Reproduction and Development

How many cells are produced via spermagenesis

4 haploid spermatids

Which of the following explains why incompatible fetal blood type does not induce an immune response in a pregnant female, but a HIV-positive woman can pass the disease on to her new baby? A. The placenta is a complex capillary network that allows many maternal blood components to pass into fetal circulation, but only waste products to pass into maternal circulation. B. The fetus receives half its genomic information from each parent, but mitochondrial genetic material is inherited solely from the mother. C. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube and the embryo can be exposed to maternal factors during migration to the uterus. D. The chorion is specific and limiting in terms of which factors can pass into the maternal or fetal circulatory systems.

A. The placenta is a complex capillary network that allows many maternal blood components to pass into fetal circulation, but only waste products to pass into maternal circulation.

A researcher uses a radioactive label to trace the development of the GI glands in chicken embryos. From what primary germ layer do they come? A. Endoderm B. Ectoderm C. Blastopore D. Mesoderm

A. Endoderm

A mutation leading to a loss of function in which of the following hormones would have the greatest impact on enzyme activation in the stomach? A. Gastrin B. Cholecystokinin C. Erythropoeitin D. Secretin

A. Gastrin

Which of the following is the correct order of events in fertilization? A. Sperm penetrates oocyte Second polar body is released Syngamy (fusion of nuclei) Cleavage B. First polar body is released Ovulation Second polar body is released Sperm penetrates oocyte Cleavage C. First polar body is released Ovulation Sperm penetrates oocyte Syngamy (fusion of nuclei) Second polar body is released Cleavage D. Sperm penetrates oocyte First polar body is released Syngamy (fusion of nuclei) Second polar body is released Cleavage

A. Sperm penetrates oocyte Second polar body is released Syngamy (fusion of nuclei) Cleavage

During puberty and sexual maturation, what impact do androgens and estrogens have on the epiphyseal plate? A. The hormones ossify the epiphyseal plate, thus stopping growth. B. The hormones ossify the epiphyseal plate, thus creating a layer of cartilage within the bone. C. The hormones stimulate the epiphyseal plate to produce collagen and thus lengthen the bone. D. The hormones stimulate the epiphyseal plate to produce cartilage and thus lengthen the bone.

A. The hormones ossify the epiphyseal plate, thus stopping growth.

Which of the following statements about the blastula is true? A. The inner cell mass develops into the embryo and the trophoblast develops into the placenta. B. The estrogen and progesterone in birth control pills prevent pregnancy by preventing blastulation. C. The placenta forms from the trophoblast by the end of the first month of pregnancy. D. The entire blastula undergoes differentiation into the three primary germ layers during gastrulation.

A. The inner cell mass develops into the embryo and the trophoblast develops into the placenta.

Why is light-headedness and occasional dizziness a common symptom for women in their second trimester of pregnancy? A. While the maternal circulatory system has expanded to accommodate the needs of the growing fetus, the production of blood itself needs to fill in the new capacity. B. Maternal myoglobin production has increased and stores more oxygen in the mother's muscles to prepare for labor. C. The increased affinity for oxygen demonstrated by fetal hemoglobin removes too much oxygen from the maternal blood supply. D. Pressure from the expanding uterus makes breathing difficult, thus limiting the amount of oxygen exchange with the blood supply.

A. While the maternal circulatory system has expanded to accommodate the needs of the growing fetus, the production of blood itself needs to fill in the new capacity.

Oogenesis is different from spermatogenesis in that: A. only one ootid is generated from one oogonium. B. only one round of cytokinesis occurs. C. two polar bodies are secreted at the end of each telophase. D. oocyte mitosis is more efficient than spermatocyte mitosis, leading to a regenerating pool of oogonium.

A. only one ootid is generated from one oogonium.

Early in gestation, the human embryo is without gender. As development progresses, female sex may result from: I. absence of genetically encoded hormonal influences. II. lack of inhibition of default pathways. III. absence of genetically encoded inhibitory hormones.

