Section 9: Animal Nursing

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A bitch''s food caloric needs are highest (A) During first trimester *(B) During the fourth week of lactation* (C) During third trimester (D) Just before weaning

A bitch''s food caloric needs are highest (A) During first trimester (B) During the fourth week of lactation (C) During third trimester (D) Just before weaning

A blood sampling from neonatal puppies and kittens is most easily obtained using the (A) Cephalic vein *(B) Jugular vein* (C) Lateral saphenous vein (D) Medial saphenous vein

A blood sampling from neonatal puppies and kittens is most easily obtained using the (A) Cephalic vein (B) Jugular vein (C) Lateral saphenous vein (D) Medial saphenous vein

A bull dog has what type of head shape *(A) Brachycephalic* (B) Dolichocephalic (C) Mesaticephalic (D) Prognacephalic

A bull dog has what type of head shape (A) Brachycephalic (B) Dolichocephalic (C) Mesaticephalic (D) Prognacephalic

A calorie is a very small unit that is not of practical use in the science of animal nutrition. The commonly used unit of measure is the kilcalorie. One kcal is equal to how many calories? (A) 10 (B) 100 *(C) 1000* (D) 10,000

A canine patient is being held in right lateral for venipuncture. Which veins are most accessible? *(A) Left lateral saphenous* (B) Left medial saphenous (C) Right jugular (D) Right lateral saphenous

A canine patient is being held in right lateral for venipuncture. Which veins are most accessible? (A) Left lateral saphenous (B) Left medial saphenous (C) Right jugular (D) Right lateral saphenous

A cat is to receive 90 kcal of a canned food at each meal. The food has a caloric density of 3360 kcal per can. How much should cat be fed each meal? *(A) 0.25 can* (B) 0.20 can (C) 0.50 can (D) 1 can

A cat is to receive 90 kcal of a canned food at each meal. The food has a caloric density of 3360 kcal per can. How much should cat be fed each meal? (A) 0.25 can (B) 0.20 can (C) 0.50 can (D) 1 can

A cat needs need high protein. The cat needs all of the following except; *(A) Ascorbic acid* (B) Arachidonic acid (C) Preformed vitamin A (D) Taurine

A cat needs need high protein. The cat needs all of the following except; (A) Ascorbic acid (B) Arachidonic acid (C) Preformed vitamin A (D) Taurine

A cat requires 60 mg of a liquid medication of strength 120 mg/ml . What quantity of the medication should be given (A) 2.0 ml *(B) 0.5 ml* (C) 0.2 ml (D) 5.0 ml

A cat requires 60 mg of a liquid medication of strength 120 mg/ml . What quantity of the medication should be given (A) 2.0 ml (B) 0.5 ml (C) 0.2 ml (D) 5.0 ml

A causative agent of rhinopenumonitis is (A) Streptococcus equi *(B) Equine herpes virus* (C) Aspergillus spp (D) None of these

A causative agent of rhinopenumonitis is (A) Streptococcus equi (B) Equine herpes virus (C) Aspergillus spp (D) None of these

A chest tube is placed when an animal has (A) SQ emphysema (B) Pulmonary edema (C) Ascites *(D) Pneumothorax*

A chest tube is placed when an animal has (A) SQ emphysema (B) Pulmonary edema (C) Ascites (D) Pneumothorax

A comprehensive nutritional history for patients presenting with acute diarrhea could include (A) Ingestion of trash or any unusual foods (B) Diet fed (C) Household member responsible for feeding the pet *(D) All of the above*

A condition characterized by accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one of the more corpus lutea in the ovaries is known as (A) Fetal membranes (B) Metritis *(C) Pseudopregnancy* (D) Milk fever

A condition characterized by accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one of the more corpus lutea in the ovaries is known as (A) Fetal membranes (B) Metritis (C) Pseudopregnancy (D) Milk fever

A contagious viral disease that produces limb swelling in horses (A) Equine infectious anemia *(B) Equine viral arteritis* (C) Heaves (D) Herpes

A contagious viral disease that produces limb swelling in horses (A) Equine infectious anemia (B) Equine viral arteritis (C) Heaves (D) Herpes

A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing (A) Chronic liver disease (B) Carnivorous diet *(C) Gastroenteritis* (D) Vegetarian diet

A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing (A) Chronic liver disease (B) Carnivorous diet (C) Gastroenteritis (D) Vegetarian diet

A device used to help make the vein of the limb stand out (A) Capture pole (B) Elizabethan collar (C) Muzzle *(D) Tourniquet*

A device used to help make the vein of the limb stand out (A) Capture pole (B) Elizabethan collar (C) Muzzle (D) Tourniquet

A disease that is not caused by microorganisms but is usually a result of a disturbance in the normal metabolism of the animal is (A) Contagious disease (B) Infectious disease *(C) Noninfectious disease* (D) Redistribution

A disease that is not caused by microorganisms but is usually a result of a disturbance in the normal metabolism of the animal is (A) Contagious disease (B) Infectious disease (C) Noninfectious disease (D) Redistribution

A dog on IV fluids has initially received 25% of the 1000 ml in the IV bag. How many ml has it r received? (A) 100 ml *(B) 250 ml* (C) 350 ml (D) 500 ml

A dog on IV fluids has initially received 25% of the 1000 ml in the IV bag. How many ml has it r received? (A) 100 ml (B) 250 ml (C) 350 ml (D) 500 ml

A horse's tail can indicate his/her attitude. What does a horse do with the tail when he/she has fear (A) Wringing or circling (B) Head straight down *(C) Tightly clamped* (D) Held with an arch

A horse's tail can indicate his/her attitude. What does a horse do with the tail when he/she has fear (A) Wringing or circling (B) Head straight down (C) Tightly clamped (D) Held with an arch

A hurdle is used to capture (A) Sheep (B) Cows *(C) Pigs* (D) Horses

A hurdle is used to capture (A) Sheep (B) Cows (C) Pigs (D) Horses

A lack of digestion is referred to as (A) Bardypeptic *(B) Apepsia* (C) Monogastric (D) Anastomosis

A lack of digestion is referred to as (A) Bardypeptic (B) Apepsia (C) Monogastric (D) Anastomosis

A male donkey that has not been castrated and is capable of breeding is referred to as (A) Jenny (B) Dam *(C) Jack* (D) Sire

A male donkey that has not been castrated and is capable of breeding is referred to as (A) Jenny (B) Dam (C) Jack (D) Sire

A nervous dog should be taken out of its cage by (A) Throwing a slip lead onto the neck and pulling them out *(B) Luring animal out with quiet, gentle urging, standing clear of the door* (C) Quickly adjusting your position, reacting to each movement the patient and making sure the dogs knows that they cannot escape (D) Reaching into the cage with your bare hands to restrain the animals

A nervous dog should be taken out of its cage by (A) Throwing a slip lead onto the neck and pulling them out (B) Luring animal out with quiet, gentle urging, standing clear of the door (C) Quickly adjusting your position, reacting to each movement the patient and making sure the dogs knows that they cannot escape (D) Reaching into the cage with your bare hands to restrain the animals

A paraneoplastic syndrome manifested by weight loss and a decrease in body condition, despite adequate nutritional intake is known as (A) Cancer anorexia *(B) Cancer cachexia* (C) Inappetence (D) None of the above

A paraneoplastic syndrome manifested by weight loss and a decrease in body condition, despite adequate nutritional intake is known as (A) Cancer anorexia (B) Cancer cachexia (C) Inappetence (D) None of the above

A prescription for a controlled substance must be signed and dated when issued. The prescription must include patients full name and address, the practitioners full name address, and the practitioners DEA number. Which of the following is not required on the prescription? (A) Drug name and strength (B) Quantity prescribed and # of refills authorized (C) Directions for me *(D) Drug manufacturer's name and address*

A respiratory disease that produces swelling of abscess of the submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes is known as *(A) Strangles* (B) Equine influenza (C) Herpes (D) Viral arteritis

A respiratory disease that produces swelling of abscess of the submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes is known as (A) Strangles (B) Equine influenza (C) Herpes (D) Viral arteritis

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways except (A) Through the nose (B) Through pharyngostomy site (C) Through gastrostomy site *(D) Through the mouth*

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways except (A) Through the nose (B) Through pharyngostomy site (C) Through gastrostomy site (D) Through the mouth

A symptom of botulism is *(A) Dysphagia* (B) Bruxism (C) Pyrexia (D) Trachycardia

A symptom of botulism is (A) Dysphagia (B) Bruxism (C) Pyrexia (D) Trachycardia

A traumatic cause of OA in dogs indicates obesity as a risk factor. What is the most common traumatic cause of OA in dogs *(A) Rupture cruciate ligaments* (B) Torn achilles group (C) Hip dysplasia (D) Phalangeal fracture

A traumatic cause of OA in dogs indicates obesity as a risk factor. What is the most common traumatic cause of OA in dogs (A) Rupture cruciate ligaments (B) Torn achilles group (C) Hip dysplasia (D) Phalangeal fracture

A urolith is a pathologic stone formed from mineral salts found in the urinary tract. Which of the following is not a factor in the formation of uroliths? (A) Urine pH (B) Urine concentration (C) Urine saturation *(D) Urine protein*

A vascular abnormality in which the hepatic portal vein empties directly into the caudal vena cava (A) Hepatic lipidosis *(B) Portosystemic shunt* (C) Cardiomyopathy (D) Aortic stenosis

A vascular abnormality in which the hepatic portal vein empties directly into the caudal vena cava (A) Hepatic lipidosis (B) Portosystemic shunt (C) Cardiomyopathy (D) Aortic stenosis

AAFCO feeding trials are used to evaluate pet foods in all of the following life stages except *(A) Senior* (B) Gestation and lactation (C) Adult maintenance (D) Growth

AAFCO feeding trials are used to evaluate pet foods in all of the following life stages except (A) Senior (B) Gestation and lactation (C) Adult maintenance (D) Growth

AVDC position statement indicates it is appropriate for vet techs to perform *(A) Dental cleanings* (B) Root canals (C) Surgical extractions (D) All of the above

AVDC position statement indicates it is appropriate for vet techs to perform (A) Dental cleanings (B) Root canals (C) Surgical extractions (D) All of the above

AVDC supports veterinary technicians with advanced training who are performing which of the following (A) Charting dental lesions (B) Taking dental radiographs (C) Performing nonsurgical subgingival root planning *(D) All of the above*

Abnormalities in potassium or magnesium homeostasis may occur all of the following except (A) Cardiac dysrhythmias *(B) Increase in myocardial contractility* (C) Profound muscle weakness (D) Potentiation of drug effects

Abnormalities in potassium or magnesium homeostasis may occur all of the following except (A) Cardiac dysrhythmias (B) Increase in myocardial contractility (C) Profound muscle weakness (D) Potentiation of drug effects

Abscesses are generally allowed to heal open to provide continuous drainage. This type of wound healing is (A) Primary intention *(B) Second intention* (C) Third intention (D) Fourth intention

Abscesses are generally allowed to heal open to provide continuous drainage. This type of wound healing is (A) Primary intention (B) Second intention (C) Third intention (D) Fourth intention

According to AAFCO, pet food indicating beef on label must have how much beef in the food *(A) 70%* (B) 50% (C) 40% (D) 25%

According to AAFCO, pet food indicating beef on label must have how much beef in the food (A) 70% (B) 50% (C) 40% (D) 25%

Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity (A) Auscultate (B) Infarct *(C) Ascites* (D) Edema

Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity (A) Auscultate (B) Infarct (C) Ascites (D) Edema

Accumulation of inflammatory cells within the lining of the small intestine, stomach, or large bowel is known as (A) Acute gastritis (B) Chronic gastritis *(C) Inflammatory bowel disease* (D) Colitis

Accumulation of inflammatory cells within the lining of the small intestine, stomach, or large bowel is known as (A) Acute gastritis (B) Chronic gastritis (C) Inflammatory bowel disease (D) Colitis

Accumulation of triglycerides in the liver (A) Renal lipidosis *(B) Hepatic lipidosis* (C) Hyperthryoidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Accumulation of triglycerides in the liver (A) Renal lipidosis (B) Hepatic lipidosis (C) Hyperthryoidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Acne onset of hepatic disease may result from all of the following except; (A) Acetaminophen (B) Phenobarbital (C) Antifungals *(D) Vitamin K*

Acne onset of hepatic disease may result from all of the following except; (A) Acetaminophen (B) Phenobarbital (C) Antifungals (D) Vitamin K

Acute diarrhea is usually caused by (A) Malignancy *(B) Diet or dietary indiscretion* (C) Histoplasmosis (D) Pythiosis

Acute diarrhea is usually caused by (A) Malignancy (B) Diet or dietary indiscretion (C) Histoplasmosis (D) Pythiosis

Acute diarrhea usually results from? (A) Diet (B) Parasites (C) Infectious disease *(D) All of the above*

Acute diarrhea usually results from? (A) Diet (B) Parasites (C) Infectious disease (D) All of the above

Acute renal failure in horses most often a result of (A) Colic *(B) Toxicity* (C) Age (D) Hereditary factors

Acute renal failure in horses most often a result of (A) Colic (B) Toxicity (C) Age (D) Hereditary factors

Addison's disease is also known as which of the following (A) Hyperadrenocorticialism *(B) Hypoadrenocorticism* (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Hyperthyroidism

Addison's disease is also known as which of the following (A) Hyperadrenocorticialism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Hyperthyroidism

Adverse reaction to food is (A) Abnormal response to an ingested toxin *(B) Abnormal response to an ingested food* (C) Abnormal response to an inhaled food (D) Abnormal response to an inhaled toxin

Adverse reaction to food is (A) Abnormal response to an ingested toxin (B) Abnormal response to an ingested food (C) Abnormal response to an inhaled food (D) Abnormal response to an inhaled toxin

Adverse reaction to food is an abnormal response to what? (A) Ingested toxin *(B) Ingested food* (C) Inhaled food (D) Inhaled toxin

Adverse reaction to food is an abnormal response to what? (A) Ingested toxin (B) Ingested food (C) Inhaled food (D) Inhaled toxin

After medical resolution of colic, horses should be fed? (A) Twice daily (B) Three times daily *(C) Frequent, small meals* (D) Calorically dense food

After medical resolution of colic, horses should be fed? (A) Twice daily (B) Three times daily (C) Frequent, small meals (D) Calorically dense food

All but one of the following make up the five vital assessments (A) Temperature (B) Pain *(C) Weight* (D) Nutrition

All but one of the following make up the five vital assessments (A) Temperature (B) Pain (C) Weight (D) Nutrition

All of the following are adverse side effects with the use of corticosteroid in horses except (A) Laminitis *(B) Anuria* (C) Progression of joint disease (D) Poor wound healing

All of the following are adverse side effects with the use of corticosteroid in horses except (A) Laminitis (B) Anuria (C) Progression of joint disease (D) Poor wound healing

All of the following are among most common diagnosed skin disorders in cats except (A) Miliary dermatitis (B) Eosinophilic granuloma complex (C) Adverse reaction to food *(D) Hyperthyroidism*

All of the following are among most common diagnosed skin disorders in cats except (A) Miliary dermatitis (B) Eosinophilic granuloma complex (C) Adverse reaction to food (D) Hyperthyroidism

All of the following are clinical signs a horse may show when experiencing respiratory disease except.. (A) Stertor (B) Bilateral nasal discharge *(C) Bradycardia* (D) Cough

All of the following are clinical signs a horse may show when experiencing respiratory disease except.. (A) Stertor (B) Bilateral nasal discharge (C) Bradycardia (D) Cough

All of the following are common locations for decubital ulcers except; (A) Pelvis (B) Elbow (C) Head *(D) Hock*

All of the following are common locations for decubital ulcers except; (A) Pelvis (B) Elbow (C) Head (D) Hock

All of the following are core vaccines except (A) Modified live panleukopenia (B) Herpes-calicivirus *(C) Leukemia* (D) Rabies

All of the following are core vaccines except (A) Modified live panleukopenia (B) Herpes-calicivirus (C) Leukemia (D) Rabies

All of the following are distraction techniques for an equine patient except; (A) Rocking an ear (B) Skin roll (C) Hand twitch *(D) Tail jacking*

All of the following are distraction techniques for an equine patient except; (A) Rocking an ear (B) Skin roll (C) Hand twitch (D) Tail jacking

All of the following are examples of viral equine encephalitis except (A) Eastern (B) Western *(C) Pacific* (D) West nile

All of the following are examples of viral equine encephalitis except (A) Eastern (B) Western (C) Pacific (D) West nile

All of the following are risk factors for developing osteoarthritis in dogs except (A) Trauma (B) Obesity (C) Large/giant breeds *(D) Spaying or neutering*

All of the following are risk factors for developing osteoarthritis in dogs except (A) Trauma (B) Obesity (C) Large/giant breeds (D) Spaying or neutering

All of the following are signs of anxiety in a dog except *(A) Ears stand tall* (B) An averted gaze (C) Raise hair along back (D) Tail straight out

All of the following are signs of anxiety in a dog except (A) Ears stand tall (B) An averted gaze (C) Raise hair along back (D) Tail straight out

All of the following are symptoms of hyperthryoid except *(A) Weight gain* (B) Polyphagia (C) Vomiting (D) Increased appetite

All of the following are symptoms of hyperthryoid except (A) Weight gain (B) Polyphagia (C) Vomiting (D) Increased appetite

All of the following can result from colitis in hoses, except: (A) Endotoxemia (B) Electrolyte loss *(C) Hypervolemia* (D) Hypovolemia

All of the following can result from colitis in hoses, except: (A) Endotoxemia (B) Electrolyte loss (C) Hypervolemia (D) Hypovolemia

All of the following contribute to PU/PD in a horse except (A) Lactation (B) Psychogenic water drinking *(C) Glucocorticoid administration* (D) Acute renal failure

All of the following contribute to PU/PD in a horse except (A) Lactation (B) Psychogenic water drinking (C) Glucocorticoid administration (D) Acute renal failure

All of the following disease are of orthopedic descent except (A) Osteochondrosis dessicans *(B) Von willebrands disease* (C) Panosteitis (D) Arthritis

All of the following disease are of orthopedic descent except (A) Osteochondrosis dessicans (B) Von willebrands disease (C) Panosteitis (D) Arthritis

All of the following info should be provided to clients when their pet has been diagnosed with IBD except (A) Definitive diagnosis require a biopsy *(B) The Therapy will only be required until clinical signs resolve* (C) Special diet will be required for remainder of life (D) Pets cannot eat table food

All of the following info should be provided to clients when their pet has been diagnosed with IBD except (A) Definitive diagnosis require a biopsy (B) The Therapy will only be required until clinical signs resolve (C) Special diet will be required for remainder of life (D) Pets cannot eat table food

All of the following procedures can be completed with a feline patient in sternal except (A) Administration of ophthalmic meds (B) Sq injections *(C) Cystocentesis* (D) Cleaning ears

All of the following procedures can be completed with a feline patient in sternal except (A) Administration of ophthalmic meds (B) Sq injections (C) Cystocentesis (D) Cleaning ears

All of the following processes should be completed for piglets raised in confinement except (A) Iron injections at 3 days of age (B) Clipping needle teeth (C) Tail docking *(D) Removing dewclaws*

All of the following processes should be completed for piglets raised in confinement except (A) Iron injections at 3 days of age (B) Clipping needle teeth (C) Tail docking (D) Removing dewclaws

All of the following would be considered a core vaccine except (A) Distemper (B) Rabies (C) Canine adenovirus *(D) Leptospira*

All of the following would be considered a core vaccine except (A) Distemper (B) Rabies (C) Canine adenovirus (D) Leptospira

All of these are typical clinical signs of advanced arthritis in dogs except *(A) Reduced appetite* (B) Stiffness (C) Lameness (D) Difficulty in rising

All of these are typical clinical signs of advanced arthritis in dogs except (A) Reduced appetite (B) Stiffness (C) Lameness (D) Difficulty in rising

An abnormally low white blood cell count is referred to as (A) Normocytic (B) Leukocytosis *(C) Leukopenia* (D) Anemia

An abnormally low white blood cell count is referred to as (A) Normocytic (B) Leukocytosis (C) Leukopenia (D) Anemia

An allergic response that is life threatening is a result of (A) Agglutination (B) Hemolysis (C) DIC *(D) Anaphylaxis*

An allergic response that is life threatening is a result of (A) Agglutination (B) Hemolysis (C) DIC (D) Anaphylaxis

An atypical heart sound associated with a functional or structural valve abnormality is known as (A) Arrhythmia (B) Fibrillation *(C) Murmur* (D) Infarct

An atypical heart sound associated with a functional or structural valve abnormality is known as (A) Arrhythmia (B) Fibrillation (C) Murmur (D) Infarct

An equine that is about to turn 1 year old is referred to as *(A) Yearling* (B) Foaling (C) Weanling (D) Filly

An equine that is about to turn 1 year old is referred to as (A) Yearling (B) Foaling (C) Weanling (D) Filly

An intravenously delivered solution that distributes evenly throughout the interstital and intravascular space *(A) Isotonic* (B) Hypotonic (C) Hypertonic (D) 0.45% sodium chloride

An intravenously delivered solution that distributes evenly throughout the interstital and intravascular space (A) Isotonic (B) Hypotonic (C) Hypertonic (D) 0.45% sodium chloride

An overgrowth of scar tissue at the site of injury is known as (A) Papule (B) Petechia (C) Laceration *(D) Keloid*

