old college student has presented to the campus medical clinic with complaints of frequent, burning urination and has, subsequent to urinalysis, been diagnosed with an acute lower urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by E. coli. What teaching will the clinician most likely provide to the student? A) "This should likely resolve itself if you drink a lot of water and especially cranberry or blueberry juice." B) "Unfortunately, the bacteria causing your infection is no longer responsive to antibiotics, but there are alternative treatments that we can use." C) "Many of these bacteria are now resistant to some antibiotics, but I will take that into account when I choose which antibiotic to prescribe." D) "This likely shows that you have some sort of obstruction in your urinary system, so when that is treated your UTI will likely resolve as well."
Ans: C Feedback: Microbial resistance to TMP-SMX antibiotics is now common in the United States; however, other specific antibiotic options do exist. Cranberry and blueberry juice are more appropriate as preventative rather than curative measures (reduces bacterial adherence to the epithelial lining of the urinary tract), and the majority of uncomplicated UTIs in young women are not the result of urinary obstructions.
A 35-year-old female ultramarathon runner is admitted to the hospital following a day-long, 50-mile race because her urinary volume is drastically decreased and her urine is dark red. Tests indicate that she is in the initiating phase of acute tubular necrosis. Why is her urine red? A) Hematuria B) Hemoglobinuria C) Myoglobinuria D) Kidney bleeding
Ans: C Feedback: Myoglobinuria, which can cause acute tubular necrosis via intratubular obstruction, involves the leaching of myoglobin from skeletal muscle into the urine, bypassing the usual filtration by the glomerulus. Excess exercise and muscle trauma can contribute to this. While both hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria discolor the urine, hemoglobinuria results from hemolysis following a reaction to a blood transfusion, whereas myoglobinuria involves muscle damage.
To maintain hematocrit levels in people with kidney failure, the nurse should be prepared to A) arrange for frequent blood transfusions in an outpatient clinic. B) administer iron dextran intravenously. C) administer a subcutaneous injection of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO). D) administer prenatal vitamins twice a day.
Ans: C Feedback: Recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO) helps maintain hematocrit levels in people with kidney failure. Secondary benefits include improvement in appetite, energy level, sexual function, skin color, and hair and nail growth, and reduced cold intolerance. Blood transfusion is a treatment if symptomatic with low hemoglobin; however, they try to prevent this by giving EPO or IV iron dextran if there is severe iron deficiency anemia. Prenatal vitamins are high in vitamins but not helpful to renal failure patients.
The nurse assessing a renal failure patient for encephalopathy caused by high uremic levels may observe which of the following clinical manifestations? A) Severe chest pain with pericardial friction rub on auscultation B) Stiff immobile joints and contractures C) Loss of recent memory and inattention D) Pruritus with yellow hue to skin tone
Ans: C Feedback: Reductions in alertness and awareness are the earliest and most significant indications of uremic encephalopathy. These often are followed by an inability to fix attention, loss of recent memory, and perceptual errors in identifying people and objects. Answer choice A refers to pericarditis; answer choice B refers to arthritis; answer choice D refers to liver involvement.
A 1-year-old baby boy with renal dysplasia risks end-stage renal disease unless intervention occurs. Which of the following treatment options is his care team most likely to reject? A) Dietary restriction plus erythropoietin B) Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis C) Renal transplantation D) Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
Ans: C Feedback: Renal transplantation and dialysis are recommended for children; of these, transplantation is the preferred treatment. Conservative measures are inappropriate in this age group because of the importance of fostering proper bone growth, especially in the first 2 years, and appropriate cognitive development, which is at risk due to issues such as uremic encephalopathy and the effect of renal failure upon the central nervous system of the developing child.
One of the most reliable predictors for worsening autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is A) serum creatinine levels. B) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level. C) urine albumin excretion (UAE). D) urine specific gravity.
Ans: C Feedback: Serum creatinine levels have not been found to be an effective predictor marker for worsening ADPKD, but urine albumin excretion (UAE) has been determined a reliable predictor, as have increased electrolytes and hematuria.
