Section 5
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?
Knee valgus
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal Strength Training
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Nerves
What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system?
Stabilization Endurance Training
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Stabilization Endurance Training
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic inhibition
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline value
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer and bleeding disorders
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Cross-country runner
Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?
Deconditioning
Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming?
Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes
What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment?
Designing the flexibility portion of the program
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
Develop an appropriate aerobic base
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Erector spinae
Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Flexibility and joint ROM
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Flexibility exercises
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?
Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Front medicine ball oblique throw
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle static stretching
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Growth and volume
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Handstand push-up
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
Improved sleep
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Integrated training
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic dominance
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Tensor fascia latae
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Maximal Strength Training
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
Muscle hypertrophy
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?
Muscle imbalances
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?
Muscular Development
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Muscular Development Training
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Nociceptor
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Pattern overload
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?
Pectoral group
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Plow pose
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Posterior
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural distortions
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
Power Training
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power Training
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous injury
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?
Progressive overload
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Stretch-shortening cycle
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
6,750 pounds
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
75 minutes per week
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered movement patterns
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 3
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate?
208 - (0.7 x age)
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
A decrease in metabolic rate
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?
A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?
Quadriceps
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Quickness
According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
Rehabilitation
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
Resistance training
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Resistance training
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR/static stretching
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagittal
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations?
Self-efficacy
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Self-myofascial techniques
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?
Shoulder/military press
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Spine
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Squatting
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?
This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps brachii
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
Static stretching
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Strength Endurance
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Strength Endurance Training