An overgrowth of scar tissue at the site of injury is known as (A) Papule (B) Petechia (C) Laceration (D) Keloid

Anatomical term synarthroses refers to *(A) Fibrous joints* (B) Palatine bones (C) Vomer bone (D) Pterygoid bones

Anatomical term synarthroses refers to (A) Fibrous joints (B) Palatine bones (C) Vomer bone (D) Pterygoid bones

Anemia associated with icterus (A) Responsive (B) Nonresponsive *(C) Hemolytic* (D) Megaloblastic

Anemia associated with icterus (A) Responsive (B) Nonresponsive (C) Hemolytic (D) Megaloblastic

Another term for exertional rhabdomyolysis is (A) Polydipsia *(B) Azoturia* (C) Anorexia (D) Pyrexia

Another term for exertional rhabdomyolysis is (A) Polydipsia (B) Azoturia (C) Anorexia (D) Pyrexia

Antebrachium is made up of? (A) Humerus and radius (B) Humerus and scapula *(C) Ulna and radius* (D) Radius and scapula

Antebrachium is made up of? (A) Humerus and radius (B) Humerus and scapula (C) Ulna and radius (D) Radius and scapula

Anterior drawer movement detects problems with (A) Elbow *(B) Stifle* (C) Hip (D) Hock

Anterior drawer movement detects problems with (A) Elbow (B) Stifle (C) Hip (D) Hock

Anuria is (A) Decreased urine output (B) Decreased drinking *(C) Complete lack of urine production* (D) Excessive drinking

Anuria is (A) Decreased urine output (B) Decreased drinking (C) Complete lack of urine production (D) Excessive drinking

Arterial blood is most commonly used to analyze (A) Hematology *(B) Blood gases* (C) Blood chemistry (D) Organ function tests

Arterial blood is most commonly used to analyze (A) Hematology (B) Blood gases (C) Blood chemistry (D) Organ function tests

As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for the (A) Increase in calories *(B) Decrease in fat and increase in fiber* (C) Addition of table scraps (D) Decrease in fiber

As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for the (A) Increase in calories (B) Decrease in fat and increase in fiber (C) Addition of table scraps (D) Decrease in fiber

At what age do permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs erupt (A) 3-5 months *(B) 4-6 months* (C) 5-7 months (D) 6-8 months

At what age do permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs erupt (A) 3-5 months (B) 4-6 months (C) 5-7 months (D) 6-8 months

BRDS which affects primarily feedlot calves and dairy calves younger than 6 months of age is caused by (A) Respiratory viruses (B) Bacteria (C) Stress *(D) All of the above*

BRDS which affects primarily feedlot calves and dairy calves younger than 6 months of age is caused by (A) Respiratory viruses (B) Bacteria (C) Stress (D) All of the above

Because Guinea pigs lack enzyme involved in synthesizing glucose to ascorbic acid, they require a dietary source of which of the following (A) Vitamin K (B) Vitamin B *(C) Vitamin C* (D) All of these

Because Guinea pigs lack enzyme involved in synthesizing glucose to ascorbic acid, they require a dietary source of which of the following (A) Vitamin K (B) Vitamin B (C) Vitamin C (D) All of these

Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate function of? (A) kidneys *(B) Liver* (C) Pancreas (D) Bile ducts

Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate function of? (A) kidneys (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Bile ducts

Bones of the head and trunk are called *(A) Axial skeleton* (B) Appendicular skeleton (C) Visceral skeleton (D) Metacarpal bones

Bones of the head and trunk are called (A) Axial skeleton (B) Appendicular skeleton (C) Visceral skeleton (D) Metacarpal bones

Bovine viral diarrhea can manifest with all the following clinical symptoms except; (A) Oral ulcers (B) Pyrexia *(C) Bloat* (D) Lethargy

Bovine viral diarrhea can manifest with all the following clinical symptoms except; (A) Oral ulcers (B) Pyrexia (C) Bloat (D) Lethargy

CS of rumen indigestion include all of the following except (A) Anorexia (B) Malodorous diarrhea (C) Reduced rumen fertility *(D) Increased rumen motility*

CS of rumen indigestion include all of the following except (A) Anorexia (B) Malodorous diarrhea (C) Reduced rumen fertility (D) Increased rumen motility

Calf scours is common among young dairy and beef calves, and it is characterized by (A) Muscle weakness *(B) Diarrhea* (C) Hyperglycemia (D) Hyperthermia

Calf scours is common among young dairy and beef calves, and it is characterized by (A) Muscle weakness (B) Diarrhea (C) Hyperglycemia (D) Hyperthermia

Caseous lymphadenitis is (A) Most commonly cause of lymph node abscess in small ruminants (B) Major cause of carcass condemnation in sheep (C) Endemic *(D) All of the above*

Caseous lymphadenitis is (A) Most commonly cause of lymph node abscess in small ruminants (B) Major cause of carcass condemnation in sheep (C) Endemic (D) All of the above

Cats act hungry and tend to overeat should be (A) Free fed *(B) Meal fed twice per day* (C) Fed once a day (D) Fed once a week

Cats act hungry and tend to overeat should be (A) Free fed (B) Meal fed twice per day (C) Fed once a day (D) Fed once a week

Cats exposed to feline leukemia may respond in all of the following ways except; (A) Not becoming infected (B) Becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity, and overcoming the infection (C) Becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely without becoming ill *(D) Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week*

Cats exposed to feline leukemia may respond in all of the following ways except; (A) Not becoming infected (B) Becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity, and overcoming the infection (C) Becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely without becoming ill (D) Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

Causes of congenital heart disease include all of the following except; (A) Genetics *(B) Viruses* (C) Nutrients (D) Drugs

Causes of congenital heart disease include all of the following except; (A) Genetics (B) Viruses (C) Nutrients (D) Drugs

Chondroitin sulfates are an example of (A) Flavor enhancement *(B) Nutraceuticals* (C) Dentifrices (D) Parenteral medications

Chondroitin sulfates are an example of (A) Flavor enhancement (B) Nutraceuticals (C) Dentifrices (D) Parenteral medications

Chronic hepatitis may be the result of: *(A) Copper accumulation, infectious diseases, drugs* (B) Breed-associated hepatitis, autoimmune disease, copper deficiency (C) Infectious disease, unknown etiology, zinc accumulation (D) Autoimmune disease, vitamin K deficiency, drugs

Chronic hepatitis may be the result of: (A) Copper accumulation, infectious diseases, drugs (B) Breed-associated hepatitis, autoimmune disease, copper deficiency (C) Infectious disease, unknown etiology, zinc accumulation (D) Autoimmune disease, vitamin K deficiency, drugs

Chronic mitral valvular disease (endocardiosis) affects more than one third of patients older than (A) 2 years (B) 5 years (C) 8 years *(D) 10 years*

Chronic mitral valvular disease (endocardiosis) affects more than one third of patients older than (A) 2 years (B) 5 years (C) 8 years (D) 10 years

Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most commonly in geriatric patients, especially cats. In addition to causing increased polyuria and polydipsia, renal disease may also cause (A) Anemia (B) Anorexia (C) Gastric upset *(D) All of the above*

Clear fluid removed from thoracic cavity is known as *(A) Pleural effusion* (B) Pulmonary edema (C) Ascites (D) Pyothorax

Clear fluid removed from thoracic cavity is known as (A) Pleural effusion (B) Pulmonary edema (C) Ascites (D) Pyothorax

Clinical signs associated with endotoxemia include *(A) Fever* (B) Bradycardia (C) Cyaontic mucous membranes (D) Leukocytosis

Clinical signs associated with endotoxemia include (A) Fever (B) Bradycardia (C) Cyaontic mucous membranes (D) Leukocytosis

Clinical signs associated with liver disease could include *(A) Melena* (B) Anuria (C) Weight gain (D) Hyposalivation

Clinical signs associated with liver disease could include (A) Melena (B) Anuria (C) Weight gain (D) Hyposalivation

Clinical signs of acute gastritis may include *(A) Anorexia* (B) Polyuria (C) Polydipsia (D) Anuria

Clinical signs of acute gastritis may include (A) Anorexia (B) Polyuria (C) Polydipsia (D) Anuria

Clinical signs of gastric ulcers includes *(A) Bruxism* (B) Pyrexia (C) Hyposalivation (D) All of the above

Clinical signs of gastric ulcers includes (A) Bruxism (B) Pyrexia (C) Hyposalivation (D) All of the above

Clinical signs that many indicate large intestinal diarrhea include (A) Halitosis (B) Borborygmus *(C) Tenesmus* (D) Steatorrhea

Clinical signs that many indicate large intestinal diarrhea include (A) Halitosis (B) Borborygmus (C) Tenesmus (D) Steatorrhea

Clinical signs that may indicate small intestine diarrhea include (A) Mucus *(B) Hematochezia* (C) Increase stool volume (D) Dyschezia

Clinical signs that may indicate small intestine diarrhea include (A) Mucus (B) Hematochezia (C) Increase stool volume (D) Dyschezia

Clinical symptoms of milk fever include *(A) Staggering gate* (B) Bilateral nasal discharge (C) Polyuria (D) Lacrimation

Clinical symptoms of milk fever include (A) Staggering gate (B) Bilateral nasal discharge (C) Polyuria (D) Lacrimation

Coagulation tests useful for diagnosing *(A) Rodenticide poisoning* (B) Thyroid function (C) Adrenal function (D) Ethylene glycol toxicity

Coagulation tests useful for diagnosing (A) Rodenticide poisoning (B) Thyroid function (C) Adrenal function (D) Ethylene glycol toxicity

Collection of blood in cranial portion of ventral cavity (A) Pneumothorax (B) Pneumonia *(C) Hematothorax* (D) Hemostasis

Collection of blood in cranial portion of ventral cavity (A) Pneumothorax (B) Pneumonia (C) Hematothorax (D) Hemostasis

Colloid solutions are used for expansion of the patient plasma volume. Which of the following fluids are a colloid (A) Dextrose 5% in water *(B) Hetastarch* (C) Lactated ringers solution (D) Normosol R

Colloid solutions are used for expansion of the patient plasma volume. Which of the following fluids are a colloid (A) Dextrose 5% in water (B) Hetastarch (C) Lactated ringers solution (D) Normosol R

Colostrum ingestion terminates ___ post birth (A) 8 hours (B) 12 hours *(C) 24 hours* (D) 48 hours

Colostrum ingestion terminates ___ post birth (A) 8 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 24 hours (D) 48 hours

Common sign of saddle thrombus is (A) Acute onset of front leg pain/paresis *(B) Acute onset of rear leg pain/paresis* (C) Bright red footpads (D) Bounding pulses in rear limbs

Common sign of saddle thrombus is (A) Acute onset of front leg pain/paresis (B) Acute onset of rear leg pain/paresis (C) Bright red footpads (D) Bounding pulses in rear limbs

Common signs of bacterial infections of the urinary tract include hematuria, pollakiuria, urinating in inappropriate places, and which of the following? (A) Azotemia (B) Dehydration *(C) Dysuria* (D) Elevated BUN

Common symptoms of diabetes in both dogs/cats include (A) Bradypnea/bradycardiac *(B) PU/PD* (C) Weight gain and pitting edema (D) All of the above

Common symptoms of diabetes in both dogs/cats include (A) Bradypnea/bradycardiac (B) PU/PD (C) Weight gain and pitting edema (D) All of the above

Complication of colitis in an equine patient could include *(A) Founder* (B) Stertor (C) Stridor (D) Bruxism

Complication of colitis in an equine patient could include (A) Founder (B) Stertor (C) Stridor (D) Bruxism

Conditions that may induce a coughing reflex include all of the following except; (A) Bronchitis (B) Infectious rhinotracheitis *(C) Intestinal foreign body* (D) Left-sided congestive heart failure

Conditions that may induce a coughing reflex include all of the following except; (A) Bronchitis (B) Infectious rhinotracheitis (C) Intestinal foreign body (D) Left-sided congestive heart failure

Consumption of colostrum after being born is important to a neonates health because (A) Neonate requires calories to start growing (B) Colostrum strengthens bond between mother and neonate *(C) Passive acquirement of immunoglobulins strengthen the immune system* (D) Colostrum has a palatable taste that encourages neonates to continue suckling

Consumption of colostrum after being born is important to a neonates health because (A) Neonate requires calories to start growing (B) Colostrum strengthens bond between mother and neonate (C) Passive acquirement of immunoglobulins strengthen the immune system (D) Colostrum has a palatable taste that encourages neonates to continue suckling

Contagious ecthyma is a common viral disease of small ruminants that is zoonotic. What is this disease also known as (A) Orf (B) Sore mouth (C) Sorf *(D) A and B*

Contagious ecthyma is a common viral disease of small ruminants that is zoonotic. What is this disease also known as (A) Orf (B) Sore mouth (C) Sorf (D) A and B

Copper storage disease is most prevalent in (A) Afghan hounds *(B) Bedlington terriers* (C) Pekinese dogs (D) Cats

Copper storage disease is most prevalent in (A) Afghan hounds (B) Bedlington terriers (C) Pekinese dogs (D) Cats

Copper toxicity results from accumulation of copper in the *(A) Liver* (B) Kidneys (C) Gallbladder (D) Lymph nodes

Copper toxicity results from accumulation of copper in the (A) Liver (B) Kidneys (C) Gallbladder (D) Lymph nodes

Coritcosteorid are used for which of the following (A) Decreasing appetite (B) Stimulating tear production *(C) Increasing appetite* (D) Improving hair coat

Coritcosteorid are used for which of the following (A) Decreasing appetite (B) Stimulating tear production (C) Increasing appetite (D) Improving hair coat

Coupage is contraindicated in patients that have (A) Proptosed eye *(B) Fractured ribs* (C) Pulmonary disease (D) Fractured femur

Coupage is contraindicated in patients that have (A) Proptosed eye (B) Fractured ribs (C) Pulmonary disease (D) Fractured femur

Current recommendations for feeding critically ill patients are to begin feeding equal to a patients estimated *(A) RER* (B) RER x 2 (C) RER x 4 (D) DER x 4

Current recommendations for feeding critically ill patients are to begin feeding equal to a patients estimated (A) RER (B) RER x 2 (C) RER x 4 (D) DER x 4

Current recommended location for administering rabies vaccine to a cat is (A) Between shoulder blades (B) Right shoulder *(C) Right rear leg* (D) Left rear leg

Current recommended location for administering rabies vaccine to a cat is (A) Between shoulder blades (B) Right shoulder (C) Right rear leg (D) Left rear leg

Currently the best treatments for cats with FIC include (A) Nutritional management (B) Environmental enrichment (C) Stress reduction *(D) All of the above*

Currently the best treatments for cats with FIC include (A) Nutritional management (B) Environmental enrichment (C) Stress reduction (D) All of the above

Deficiencies in iron may result in anemia. Which of these minerals may also cause anemia if deficient in a dog or cat diet? (A) Calcium (B) Phosphorus *(C) Copper* (D) Zinc

Deficiencies in iron may result in anemia. Which of these minerals may also cause anemia if deficient in a dog or cat diet? (A) Calcium (B) Phosphorus (C) Copper (D) Zinc

Dehydration is frequently encountered in patients suffering from GI disorders. Which factor causes this? (A) Reduced oral water consumption (B) Vomiting (C) Diarrhea *(D) All of the above*

Dehydration is frequently encountered in patients suffering from GI disorders. Which factor causes this? (A) Reduced oral water consumption (B) Vomiting (C) Diarrhea (D) All of the above

Dermatophilosis in horses also known as (A) Ringworm *(B) Rain rot* (C) Culicoides hypersensitivity (D) Arcoid

Dermatophilosis in horses also known as (A) Ringworm (B) Rain rot (C) Culicoides hypersensitivity (D) Arcoid

Diagnostic evaluation of felines with recurrent or persistent lower urinary tract signs should include (A) Urinalysis (B) Diagnostic imaging (C) Thyroid testing *(D) A and B*

Diagnostic evaluation of felines with recurrent or persistent lower urinary tract signs should include (A) Urinalysis (B) Diagnostic imaging (C) Thyroid testing (D) A and B

Diarrhea is a common clinical sign of which zoonotic disease (A) Parvo *(B) Campylobacteriosis* (C) Feline infectious enteritis (D) Inflammatory bowel disease

Diarrhea is a common clinical sign of which zoonotic disease (A) Parvo (B) Campylobacteriosis (C) Feline infectious enteritis (D) Inflammatory bowel disease

Difference between nutrient amount consumed and amount absorbed is (A) Dry-matter basis (B) Energy density *(C) Digestibility* (D) Hydrolyzation

Difference between nutrient amount consumed and amount absorbed is (A) Dry-matter basis (B) Energy density (C) Digestibility (D) Hydrolyzation

Dog weights 88 lb. What is dogs weight in kilograms? (A) 20 kg (B) 24 kg *(C) 40 kg* (D) 44 kg

Dog weights 88 lb. What is dogs weight in kilograms? (A) 20 kg (B) 24 kg (C) 40 kg (D) 44 kg

Dog with abnormally short mandible (A) Prognathism *(B) Brachygnathism* (C) Mesaticephalic (D) Dolichocephalic

Dog with abnormally short mandible (A) Prognathism (B) Brachygnathism (C) Mesaticephalic (D) Dolichocephalic

Dogs and cats with diabetes mellitus (DM) typically present to the veterinary hospital with which of the following signs? *(A) Polydipsia and lethargy* (B) Weight gain and lethargy (C) Lethargy and chronic kidney disease (D) All of the above

Dogs and cats with diabetes mellitus (DM) typically present to the veterinary hospital with which of the following signs? (A) Polydipsia and lethargy (B) Weight gain and lethargy (C) Lethargy and chronic kidney disease (D) All of the above

Dogs have all of the following teeth except (A) Canines *(B) Elodont teeth* (C) Molars (D) Premolas

Dogs have all of the following teeth except (A) Canines (B) Elodont teeth (C) Molars (D) Premolas

During emergency intubation, the cranial nerve ____ may be stimulated, resulting in ___ (A) 1; bradycardia (B) IV; tachycardia *(C) X; bradycardia* (D) XII; tachycardia

During emergency intubation, the cranial nerve ____ may be stimulated, resulting in ___ (A) 1; bradycardia (B) IV; tachycardia (C) X; bradycardia (D) XII; tachycardia

During first few days of life, normal body temperature of a newborn puppy is *(A) 94.5 - 97.3 F* (B) 94.7 F - 100.1 F (C) 97.0 F to 99.0 F (D) 99.0 F to 101.5 F

During first few days of life, normal body temperature of a newborn puppy is (A) 94.5 - 97.3 F (B) 94.7 F - 100.1 F (C) 97.0 F to 99.0 F (D) 99.0 F to 101.5 F

During hospitalization, how often should pain assessment be performed *(A) Every 4-6 hours* (B) Every 30 minutes to an hour (C) Every 12-24 hours (D) Every 8 hours

During hospitalization, how often should pain assessment be performed (A) Every 4-6 hours (B) Every 30 minutes to an hour (C) Every 12-24 hours (D) Every 8 hours

Effect of omega-3 fatty acids on cardiac patients may be attributed to (A) Anti-inflamatory effects (B) Improved appetite (C) Antiarrhythmic effects *(D) All of the above*

Effect of omega-3 fatty acids on cardiac patients may be attributed to (A) Anti-inflamatory effects (B) Improved appetite (C) Antiarrhythmic effects (D) All of the above

Emesis should not be induced in patients that have ingested (A) Anticholinergics *(B) Hydrocarbons* (C) Organophosphates (D) Salicylates

Emesis should not be induced in patients that have ingested (A) Anticholinergics (B) Hydrocarbons (C) Organophosphates (D) Salicylates

Energy required for normal animal in fasting state in thermoneutral environment, awake but resting is *(A) Basal energy requirement* (B) Resting energy requirement (C) Maintenance energy requirement (D) Daily energy requirement

Energy required for normal animal in fasting state in thermoneutral environment, awake but resting is (A) Basal energy requirement (B) Resting energy requirement (C) Maintenance energy requirement (D) Daily energy requirement

Enteral feeding tubes of all types should be flushed *(A) Before/after use* (B) After use only (C) Before use only (D) Never

Enteral feeding tubes of all types should be flushed (A) Before/after use (B) After use only (C) Before use only (D) Never

Equine anaplasmosis exhibits all of the following clinical signs except (A) Anemia (B) Icterus *(C) Excitement* (D) Stiffness

Equine anaplasmosis exhibits all of the following clinical signs except (A) Anemia (B) Icterus (C) Excitement (D) Stiffness

Equine large intestine, optimum pH for microbial activity that promotes volatile fatty acids is *(A) 6.5* (B) 6.7 (C) 7.1 (D) 6.1

Equine large intestine, optimum pH for microbial activity that promotes volatile fatty acids is (A) 6.5 (B) 6.7 (C) 7.1 (D) 6.1

Equine recurrent uveitis results from *(A) Immune mediated condition* (B) Ocular trauma (C) Antibiotic toxicity (D) Corticosteroid therapy

Equine recurrent uveitis results from (A) Immune mediated condition (B) Ocular trauma (C) Antibiotic toxicity (D) Corticosteroid therapy

External parasites are responsible for many skin problems seen in small-animal medicine. All of the following may be treated with shampoos and dips, except (A) Fleas (B) Ticks *(C) Ear mites* (D) Mange mites