All 3

When is there a spike in estrogen and maintained to the end of the month?

Around day 7-8

Which is under parasympathetic control? Arousal, organism, resolution?

Arousal. Dilates the erectile arteries

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about the birthing process? A. Cervical dilation is the first stage of labor. B. Uterine and abdominal smooth muscle contractions help push the baby through the birth canal. C. The placenta is delivered after the baby, in the third stage of labor. D. Uterine contractions minimize bleeding and prolactin promotes milk production after the baby is born.

B. Uterine and abdominal smooth muscle contractions help push the baby through the birth canal. Smooth muscle contractions of the uterus and skeletal muscle contractions of the abdomen

Which of the following is derived from embryonic ectoderm? A. Gonads B. Cerebellum C. Liver D. Muscle

B. Cerebellum

Why are women who wish to breastfeed counseled against taking birth control pills that combine estrogen and progestins as the means to block ovulation? A. High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit follicle stimulating hormone as well as ovulation. B. High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit prolactin as well as ovulation. C. High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit relaxin as well as ovulation. D. High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit oxytocin as well as ovulation.

B. High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit prolactin as well as ovulation.

Which of the following is the best description of fibrous cartilage? A. Provides a dynamic balance of support and flexibility B. Provides rigid, strong support C. Provides less support but more flexibility D. Eventually ossifies and becomes bone

B. Provides rigid, strong support

The primary follicle includes each of the following EXCEPT: A. the zona pellucida. B. the second polar body. C. thecal cells. D. granulosa cells.

B. the second polar body.

Which of the following best describes the transmission of an action potential through a skeletal muscle cell based on stimulation from the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)? A. ACh released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized, action potential travels along transverse tubules B. NE released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized, action potential travels along transverse tubules C. ACh released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, action potential travels along transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized D. NE released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, action potential travels along transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized

C. ACh released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, action potential travels along transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized

The male reproductive system includes accessory glands, gonads and other genital structures (both internal and external). Which of the following is true? A. Semen must pass through the urethra, then the ductus deferens on its way out of the body. B. The testes contains the seminiferous tubules and bulbourethral glands, and the scrotum aids in temperature control. C. Accessory organs such as the seminal vesicles and prostate help with semen production. D. In addition to helping with ejaculation, the urethra also functions in urine and solid waste excretion.

C. Accessory organs such as the seminal vesicles and prostate help with semen production. The testes contain the seminiferous tubules and epididymis, not bulbourethral glands

A toddler aspirates a toy car and is rushed to the emergency room to have it removed. What are the most likely blood gas findings? A. Increased O2, increased CO2 B. Increased O2, decreased CO2 C. Decreased O2, increased CO2 D. Decreased O2, decreased CO2

C. Decreased O2, increased CO2

How are peptidases activated in the duodenum? A. Trypsinogen from the pancreas is converted to trypsin by stomach acid; trypsin then activates the other pancreatic enzymes. B. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen from the pancreas into trypsin; trypsin then triggers the release of other pancreatic enzymes. C. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen from the pancreas into trypsin; trypsin then activates the other pancreatic enzymes. D. Trypsinogen from the pancreas is converted to trypsin by stomach acid; trypsin then activates the brush border enzyme enterokinase.

C. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen from the pancreas into trypsin; trypsin then activates the other pancreatic enzymes.

Babies born prematurely (between 28-32 weeks of gestation) typically suffer from IRDS, infant respiratory distress syndrome. IRDS is characterized by difficulty in breathing, extreme exhaustion, and sometimes death, and is due to a lack of surfactant. When during the fetal stage is surfactant produced in significant quantities? A. 30 weeks B. 28 weeks C. 33 weeks D. 20 weeks

C. 33 weeks

When does a secondary oocyte become an ootid? A. During the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, after ovulation but before fertilization. B. In utero, where the secondary oocyte will remain frozen in metaphase II until puberty. C. After fertilization, but before the egg and sperm nuclear membranes fuse. D. During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, just prior to ovulation.