A 63-year-old woman has visited a physician because she has been intermittently passing blood-tinged urine over the last several weeks, and cytology has confirmed a diagnosis of invasive bladder cancer. Which of the following statements by the physician is most accurate? A) "There are new and highly effective chemotherapy regimens that we will investigate." B) "Fortunately, bladder cancer has a very low mortality rate, and successful treatment is nearly always possible." C) "It's likely that you'll need surgery, possibly a procedure called a cystectomy." D) "Unfortunately, there are nearly no treatment options for this type of cancer, but we will focus on addressing your symptoms."
Ans: C Feedback: Surgical interventions are common in the treatment of bladder cancer. Effective chemotherapeutic regimens are not yet available, though there are certainly treatment options. The mortality rate of bladder cancer is high, at around 25%.
When explaining about the passage of urine to a group of nursing students, the clinic nurse asks them which muscle is primarily responsible for micturition? Their correct reply is the A) urinary vesicle. B) trigone. C) detrusor. D) external sphincter.
Ans: C Feedback: The detrusor muscle is the muscle of micturition. When it contracts, urine is expelled from the bladder. External sphincter is a circular muscle that surrounds the urethra distal to the base of the bladder and can stop micturition when it is occurring. Trigone is a smooth triangular area that is bounded by the ureters and the urethra. Urinary vesicle is another name for the bladder.
A patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury at C4 is experiencing a sudden change in condition. His BP is 186/101; heart rate is 45; and he is profusely sweating and complaining of "not feeling right." The nurse should A) call a "Code Blue." B) page physician stat. and ask for an antihypertensive medication. C) palpate his bladder for overdistention. D) place his bed flat and elevate the foot of the bed.
Ans: C Feedback: The most common causes of spastic bladder dysfunction are spinal cord lesions such as spinal cord injury, herniated intervertebral disk, vascular lesions, tumors, and myelitis. Because the injury interrupts CNS control of sympathetic reflexes in the spinal cord, severe hypertension, bradycardia, and sweating can be triggered by insertion of a catheter or mild overdistention of the bladder. The patient does not qualify for a Code Blue since he still has a pulse and is breathing. Antihypertensive medication is not necessary if the bladder is emptied. Placing him flat with the foot of the bed elevated will not help this situation.
When teaching a community education class about the seven warning signs of cancer, the nurse will note that the most common sign of bladder cancer is A) inability to empty the bladder fully. B) colic spasms of the ureters. C) painless bloody urine. D) passage of large clots after voiding.
Ans: C Feedback: The most common sign of bladder cancer is painless hematuria. Gross hematuria is a presenting sign in the majority of people with the disease, and microscopic hematuria is present in most others. Answer choice A refers to flaccid bladder; answer choice B refers to kidney stones; answer choice D refers to clots that are usually seen after surgery such as TURP where bladder irrigation is called for to prevent the clots from blocking urine output.
A nurse educator is performing client education with a 51-year-old man who has been recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following statements by the client would the nurse most likely want to correct or clarify? A) "I'll be prone to anemia, since I'm not producing as much of the hormone that causes my bones to produce red blood cells." B) "My heart rate might go up because of my kidney disease, and my blood might be a lot thinner than it should be." C) "My kidney problems increase my chance of developing high blood pressure or diabetes." D) "I'll have a risk of either bleeding too easily or possibly clotting too quickly, though dialysis can help minimize these effects."
Ans: C Feedback: While high blood pressure can be causative of, or consequent to, renal failure, diabetes is not normally a result of existing CKD. Persons with renal failure are indeed prone to anemia, increased heart rate, decreased blood viscosity, and coagulopathies. The risk of bleeding and thrombotic disorders can be partially mitigated by dialysis.
A patient has just been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which question should the nurse ask this client in attempting to establish a cause? A) "Do you have a history of heart failure?" B) "Have you recently had kidney stones?" C) "Have you ever been diagnosed with diabetes?" D) "Have you had any type of infection within the last 2 weeks?"
Ans: D Feedback: Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis usually occurs after infection with certain strains of group A β-hemolytic streptococci and is caused by deposition of immune complexes of antibody and bacterial antigens. Other organisms can also cause this infection.