External parasites are responsible for many skin problems seen in small-animal medicine. All of the following may be treated with shampoos and dips, except (A) Fleas (B) Ticks (C) Ear mites (D) Mange mites

FDA center of veterinary medicine regulates pet foods in cooperation with the individual states. Which is not a responsibility of the FDA? (A) Establishing certain animal food-labeling regulations (B) Specifying certain permitted ingredients such as drugs and additives (C) Enforcing regulations about chemical and microbiologic contamination *(D) Enforcing manufacturing procedures*

Fats composed of triglycerides which include (A) Two fatty acids to a glycerol chain (B) Three fatty acids attached to three glycerol chains *(C) Three fatty acids attached to a glycerol chain* (D) One fatty acid attached to one glycerol chain

Fats composed of triglycerides which include (A) Two fatty acids to a glycerol chain (B) Three fatty acids attached to three glycerol chains (C) Three fatty acids attached to a glycerol chain (D) One fatty acid attached to one glycerol chain

Feeding dog food to a cat is ____advised *(A) Never* (B) Sometimes (C) Seldom (D) Frequently

Feeding dog food to a cat is ____advised (A) Never (B) Sometimes (C) Seldom (D) Frequently

Feline eosinophlic granuloma complex involves? *(A) Indolent ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, linear granulomas* (B) Indolent ulcers, eosinophilic granulomas, linear plaques (C) Linear ulcers, eosinophlic plaques, linear granulomas (D) Eosinophlic ulcers, indolent granulomas, linear plaques

Feline eosinophlic granuloma complex involves? (A) Indolent ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, linear granulomas (B) Indolent ulcers, eosinophilic granulomas, linear plaques (C) Linear ulcers, eosinophlic plaques, linear granulomas (D) Eosinophlic ulcers, indolent granulomas, linear plaques

Feline hyperthyroidism is a result of (A) Malnutrition *(B) Excessive production of thyroid hormone* (C) Excessive production of pituitary glands (D) Diets containing excessive protein

Feline hyperthyroidism is a result of (A) Malnutrition (B) Excessive production of thyroid hormone (C) Excessive production of pituitary glands (D) Diets containing excessive protein

Feline obstipation is also known as (A) IBD *(B) Megacolon* (C) Constipation (D) All of the above

Feline obstipation is also known as (A) IBD (B) Megacolon (C) Constipation (D) All of the above

Ferrets are? *(A) Carnivores* (B) Herbivores (C) Omnivores (D) Granivores

Ferrets are? (A) Carnivores (B) Herbivores (C) Omnivores (D) Granivores

Food and drug administration regulates pet food labels, and labels are required to contain the name of the product. using chicken as an example, a label that includes chicken dinner in the product must contain (A) At least 70% chicken *(B) At least 10% chicken* (C) At least 3% chicken (D) Less than 3% chicken

Food and drug administration regulates pet food labels, and labels are required to contain the name of the product. using chicken as an example, a label that includes chicken dinner in the product must contain (A) At least 70% chicken (B) At least 10% chicken (C) At least 3% chicken (D) Less than 3% chicken

Foods effective in management of an adverse food reaction include *(A) Novel protein diets* (B) Foods that contain high protein levels (C) Foods that have one carbohydrate source (D) Foods that have only natural preservatives

Foods effective in management of an adverse food reaction include (A) Novel protein diets (B) Foods that contain high protein levels (C) Foods that have one carbohydrate source (D) Foods that have only natural preservatives

For what purpose is an esophageal stethoscope most useful? (A) Assessing megaesophagus (B) Detecting ileus *(C) Monitoring anesthetized patients* (D) Routine physical examination

For what purpose is an esophageal stethoscope most useful? (A) Assessing megaesophagus (B) Detecting ileus (C) Monitoring anesthetized patients (D) Routine physical examination

Forceful expulsion of stomach contents that requires abdominal contractions (A) Cachexia (B) Cathartics (C) Regurgitation *(D) Vomiting*

Forceful expulsion of stomach contents that requires abdominal contractions (A) Cachexia (B) Cathartics (C) Regurgitation (D) Vomiting

Four patients present at the same time with emergency conditions. Which order should they be triaged? *(A) Dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis* (B) Proptosis, dyspnea, dystocia, laceration (C) Laceration, dystocia, dyspnea, proptosis (D) Dysotica, proptosis, laceration, dyspnea

Four patients present at the same time with emergency conditions. Which order should they be triaged? (A) Dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis (B) Proptosis, dyspnea, dystocia, laceration (C) Laceration, dystocia, dyspnea, proptosis (D) Dysotica, proptosis, laceration, dyspnea

Fresh frozen plasma can e stored up to ____ and still contain clotting factors (A) 1 month *(B) 12 months* (C) 36 months (D) 60 months

Fresh frozen plasma can e stored up to ____ and still contain clotting factors (A) 1 month (B) 12 months (C) 36 months (D) 60 months

Frozen fresh plasma must be separated and frozen within ___ hours to maintain all coagulation factors in normal concentrations (A) 2 *(B) 8* (C) 12 (D) 6

Frozen fresh plasma must be separated and frozen within ___ hours to maintain all coagulation factors in normal concentrations (A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 6

GI tracts of new born puppies and kittens are suited to digest and absorb the milk produced by their mothers. The primary sources of energy in the milk is *(A) Fat and lactose* (B) Fat and protein (C) Lactose and protein (D) Protein and starch

GI tracts of new born puppies and kittens are suited to digest and absorb the milk produced by their mothers. The primary sources of energy in the milk is (A) Fat and lactose (B) Fat and protein (C) Lactose and protein (D) Protein and starch

Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis are two causes of (A) Cardiac DZ (B) Hepatic DZ *(C) Renal DZ* (D) Thyroid DZ

Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis are two causes of (A) Cardiac DZ (B) Hepatic DZ (C) Renal DZ (D) Thyroid DZ

Goals for medical management of chronic kidney disease include the following except (A) Slowing progression of the disease (B) Treating concurrent disease (C) Correcting electrolyte imbalances *(D) Restoring loss of kidney function*

Goals of nutritional management of hepatic disease includes (A) Providing substrates to support hepatocellular repair and regeneration (B) Maintaining normal metabolic processes (C) Avoiding toxic byproduct accumulation *(D) All of the above*

Guaranteed analysis panel on cat food required to include all the following except; (A) Minimum percentage of crude protein (B) Minimum percentage of crude fat (C) Maximum percentage of moisture *(D) Minimum percentage of taurine*

Halitosis is an indication of a problem with which following body systems (A) Cardiovascular *(B) Digestive* (C) Nervous (D) Hematologic

Halitosis is an indication of a problem with which following body systems (A) Cardiovascular (B) Digestive (C) Nervous (D) Hematologic

Hardware disease in ruminants is also known as (A) Grain overload (B) Rumen tympany *(C) Traumatic reiculoperitonitis* (D) Polioencephalomalacia

Hardware disease in ruminants is also known as (A) Grain overload (B) Rumen tympany (C) Traumatic reiculoperitonitis (D) Polioencephalomalacia

Heart is an organ that is commonly affected by age. Chronic valvular disease results from thickening of the heart valves, and it affects many.. (A) Young dogs *(B) Older dogs* (C) Large breed dogs (D) Cats

Heart is an organ that is commonly affected by age. Chronic valvular disease results from thickening of the heart valves, and it affects many.. (A) Young dogs (B) Older dogs (C) Large breed dogs (D) Cats

Hematuria can be determined to exist (A) When there is any positive reading for blood on the dipstick *(B) If intact erythrocytes are present in the microscoptic examination of the urine sediment?* (C) Only if there is a red tint to the urine sample (D) Whenever there is a case of feline idiopathic cystitis

Hematuria can be determined to exist (A) When there is any positive reading for blood on the dipstick (B) If intact erythrocytes are present in the microscoptic examination of the urine sediment? (C) Only if there is a red tint to the urine sample (D) Whenever there is a case of feline idiopathic cystitis

Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of *(A) Erythrocytes* (B) Leukocytes (C) Lymphocytes (D) Monocytes

Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of (A) Erythrocytes (B) Leukocytes (C) Lymphocytes (D) Monocytes

Horse are which of the following (A) Ruminants (B) Omnivores *(C) Hindgut fermenters* (D) Carnivores

Horse are which of the following (A) Ruminants (B) Omnivores (C) Hindgut fermenters (D) Carnivores

Hospital acquired disease (A) Endemic *(B) Nosocomial* (C) Ergasteric (D) Iatrogenic

Hospital acquired disease (A) Endemic (B) Nosocomial (C) Ergasteric (D) Iatrogenic

How do transfusion reactions in the cat differ from transfusion reactions in the dog *(A) More acute in cat* (B) More acute in dog (C) Cats suffer from severe pruritus (D) Transfusions more severe in the dog

How do transfusion reactions in the cat differ from transfusion reactions in the dog (A) More acute in cat (B) More acute in dog (C) Cats suffer from severe pruritus (D) Transfusions more severe in the dog

How does marked dehydration affect the animal's eye (A) Lateral nystagmus (B) Pinpoint pupils (C) Rotated ventrally *(D) sunken in the socket*

How does marked dehydration affect the animal's eye (A) Lateral nystagmus (B) Pinpoint pupils (C) Rotated ventrally (D) sunken in the socket

How high can noise levels in veterinary dog wards reach? (A) 220 dB (B) 440 dB *(C) 110 dB* (D) 880 dB

How high can noise levels in veterinary dog wards reach? (A) 220 dB (B) 440 dB (C) 110 dB (D) 880 dB

How is pain typically characterized in rabbits? *(A) Reduction in food and water intake* (B) Bruxism (C) Closed eyes (D) Lateral recumbency

How is pain typically characterized in rabbits? (A) Reduction in food and water intake (B) Bruxism (C) Closed eyes (D) Lateral recumbency

How many adult teeth does the normal cat have *(A) 30* (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 42

How many adult teeth does the normal cat have (A) 30 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 42

How many drops per minute is equivalent to 20 ml/hr and using a 60 drops/ml drip set. (A) 10 *(B) 20* (C) 60 (D) 120

How many drops per minute is equivalent to 20 ml/hr and using a 60 drops/ml drip set. (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 60 (D) 120

How might a neurologic issue affect an animal's eye (A) Lateral nystagmus *(B) Pinpoint pupils* (C) Rotated ventral (D) Sunken in socket

How might a neurologic issue affect an animal's eye (A) Lateral nystagmus (B) Pinpoint pupils (C) Rotated ventral (D) Sunken in socket

How might anesthesia affect an animal's eye (A) Lateral nystagmus (B) Pinpoint pupils *(C) Rotated ventrally* (D Suken in socket

How might anesthesia affect an animal's eye (A) Lateral nystagmus (B) Pinpoint pupils (C) Rotated ventrally (D Suken in socket

How soon should a kitten receive colostrum to obtain passive immunity? (A) 8 hours *(B) 16 hours* (C) 24 hours (D) 48 hours

How soon should a kitten receive colostrum to obtain passive immunity? (A) 8 hours (B) 16 hours (C) 24 hours (D) 48 hours

Hydremia refers to? (A) Inadequate supply of blood to a part of the body * (B) Disorder in which there is excess fluid in the blood* (C) Low red blood cell count (D) Narrow, pointed bottom of the heart

Hydremia refers to? (A) Inadequate supply of blood to a part of the body (B) Disorder in which there is excess fluid in the blood (C) Low red blood cell count (D) Narrow, pointed bottom of the heart

Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with (A) diabetes insipidus (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Hyperparathyroidism *(D) Hypoadrenocorticism*

Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with (A) diabetes insipidus (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Hypoadrenocorticism

Hypoglycemia is most common to patients that experience (A) Anaphylactic shock (B) Cardiogenic shock (C) Neurogenic shock *(D) Septic shock*

Hypoglycemia is most common to patients that experience (A) Anaphylactic shock (B) Cardiogenic shock (C) Neurogenic shock (D) Septic shock

Hypostatic pneumonia in hospitalized patients can be prevented by (A) Starting course of antibiotics when patient is admitted *(B) Turning patient every 4 hours* (C) Ensuring the patient is fully awake and able to protect its own airway in advance of extubation (D) All of these

Hypostatic pneumonia in hospitalized patients can be prevented by (A) Starting course of antibiotics when patient is admitted (B) Turning patient every 4 hours (C) Ensuring the patient is fully awake and able to protect its own airway in advance of extubation (D) All of these

Hypoxemia is defined as (A) Decreased circulating blood volume *(B) Low blood oxygen levels* (C) Low tissue oxygen levels (D) Increase in circulating fluid in the body

Hypoxemia is defined as (A) Decreased circulating blood volume (B) Low blood oxygen levels (C) Low tissue oxygen levels (D) Increase in circulating fluid in the body

IF a patient presents with a heart murmur that can be heard with the stethoscope bell slightly off of the thoracic wall, which grade would it receive? (A) 1/6 (B) 4/6 *(C) 6/6* (D) Murmurs are not graded

IF a patient presents with a heart murmur that can be heard with the stethoscope bell slightly off of the thoracic wall, which grade would it receive? (A) 1/6 (B) 4/6 (C) 6/6 (D) Murmurs are not graded

If "fish flavor" is stated on the pet food label, how much fish must be n the food? (A) 5% (B) 8% (C) 15% *(D) Amount that is detectable by the pet*

If "fish flavor" is stated on the pet food label, how much fish must be n the food? (A) 5% (B) 8% (C) 15% (D) Amount that is detectable by the pet

If a dog that weights 25 kg has received 250 ml of IV fluids, how many ml/kg of body weight has it received? (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 25

If a patient is 12-15% dehydrated, which characteristics would you expect to see? *(A) Death* (B) Slightly dry mucous membranes (C) Prolonged capillary refill time (D) Eyes are sunken in orbits

If a patient is 12-15% dehydrated, which characteristics would you expect to see? (A) Death (B) Slightly dry mucous membranes (C) Prolonged capillary refill time (D) Eyes are sunken in orbits

If a patient is 5-6% dehydrated, which characteristics would you see? (A) 5-6% is not clinically detectable *(B) Subtle loss of skin elasticity* (C) Prolonged CRT (D) Eyes sunken in orbits

If a patient is 5-6% dehydrated, which characteristics would you see? (A) 5-6% is not clinically detectable (B) Subtle loss of skin elasticity (C) Prolonged CRT (D) Eyes sunken in orbits

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed except; (A) If skin irritation appears at the edge of the bandage *(B) All bandages should be removed 24 hours after application* (C) If the bandage is wet (D) If the position of the bandage has shifted

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed except; (A) If skin irritation appears at the edge of the bandage (B) All bandages should be removed 24 hours after application (C) If the bandage is wet (D) If the position of the bandage has shifted

If patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed *(A) Hematemesis* (B) Hematochezia (C) Hematuria (D) Hemoabdomen

If patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed (A) Hematemesis (B) Hematochezia (C) Hematuria (D) Hemoabdomen

If the client does not understand a lot of specialized terminology, the vet tech should? (A) Repeat what vet said using same terminology to be consistent (B) Offer a dictionary of medical terms to the client so he or she can look up terms that are not understood *(C) Explain the vets word using laymens terms* (D) Suggest the client use the internet to obtain additional information

If the client does not understand a lot of specialized terminology, the vet tech should? (A) Repeat what vet said using same terminology to be consistent (B) Offer a dictionary of medical terms to the client so he or she can look up terms that are not understood (C) Explain the vets word using laymens terms (D) Suggest the client use the internet to obtain additional information

If the client wants to feed a preservative-free food to a pet, which food should you recommend? *(A) Canned* (B) Dry (C) Semi-moist (D) Combo of dry and semi-moist

If the client wants to feed a preservative-free food to a pet, which food should you recommend? (A) Canned (B) Dry (C) Semi-moist (D) Combo of dry and semi-moist

If vomiting patients lose hydrogen and chloride ions in excess of sodium and bicarbonate, which of the following is expected (A) Acidemia (B) Neutrality *(C) Alkalemia* (D) None of the above

If vomiting patients lose hydrogen and chloride ions in excess of sodium and bicarbonate, which of the following is expected (A) Acidemia (B) Neutrality (C) Alkalemia (D) None of the above

In a patient, what does elevated total protein measurement accompanied by elevated PCV indicate (A) Anemia *(B) Dehydration* (C) Hemorrhage (D) Red blood cell transfusion

In a patient, what does elevated total protein measurement accompanied by elevated PCV indicate (A) Anemia (B) Dehydration (C) Hemorrhage (D) Red blood cell transfusion

In cats, hepatic lipidosis often occurs a result of? (A) Thyroid disease *(B) Anorexia and weight loss* (C) Lower urinary tract disease (D) Cardiac disease

In cats, hepatic lipidosis often occurs a result of? (A) Thyroid disease (B) Anorexia and weight loss (C) Lower urinary tract disease (D) Cardiac disease

In clinical trials of dogs with spontaneous cancer, high levels of omega-3 fatty acids and arginine in food were shown to benefit dogs with (A) Lymphoma (B) Nasal carcinomas (C) Hemangiosarcoma *(D) All of the above*

In emergency care cases in which it is not possible to administer large volumes of desired fluids, it may be beneficial to properly administer (A) D5W *(B) Hypertonic saline* (C) Hypotonic saline (D) Isotonic saline

In emergency care cases in which it is not possible to administer large volumes of desired fluids, it may be beneficial to properly administer (A) D5W (B) Hypertonic saline (C) Hypotonic saline (D) Isotonic saline

In the veterinary hospital, barrier nursing should be practiced (A) To keep staff uniform free of pet hair (B) Prevent staining of staff uniforms *(C) Avoid transmitting infection among patients* (D) All of the above

In the veterinary hospital, barrier nursing should be practiced (A) To keep staff uniform free of pet hair (B) Prevent staining of staff uniforms (C) Avoid transmitting infection among patients (D) All of the above

In what endocrine disorder is polyuria and polydipsia not commonly seen (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Diabetes insipidus *(C) Hyperparathyroidism* (D) Diabetes mellitus

In what endocrine disorder is polyuria and polydipsia not commonly seen (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Diabetes insipidus (C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Diabetes mellitus

In which direction can a horse kick (A) Directly behind itself (B) To front of itself (C) To its side *(D) All of the above*

In which direction can a horse kick (A) Directly behind itself (B) To front of itself (C) To its side (D) All of the above

Inadequate intake of protein and energy may result in (A) Dry, dull hair coat and excessive pigmentation (B) Pyoderma (C) Skin depigmentation and crusting around the eyes *(D) Hair loss and dry, dull hair coat*

Inadequate intake of protein and energy may result in (A) Dry, dull hair coat and excessive pigmentation (B) Pyoderma (C) Skin depigmentation and crusting around the eyes (D) Hair loss and dry, dull hair coat

Inappetent horses should be fed *(A) Twice daily* (B) Calorically dense food (C) Fresh grass (D) High-fat food

Inappetent horses should be fed (A) Twice daily (B) Calorically dense food (C) Fresh grass (D) High-fat food

Increased IOP caused by more aqueous fluid being produced than leaving the eye might result in (A) Pannus (B) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca *(C) Glaucoma* (D) Chronic superficial keratitis

Increased IOP caused by more aqueous fluid being produced than leaving the eye might result in (A) Pannus (B) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (C) Glaucoma (D) Chronic superficial keratitis

Increased frequency of defecation and loose and watery stools are common when the ____ is involved *(A) Small intestine* (B) Large intestine (C) Colon (D) Stomach

Increased frequency of defecation and loose and watery stools are common when the ____ is involved (A) Small intestine (B) Large intestine (C) Colon (D) Stomach

Inflammation of all bones or inflammation of every part of one bone is *(A) Panosteitis* (B) Polypathia (C) Pandemic (D) Osteoporosis

Inflammation of all bones or inflammation of every part of one bone is (A) Panosteitis (B) Polypathia (C) Pandemic (D) Osteoporosis

Interdigital necrobacillosis is also known as (A) Polioencephalomalcia *(B) Foot rot * (C) Hardware disease (D) Hairy heel wart

Interdigital necrobacillosis is also known as (A) Polioencephalomalcia (B) Foot rot (C) Hardware disease (D) Hairy heel wart

Intestinal lymphangiectasis is defined as (A) Protein-losing stomach disease (B) Fat-losing stomach disease (C) Fat-losing intestinal disease *(D) Protein-losing intestinal disease*

Intestinal lymphangiectasis is defined as (A) Protein-losing stomach disease (B) Fat-losing stomach disease (C) Fat-losing intestinal disease (D) Protein-losing intestinal disease

It is difficult to determine truly how much food is being ingested by the following small mammals which hoard food items *(A) Hamsters* (B) Rabbits (C) Guinea pigs (D) Ferrets

It is difficult to determine truly how much food is being ingested by the following small mammals which hoard food items (A) Hamsters (B) Rabbits (C) Guinea pigs (D) Ferrets

It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort. The prevention of decubital ulcers can be accomplished y all of the following except (A) Frequent turning or re positioning (B) Adequate padding in cage or bed *(C) Appropriate analgesic therapy* (D) Massage

It is safe to draw <1% of a bird's body weight of blood. For a 450 g bird, how much blood can be taken (A) 0.45 ml *(B) 4.5 ml* (C) 45 ml (D) 450 ml

It is safe to draw <1% of a bird's body weight of blood. For a 450 g bird, how much blood can be taken (A) 0.45 ml (B) 4.5 ml (C) 45 ml (D) 450 ml