C. After fertilization, but before the egg and sperm nuclear membranes fuse.

Where would somatic stem cells be found in an adult human? A. Gonads B. Brain C. Bone marrow D. Epidermis

C. Bone marrow

Which of the following is NOT under control of the sympathetic nervous system in a male? A. Emission of sperm and semen through the urethra B. Ejaculation of sperm and semen C. Dilation of arteries in the erectile tissue D. Resolution, or constriction of arteries in the erectile tissue

C. Dilation of arteries in the erectile tissue

During the menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum degrades, but if a fertilized ovum implants in the uterus, the corpus luteum persists. Which of the following hormones supports the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A. Progesterone B. Lutenizing hormone C. Human chorionic gonadotropin D. Estrogen

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 9 How is the final phenotype of a developing stem cell established? A. Differentiation employs methylation to create the genetic identity of the cell. B. Determination allows for phenotypic expression of alternative genomic splicing. C. Its genetic fate is determined and then it becomes visibly differentiated. D. Its genetic fate is differentiated and then it becomes visibly determined.

C. Its genetic fate is determined and then it becomes visibly differentiated.

Which of these processes happens last in embryogenesis? A. Gastrulation B. Blastulation C. Neurulation D. Fertilization

C. Neurulation

Skeletal muscle is attached to bone by: A. cartilage. B. ligaments. C. tendons. D. basement membrane.

C. tendons.

How is the cervix when it is nonfertile?

Closed, thick, sticky, acid mucus

Osteoclasts are inhibited as part of bone remodeling by which hormone? A. Calcitriol B. Parathyroid hormone C. Cortisol D. Calcitonin

D. Calcitonin

What best characterizes alveolar ducts, which follow the respiratory bronchioles? A. They are the terminal component of the respiratory zone. B. They are the area with greatest gas exchange in the lung. C. They are the first component of the respiratory zone. D. They are thin-walled branches of the respiratory zone where gas exchange can occur.

D. They are thin-walled branches of the respiratory zone where gas exchange can occur.

What two components are unique to the regulation of smooth muscle? A. Myosin light chain kinase and troponin B. Troponin and tropomyosin C. Tropomyosin and calmodulin D. Calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase

D. Calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase

Which of the following is from mesoderm? A. Epithelial cells of the intestine B. Epidermis C. Neurons D. Cardiac muscle

D. Cardiac muscle

How are multipotent stem cells different in their capabilities than pluripotent stem cells? A. Multipotent stem cells form all the extraembryonic membranes while pluripotent stem cells form the embryo. B. Multipotent stem cells can become any of the three primary germ layers, while pluripotent stem cells can become several different types of cells from a single primary germ layer. C. Multipotent stem cells form all the cells of the body while pluripotent stem cells can also form the cells of the placenta. D. Multipotent stem cells can become several different types of cells from a single primary germ layer, while pluripotent stem cells can become any of the three primary germ layers.

D. Multipotent stem cells can become several different types of cells from a single primary germ layer, while pluripotent stem cells can become any of the three primary germ layers.

Which of the following cells is NOT haploid? A. Secondary spermatocyte B. Spermatozoon C. Spermatid D. Primary spermatocyte

D. Primary spermatocyte

The epidermis of the skin is embryologically derived from the same germ layer that gives rise to which of the following? A. Skeletal muscle B. Liver C. Stomach D. Spinal cord

D. Spinal cord

The renal medulla is made up primarily of: A. glomeruli. B. nephrons. C. proximal tubules. D. collecting ducts.

D. collecting ducts.

A mesodermal cell originally destined to become a heart cell gets transplanted to another location where cells become bone cells. The mesodermal cell now develops into a bone cell instead of a heart cell. The process that occurred is: A. imprinting. B. differentiation. C. determination. D. induction.