A patient asks the nurse what it means when the doctor said that he had adenocarcinoma of the bladder. Reviewing the pathophysiologic principles behind this type of cancer, the nurse knows A) it is a low-grade tumor that is readily cured with bladder surgery. B) after resection of the cancer, the prognosis is excellent with this type of cancer cell. C) that these types of cancer cells are very invasive to the tissue; therefore, the entire bladder must be removed. D) this is a rare but highly metastatic tumor that has a very poor prognosis.
Ans: D Feedback: Adenocarcinoma is rare and highly metastatic. Answer choices A and B relate to urothelial carcinoma; answer choice C relates to squamous cell carcinoma.
A middle-aged man with diabetes reports that he must strain to urinate and that his urine stream is weak and dribbling. He also reports feeling that his bladder never really empties. The nurse knows that all of his complaints are likely caused by which of the following medical diagnoses? A) Detrusor muscle areflexia B) Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia C) Uninhibited neurogenic bladder D) Bladder atony with dysfunction
Ans: D Feedback: Diabetes causes peripheral neuropathy, which can affect the sensory axons of the urinary bladder. Bladder atony with dysfunction is a frequent complication of diabetes mellitus.
A diabetes education nurse is teaching a group of recently diagnosed diabetics about the potential genitourinary complications of diabetes and the consequent importance of vigilant blood glucose control. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of bladder dysfunction and diabetes mellitus? A) "People with diabetes are highly susceptible to urethral obstructions, and these can heal more slowly and cause more damage than in people without diabetes." B) "High blood sugar results in a high glucose level in your urine, and this can make your bladder muscle less able to fully empty the bladder." C) "Many people with diabetes find it necessary to live with an indwelling catheter to ensure their bladders do not become too full." D) "It's important for you to empty your bladder frequently because diabetes carries risks of kidney damage that can be exacerbated by incomplete bladder emptying."
Ans: D Feedback: Diabetics are vulnerable to peripheral neuropathies that can be somewhat mitigated by regular voiding; they are also especially vulnerable to renal damage from high blood sugars, a situation that is worsened when accompanied by incomplete bladder emptying. Urethral obstructions are not a noted complication of diabetes, and indwelling catheter placement is not normally necessary. High blood sugars do not necessarily yield high-glucose urine, and the bladder deficits associated with diabetes are neurological in nature rather than a result of particular urine chemistry.
A 42-year-old male has been diagnosed with renal failure secondary to diabetes mellitus and is scheduled to begin dialysis soon. Which of the following statements by the client reflects an accurate understanding of the process of hemodialysis? A) "It's stressful knowing that committing to dialysis means I can't qualify for a kidney transplant." B) "I know I'll have to go to a hospital or dialysis center for treatment." C) "Changing my schedule to accommodate 3 or 4 hours of hemodialysis each day will be difficult." D) "I won't be able to go about my normal routine during treatment.
Ans: D Feedback: Hemodialysis requires the client to remain connected to dialysis machinery, whereas peritoneal dialysis allows for activity during treatment. Dialysis does not disqualify an individual from receiving a transplant. Dialysis does not require attendance at a dialysis center, and patients can be taught to perform the dialysis in their home with a family member in attendance. Hemodialysis is normally conducted three times weekly, not once per day.
When explaining a cystometry test to measure bladder pressure during filling and voiding in a normal adult, the nurse informs the nursing students that the normal capacity when adults have a desire to void is A) 100 to 150 mL. B) 200 to 250 mL. C) 300 to 399 mL. D) 400 to 500 mL.
Ans: D Feedback: The desire to void occurs when the bladder is full (normal capacity is approximately 400 to 500 mL). At this point, a definite sensation of fullness occurs; the pressure rises sharply to 40 to 100 cm H2O; and voiding occurs around the catheter.
Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A) A 60-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease who is recovering in hospital from a coronary artery bypass graft B) A 66-year-old man undergoing dialysis for the treatment of chronic renal failure secondary to hypertension C) A 38-year-old man with high urine output due to antidiuretic hormone insufficiency D) A 30-year-old woman with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
Ans: D Feedback: Young women as well as persons with diabetes are at high risk of UTIs. Neither postsurgical recovery nor renal failure is necessarily a direct risk for UTI development, and high urine output would prevent decrease rather than increase in UTI risk.