Jaundice might develop as diseases progresses in which of the following organs? (A) Heart (B) Intestinal (C) Kidney *(D) Liver*

Jaundice might develop as diseases progresses in which of the following organs? (A) Heart (B) Intestinal (C) Kidney (D) Liver

Keratoconjunctivitis in sheep or goats can be treated with (A) Penicillin *(B) Tetracycline* (C) Aminoglycoside (D) Phenylbutazone

Keratoconjunctivitis in sheep or goats can be treated with (A) Penicillin (B) Tetracycline (C) Aminoglycoside (D) Phenylbutazone

Ketonuria is associated with (A) Liver disease (B) Urinary tract infection (C) Renal failure *(D) Diabetes mellitus*

Ketonuria is associated with (A) Liver disease (B) Urinary tract infection (C) Renal failure (D) Diabetes mellitus

Ketosis in dairy cows may result from all of the following except; (A) Deficient energy intake (B) Abomasal displacement (C) Metritis *(D) Milk fever*

Ketosis in dairy cows may result from all of the following except; (A) Deficient energy intake (B) Abomasal displacement (C) Metritis (D) Milk fever

Key nutritional component to managing FIC (A) Nutritional management *(B) Environmental enrichment* (C) Stress reduction (D) All of the above

Key nutritional component to managing FIC (A) Nutritional management (B) Environmental enrichment (C) Stress reduction (D) All of the above

Key nutritional factors in animals with cancer include *(A) Soluble carbs, protein, omega-3 fatty acids* (B) Soluble carbs, polyphenols, cysteine (C) Insoluble carbs, polyphenols, arginine (D) Insoluble carbs, protein, calcium

Key nutritional factors in animals with cancer include (A) Soluble carbs, protein, omega-3 fatty acids (B) Soluble carbs, polyphenols, cysteine (C) Insoluble carbs, polyphenols, arginine (D) Insoluble carbs, protein, calcium

Key nutritional factors in the management of skin disorders include (A) Carbs, essential fatty acids, calcium (B) Proteins, essential fatty acids, calcium *(C) Proteins, essential fatty acids, copper, zinc* (D) Proteins, carbs, essential fatty acids, copper, zinc

Key nutritional factors in the management of skin disorders include (A) Carbs, essential fatty acids, calcium (B) Proteins, essential fatty acids, calcium (C) Proteins, essential fatty acids, copper, zinc (D) Proteins, carbs, essential fatty acids, copper, zinc

Kittens fed a growth formula food until they are how old *(A) 10-12 months* (B) 18 months (C) 2 years (D) 6 months

Kittens fed a growth formula food until they are how old (A) 10-12 months (B) 18 months (C) 2 years (D) 6 months

Lagomorphns have a rapid gut transit time resulting in starch and simple sugars not being completely digested in the (A) Large intestine (B) Stomach *(C) Small intestine* (D) Colon

Lagomorphns have a rapid gut transit time resulting in starch and simple sugars not being completely digested in the (A) Large intestine (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine (D) Colon

Laminitis in cattle is a diffuse, aseptic inflammation of the (A) Coronary band (B) Wall (C) Coffin bone *(D) Corium*

Laminitis in cattle is a diffuse, aseptic inflammation of the (A) Coronary band (B) Wall (C) Coffin bone (D) Corium

Large intestine begins at (A) Ascending colon *(B) Ileocecocolic valve* (C) Cecum (D) Transverse colon

Large intestine begins at (A) Ascending colon (B) Ileocecocolic valve (C) Cecum (D) Transverse colon

Letters DEA precede canine blood types. What do these letters stand for? (A) Detectable erythrocyte antibody (B) Detectable erythrocyte antigen (C) Dog erythrocyte antibody *(D) Dog erythrocyte antigen*

Letters DEA precede canine blood types. What do these letters stand for? (A) Detectable erythrocyte antibody (B) Detectable erythrocyte antigen (C) Dog erythrocyte antibody (D) Dog erythrocyte antigen

Life-threatning anaphylactic reactions are reported in equine patients that receive IV doses of (A) Aminoglycosides *(B) Procaine penicillin* (C) Trimethoprim-sulfa (D) Metronidazole

Life-threatning anaphylactic reactions are reported in equine patients that receive IV doses of (A) Aminoglycosides (B) Procaine penicillin (C) Trimethoprim-sulfa (D) Metronidazole

Liquid preparations for oral administration may be purchased in several different forms. Which of the following is generally mixed with water and requires shaking well before administration? (A) Elixer (B) Emulsion *(C) Suspension* (D) Syrup

Litter box management for cats with FLUTD includes (A) Only covered litter boxes (B) Highly-scented litter *(C) One litter box per cat plus one* (D) Always scoopable litters

Litter box management for cats with FLUTD includes (A) Only covered litter boxes (B) Highly-scented litter (C) One litter box per cat plus one (D) Always scoopable litters

Liver main responsibility (A) Maintaining homeostasis (B) Removing waste products from body *(C) A and B* (D) None of the above

Liver main responsibility (A) Maintaining homeostasis (B) Removing waste products from body (C) A and B (D) None of the above

Lower urinary tract infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which statement is true *(A) Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and rare in the cat* (B) Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the cat and in the healthy dog (C) Male dogs are more prone to infection (D) Treatment for bacterial infections consists of appropriate antimicrobial therapy for 2 to 4 days

Lower urinary tract infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which statement is true (A) Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and rare in the cat (B) Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the cat and in the healthy dog (C) Male dogs are more prone to infection (D) Treatment for bacterial infections consists of appropriate antimicrobial therapy for 2 to 4 days

MM that appear deep brick red in color and appear injected are (A) Pale (B) Icteric *(C) Hyperemic* (D) Cyanotic

MM that appear deep brick red in color and appear injected are (A) Pale (B) Icteric (C) Hyperemic (D) Cyanotic

Man phones veterinary practice to say he has just hit a dog with a car, and dog is on road in minimal distress. Blood coming from both nostrils. You recommend him to do all the following except (A) Be aware of aggression *(B) Tie mouth with shoelace* (C) Transport dog on board, on side (D) Apply direct pressure to wound

Man phones veterinary practice to say he has just hit a dog with a car, and dog is on road in minimal distress. Blood coming from both nostrils. You recommend him to do all the following except (A) Be aware of aggression (B) Tie mouth with shoelace (C) Transport dog on board, on side (D) Apply direct pressure to wound

Many drugs given by the oral route can be formulated into an ointment. Which term indicates this route of medication application? (A) Diuretic (B) Emetics *(C) Transdermal* (D) Viscu

Many drugs given by the oral route can be formulated into an ointment. Which term indicates this route of medication application? (A) Diuretic (B) Emetics (C) Transdermal (D) Viscu

Mass treatment of animal populations before onset of disease is termed *(A) Metaphylaxis* (B) Preconditioning (C) Megascript (D) All of the above

Mass treatment of animal populations before onset of disease is termed (A) Metaphylaxis (B) Preconditioning (C) Megascript (D) All of the above

Massage is an example of which type of rehabilitation therapy? *(A) Manual therapy* (B) Effleurage techniques (C) Physical modalities (D) Therapeutic exercise

Massage is an example of which type of rehabilitation therapy? (A) Manual therapy (B) Effleurage techniques (C) Physical modalities (D) Therapeutic exercise

Melena refers to *(A) Passing of dark, tarry feces containing blood* (B) Semifluid mass of partially digested food (C) Protein produced by living cells that initiates a chemical reaction but is not affected by it (D) To fall back into a disease state after apparent recovery

Melena refers to (A) Passing of dark, tarry feces containing blood (B) Semifluid mass of partially digested food (C) Protein produced by living cells that initiates a chemical reaction but is not affected by it (D) To fall back into a disease state after apparent recovery

Metabolic disorder in which severe decline in serum calcium, usually occurring within 48 hours of calving (A) Fetal membranes (B) Metritis (C) Pseudopregnancy *(D) Milk fever*

Metabolic disorder in which severe decline in serum calcium, usually occurring within 48 hours of calving (A) Fetal membranes (B) Metritis (C) Pseudopregnancy (D) Milk fever

Methods for increasing water intake in cats include (A) Placing ice cubes in water (B) Adding broth to foods (C) Providing water fountains *(D) All of the above*

Methods for increasing water intake in cats include (A) Placing ice cubes in water (B) Adding broth to foods (C) Providing water fountains (D) All of the above

Milk fever is prevented by (A) Feeding a high-calcium diet during the dry period *(B) Feeding a low-calcium diet during the dry period* (C) Slow administration of calcium via IV (D) Oral administration of 50% dextrose

Milk fever is prevented by (A) Feeding a high-calcium diet during the dry period (B) Feeding a low-calcium diet during the dry period (C) Slow administration of calcium via IV (D) Oral administration of 50% dextrose

Moon blidness is also known as (A) Ringworm (B) Rain rot (C) Corneal ulceration *(D Equine recurrent uveitis*

Moon blidness is also known as (A) Ringworm (B) Rain rot (C) Corneal ulceration (D Equine recurrent uveitis

Most accurate formula to determine pet resting energy requirement (A) RER kcal/day = 50 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.75 (B) (C) RER kcal/day = 70 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.50 *(C) RER kcal/day = 70 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.75* (D) RER kcal/day = 75 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.75

Most accurate formula to determine pet resting energy requirement (A) RER kcal/day = 50 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.75 (B) (C) RER kcal/day = 70 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.50 (C) RER kcal/day = 70 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.75 (D) RER kcal/day = 75 (ideal body weight in kg) 0.75

Most caudal strnebra (A) Sternebra (B) Manubrium *(C) Xiphoid* (D) Anticlinal

Most caudal strnebra (A) Sternebra (B) Manubrium (C) Xiphoid (D) Anticlinal

Most clients offer treats to their pets. How may treats can safely be given each day (A) Not more than 20% of pet diet in treats (B) As long as pet isn't overweight, there is no limit on # of treats that may be given (C) If treats are low in calories, should not matter *(D) Not more than 10% of pet diet in treats*

Most clinical signs seen in an animal in shock from excessive blood loss are attributable to (A) Acidosis (B) Alkalosis (C) Cell death *(D) Redistribution of blood flow*

Most clinical signs seen in an animal in shock from excessive blood loss are attributable to (A) Acidosis (B) Alkalosis (C) Cell death (D) Redistribution of blood flow

Most common cause of FLUTD in cats less than 10 year of age (A) Struvite uroliths *(B) Idiopathic cystitis* (C) Calcium oxalate crystals (D) Urethral plugs

Most common cause of FLUTD in cats less than 10 year of age (A) Struvite uroliths (B) Idiopathic cystitis (C) Calcium oxalate crystals (D) Urethral plugs

Most common electrolyte disturbance in vomiting cats and dogs (A) Hypokalemia (B) Hypochloremia (C) Hypernatremia *(D) All of the above*

Most common electrolyte disturbance in vomiting cats and dogs (A) Hypokalemia (B) Hypochloremia (C) Hypernatremia (D) All of the above

Most common error in feeding growing puppies is providing *(A) Too much food* (B) Too little food (C) Right amount of food (D) Too much milk

Most common error in feeding growing puppies is providing (A) Too much food (B) Too little food (C) Right amount of food (D) Too much milk

Most common neoplasia in horses *(A) Lymphosarcoma* (B) Osteosarcoma (C) Lymphoma (D) All of the neoplasms listed occur equally among all equine species

Most common neoplasia in horses (A) Lymphosarcoma (B) Osteosarcoma (C) Lymphoma (D) All of the neoplasms listed occur equally among all equine species

Most common signs in cats or dogs with allergic disease : (A) Reluctance to eat (B) Lethargy *(C) Pruritus* (D) hyperpigmentation

Most common signs in cats or dogs with allergic disease : (A) Reluctance to eat (B) Lethargy (C) Pruritus (D) hyperpigmentation

Most common types of pain experienced by horses (A) Ocular and head pain (B) Spine and pelvic pain *(C) Orthopedic and abdominal/colic pain* (D) Foot and dental pain

Most common types of pain experienced by horses (A) Ocular and head pain (B) Spine and pelvic pain (C) Orthopedic and abdominal/colic pain (D) Foot and dental pain

Most mammals have a first set of teeth, which are replaced with permanent or adult teeth. This first set of teeth is called (A) Malocclusions (B) Occlusion *(C) Deciduous* (D) Cingulum

Most mammals have a first set of teeth, which are replaced with permanent or adult teeth. This first set of teeth is called (A) Malocclusions (B) Occlusion (C) Deciduous (D) Cingulum

Most proximal bone of the thoracic limb is the (A) Humerus *(B) Scapula* (C) Tubercle (D) Greater tubercle

Most proximal bone of the thoracic limb is the (A) Humerus (B) Scapula (C) Tubercle (D) Greater tubercle

Most therapeutic diets fall into this category which should be prescribed and monitored by animal health professionals (A) All purpose (B) Premium *(C) Specific purpose* (D) Value

Most therapeutic diets fall into this category which should be prescribed and monitored by animal health professionals (A) All purpose (B) Premium (C) Specific purpose (D) Value

Most vitamins cannot be made by the body and must be supplied by the food. What is the one vitamin that can be made from glucose by dogs and cats? (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B6 *(C) Vitamin C* (D) Vitamin K

Most vitamins cannot be made by the body and must be supplied by the food. What is the one vitamin that can be made from glucose by dogs and cats? (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B6 (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin K

Movement of drug from systemic circulation into body tissues (A) Therapeutic effect (B) Protein binding *(C) Distribution* (D) Redistribution

Movement of drug from systemic circulation into body tissues (A) Therapeutic effect (B) Protein binding (C) Distribution (D) Redistribution

Mucous membranes in a dog with septic shock appear (A) Cyanotic *(B) Hyperemic* (C) Icteric (D) Pale

Mucous membranes in a dog with septic shock appear (A) Cyanotic (B) Hyperemic (C) Icteric (D) Pale

Multiple parameters are measured to determine category of shock that an animal may be experiencing. In which of the following types of shock is the central venous pressure high? *(A) Cardiogenic* (B) Distributive (C) Hypovolemic (D) Septic

Multiple parameters are measured to determine category of shock that an animal may be experiencing. In which of the following types of shock is the central venous pressure high? (A) Cardiogenic (B) Distributive (C) Hypovolemic (D) Septic

Myasthenia gravis commonly associated with (A) Megaesophagus (B) Exercise intolerance (C) Aspiration pneumonia *(D) All of the above*

Myasthenia gravis commonly associated with (A) Megaesophagus (B) Exercise intolerance (C) Aspiration pneumonia (D) All of the above

NE feeding tubes may be used to provide short-term enteral nutrition to dogs and cats, which of the following regarding NE feeding tubes is false (A) Can be used for continuous delivery of liquid food or water (B) Can be used for boluses of liquid food/water (C) Often placed without sedation *(D) Used in unconscious patients*

Nauseous patients often (A) Unable to urinate (B) vomit every time they eat *(C) Appear depressed and lick their lips* (D) All of the above

Nauseous patients often (A) Unable to urinate (B) vomit every time they eat (C) Appear depressed and lick their lips (D) All of the above

Normal CVP *(A) 0-5 cm H20* (B) 5-10 cm H2 (C) 10-15 cm H20 (D) 15-20 cm H20

Normal CVP (A) 0-5 cm H20 (B) 5-10 cm H2 (C) 10-15 cm H20 (D) 15-20 cm H20

Normal RR for canine (A) 6-16 bpm *(B) 16-32 bpm* (C) 20-42 bpm (D) 42-55 bpm

Normal RR for canine (A) 6-16 bpm (B) 16-32 bpm (C) 20-42 bpm (D) 42-55 bpm

Normal RR for equine patient (A) 6-16 bpm *(B) 28-44 bpm* (C) 60-160 bpm (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal RR for equine patient (A) 6-16 bpm (B) 28-44 bpm (C) 60-160 bpm (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal RR for feline patient (A) 6-16 bpm (B) 16-32 bpm *(C) 20-42 bpm* (D) 42-55 bpm

Normal RR for feline patient (A) 6-16 bpm (B) 16-32 bpm (C) 20-42 bpm (D) 42-55 bpm

Normal heart rate for a canine (A) 16-32 bpm (B) 20-42 bpm *(C) 60-160 bpm* (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal heart rate for a canine (A) 16-32 bpm (B) 20-42 bpm (C) 60-160 bpm (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal heart rate for a cat (A) 16-32 bpm (B) 20-42 bpm (C) 60-160 bpm *(D) 140-220 bpm*

Normal heart rate for a cat (A) 16-32 bpm (B) 20-42 bpm (C) 60-160 bpm (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal pulse for an equine patient (A) 16-32 bpm *(B) 28-44 bpm* (C) 60-160 bpm (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal pulse for an equine patient (A) 16-32 bpm (B) 28-44 bpm (C) 60-160 bpm (D) 140-220 bpm

Normal systolic blood pressure for a canine (A) 120-160 mm HG *(B) 130-160 mm HG* (C) 140-180 mm HG (D) 160-190 mm HG

Normal systolic blood pressure for a canine (A) 120-160 mm HG (B) 130-160 mm HG (C) 140-180 mm HG (D) 160-190 mm HG

Normal systolic blood pressure for felines *(A) 120-160 mm HG* (B) 130-160 mm HG (C) 140-180 mm HG (D) 160-190 mm HG

Normal systolic blood pressure for felines (A) 120-160 mm HG (B) 130-160 mm HG (C) 140-180 mm HG (D) 160-190 mm HG

Normal temperature for a feline patient ranges (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 F - 99 F *(C) 100 F - 102.2 F* (D) 96.8 F - 102.5 F

Normal temperature for a feline patient ranges (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 F - 99 F (C) 100 F - 102.2 F (D) 96.8 F - 102.5 F

Normal temperature for an equine *(A) 99 F - 101.5 F* (B) 96.8 - 99 F (C) 101.5 - 102.5 F (D) 96.8 - 102.5 F

Normal temperature for an equine (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 - 99 F (C) 101.5 - 102.5 F (D) 96.8 - 102.5 F

Normal temperature for canine (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 F - 99 F *(C) 100 F - 102.2 F* (D) 96.8 F - 102.5 F

Normal temperature for canine (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 F - 99 F (C) 100 F - 102.2 F (D) 96.8 F - 102.5 F

Number of animals within population that becomes sick *(A) Morbidity* (B) Mortality (C) Chronic (D) Acute

Number of animals within population that becomes sick (A) Morbidity (B) Mortality (C) Chronic (D) Acute

Nutrients given in excess of patient needs ____ in a critically ill patient, as they would in a healthy patient (A) Will be used *(B) Will not be used* (C) Occasionally be used (D) Stored as fat for later use

Nutrients given in excess of patient needs ____ in a critically ill patient, as they would in a healthy patient (A) Will be used (B) Will not be used (C) Occasionally be used (D) Stored as fat for later use

Nutritional deficiencies and excesses in avian patients might result in (A) Immune dysfunction (B) Increased susceptibility to infectious disease (C) Metabolic and biochemical derangements *(D) All of the above*

Nutritional myodegeneration is also known as (A) Scours (B) Bacterial enteritis (C) Bovine viral diarrhea *(D) White muscle disease*

Nutritional myodegeneration is also known as (A) Scours (B) Bacterial enteritis (C) Bovine viral diarrhea (D) White muscle disease

Nutritional protein for ferrets should come from (A) Carbohydrates *(B) Animal based ingredients* (C) Plant based ingredients (D) Fiber

Nutritional protein for ferrets should come from (A) Carbohydrates (B) Animal based ingredients (C) Plant based ingredients (D) Fiber

Obesity is (A) 10% heavier than optimal weight for the breed (B) 20% heavier than optimal weight for breed *(C) An increase in fat tissue mass sufficient to contribute to disease* (D) None of the above

Obesity is (A) 10% heavier than optimal weight for the breed (B) 20% heavier than optimal weight for breed (C) An increase in fat tissue mass sufficient to contribute to disease (D) None of the above

Oliguria (A) Excessive eating (B) Green urine (C) Excessive bililrubin in the urine *(D) Decreased urine output*

Oliguria (A) Excessive eating (B) Green urine (C) Excessive bililrubin in the urine (D) Decreased urine output

On auscultation of ventral side of abdomen, which is a normal finding *(A) Borborygmus* (B) Crackles (C) No audible sound (D) Stertor

On auscultation of ventral side of abdomen, which is a normal finding (A) Borborygmus (B) Crackles (C) No audible sound (D) Stertor

Opaque pupillary opening and progressive vision loss may be seen in patients with (A) Calicivirus (B) Parvovirus *(C) Cataracts* (D) Distemper

Opaque pupillary opening and progressive vision loss may be seen in patients with (A) Calicivirus (B) Parvovirus (C) Cataracts (D) Distemper

Orally administered drugs travel through GI tract, and most are absorbed in the small intestine. After a absorption across the intestine wall, orally administered drugs: (A) Enter stomach where remainder of drug is absorbed *(B) Enter hepatic portal circulation and are routed directly to the liver* (C) Enter kidney and are eliminated in the urine (D) Enter colon and are eliminated in the feces

Orally administered drugs travel through GI tract, and most are absorbed in the small intestine. After a absorption across the intestine wall, orally administered drugs: (A) Enter stomach where remainder of drug is absorbed (B) Enter hepatic portal circulation and are routed directly to the liver (C) Enter kidney and are eliminated in the urine (D) Enter colon and are eliminated in the feces