D. induction.

During fertilization: A. the sperm and oocyte plasma membrane fuse to form a zygote in the uterus. B. the sperm's bindin protein facilitates nuclear fusion. C. both fast and slow blocks increase the likelihood of a second sperm fusing with the oocyte membrane. D. the sperm must penetrate both the corona radiata and the vitelline layer.

D. the sperm must penetrate both the corona radiata and the vitelline layer.

What is formed in the first 4 weeks of embryonic development?

Endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

Secretion of what hormone causes the endometrium to build up each month?

Estrogen

What hormones are maintained at high levels with the use of birth control?

Estrogen and progesterone

What hormone stimulates spermatogonia and sustentacular cells in males?

FSH

What hormones are responsible for building the follicle during the follicular phase?

FSH and LH

Where is the site of fertilization?

Fallopian tubes

At which stage of development are the three germ layers (the ectoderm, the mesoderm, and the endoderm) first found? A. Neurula B. Morula C. Blastula D. Gastrula

Gastrula

Which of the following statements about bile is/are true? I. Bile emulsifies lipids for easier digestion. II. The amphipathic nature of bile allows it to digest lipids. III. Bile is produced by the liver and gallbladder.

I. Bile emulsifies lipids for easier digestion.

Follicular development is stimulated by a rise in FSH and normally leads to a subsequent rise in estrogen. The failure of a developing follicle to produce estrogen would cause which of the following events? I. Lack of endometrial development II. Failure to ovulate III. Premature menstruation

I. and II.

Which of the following structures are derivatives of the ectoderm? I. Epidermis of the skin II. Dermis of the skin III. Sweat glands

I. and III. Dermis is derived from the mesoderm

A mother just gave birth to a child and directly experienced the effects of oxytocin. What are the possible effects of oxytocin? I. A decrease in oxytocin causes labor to begin. II. Once labor begins, the posterior pituitary increases secretion of oxytocin which causes increased uterine contractions. III. Oxytocin facilitates milk let-down for breastfeeding.

II. and III.

What happens in order to block polyspermy?

Increase intracellular calcium (Slow) and egg depolarizes (Fast)

What cells are stimulated by LH to make testosterone?

Interstitial cells

How does the bulbourethral gland pave a way for the sperm? When is it activated?

It alkalizes and neutralized the urethra from any left over acidic urine that would otherwise kill the sperm. Activated during arousal

What is the problem with fetal hemoglobin once the baby is born?

It is very acidic and holds onto oxygen at a higher affinity because it has to steal from mothers hemoglobin.

Why is the scrotum suspended outside the body?

It needs a slightly cooler temperature than body temp for viability and produces very high testosterone levels

What hormone is hCG most alike?

LH

There is a big spike in LH and FSH around day 14. What is happening?

Ovulation, where the oocyte is released

What hormone causes the uterus to contract?

Oxytocin

The corpus luteum secretes what during the luteal phase?

Progesterone

Interstitial cells secrete ___________, which inhibits release of ______ and _____.

Testosterone, LH and FSH

A lowering of estrogen and progesterone release the inhibition on prolactin. What causes these levels to stay up for the time of nursing the baby?

The act of nursing signals to secrete more prolactin

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted from which structure to help maintain pregnancy? A. Inner cell mass B. Morula C. Zygote D. Trophoblast

Trophoblast

Where would a vasectomy be done?

Vas Deferens

If a patient is XY, what will begin to develop in presence of testosterone?

Wolffian ducts

The opening of the trachea is protected by the ____________.

epiglottis.

Normally if there is no pregnancy the corpus luteum is broken down and destroyed. What causes this to continue to grow during a pregnancy?

hCG is released, which acts like LH, and inhibits its degeneration. It also causes estrogen and progesterone to continue to be secreted, keeping the endometrium from being shed off.