Orogastric intubation is necessary for a variety of reasons. The length is measured from the nose to what? (A) Thoracic inlet (B) 8th rib *(C) 13th rib* (D) Medial canthus

Orogastric intubation is necessary for a variety of reasons. The length is measured from the nose to what? (A) Thoracic inlet (B) 8th rib (C) 13th rib (D) Medial canthus

Osteomalacia is known as (A) Bone hardening *(B) Bone softening* (C) Collection of abnormal cell that accumulate within bones (D) Thickened skin

Osteomalacia is known as (A) Bone hardening (B) Bone softening (C) Collection of abnormal cell that accumulate within bones (D) Thickened skin

Overproduction of tears is always the result of *(A) Ocular pain or irritation* (B) Sad or frightened patients (C) Ingesting too much protein in the patient's diet (D) All of the above

Overproduction of tears is always the result of (A) Ocular pain or irritation (B) Sad or frightened patients (C) Ingesting too much protein in the patient's diet (D) All of the above

Ovine progressive pneumonia OPP causes all of the following except (A) Mastitis (B) Arthritis (C) Neurologic signs *(D) Pyometra*

Ovine progressive pneumonia OPP causes all of the following except (A) Mastitis (B) Arthritis (C) Neurologic signs (D) Pyometra

PDP is required to contain all of the following except (A) Manufacture name (B) Brand name (C) Net weight *(D) Nutritional claim*

PDP is required to contain all of the following except (A) Manufacture name (B) Brand name (C) Net weight (D) Nutritional claim

Painful straining at urination or defecation is (A) Hematochezia (B) Hematuria (C) Melena *(D) Tenesmus*

Painful straining at urination or defecation is (A) Hematochezia (B) Hematuria (C) Melena (D) Tenesmus

Painful urination is *(A) Dysuria* (B) Hematuria (C) Pyuria (D) Protinuria

Painful urination is (A) Dysuria (B) Hematuria (C) Pyuria (D) Protinuria

Pancreatitis occurs in both dogs and cats. Which statement is false? (A) Acute pancreatitis seen more commonly in dogs (B) Chronic pancreatitis is more common in cats *(C) Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion* (D) Acute pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion

Pancreatitis occurs in both dogs and cats. Which statement is false? (A) Acute pancreatitis seen more commonly in dogs (B) Chronic pancreatitis is more common in cats (C) Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion (D) Acute pancreatitis is often caused by dietary indiscretion

Pancreatitis or hyperlipidemia should avoid foods that are (A) High in protein (B) Low in protein *(C) High in fats* (D) Low in fats

Pancreatitis or hyperlipidemia should avoid foods that are (A) High in protein (B) Low in protein (C) High in fats (D) Low in fats

Passage of large volumes of pale, fatty feces (A) Anuria (B) Coprophagia *(C) Steatorrhea* (D) Oliguria

Passage of large volumes of pale, fatty feces (A) Anuria (B) Coprophagia (C) Steatorrhea (D) Oliguria

Patient is experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. Most desirable route of drug administration is (A) IT (B) IC *(C) IV* (D) IO

Patient is experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. Most desirable route of drug administration is (A) IT (B) IC (C) IV (D) IO

Patient was hit by a car and has no palpable pulse or detectable heartbeat requires chest compressions. These should be performed at a rate of? (A) 60-80 compressions/minute (B) 80-100 compressions/minute *(C) 100-120 compressions/minute* (D) 120-140 compressions/minute

Patient was hit by a car and has no palpable pulse or detectable heartbeat requires chest compressions. These should be performed at a rate of? (A) 60-80 compressions/minute (B) 80-100 compressions/minute (C) 100-120 compressions/minute (D) 120-140 compressions/minute

Patient with increased PCV and elevated TS is likely suffering from (A) Protein loss *(B) Dehydration* (C) Anemia (D) Poor perfusion

Patient with increased PCV and elevated TS is likely suffering from (A) Protein loss (B) Dehydration (C) Anemia (D) Poor perfusion

Patients suffering from short-bowel syndrome should be fed what diet in long term? (A) High-protein, high-fat diets *(B) Low-fat, highly digestible diets* (C) Hgh-fat, highly digestible diets (D) High-protein, moderately digestible diets

Patients suffering from short-bowel syndrome should be fed what diet in long term? (A) High-protein, high-fat diets (B) Low-fat, highly digestible diets (C) Hgh-fat, highly digestible diets (D) High-protein, moderately digestible diets

Patients with myasthenia gravis may suffer from megaesophagus and regurgitation. These patients are at an increased risk of (A) Acephalus *(B) Aspiration* (C) Asteatosis (D) Astrocytoma

Patients with myasthenia gravis may suffer from megaesophagus and regurgitation. These patients are at an increased risk of (A) Acephalus (B) Aspiration (C) Asteatosis (D) Astrocytoma

Pemphigus is a group of autoimmune disorders that impact the (A) Blood and lymph systems *(B) Skin and oral mucosa* (C) Eyes (D) Hooves and claws

Pemphigus is a group of autoimmune disorders that impact the (A) Blood and lymph systems (B) Skin and oral mucosa (C) Eyes (D) Hooves and claws

Pet food recipes found in books and on the internet are almost always (A) Perfectly balanced for dogs/cats (B) Complete and healthy (C) Highly palatable *(D) Incomplete and unbalanced*

Pet food recipes found in books and on the internet are almost always (A) Perfectly balanced for dogs/cats (B) Complete and healthy (C) Highly palatable (D) Incomplete and unbalanced

Pet foods that use food ingredients that have not been exposed to insecticides, pesticides, or medications such as antibiotics or growth promotants are known as *(A) Organic* (B) Raw (C) Natural (D) Holistic

Pet foods that use food ingredients that have not been exposed to insecticides, pesticides, or medications such as antibiotics or growth promotants are known as (A) Organic (B) Raw (C) Natural (D) Holistic

Petechial hemorrhage, ecchymosis, epistaxis, lethargy might be seen with *(A) Thrombocytopenia* (B) Urolithiasis (C) Renal failure (D) Pyometra

Petechial hemorrhage, ecchymosis, epistaxis, lethargy might be seen with (A) Thrombocytopenia (B) Urolithiasis (C) Renal failure (D) Pyometra

Phenylbutazone toxicosis in horses can produce (A) Liver insufficiency *(B) Oral, gastric, colonic ulcerations* (C) Icterus (D) Limb edema

Phenylbutazone toxicosis in horses can produce (A) Liver insufficiency (B) Oral, gastric, colonic ulcerations (C) Icterus (D) Limb edema

Physical therapy for companion animals presents multiple therapeutic benefits, improves quality of life, and speeds functional recovery. Which of the following may be helped by physical therapy? (A) Pain management (B) Combating acute and chronic inflammatory processes (C) Reducing edema *(D) All of the above*

Pica describes? (A) Partial reduction in appetite (B) Ingestion of own feces *(C) Cravings for eating abnormal objects or food* (D) Loss of desire to eat

Pica describes? (A) Partial reduction in appetite (B) Ingestion of own feces (C) Cravings for eating abnormal objects or food (D) Loss of desire to eat

Pinkeye in cattle (A) Haemophilus aegypti *(B) Moraxella bovis* (C) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Pinkeye in cattle (A) Haemophilus aegypti (B) Moraxella bovis (C) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Pleuropneumonia in horses occurs when (A) Viral infections spread from lung tissue to the pleural space (B) Viral infections spread from plural space to the lung tissues (C) Bacterial infections spread from plural space to the lung tissue *(D) Bacterial infections spread from lung tissue to the pleural space*

Pleuropneumonia in horses occurs when (A) Viral infections spread from lung tissue to the pleural space (B) Viral infections spread from plural space to the lung tissues (C) Bacterial infections spread from plural space to the lung tissue (D) Bacterial infections spread from lung tissue to the pleural space

Polyuria (A) Lack of urine production *(B) Production of excessive urine amount* (C) Lack of water intake (D) Excessive protein in the urine

Polyuria (A) Lack of urine production (B) Production of excessive urine amount (C) Lack of water intake (D) Excessive protein in the urine

Poorly controlled diabetic patients may experience muscle wasting because of (A) Fat being catabolized to meet energy needs *(B) Protein being catabolized to meet energy needs* (C) Carbs being catabolized to meet energy needs (D) All of the above

Poorly controlled diabetic patients may experience muscle wasting because of (A) Fat being catabolized to meet energy needs (B) Protein being catabolized to meet energy needs (C) Carbs being catabolized to meet energy needs (D) All of the above

Porcine stress syndrome is also known as (A) Malignant hypothermia *(B) Malignant hyperthermia* (C) Sodium ion toxicosis (D) Porcine parvovirus

Porcine stress syndrome is also known as (A) Malignant hypothermia (B) Malignant hyperthermia (C) Sodium ion toxicosis (D) Porcine parvovirus

Porcine stress syndrome results in all of the following except (A) Muscle tremors (B) Death *(C) Hypothermia* (D) Dyspnea

Porcine stress syndrome results in all of the following except (A) Muscle tremors (B) Death (C) Hypothermia (D) Dyspnea

Postpartum uterine infections are known as (A) fetal membranes *(B) Metritis* (C) Pseudopregnancy (D) Milkfever

Postpartum uterine infections are known as (A) fetal membranes (B) Metritis (C) Pseudopregnancy (D) Milkfever

Potassium deficiency results in *(A) Neurologic disease* (B) Weight gain (C) Increased palatabillity (D) Improved growth

Potassium deficiency results in (A) Neurologic disease (B) Weight gain (C) Increased palatabillity (D) Improved growth

Presence of protein in urine may indicate (A) Acid-base imbalance (B) Hemolytic anemia *(C) Kidney disease* (D) Diabetes mellitus

Presence of protein in urine may indicate (A) Acid-base imbalance (B) Hemolytic anemia (C) Kidney disease (D) Diabetes mellitus

Prevalence of dilated or congetive cardiomyopathy in cats have decreased markedly since 1987, following the discovery that ___ deficiency was the principal cause (A) Glutamine *(B) Taurine* (C) Arginine (D) Copper

Process of giving birth to pigs is refereed to as (A) Stag (B) Freshening *(C) Farrowing* (D) Kidding

Process of giving birth to pigs is refereed to as (A) Stag (B) Freshening (C) Farrowing (D) Kidding

Production of fresh, bright red blood in feces, indicating blood loss in the lower GI tract (A) Dyscheiza *(B) Hematochezia* (C) Melena (D) Tenesmus

Production of fresh, bright red blood in feces, indicating blood loss in the lower GI tract (A) Dyscheiza (B) Hematochezia (C) Melena (D) Tenesmus

Projectile vomiting is most associated with (A) Gastric or esophageal disorder (B) Gastrointestinal ulceration (C) Involvement of bile in the duodenum *(D) Pyloric outflow obstruction*

Projectile vomiting is most associated with (A) Gastric or esophageal disorder (B) Gastrointestinal ulceration (C) Involvement of bile in the duodenum (D) Pyloric outflow obstruction

Proper pathway in which animal perceives pain *(A) Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception* (B) Transmission, modulation, transduction, perception (C) Perception, transmission, modulation, transduction (D) Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation

Proper pathway in which animal perceives pain (A) Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception (B) Transmission, modulation, transduction, perception (C) Perception, transmission, modulation, transduction (D) Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation

Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following except *(A) Washing splint or bandage daily* (B) Preventing bandage or splint from becoming wet (C) Inspecting bandage or splint daily for any chance, such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage (D) Inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following except (A) Washing splint or bandage daily (B) Preventing bandage or splint from becoming wet (C) Inspecting bandage or splint daily for any chance, such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage (D) Inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

Proptosed globe *(A) Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal* (B) Is not considered an emergency (C) Can mos easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds like collies (D) Is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis

Proptosed globe (A) Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal (B) Is not considered an emergency (C) Can mos easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds like collies (D) Is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis

Protein malnutrition in patients with hepatic disease manifests clinically as (A) Hypoalbuminemia weight gain, muscle atrophy *(B) Weight loss, muscle atrophy, hypoalbuminemia* (C) Muscle atrophy, hyperalbuminemia zinc accumulation (D) Vitamin K accumulation, weight loss, muscle atrophy

Protein malnutrition in patients with hepatic disease manifests clinically as (A) Hypoalbuminemia weight gain, muscle atrophy (B) Weight loss, muscle atrophy, hypoalbuminemia (C) Muscle atrophy, hyperalbuminemia zinc accumulation (D) Vitamin K accumulation, weight loss, muscle atrophy

Puppies, kittens, nursing mothers require: *(A) Higher levels of protein in their diet than adult maintenance requirements* (B) Vitamin supplementation (C) Higher levels of fiber than are required in adult maintenance diets (D) Fewer calories than adult maintenance requirements

Puppies, kittens, nursing mothers require: (A) Higher levels of protein in their diet than adult maintenance requirements (B) Vitamin supplementation (C) Higher levels of fiber than are required in adult maintenance diets (D) Fewer calories than adult maintenance requirements

Pyrexic cows experiencing bovine respiratory disease syndrome commonly have a temperature of (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 F - 99 F (C) 100 F - 102.2 F *(D) 104 F - 107 F*

Pyrexic cows experiencing bovine respiratory disease syndrome commonly have a temperature of (A) 99 F - 101.5 F (B) 96.8 F - 99 F (C) 100 F - 102.2 F (D) 104 F - 107 F

Recumbent equine patients should be rotated every (A) 2-3 hours *(B) 4-6 hours* (C) 8-10 hours (D) 12-14 hours

Recumbent equine patients should be rotated every (A) 2-3 hours (B) 4-6 hours (C) 8-10 hours (D) 12-14 hours

Refeeding syndrome occurs in disease conditions such as (A) Starvation from feline hepatic lipidosis (B) Overall malnutrition (C) Prolonged diuresis *(D) All of the above*

Refeeding syndrome occurs in disease conditions such as (A) Starvation from feline hepatic lipidosis (B) Overall malnutrition (C) Prolonged diuresis (D) All of the above

Retained placentas in dairy cattle result from all of the following except (A) Delivery of twins (B) Abortion *(C) Vitamin D deficiency* (D) Dysotcia

Retained placentas in dairy cattle result from all of the following except (A) Delivery of twins (B) Abortion (C) Vitamin D deficiency (D) Dysotcia

Ribs that make up caudal part of the thorax (A) Sternal ribs *(B) Asternal ribs* (C) Floating ribs (D) Costochondral junction

Ribs that make up caudal part of the thorax (A) Sternal ribs (B) Asternal ribs (C) Floating ribs (D) Costochondral junction

Rickets is caused by ____ deficiency (A) Vitamin A *(B) Vitamin D* (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K

Rickets is caused by ____ deficiency (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K

Rumen filled with a pH less than ___ suggests grain overload (A) 3.5 *(B) 5.5* (C) 7.5 (D) 9.0

Rumen filled with a pH less than ___ suggests grain overload (A) 3.5 (B) 5.5 (C) 7.5 (D) 9.0

Rumen indigestion may result from (A) Undercooked foods (B) Vaccination (C) Slow transition within rumen environment *(D) Rapid feed change*

Rumen indigestion may result from (A) Undercooked foods (B) Vaccination (C) Slow transition within rumen environment (D) Rapid feed change

Rumen tympany is also called (A) Lactic acidosis (B) Tetany *(C) Bloat* (D) Rumenitis

Rumen tympany is also called (A) Lactic acidosis (B) Tetany (C) Bloat (D) Rumenitis

Sebaceous glands deposit cat scent are located in all of the following except (A) Around lips and chin (B) Between toes *(C) Tip of tail* (D) Perianal area

Sebaceous glands deposit cat scent are located in all of the following except (A) Around lips and chin (B) Between toes (C) Tip of tail (D) Perianal area

Semimoist food is not advised for an animal *(A) Diabetic* (B) Geriatric (C) Growing (D) Lactating

Semimoist food is not advised for an animal (A) Diabetic (B) Geriatric (C) Growing (D) Lactating

Septic thrombophlebitis is more likely to occur in which of the following equine patients *(A) Patients experiencing endotoxemia* (B) Patients receiving enteral nutrition (C) Patients that are recumbent (D) Septic thrombophlebitis does not occur in horses

Septic thrombophlebitis is more likely to occur in which of the following equine patients (A) Patients experiencing endotoxemia (B) Patients receiving enteral nutrition (C) Patients that are recumbent (D) Septic thrombophlebitis does not occur in horses

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized as transparent and yellow or orange in color is called (A) Hemolysis (B) Hyperproteinemia *(C) Icterus* (D) Lipemia

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized as transparent and yellow or orange in color is called (A) Hemolysis (B) Hyperproteinemia (C) Icterus (D) Lipemia

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized as turbid and white in color is called? (A) Hemolysis (B) Hyperproteinemia (C) Icterus *(D) Lipemia*

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized as turbid and white in color is called? (A) Hemolysis (B) Hyperproteinemia (C) Icterus (D) Lipemia

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized by varying degrees of redness is likely a result of *(A) Hemolysis* (B) Hyperproteinemia (C) Icterus (D) Lipemia

Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized by varying degrees of redness is likely a result of (A) Hemolysis (B) Hyperproteinemia (C) Icterus (D) Lipemia

Signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia include all of the following except: (A) Petechiae (B) Ecchymoses *(C) Thrombocytosis* (D) Anemia

Signs of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia include all of the following except: (A) Petechiae (B) Ecchymoses (C) Thrombocytosis (D) Anemia

Signs of west nile encephalitis include (A) Hypoesthesia (B) Bilateral nasal discharge *(C) Ataxia* (D) Mandibular lymph node swelling

Signs of west nile encephalitis include (A) Hypoesthesia (B) Bilateral nasal discharge (C) Ataxia (D) Mandibular lymph node swelling

Sites for IO catheter placement include: (A) Caranial aspect of greater tubercle of humerus (B) Trochanteric fossa of proximal femur (C) Flat medial aspect of proximal tibia *(D) All of these*

Sites for IO catheter placement include: (A) Caranial aspect of greater tubercle of humerus (B) Trochanteric fossa of proximal femur (C) Flat medial aspect of proximal tibia (D) All of these

Small frequent meals help patient with hepatic disease by (A) Optimizing blood flow through liver (B) Managing fasting glucose (C) Minimizing hepatic encephalopathy *(D) All of the above*

Small frequent meals help patient with hepatic disease by (A) Optimizing blood flow through liver (B) Managing fasting glucose (C) Minimizing hepatic encephalopathy (D) All of the above

Small ruminants are considered highly susceptible to enterotoxemia and should be vaccinated every ___ months (A) 3 *(B) 6* (C) 10 (D) 12

Small ruminants are considered highly susceptible to enterotoxemia and should be vaccinated every ___ months (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 12

Sodium is absorbed in? (A) Esophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine *(D) Large intestine*

Sodium is absorbed in? (A) Esophagus (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine (D) Large intestine

Specific recommendations that support a successful weight-loss program include (A) Using an 8-oz measuring cup to measure food (B) Appropriate exercise for ht pet (C) Emphasizing feeding consistency including feeding pet from designated dish only *(D) All of the above*

Spheroidal joints are also called (A) Trochoid joints (B) Pivot joints (C) Gliding joints *(D) Ball-and-socket joints*

Spheroidal joints are also called (A) Trochoid joints (B) Pivot joints (C) Gliding joints (D) Ball-and-socket joints

Stomach is located in left cranial abdomen. When food is ingested, it mixes with gastric juices, and then it propels to which part of the small intestine? (A) Cecum *(B) Duodenum* (C) Pylorus (D) Serosa

Stomach is located in left cranial abdomen. When food is ingested, it mixes with gastric juices, and then it propels to which part of the small intestine? (A) Cecum (B) Duodenum (C) Pylorus (D) Serosa

Stomatitis is defined as (A) Bad breath is evident when dental work must be completed *(B) Inflammation of mouth soft tissue* (C) Resorption of hard dental tissues by odontoclasts (D) Inflammation and infection of some or all of the tooth's supportive tissues

Stomatitis is defined as (A) Bad breath is evident when dental work must be completed (B) Inflammation of mouth soft tissue (C) Resorption of hard dental tissues by odontoclasts (D) Inflammation and infection of some or all of the tooth's supportive tissues

Swine wallow in mud to (A) Forage for food *(B) Thermoregulate* (C) Remove parasites (D) Prevent sunburn

Swine wallow in mud to (A) Forage for food (B) Thermoregulate (C) Remove parasites (D) Prevent sunburn

TX of free gas bloat in rumination patients includes all of the following except; (A) Passing an orogastric tube (B) Administration of calcium *(C) Exercise restriction* (D) Rumen trocarization

TX of free gas bloat in rumination patients includes all of the following except; (A) Passing an orogastric tube (B) Administration of calcium (C) Exercise restriction (D) Rumen trocarization

Taking a complete and accurate patient history *(A) Is an important task that may be performed by veterinary technicians* (B) Should only be performed by a veterinarian (C) Is only necessary if the patient has never been to the hospital (D) Is not necessary for wellness exams in healthy patients

Taking a complete and accurate patient history (A) Is an important task that may be performed by veterinary technicians (B) Should only be performed by a veterinarian (C) Is only necessary if the patient has never been to the hospital (D) Is not necessary for wellness exams in healthy patients

Taste receptor cells in dogs show a preference that cats do not and that is... *(A) Sweet* (B) Sour (C) Salty (D) Bitter

Taste receptor cells in dogs show a preference that cats do not and that is... (A) Sweet (B) Sour (C) Salty (D) Bitter

Taurine and L-carnitine have been found to aid in (A) Inappetence (B) Dysphagia *(C) Cardiac muscle function* (D) Temperament

Taurine and L-carnitine have been found to aid in (A) Inappetence (B) Dysphagia (C) Cardiac muscle function (D) Temperament

Tech who is involved in doing a professional dental cleaning should be capable of (A) Performing an assessment (B) Periodontal debridement (C) Polishing *(D) All of the above*

Tech who is involved in doing a professional dental cleaning should be capable of (A) Performing an assessment (B) Periodontal debridement (C) Polishing (D) All of the above

Technicians administering IV chemotherapy drugs via an IV catheter must be vigilant. If you suspect some of the drug may have leaked out of the vessel into the surrounding tissue, you should? (A) Immediately remove the IV catheter *(B) Leave the IV catheter in place* (C) Continue to administer the drug (D) No action is required

Technicians administering IV chemotherapy drugs via an IV catheter must be vigilant. If you suspect some of the drug may have leaked out of the vessel into the surrounding tissue, you should? (A) Immediately remove the IV catheter (B) Leave the IV catheter in place (C) Continue to administer the drug (D) No action is required

Tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity has (A) Less than atmospheric pressure (B) Equal to atmospheric pressure *(C) Greater than atmospheric pressure* (D) Constant as animal breathes in and out

Tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity has (A) Less than atmospheric pressure (B) Equal to atmospheric pressure (C) Greater than atmospheric pressure (D) Constant as animal breathes in and out

Term amyoplasia refers to *(A) Lack of muscle formation or development* (B) Paralysis of muscles (C) Muscular weakness or partial paralysis restricted to one side of the body (D) Any disease of a muscle

Term amyoplasia refers to (A) Lack of muscle formation or development (B) Paralysis of muscles (C) Muscular weakness or partial paralysis restricted to one side of the body (D) Any disease of a muscle

The blind spot for horses is (A) Between their eyes *(B) Below their noses* (C) To the left of their heads (D) To the right of their heads

The blind spot for horses is (A) Between their eyes (B) Below their noses (C) To the left of their heads (D) To the right of their heads

The cell is a basic unit of the body. Cells contain all of the following except (A) Cell membrane (B) Cytoplasm *(C) Neuron* (D) Nucleus

The cell is a basic unit of the body. Cells contain all of the following except (A) Cell membrane (B) Cytoplasm (C) Neuron (D) Nucleus

The cornea is composed of four layers. Which of the following is not one of the four layers of the cornea? (A) Epithelium (B) Stroma (C) Endothelium *(D) Sclera*

The cornea is composed of four layers. Which of the following is not one of the four layers of the cornea? (A) Epithelium (B) Stroma (C) Endothelium (D) Sclera

The first drug of choice for a cat with status epilepticus is *(A) Diazepam* (B) Pentobarbital (C) Potassium bromide (D) Propofol

The first drug of choice for a cat with status epilepticus is (A) Diazepam (B) Pentobarbital (C) Potassium bromide (D) Propofol

The list of ingredients appear on pet food label in order of (A) Dietary importance (B) Nutritional bioavailabilty (C) Caloric percentage *(D) Weight*

The list of ingredients appear on pet food label in order of (A) Dietary importance (B) Nutritional bioavailabilty (C) Caloric percentage (D) Weight

The medical treatment for lactic acidosis in ruminants *(A) Rapid removal of rumen contents* (B) IV administration of calcium (C) IM injection of sodium bicarbonate (D) Lactic acidosis can not be treated

The medical treatment for lactic acidosis in ruminants (A) Rapid removal of rumen contents (B) IV administration of calcium (C) IM injection of sodium bicarbonate (D) Lactic acidosis can not be treated

The metabolic alterations that occur after nutritional support is started in a severely malnourished, underweight, and/or starved patient *(A Refeeding syndrome* (B) Starvation (C) Simple starvation (D) None of the above

The metabolic alterations that occur after nutritional support is started in a severely malnourished, underweight, and/or starved patient (A Refeeding syndrome (B) Starvation (C) Simple starvation (D) None of the above

The most common form of malnutrition in hospitalized animals is ____ because of the reluctance and inability to eat voluntarily *(A) Lack of energy and protein intake* (B) Lack of sugar (C) Lack of carbohydrates (D) Lack of minerals

The most common form of malnutrition in hospitalized animals is ____ because of the reluctance and inability to eat voluntarily (A) Lack of energy and protein intake (B) Lack of sugar (C) Lack of carbohydrates (D) Lack of minerals

The most common presenting sign in a patient with undiagnosed severe hypertension (A) Anoxia (B) Cardiomyopathy *(C) Blindness* (D) Hypothyroidism

The most common presenting sign in a patient with undiagnosed severe hypertension (A) Anoxia (B) Cardiomyopathy (C) Blindness (D) Hypothyroidism

The most desirable induction agent for an emergency C-section is? (A) Etomidate (B) Diazepam *(C) Propofol* (D) Thiopental

The most desirable induction agent for an emergency C-section is? (A) Etomidate (B) Diazepam (C) Propofol (D) Thiopental

The overingestion of fats may contribute to (A) Patella luxation (B) Cushings disease *(C) Pancreatitis* (D) Panosteitis

The overingestion of fats may contribute to (A) Patella luxation (B) Cushings disease (C) Pancreatitis (D) Panosteitis

The pulse pressure or quality of the pulse... (A) Is not of clinical significance as it is a subjective measurement *(B) Might be an indicator of possible heart or blood pressure issues* (C) Often feels very strong in older animals (D) May feel weak if the patient is excited

The pulse pressure or quality of the pulse... (A) Is not of clinical significance as it is a subjective measurement (B) Might be an indicator of possible heart or blood pressure issues (C) Often feels very strong in older animals (D) May feel weak if the patient is excited

The term used to describe a group of hereditary eye disease seen in many breeds of dogs, which causes loss of night vision or low-light vision is (A) Pannus (B) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca *(C) Progressive retina atrophy* (D) Chronic superficial keratitis

The term used to describe a group of hereditary eye disease seen in many breeds of dogs, which causes loss of night vision or low-light vision is (A) Pannus (B) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (C) Progressive retina atrophy (D) Chronic superficial keratitis

The typical gestation for pigs (A) 42 days (B) 63 days *(C) 114 days* (D) 147 days

The typical gestation for pigs (A) 42 days (B) 63 days (C) 114 days (D) 147 days

The vet tech can use both subjective and objective observations to determine the patient state. All of the following are objective observations except (A) Body temperature (B) Capillary refill time *(C) Demeanor* (D) Heart rate

To evaluate urine for crystalluria *(A) Urinalysis performed within 30 minutes of sample collection* (B) Evaluation best performed after urine has been refrigerated for 12 hours (C) Sample always sent out for evaluation (D) Ultrasound most reliable means of evaluation

To evaluate urine for crystalluria (A) Urinalysis performed within 30 minutes of sample collection (B) Evaluation best performed after urine has been refrigerated for 12 hours (C) Sample always sent out for evaluation (D) Ultrasound most reliable means of evaluation

To fill prescriptions or administer a medication, technicians must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which indicates medication that is to be applied to both eyes? (A) AU (B) OD (C) OS *(D) OU*

To fill prescriptions or administer a medication, technicians must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which indicates medication that is to be applied to both eyes? (A) AU (B) OD (C) OS (D) OU

To perform coupage, cupped hands should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall starting *(A) Caudally and working forward* (B) Cranial and working upward (C) caudally and working backward (D) Cranial and working backward

To perform coupage, cupped hands should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall starting (A) Caudally and working forward (B) Cranial and working upward (C) caudally and working backward (D) Cranial and working backward

To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, ____ may be given every 4 to 8 hours (A) Atropine (B) Dexmethasone (C) Diazepam *(D) Mannitol*

To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, ____ may be given every 4 to 8 hours (A) Atropine (B) Dexmethasone (C) Diazepam (D) Mannitol

Total protein levels are ___ in dehydrated animal (A) Unaffected (B) Decreased *(C) Increased* (D) Variable

Total protein levels are ___ in dehydrated animal (A) Unaffected (B) Decreased (C) Increased (D) Variable

Transparent covering of the front of the eye (A) Lens (B) Iris (C) Pupil *(D) Cornea*

Transparent covering of the front of the eye (A) Lens (B) Iris (C) Pupil (D) Cornea

Treatment for bovine viral diarrhea is? (A) IV fluid administration (B) Anti-inflammatory administration (C) Antihelmintic therapy *(D) No treatment for BVD*

Treatment for bovine viral diarrhea is? (A) IV fluid administration (B) Anti-inflammatory administration (C) Antihelmintic therapy (D) No treatment for BVD

Treatment for joint mobility includes (A) ROM (B) Stretching exercises *(C) A and B* (D) None of the above

Treatment for joint mobility includes (A) ROM (B) Stretching exercises (C) A and B (D) None of the above

Treatment of acute pancreatitis (A) Low protein, high fat diet *(B) Bland, low fat diet* (C) Low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet (D) Diet high in fat and calories

Treatment of acute pancreatitis (A) Low protein, high fat diet (B) Bland, low fat diet (C) Low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet (D) Diet high in fat and calories

Treatment of frothy gas bloat in ruminant patients includes the administration of all the following products except (A) DSS (B) Poloxalene (C) Household detergent *(D) Calcium*

Treatment of frothy gas bloat in ruminant patients includes the administration of all the following products except (A) DSS (B) Poloxalene (C) Household detergent (D) Calcium

Two zygomatic bones are also known as the *(A) Malar bones* (B) Maxillary bones (C) Lacrimal bones (D) Nasal bones

Two zygomatic bones are also known as the (A) Malar bones (B) Maxillary bones (C) Lacrimal bones (D) Nasal bones

Typical gestation for a dog (A) 42 days *(B) 63 days* (C) 114 days (D) 147 days

Typical gestation for a dog (A) 42 days (B) 63 days (C) 114 days (D) 147 days

Underlying cause of icterus (A) Anemia *(B) Hyperbilirubinemia* (C) Keotnuria (D) Hyperthemoglobinemia

Underlying cause of icterus (A) Anemia (B) Hyperbilirubinemia (C) Keotnuria (D) Hyperthemoglobinemia

Underlying disease for most cases of feline aortic thromboembolism is ___ in origin *(A) Cardiac* (B) Hepatic (C) Renal (D) Respiratory

Underlying disease for most cases of feline aortic thromboembolism is ___ in origin (A) Cardiac (B) Hepatic (C) Renal (D) Respiratory

Urinary tract infection is a common secondary complication in cats and dogs with (A) Congestive heart failure *(B) Diabetes mellitus* (C) hepatic lipidosis (D) Hyperthyroidism

Urinary tract infection is a common secondary complication in cats and dogs with (A) Congestive heart failure (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) hepatic lipidosis (D) Hyperthyroidism

Uterine infections in ruminants are associated with all of the following except (A) Unbalanced prepartum diets *(B) Viruses* (C) Delivery of twins (D) Bacterium

Uterine infections in ruminants are associated with all of the following except (A) Unbalanced prepartum diets (B) Viruses (C) Delivery of twins (D) Bacterium

Vaccines may be given by any of the following except; (A) SQ (B) IM (C) Intranasally *(D) IP*

Vaccines may be given by any of the following except; (A) SQ (B) IM (C) Intranasally (D) IP

Various factors influence a pet's daily energy expenditure. Which is affected by gender, reproductive status, age *(A) Basal metabolic rate* (B) Voluntary muscular activity (C) Meal induced thermogenesis (D) Adaptive thermogenesis

Various factors influence a pet's daily energy expenditure. Which is affected by gender, reproductive status, age (A) Basal metabolic rate (B) Voluntary muscular activity (C) Meal induced thermogenesis (D) Adaptive thermogenesis

Vet tech can play an important role in pain management by (A) Monitor urine/fecal output (B) Change medication when it is ineffective *(C) Communicating directly with clinician about particular concerns* (D) Directing vet assistant to provide medications

Vet tech can play an important role in pain management by (A) Monitor urine/fecal output (B) Change medication when it is ineffective (C) Communicating directly with clinician about particular concerns (D) Directing vet assistant to provide medications

Viral rhinotracheitis is caused by (A) Canine distemper (B) Canine parvovirus *(C) Herpes virus* (D) Von willebrands

Viral rhinotracheitis is caused by (A) Canine distemper (B) Canine parvovirus (C) Herpes virus (D) Von willebrands

Visceral pain is common among companion animals, which of the following is not an example of visceral pain? (A) Pancreatitis (B) Gastroenteritis (C) Bowel ischemia *(D) Osteosarcoma*

Visceral pain is common among companion animals, which of the following is not an example of visceral pain? (A) Pancreatitis (B) Gastroenteritis (C) Bowel ischemia (D) Osteosarcoma

Weak, moderate, strong, bounding, tall are terms often used to describe the patient's (A) Attitude (B) Respiration quality *(C) Pulse quality* (D) Blood pressure

Weak, moderate, strong, bounding, tall are terms often used to describe the patient's (A) Attitude (B) Respiration quality (C) Pulse quality (D) Blood pressure

What amino acid does a cat require in its diet to avoid dilated cardiomyopathy (A) Cysteine *(B) Taurine* (C) Guanine (D) Isoleucine

What amino acid does a cat require in its diet to avoid dilated cardiomyopathy (A) Cysteine (B) Taurine (C) Guanine (D) Isoleucine

What are main tools of equine restraint (A) Halter (B) Lead rope (C) Nose twitch *(D) A and B*

What are main tools of equine restraint (A) Halter (B) Lead rope (C) Nose twitch (D) A and B

What device is used to restrain cattle (A) Nose ring (B) Nose lead *(C) Chute* (D) Halter

What device is used to restrain cattle (A) Nose ring (B) Nose lead (C) Chute (D) Halter

What do black coffee grounds in the vomitus indicate? (A) Gastric or esophageal disorder *(B) Gastrointestinal ulceration* (C) Involvement of bile in the duodenum (D) Pyloric outflow obstruction

What do black coffee grounds in the vomitus indicate? (A) Gastric or esophageal disorder (B) Gastrointestinal ulceration (C) Involvement of bile in the duodenum (D) Pyloric outflow obstruction

What does frank blood in diarrhea indicate? (A) Involvement of the stomach (B) Involvement of the jejunum or ileum (C) Involvement of the large intestine *(D) Colitis*

What does frank blood in diarrhea indicate? (A) Involvement of the stomach (B) Involvement of the jejunum or ileum (C) Involvement of the large intestine (D) Colitis

What does guaranteed analysis on pet food label mean (A) States exact measurements of nutrients and moisture levels in the food *(B) Combination of maximum and minimum nutrient and moisture levels in the food* (C) States maximum levels of each nutrient in the food (D) States minimum levels of each nutrient in the food

What does guaranteed analysis on pet food label mean (A) States exact measurements of nutrients and moisture levels in the food (B) Combination of maximum and minimum nutrient and moisture levels in the food (C) States maximum levels of each nutrient in the food (D) States minimum levels of each nutrient in the food

What does presence of green fluid in the vomitus indicate (A) Gastric or esophageal disorder (B) Gastrointestinal ulceration *(C) Involvement of bile in the duodenum* (D) Pyloric outflow obstruction

What does presence of green fluid in the vomitus indicate (A) Gastric or esophageal disorder (B) Gastrointestinal ulceration (C) Involvement of bile in the duodenum (D) Pyloric outflow obstruction

What does presence of peripheral edema indicate (A) Coagulation disorder *(B) Hypoproteinemia* (C) Hypotension (D) Hypoxia

What does presence of peripheral edema indicate (A) Coagulation disorder (B) Hypoproteinemia (C) Hypotension (D) Hypoxia

What does presence of petchiae and ecchymoses indicate? (A) Anemia *(B) Coagulation disorder* (C) Dehydration (D) Hypertension

What does presence of petchiae and ecchymoses indicate? (A) Anemia (B) Coagulation disorder (C) Dehydration (D) Hypertension

What does redness, swelling, purulent discharge from IV catheter site mean *(A) Site infection* (B) Catheter leakage (C) Catheter occlusion (D) Normal insertion

What does redness, swelling, purulent discharge from IV catheter site mean (A) Site infection (B) Catheter leakage (C) Catheter occlusion (D) Normal insertion

What does the presence of subcutaneous fluid around an Iv catheter site indicate? (A) Catheter site infection *(B) Catheter leakage* (C) Catheter occlusion (D) Normal insertion site

What does the presence of subcutaneous fluid around an Iv catheter site indicate? (A) Catheter site infection (B) Catheter leakage (C) Catheter occlusion (D) Normal insertion site

What equals 30 ml (A) 1 Tbsp. (B) 1 tsp *(C) 1 oz.* (D) 1 cup

What equals 30 ml (A) 1 Tbsp. (B) 1 tsp. (C) 1 oz. (D) 1 cup

What high-frequency diarrhea with straining and mucus indicates? (A) Involvement of the stomach (B) Involvement of the jejunum or ileum *(C) Involvement of large intestine* (D) Colitis

What high-frequency diarrhea with straining and mucus indicates? (A) Involvement of the stomach (B) Involvement of the jejunum or ileum (C) Involvement of large intestine (D) Colitis

What is a cause of flea allergy dermatitis (A) Environmental allergens, including trees, grasses, pollens *(B) Ctenocephalides infestation* (C) Blastomyces infection (D) Mite infestation

What is a cause of flea allergy dermatitis (A) Environmental allergens, including trees, grasses, pollens (B) Ctenocephalides infestation (C) Blastomyces infection (D) Mite infestation

What is a relatively new option to manage hyperthyroidism in cats (A) Thyroidectomy *(B) Nutritional management* (C) Anti-thyroid medications (D) Radioactive iodine

What is a relatively new option to manage hyperthyroidism in cats (A) Thyroidectomy (B) Nutritional management (C) Anti-thyroid medications (D) Radioactive iodine

What is a sign of common complications to heartworm adulticide therapy?: (A) Ecchymoses, anemia *(B) Hemoptysis, dyspnea* (C) Hematuria, stranguria, (D) Melena, lethargy

What is a sign of common complications to heartworm adulticide therapy?: (A) Ecchymoses, anemia (B) Hemoptysis, dyspnea (C) Hematuria, stranguria, (D) Melena, lethargy

What is an average amount of urine output per day, for a full sized horse (A) 20-30 ml/day (B) 1-3 L/day *(C) 5-15 L/day* (D) 5-15 gal/day

What is an average amount of urine output per day, for a full sized horse (A) 20-30 ml/day (B) 1-3 L/day (C) 5-15 L/day (D) 5-15 gal/day

What is average amount of water intake per day for a full-sized horse (A) 20-30 ml/day (B) 5-15 L/day *(C) 20-30 L/day* (D) 20-30 gal/day

What is average amount of water intake per day for a full-sized horse (A) 20-30 ml/day (B) 5-15 L/day (C) 20-30 L/day (D) 20-30 gal/day

What is average weight of an adult pot bellied pig (A) 50 lb *(B) 120 lb* (C) 220 lb (D) 450 lb

What is average weight of an adult pot bellied pig (A) 50 lb (B) 120 lb (C) 220 lb (D) 450 lb

What is known duration of immunity for bordetella bronchiseptica? (A) 6 months *(B) 1 year* (C) 3 years (D) 5 years

What is known duration of immunity for bordetella bronchiseptica? (A) 6 months (B) 1 year (C) 3 years (D) 5 years

What is most appropriate action when a catheter is leaking subcutaneously? (A) Leave as it is and check 3-4 hours later (B) Reduce fluid rate, continue use *(C) Remove catheter* (D) No need for intervention

What is most appropriate action when a catheter is leaking subcutaneously? (A) Leave as it is and check 3-4 hours later (B) Reduce fluid rate, continue use (C) Remove catheter (D) No need for intervention

What is most appropriate action when catheter infection is detected (A) Disinfect catheter site and continue use (B) Measure patient temperature an remove only if there is a fever *(C) Remove the catheter* (D) No need for intervention

What is most appropriate action when catheter infection is detected (A) Disinfect catheter site and continue use (B) Measure patient temperature an remove only if there is a fever (C) Remove the catheter (D) No need for intervention

What is most appropriate wound-flushing solution (A) Hydrogen peroxide *(B) Isotonic saline* (C) Povidone-iodine solution (D) Tap water

What is most appropriate wound-flushing solution (A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Isotonic saline (C) Povidone-iodine solution (D) Tap water

What is most common nutritional disease of pot bellied pigs (A) Calcium deficiency (B) Vitamin E deficiency *(C) Obesity* (D) Mal-nourishment

What is most common nutritional disease of pot bellied pigs (A) Calcium deficiency (B) Vitamin E deficiency (C) Obesity (D) Mal-nourishment

What is porphyrin staining in rodents (A) Hair standing on end (B) Color of cage litter from urine *(C) Red tears which may encircle the eye* (D) None of the above

What is porphyrin staining in rodents (A) Hair standing on end (B) Color of cage litter from urine (C) Red tears which may encircle the eye (D) None of the above

What is predominant method for transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats (A) Grooming *(B) Bite wounds* (C) Urine (D) Feces

What is predominant method for transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats (A) Grooming (B) Bite wounds (C) Urine (D) Feces

What is purpose of a safety program *(A) Reduce/eliminate the possibility of injury or illness for everyone on the premises* (B) Reduce or eliminate possibility of injury or illness for employees only (C) Make OSHA happy (D) Reduce or eliminate possibility of injury or illness for client only

What is purpose of a safety program (A) Reduce/eliminate the possibility of injury or illness for everyone on the premises (B) Reduce or eliminate possibility of injury or illness for employees only (C) Make OSHA happy (D) Reduce or eliminate possibility of injury or illness for client only

What is the name of the cycle of collecting subjective and objective data, identifying and prioritizing patient problems to be addressed, developing a nursing plan, implementing interventions, and assessing treatment effectiveness *(A) Nursing process* (B) Physical exam (C) Patient treatment (D) Diagnosis

What is the name of the cycle of collecting subjective and objective data, identifying and prioritizing patient problems to be addressed, developing a nursing plan, implementing interventions, and assessing treatment effectiveness (A) Nursing process (B) Physical exam (C) Patient treatment (D) Diagnosis

What is the name of the third party that evaluates veterinary dental foods and approves an oral care seal on its veterinary products? *(A) Veterinary oral health council* (B) American veterinary dental association (C) Academy of veterinary oral health (D) Veterinary dental society

What is the name of the third party that evaluates veterinary dental foods and approves an oral care seal on its veterinary products? (A) Veterinary oral health council (B) American veterinary dental association (C) Academy of veterinary oral health (D) Veterinary dental society

What monitoring patients on fluids and/or patients that undergo diuresis, urine output is an important consideration. Normal urine production for a dog or cat is? (A) 0-1 ml/kg/hr *(B) 1-2 ml/kg/hr* (C) 2-3 ml/kg/hr (D) 3-4 ml/kg/hr

What percent in excess of the optimal weight for their breed classifies dogs and cats as obese *(A) >20%* (B) 10-19% (C) 35% (D) 50%

What percent in excess of the optimal weight for their breed classifies dogs and cats as obese (A) >20% (B) 10-19% (C) 35% (D) 50%

What percent of hyperthyroid cats remained euthyroid when fed <0.2 ppm iodine DMB as the sole source of nutrition. (A) 60% (B) 80% *(C) 90%* (D) 75%

What percent of hyperthyroid cats remained euthyroid when fed <0.2 ppm iodine DMB as the sole source of nutrition. (A) 60% (B) 80% (C) 90% (D) 75%

What structure connects muscle to bone (A) Ligaments *(B) Tendons* (C) Foramen (D) Process

What structure connects muscle to bone (A) Ligaments (B) Tendons (C) Foramen (D) Process

When a female dog is bred, amount of calories should be increased.. (A) Right after breeding (B) 1 week after breeding (C) 2-3 weeks after breeding *(D) 5-6 weeks after breeding*

When a female dog is bred, amount of calories should be increased.. (A) Right after breeding (B) 1 week after breeding (C) 2-3 weeks after breeding (D) 5-6 weeks after breeding

When a veterinary technician is distingushing pain from dysphoria, which would the tech do? (A) Place patient on comfortable blankets *(B) Speak in low tones and interact with the animal, which makes the patient feel better, but behaviors resume when interactions stop* (C) Move animal to different ward (D) Reverse analgesic medication

When a veterinary technician is distingushing pain from dysphoria, which would the tech do? (A) Place patient on comfortable blankets (B) Speak in low tones and interact with the animal, which makes the patient feel better, but behaviors resume when interactions stop (C) Move animal to different ward (D) Reverse analgesic medication

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have red lead? (A) Right foreleg (B) Left foreleg (C) Right hind leg *(D) Left hind leg*

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have red lead? (A) Right foreleg (B) Left foreleg (C) Right hind leg (D) Left hind leg

When charting a medical record, in what portion of the record is the TPR logged (A) Subjective *(B) Objective* (C) Assessment (D) Plan

When charting a medical record, in what portion of the record is the TPR logged (A) Subjective (B) Objective (C) Assessment (D) Plan

When choosing a specific restraint mechanism for a patient, which of the following is taken into consideration before restraining (A) Equipment available *(B) Individual behavior* (C) If client is watching (D) There are no considerations

When choosing a specific restraint mechanism for a patient, which of the following is taken into consideration before restraining (A) Equipment available (B) Individual behavior (C) If client is watching (D) There are no considerations

When doing an EGG, with a dog in right lateral, green electrode is connected? (A) Right forelimb (B) Left forelimb *(C) Right hind limb* (D) Left hind limb

When doing an EGG, with a dog in right lateral, green electrode is connected? (A) Right forelimb (B) Left forelimb (C) Right hind limb (D) Left hind limb

When feeding the patient though a gastrostomy tube, the tech should (A) Rapidly inject fluids and food *(B) Flush tube with water* (C) Flush tube with air (D) Feed full days caloric requirement immediately after placement

When feeding the patient though a gastrostomy tube, the tech should (A) Rapidly inject fluids and food (B) Flush tube with water (C) Flush tube with air (D) Feed full days caloric requirement immediately after placement

When filling a prescription of administering medication to a patient, the tech must be familiar with abbreviations. Which indicates a medication to be given once every 24 hours *(A) SID* (B) TID (C) QID (D) QOD

When filling a prescription of administering medication to a patient, the tech must be familiar with abbreviations. Which indicates a medication to be given once every 24 hours (A) SID (B) TID (C) QID (D) QOD

When filling a prescription of giving meds to a patient, the tech must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which indicates millequivalent? (A) mcg *(B) mEq* (C) Mg (D) MM

When filling a prescription of giving meds to a patient, the tech must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which indicates millequivalent? (A) mcg (B) mEq (C) Mg (D) MM

When filling a prescription or giving medication to a patient, the technician must e familiar with medical abbreviations. Which indicates a medication to be applied to the right ear? *(A) AD* (B) AS (C) AU (D) OD

When giving oral liquid medication, the patient's neck should be? (A) Hyperextended (B) Flexed downward angle (C) Flexed upward angle *(D) Held at neutral angle*

When giving oral liquid medication, the patient's neck should be? (A) Hyperextended (B) Flexed downward angle (C) Flexed upward angle (D) Held at neutral angle

When giving oral medications to cats, which of the following techniques should be practiced? (A) Placing medication inside a piece of cheese *(B) Flushing water with a syringe into the mouth after the tablet has been given* (C) Placing the tablet or capsule on the back of the tongue and holding the mouth shut (D) Cats cannot take oral medications

When giving oral medications to cats, which of the following techniques should be practiced? (A) Placing medication inside a piece of cheese (B) Flushing water with a syringe into the mouth after the tablet has been given (C) Placing the tablet or capsule on the back of the tongue and holding the mouth shut (D) Cats cannot take oral medications

When hemorrhaging from a broken blood feather occurs, what is the correct action (A) Apply pressure to broken edge (B) Apply styptic powder to the feather (C) Cut feather at the base *(D) Pull feather out along follicle*

When monitoring a condition, the soap method may be use to ensure completeness. Soap stands for? *(A) Subjective, objective, assessment, planning* (B) Study, objective, assessment, planning (C See, objective, assessment, planning (D) Subjective, objective, appraisal, planning

When monitoring a condition, the soap method may be use to ensure completeness. Soap stands for? (A) Subjective, objective, assessment, planning (B) Study, objective, assessment, planning (C See, objective, assessment, planning (D) Subjective, objective, appraisal, planning

When obtaining patient history, it is important to? (A) Ask leading questions to save time and keep on schedule *(B) Ask open-ended questions* (C) Always use medical terms (D) Ask leading questions when you already know what the problem is

When obtaining patient history, it is important to? (A) Ask leading questions to save time and keep on schedule (B) Ask open-ended questions (C) Always use medical terms (D) Ask leading questions when you already know what the problem is

When palpating pulses, what do bounding pulses indicate? (A) Adequate cardoivascular function (B) Elevated diastolic blood pressure *(C) Elevated pulse pressure* (D) Elevated mean arterial pressure

When palpating pulses, what do bounding pulses indicate? (A) Adequate cardoivascular function (B) Elevated diastolic blood pressure (C) Elevated pulse pressure (D) Elevated mean arterial pressure

When passing urine is painful and uncomfortable is known as which of the following? *(A) Dysuria* (B) Poikuria (C) Polyuria (D) Stranguria

When passing urine is painful and uncomfortable is known as which of the following? (A) Dysuria (B) Poikuria (C) Polyuria (D) Stranguria

When performing a TPR on a patient, you should *(A) Always auscult the heart while palpating the pulse* (B) Palpate the patient's pulse while taking temperature (C) Always auscult the heart because the pulse rate may be lower than the heart rate (D) Auscult the heart if the patient does not like you to touch its legs

When performing a TPR on a patient, you should (A) Always auscult the heart while palpating the pulse (B) Palpate the patient's pulse while taking temperature (C) Always auscult the heart because the pulse rate may be lower than the heart rate (D) Auscult the heart if the patient does not like you to touch its legs

When performing a physical examination on a patient (A) Only necessary to exam body part of concern to the client (B) Always start at rear of the patient (C) Always start at patient's head *(D) All aspects of the exam should be examined in the same order whenever possible*

When performing a physical examination on a patient (A) Only necessary to exam body part of concern to the client (B) Always start at rear of the patient (C) Always start at patient's head (D) All aspects of the exam should be examined in the same order whenever possible

When preparing to draw up a drug into a syringe from a multidose vial, it is important to *(A) Wipe rubber diaphragm of the vial with 70% isopropyl alcohol before inserting needle into vial* (B) Wipe rubber diaphragm of the vial with 70% isopropyl alcohol after inserting needle into vial (C) Inspect rubber diaphragm for foreign material (D) Remove rubber diaphragm

When preparing to draw up a drug into a syringe from a multidose vial, it is important to (A) Wipe rubber diaphragm of the vial with 70% isopropyl alcohol before inserting needle into vial (B) Wipe rubber diaphragm of the vial with 70% isopropyl alcohol after inserting needle into vial (C) Inspect rubber diaphragm for foreign material (D) Remove rubber diaphragm

When reintroducing exercise into the pet's and owner's daily regimen to promote weight loss, what recommendation is made *(A) Start with moderate exercise plan* (B) Exercise should include running (C) Exercise as much as possible on first day (D) Exercise not necessary

When reintroducing exercise into the pet's and owner's daily regimen to promote weight loss, what recommendation is made (A) Start with moderate exercise plan (B) Exercise should include running (C) Exercise as much as possible on first day (D) Exercise not necessary

When restraining a cat for a blood draw from the medical saphenous vein, the patient is restrained in? (A) Dorsal *(B) Lateral* (C) Medial (D) Sternal

When restraining a cat for a blood draw from the medical saphenous vein, the patient is restrained in? (A) Dorsal (B) Lateral (C) Medial (D) Sternal

When setting up an IV fluid line to be used without an infusion pump, the drip chamber should be (A) Filled completely up to the top *(B) Filled to halfway line on chamber* (C) Left empty (D) Allowed to fill by gravity

When setting up an IV fluid line to be used without an infusion pump, the drip chamber should be (A) Filled completely up to the top (B) Filled to halfway line on chamber (C) Left empty (D) Allowed to fill by gravity

When should horses receive vaccines for encephalomyelitis viruses (A) Autumn, before freeze (B) Before breeding *(C) Spring, before mosquito season* (D) At 3 months of age

When should horses receive vaccines for encephalomyelitis viruses (A) Autumn, before freeze (B) Before breeding (C) Spring, before mosquito season (D) At 3 months of age

When two people are lifting a dog that weights more than 50 lb, the person handling the front of the patient should (A) Hold mouth closed with one hand and lift patient by the head (B) Lift patient with one arm around chest behind front legs and other arm over back to interlock fingers of the two hands (C) Using one hand to restrain each of the thoracic limbs *(D) Wrap one arm around the dog's neck under and around the dog's chest, behind the front leg*

When two people are lifting a dog that weights more than 50 lb, the person handling the front of the patient should (A) Hold mouth closed with one hand and lift patient by the head (B) Lift patient with one arm around chest behind front legs and other arm over back to interlock fingers of the two hands (C) Using one hand to restrain each of the thoracic limbs (D) Wrap one arm around the dog's neck under and around the dog's chest, behind the front leg

Where should pressure be applied to minimize hemorrhage to the head of a canine trauma patient (A) Thoracic inlet in both jugular grooves (B) Thoracic inlet of left jugular groove *(C) Area adjacent and ventral to mandible* (D) Lateral points of TMJ

Where should pressure be applied to minimize hemorrhage to the head of a canine trauma patient (A) Thoracic inlet in both jugular grooves (B) Thoracic inlet of left jugular groove (C) Area adjacent and ventral to mandible (D) Lateral points of TMJ

Which abbreviation commonly is used in radiology causes electrons to move faster, increasing the force of the collision with the target *(A) kVp* (B) mAs (C) SID (D) OID

Which abbreviation commonly is used in radiology causes electrons to move faster, increasing the force of the collision with the target (A) kVp (B) mAs (C) SID (D) OID

Which agency has no regulatory authority regarding pet food, however is made up of government employees? *(A) AAFCO* (B) FDA (C) FTC (D) USDA

Which agency has no regulatory authority regarding pet food, however is made up of government employees? (A) AAFCO (B) FDA (C) FTC (D) USDA

Which agency responsible for inspecting pet food ingredients *(A) USDA* (B) FDA (C) AAFCO (D) FTC

Which agency responsible for inspecting pet food ingredients (A) USDA (B) FDA (C) AAFCO (D) FTC

Which allows oxygen supplementation with minimal stress and handling? (A) Mask oxygen (B) Nasal cannula *(C) Oxygen cage* (D) Transtracheal catheter

Which allows oxygen supplementation with minimal stress and handling? (A) Mask oxygen (B) Nasal cannula (C) Oxygen cage (D) Transtracheal catheter

Which allows the body to withdraw calcium from bone when blood calcium levels are low (A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteocytes *(C) Osteoclasts* (D) Hematopoiesis

Which allows the body to withdraw calcium from bone when blood calcium levels are low (A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteocytes (C) Osteoclasts (D) Hematopoiesis

Which amino acid must be present in cat food but not in dog food (A) L-carnitine (B) Glutamine *(C) Taurine* (D) Lysine

Which amino acid must be present in cat food but not in dog food (A) L-carnitine (B) Glutamine (C) Taurine (D) Lysine

Which are abnormal lung sounds heart in equine patient on auscultation of the lower respiratory system (A) Stridor *(B) Wheezes* (C) Stertor (D) Increased airflow

Which are abnormal lung sounds heart in equine patient on auscultation of the lower respiratory system (A) Stridor (B) Wheezes (C) Stertor (D) Increased airflow

Which are bones in the tail of a dog? (A) Cervical vertebrae *(B) Coccygeal vertebrae* (C) Lumbar vertebrae (D) Sacral vertebrae

Which are bones in the tail of a dog? (A) Cervical vertebrae (B) Coccygeal vertebrae (C) Lumbar vertebrae (D) Sacral vertebrae

Which are clearly visible in young animals but may become indistinguishable in older animals *(A) Interparietal bones* (B) Occipital bone (C) Parietal bones (D) Temporal bones

Which are clearly visible in young animals but may become indistinguishable in older animals (A) Interparietal bones (B) Occipital bone (C) Parietal bones (D) Temporal bones

Which are clinical symptoms seen in a cat with heart worm (A) Diarrhea (B) Left-sided chronic heart failure (C) Weight-gain *(D) Vomiting*

Which are clinical symptoms seen in a cat with heart worm (A) Diarrhea (B) Left-sided chronic heart failure (C) Weight-gain (D) Vomiting

Which are examples of preservatives (A) Omega-3 oils (B) Sucrose, dextrose (C) Lactated Ringer *(D) Vitamin E*

Which are examples of preservatives (A) Omega-3 oils (B) Sucrose, dextrose (C) Lactated Ringer (D) Vitamin E

Which are four thin, scroll-like bones that fill most of the space in the nasal cavity and are also called the nasal conchae? (A) Palatine bones (B) Pterygoid bones *(C) Turbinates* (D) Vomer bones

Which are four thin, scroll-like bones that fill most of the space in the nasal cavity and are also called the nasal conchae? (A) Palatine bones (B) Pterygoid bones (C) Turbinates (D) Vomer bones

Which are most likely to be a normal, non-painful behaviors? (A) Decreased appetite (B) Unusual aggression *(C) Stretching* (D) Decreased social interaction

Which are most likely to be a normal, non-painful behaviors? (A) Decreased appetite (B) Unusual aggression (C) Stretching (D) Decreased social interaction

Which are small bones that support part of the lateral walls of the throat (A) Palatine bones *(B) Pterygoid bones* (C) Turbinates (D) Vomer bone

Which are small bones that support part of the lateral walls of the throat (A) Palatine bones (B) Pterygoid bones (C) Turbinates (D) Vomer bone

Which are strict carnivores (A) Dogs *(B) Ferrets* (C) Prairie dogs (D) Rabbits

Which are strict carnivores (A) Dogs (B) Ferrets (C) Prairie dogs (D) Rabbits

Which are the two small bones that form part of the orbit of the eyes (A) Ossicles (B) Malleus (C) Incus *(D) Lacrimal*

Which are the two small bones that form part of the orbit of the eyes (A) Ossicles (B) Malleus (C) Incus (D) Lacrimal

Which area of the brain is responsible for the higher functions such as learning, memory, and interpretation of sensory input like pain? *(A) Cerebrum* (B) Thalamus (C) Hypothalamus (D) Reticular formation

Which area of the brain is responsible for the higher functions such as learning, memory, and interpretation of sensory input like pain? (A) Cerebrum (B) Thalamus (C) Hypothalamus (D) Reticular formation

Which blood pressure measuring device obtain automated readings through sensing pressure oscillations? (A) Doppler ultrasound (B) Direct blood pressure *(C) Oscillometric device* (D) Stethoscope

Which blood pressure measuring device obtain automated readings through sensing pressure oscillations? (A) Doppler ultrasound (B) Direct blood pressure (C) Oscillometric device (D) Stethoscope

Which blood pressure measuring technique requires an arterial catheter? (A) Doppler ultrasound *(B) Direct blood pressure* (C) Oscillometric device (D) Stethoscope

Which blood pressure measuring technique requires an arterial catheter? (A) Doppler ultrasound (B) Direct blood pressure (C) Oscillometric device (D) Stethoscope

Which body surface of an animal's leg is the one closet to the body *(A) Medial* (B) Lateral (C) Proximal (D) Distal

Which body surface of an animal's leg is the one closet to the body (A) Medial (B) Lateral (C) Proximal (D) Distal

Which can be life threatening (A) Hyperglycemia *(B) Hypoglycemia* (C) PU (D) PD

Which can be life threatening (A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypoglycemia (C) PU (D) PD

Which can result from long-term work in an indoor kennel with barking dogs? (A) Ear ablation *(B) Hearing loss* (C) Ear infections (D) Hyphema

Which can result from long-term work in an indoor kennel with barking dogs? (A) Ear ablation (B) Hearing loss (C) Ear infections (D) Hyphema

Which characteristics do cats exhibit when they experience pain (A) Sleeping continuously, overeating, attention seeking *(B) Resentment of being handled, aggression, a abnormal posture* (C) Hyperactivity, pupillary enlargement, tail swishing (D) Hypotension, hypocapnia, hypopnea, bradycardia

Which characteristics do cats exhibit when they experience pain (A) Sleeping continuously, overeating, attention seeking (B) Resentment of being handled, aggression, a abnormal posture (C) Hyperactivity, pupillary enlargement, tail swishing (D) Hypotension, hypocapnia, hypopnea, bradycardia

Which characterizes mucous membrane color and capillary refill time in a patient with liver disease? (A) Pale, prolonged (B) Pink, normal (C) Red, rapid *(D) Yellow, normal*

Which characterizes mucous membrane color and capillary refill time in a patient with liver disease? (A) Pale, prolonged (B) Pink, normal (C) Red, rapid (D) Yellow, normal

Which characterizes pulse rate and quality in moderately dehydrated dog *(A) Pulse rate increased* (B) Pulse rate decreased (C) Pulse rate inconsistent (D) Pulses not palpable

Which characterizes pulse rate and quality in moderately dehydrated dog (A) Pulse rate increased (B) Pulse rate decreased (C) Pulse rate inconsistent (D) Pulses not palpable

Which characterizes skin turgor in an overhydrated dog or cat (A) Prolonged (B) Normal *(C) Shortened* (D) Skin turgor not reliable indicator of hydration status

Which characterizes skin turgor in an overhydrated dog or cat (A) Prolonged (B) Normal (C) Shortened (D) Skin turgor not reliable indicator of hydration status

Which characterizes skin turgor in dehydration cat or dog *(A) Prolonged* (B) Normal (C)Shortened (D) Skin turgor is not a reliable indicator of hydration status

Which characterizes skin turgor in dehydration cat or dog (A) Prolonged (B) Normal (C)Shortened (D) Skin turgor is not a reliable indicator of hydration status

Which choices characterizes MM color and capillary refill time in patients in hypovolemic shock *(A) Pale/prolonged* (B) Pink/normal (C) Red/rapid (D) Yellow/normal

Which choices characterizes MM color and capillary refill time in patients in hypovolemic shock (A) Pale/prolonged (B) Pink/normal (C) Red/rapid (D) Yellow/normal

Which choices characterizes the mucous membrane color and capillary refill time in a patient with systemic inflammation (A Pale/prolonged (B) Pink/normal *(C) Red/rapid* (D) Yellow/normal

Which choices characterizes the mucous membrane color and capillary refill time in a patient with systemic inflammation (A Pale/prolonged (B) Pink/normal (C) Red/rapid (D) Yellow/normal

Which clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism (A) Hemophilia A *(B) Von Willebrand disease* (C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (D) Coumarin toxicity

Which clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism (A) Hemophilia A (B) Von Willebrand disease (C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (D) Coumarin toxicity

Which complications associated with IV catheters is the term used to describe formation of a blood clot resulting from impeded blood flow (A) Thrombophlebitis *(B) Thrombus* (C) Air embolism (D) Septicemia

Which complications associated with IV catheters is the term used to describe formation of a blood clot resulting from impeded blood flow (A) Thrombophlebitis (B) Thrombus (C) Air embolism (D) Septicemia

Which condition matches a patient exhibiting a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, ataxia (A) Brachycephalic sydrome (B) Horner syndrome (C) Wobbler syndrome *(D) Vestibular syndrome*

Which contributes to lyme disease? (A) Rickettsia rickettsii (B) Scabies scabei (C) Staphylococcus *(D) Borrelia burgdorferi*

Which contributes to lyme disease? (A) Rickettsia rickettsii (B) Scabies scabei (C) Staphylococcus (D) Borrelia burgdorferi

Which describes a canine patient experiencing a fever (A) 97.8 when presenting with pyometra (B) 100.2 after being left in a car for 30 minutes *(C) 103.9 when presenting with septic peritonitis* (D) 105.7 after exercising in heat

Which describes a canine patient experiencing a fever (A) 97.8 when presenting with pyometra (B) 100.2 after being left in a car for 30 minutes (C) 103.9 when presenting with septic peritonitis (D) 105.7 after exercising in heat

Which describes a patient suffering from eclampsia (A) Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis *(B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures* (C) In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia

Which describes a patient suffering from eclampsia (A) Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures (C) In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia

Which describes a patient suffering from mastitis *(A) Hard, painful nipple, galactostasis* (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures (C) In hard labor for 30-60 minutes with no new young produced (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, dairrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, poly dipsia

Which describes a patient suffering from mastitis (A) Hard, painful nipple, galactostasis (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures (C) In hard labor for 30-60 minutes with no new young produced (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, dairrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, poly dipsia

Which describes dystocia (A) Hard, painful nipple, galactostasis (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures *(C) Hard labor for 30-60 minutes with no young produced* (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, poly dipsia

Which describes dystocia (A) Hard, painful nipple, galactostasis (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures (C) Hard labor for 30-60 minutes with no young produced (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, poly dipsia

Which describes transmission path of a zoonotic disease *(A) From animals to humans* (B) From animals to animals (C) From humans to animals (D) From humans to zoos

Which describes transmission path of a zoonotic disease (A) From animals to humans (B) From animals to animals (C) From humans to animals (D) From humans to zoos

Which device for measuring blood pressure is used to obtain manual blood pressure measurements, turning blood into an audible signal? *(A) Doppler ultrasound* (B) Direct blood pressure (C) Oscillometric device (D) Stethoscope

Which device for measuring blood pressure is used to obtain manual blood pressure measurements, turning blood into an audible signal? (A) Doppler ultrasound (B) Direct blood pressure (C) Oscillometric device (D) Stethoscope

Which devices are used to immobilize a patient with chemical restraint (A) Muzzle (B) Towel *(C) Drugs* (D) Sandbags

Which devices are used to immobilize a patient with chemical restraint (A) Muzzle (B) Towel (C) Drugs (D) Sandbags

Which disease would cause a patient to become anemic *(A) Iron deficiency* (B) Lethargy (C) Alopecia (D) Viral infection of upper respiratory tract

Which disease would cause a patient to become anemic (A) Iron deficiency (B) Lethargy (C) Alopecia (D) Viral infection of upper respiratory tract

Which endocrine disease results in hyponatremia and hyperkalemia in a dog (A) Hyperadrenocorticism *(B) Hypoadrenocorticism* (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Which endocrine disease results in hyponatremia and hyperkalemia in a dog (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Which endocrine disease results in weight gain, muscle weakness, polyuria, polydipsia, skin and hair coat abnormalities, and a pot bellied appearance in a dog? *(A) Hyperadrenocorticism* (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Which endocrine disease results in weight gain, muscle weakness, polyuria, polydipsia, skin and hair coat abnormalities, and a pot bellied appearance in a dog? (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Which endocrine disorder can result from failure of pituitary gland to produce ADH *(A) Diabetes insipidus* (B) Cushings (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Insulinoma

Which endocrine disorder can result from failure of pituitary gland to produce ADH (A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Cushings (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Insulinoma

Which endocrine disorder results in weight loss and a ravenous appetite in cats (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism *(C) Hyperthyroidism* (D) Hypothyroidism

Which endocrine disorder results in weight loss and a ravenous appetite in cats (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Which equine respiratory can cause abortion (A) Strangles (B) Equine influenza *(C) Herpes* (D) Equine infectious anemia

Which equine respiratory can cause abortion (A) Strangles (B) Equine influenza (C) Herpes (D) Equine infectious anemia

Which factor influences success of dietary elimination trial (A) Type of protein contained in elimination diet (B) Use of a homemade diet (C) Concurrent allergic skin disease *(D) All of the above*

Which factor influences success of dietary elimination trial (A) Type of protein contained in elimination diet (B) Use of a homemade diet (C) Concurrent allergic skin disease (D) All of the above

Which factors influences the success of dietary elimination trial for pets suffering from an adverse food reaction (A) Type of protein contained in elimination diet (B) Complete elimination of all other foods and treats (C) Concurrent allergic skin disease *(D) All of the above*

Which fatty acids have been shown to have significant effect on survival times when used in dogs diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy or chronic valvular disease *(A) Omega-3* (B) Omega-6 (C) Omega-9 (D) None of the above

Which fatty acids have been shown to have significant effect on survival times when used in dogs diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy or chronic valvular disease (A) Omega-3 (B) Omega-6 (C) Omega-9 (D) None of the above

Which has been associated wit causing neurologic disorders in cats (A) Chlorhexidine (B) Povidone iodine (C) Quaternary ammonium compounds *(D) Hexachlorophene*

Which has been associated wit causing neurologic disorders in cats (A) Chlorhexidine (B) Povidone iodine (C) Quaternary ammonium compounds (D) Hexachlorophene

Which has least influence on acceptability of food to dogs and cats (A) Salt content (B) Size (C) Shape *(D) Color*

Which has least influence on acceptability of food to dogs and cats (A) Salt content (B) Size (C) Shape (D) Color

Which heart condition is common in pomeranians? *(A) Patent ductus arteriosus* (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Atrial septal defect (D) Ventricular septal defect

Which heart condition is common in pomeranians? (A) Patent ductus arteriosus (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Atrial septal defect (D) Ventricular septal defect

Which hormones is produced by the thyroid gland? (A) Triiodothyronine (B) Tetraiodothyronine (C) Calcitonin *(D) All of the above*

Which hormones is produced by the thyroid gland? (A) Triiodothyronine (B) Tetraiodothyronine (C) Calcitonin (D) All of the above

Which increases supply of oxygen and nutrients to tissues, while encouraging muscle relaxation? Encourages breakdown and mobilization of adhesions in damaged tissues. (A) Effleurage *(B) Petrissage* (C) Percussion (D) Vibration

Which individual should not participate in restraining of patients *(A) Patient owners* (B) Vets (C) Vet techs (D) Vet assistants

Which individual should not participate in restraining of patients (A) Patient owners (B) Vets (C) Vet techs (D) Vet assistants

Which involves the adrenal glands (A) Diabetes *(B) Addisons* (C) IBD (D) Eclampsia

Which involves the adrenal glands (A) Diabetes (B) Addisons (C) IBD (D) Eclampsia

Which is a characteristic commonly seen in rabbits, in which stool is ingested for nutritional purposes *(A) Coprophagy* (B) Dysbiosis (C) Dystrophic calcification (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which is a characteristic commonly seen in rabbits, in which stool is ingested for nutritional purposes (A) Coprophagy (B) Dysbiosis (C) Dystrophic calcification (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which is a clinical sign of thromboemboli in cats (A) Chronic onset of rear leg pain *(B) Acute onset of rear leg pain* (C) Palpable pulses in rear limbs (D) Warm foot pads

Which is a clinical sign of thromboemboli in cats (A) Chronic onset of rear leg pain (B) Acute onset of rear leg pain (C) Palpable pulses in rear limbs (D) Warm foot pads

Which is a common cause of badycardia (A) Hypovolemia (B) Hypoxia (C) Hypokalemia *(D) Hyperkalemia*

Which is a common cause of badycardia (A) Hypovolemia (B) Hypoxia (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyperkalemia

Which is a common contributor to pancreatitis specific to dogs? (A) Blunt force trauma *(B) Dietary indiscretion* (C) Pancreatic hypoperfusion (D) Pancreotoxic drugs

Which is a common contributor to pancreatitis specific to dogs? (A) Blunt force trauma (B) Dietary indiscretion (C) Pancreatic hypoperfusion (D) Pancreotoxic drugs

Which is a common radiology term that refers to a negatively charged electrode that produces electrons in the x-ray tube (A) Anode *(B) Cathode* (C) Artifact (D) Collimator

Which is a common radiology term that refers to a negatively charged electrode that produces electrons in the x-ray tube (A) Anode (B) Cathode (C) Artifact (D) Collimator

Which is a common venipuncture site for a reptile (A) Basilic vein *(B) Caudal tail vein* (C) Cephalic vein (D) Jugular vein

Which is a common venipuncture site for a reptile (A) Basilic vein (B) Caudal tail vein (C) Cephalic vein (D) Jugular vein

Which is a laxative used most commonly in small animals with chronic constipation (A) Diphenoxylate *(B) Lactulose* (C) Loperamide (D) Paregoric

Which is a laxative used most commonly in small animals with chronic constipation (A) Diphenoxylate (B) Lactulose (C) Loperamide (D) Paregoric

Which is a nonessential amino acid (A) Histidine (B) Isoleucine (C) Methionine *(D) Tyrosine*

Which is a nonessential amino acid (A) Histidine (B) Isoleucine (C) Methionine (D) Tyrosine

Which is a nursing intervention to allow neurologic patients to void urine (A) Atonic bladder *(B) Bladder expression* (C) Bladder palpation (D) Distension urination

Which is a nursing intervention to allow neurologic patients to void urine (A) Atonic bladder (B) Bladder expression (C) Bladder palpation (D) Distension urination

Which is a passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, esophagus *(A) Regurgitation* (B) Vomiting (C) Hematemesis (D) Hyper salivation

Which is a passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, esophagus (A) Regurgitation (B) Vomiting (C) Hematemesis (D) Hyper salivation

Which is a precaution that should be undertaken before restraining a cat (A) Maximal restraint should be used from the start to prevent any chance of the cat resisting *(B) Make sure all doors, windows, and cabinets are closed* (C) Prepare to use loud sounds as distraction (D) Take the same restraining approach for every cat

Which is a precaution that should be undertaken before restraining a cat (A) Maximal restraint should be used from the start to prevent any chance of the cat resisting (B) Make sure all doors, windows, and cabinets are closed (C) Prepare to use loud sounds as distraction (D) Take the same restraining approach for every cat

Which is a reason for cautious drug dosing in neonates? *(A) Neonates have reduced liver function* (B) Left and right ventricles are of approximately equal size (C) Appropriate immunoglobulin production is lacking (D) Neonates are susceptible to hypothermia

Which is a reason for cautious drug dosing in neonates? (A) Neonates have reduced liver function (B) Left and right ventricles are of approximately equal size (C) Appropriate immunoglobulin production is lacking (D) Neonates are susceptible to hypothermia

Which is a special term only used to describe positions or directions on the head? (A) Cranial (B) Caudal *(C) Rostral* (D) Ventral

Which is a special term only used to describe positions or directions on the head? (A) Cranial (B) Caudal (C) Rostral (D) Ventral

Which is a technique used to decrease blood flow and minimize inflammation *(A) Cold compress* (B) Coupage (C) Passive range of motion (D) Warm compress

Which is a technique used to decrease blood flow and minimize inflammation (A) Cold compress (B) Coupage (C) Passive range of motion (D) Warm compress

Which is a technique used to increase blood flow to improve drainage and healing to an area? (A) Cold compress (B) Coupage (C Passive range of motion *(D) Warm compress*

Which is a technique used to increase blood flow to improve drainage and healing to an area? (A) Cold compress (B) Coupage (C Passive range of motion (D) Warm compress

Which is a trace mineral? (A) Phosphorus (B) Magnesium (C) Sulfur *(D) Zinc*

Which is a trace mineral? (A) Phosphorus (B) Magnesium (C) Sulfur (D) Zinc

Which is a true effect of pain? (A) Prevents further patient harm by preventing movement (B) Places animal in an anabolic state, leading to weight gain *(C) Suppresses immune system, leading to increased chance of infection* (D) Promotes inflammation and increases healing rate

Which is a true effect of pain? (A) Prevents further patient harm by preventing movement (B) Places animal in an anabolic state, leading to weight gain (C) Suppresses immune system, leading to increased chance of infection (D) Promotes inflammation and increases healing rate

Which is a true feline blood type *(A) AB* (B) DEA 1 (C) Q (D) Tr

Which is a true feline blood type (A) AB (B) DEA 1 (C) Q (D) Tr

Which is a type of pain that can be beneficial in that it allows the animal to avoid damaging stimuli (A) Neuropathic pain *(B) Physiologic pain* (C) Somatic pain (D) Visceral pain

Which is a type of pain that can be beneficial in that it allows the animal to avoid damaging stimuli (A) Neuropathic pain (B) Physiologic pain (C) Somatic pain (D) Visceral pain

Which is a water-soluble vitamin (A) Vitamin A *(B) Vitamin C* (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K

Which is a water-soluble vitamin (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K

Which is an allergic airway disease experienced by equine patients? *(A) Heaves* (B) Viral arteritis (C) Inflammatory airway disease (D) Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage

Which is an alelrgic airway disease experienced by equine patients? (A) Heaves (B) Viral arteritis (C) Inflammatory airway disease (D) Exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage

Which is an alkalizing agent that is added to IV fluids to correct metabolic acidosis (A) Calcium chloride (B) Calcium gluconate (C) Potassium chloride *(D) Sodium bicarbonate*

Which is an alkalizing agent that is added to IV fluids to correct metabolic acidosis (A) Calcium chloride (B) Calcium gluconate (C) Potassium chloride (D) Sodium bicarbonate

Which is an appropriate element for an isolation ward (A) Sharing all equipment to nonisolated patients (B) Positive pressure air ventilation system *(C) Double-door entryway with an anteroom* (D) Two walls of cage banks facing each other

Which is an appropriate element for an isolation ward (A) Sharing all equipment to nonisolated patients (B) Positive pressure air ventilation system (C) Double-door entryway with an anteroom (D) Two walls of cage banks facing each other

Which is an endocrine disease most commonly seen in cats (A) Chronic kidney disease (B) Diabetes mellitus *(C) Hyperthyroidism* (D) Hypothyroidism

Which is an endocrine disease most commonly seen in cats (A) Chronic kidney disease (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

Which is an example of a product designator from a pet-food label (A) Beef entree *(B) Cat food* (C) Nine lives (D) Complete/balanced for adult dogs

Which is an example of a product designator from a pet-food label (A) Beef entree (B) Cat food (C) Nine lives (D) Complete/balanced for adult dogs

Which is an example of a standardized method in assessing the effectiveness of analgesia in a patient (A) ASA score (B) Glasgrow coma scale *(C) Colorado pain score* (D) Shock index

Which is an example of a standardized method in assessing the effectiveness of analgesia in a patient (A) ASA score (B) Glasgrow coma scale (C) Colorado pain score (D) Shock index

Which is an indication of large bowel diarrhea? (A) Increased volume of feces *(B) Mucus in feces* (C) Normal frequency of bowel movements (D) Weight loss

Which is an indication of large bowel diarrhea? (A) Increased volume of feces (B) Mucus in feces (C) Normal frequency of bowel movements (D) Weight loss

Which is another term for red blood cells? (A) Epithelial cells (B) Glandular cells (C) Osteoblasts *(D) Erythrocytes*

Which is another term for red blood cells? (A) Epithelial cells (B) Glandular cells (C) Osteoblasts (D) Erythrocytes

Which is appropriate treatment when a patient experiences severe heart worm infestation and caval syndrome? (A) Adulticide therapy (B) Microfilaricide therapy *(C) Surgical removal* (D) No treatment needed,it is transient

Which is appropriate treatment when a patient experiences severe heart worm infestation and caval syndrome? (A) Adulticide therapy (B) Microfilaricide therapy (C) Surgical removal (D) No treatment needed,it is transient

Which is caused by left-sided heart failure *(A) Mitral valve dysplasia* (B) Pulmonic stenosis (C) Neoplasia (D) Myocarditis

Which is caused by left-sided heart failure (A) Mitral valve dysplasia (B) Pulmonic stenosis (C) Neoplasia (D) Myocarditis

Which is common emetic used (A) Acepromazine *(B) Apomorphine* (C) Chlorpromazine (D) Prochlorperazine

Which is common emetic used (A) Acepromazine (B) Apomorphine (C) Chlorpromazine (D) Prochlorperazine

Which is commonly seen in cats older than 10 years but is very rare in dogs (A) Hyperadrenocorticalism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hypothyroidism *(D) Hyperthyroidism*

Which is commonly seen in cats older than 10 years but is very rare in dogs (A) Hyperadrenocorticalism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Hyperthyroidism

Which is commonly seen in dogs but rare in cats *(A) Hyperadrenocorticalism* (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Hyperthyroidism

Which is commonly seen in dogs but rare in cats (A) Hyperadrenocorticalism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hypothyroidism (D) Hyperthyroidism

Which is commonly used antiemetic (A) Apomorphine *(B) Chlorpromazine* (C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Xylazine

Which is commonly used antiemetic (A) Apomorphine (B) Chlorpromazine (C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Xylazine

Which is considered the face of a veterinary practice (A) Veterinary assistants (B) Veterinarians *(C) Receptionists* (D) Veterinary technician

Which is considered the face of a veterinary practice (A) Veterinary assistants (B) Veterinarians (C) Receptionists (D) Veterinary technician

Which is considered to the the most commonly detected electrolyte disturbance when providing nutritional support to a patient suffering from refeeding syndrome (A) Hyponatremia (B) Hypocholremia *(C) Hypokalemia* (D) Hypomagnesemia

Which is considered zoonotic? (A) Cholangiohepatitis (B) Infectious canine hepatitis *(C) Leptospirosis* (D) Toxin-induced liver disease

Which is considered zoonotic? (A) Cholangiohepatitis (B) Infectious canine hepatitis (C) Leptospirosis (D) Toxin-induced liver disease

Which is defined as an increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen level (A) Anemia *(B) Azotemia* (C) Hypoproteinemia (D) Isothenuria

Which is defined as an increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen level (A) Anemia (B) Azotemia (C) Hypoproteinemia (D) Isothenuria

Which is defined as an irreversible progressive loss of functioning renal tissue (A) Acute kidney injury *(B) Chronic kidney disease* (C) Acute liver failure (D) Chronic liver disease

Which is defined as an irreversible progressive loss of functioning renal tissue (A) Acute kidney injury (B) Chronic kidney disease (C) Acute liver failure (D) Chronic liver disease

Which is defined as assessment of patient through stethoscope *(A) Auscultation* (B) Centrifugation (C) Mentation (D) Palpation

Which is defined as assessment of patient through stethoscope (A) Auscultation (B) Centrifugation (C) Mentation (D) Palpation

Which is detrimental to a patient with limited mobility? (A) Passive range of motion exercises (B) Sling walking *(C) Adjusting position as little as possible to prevent pain* (D) Neck and head being slightly elevated

Which is detrimental to a patient with limited mobility? (A) Passive range of motion exercises (B) Sling walking (C) Adjusting position as little as possible to prevent pain (D) Neck and head being slightly elevated

Which is false regarding nonpharmacologic interventions to provide pain relief (A) Stress from boredom, thirst, anxiety, and need to urinate/defecate can mimic pain *(B) Need for physical comfort of patient is alleviated when adequate pain medication is given* (C) Patient may need to be placed in position to reduce pain, allow for easier breathing, and promote sleep (D) Each patient has unique emotional needs

Which is false regarding nonpharmacologic interventions to provide pain relief (A) Stress from boredom, thirst, anxiety, and need to urinate/defecate can mimic pain (B) Need for physical comfort of patient is alleviated when adequate pain medication is given (C) Patient may need to be placed in position to reduce pain, allow for easier breathing, and promote sleep (D) Each patient has unique emotional needs

Which is intended to provide long-term solutions for feline hyperthyroidism? (A) Surgery and oral anti-thyroid drugs (B) Radioactive iodine therapy and oral anti-thyroid drugs *(C) Surgery and radioactive iodine therapy* (D) Radioactive iodine therapy only

Which is intended to provide long-term solutions for feline hyperthyroidism? (A) Surgery and oral anti-thyroid drugs (B) Radioactive iodine therapy and oral anti-thyroid drugs (C) Surgery and radioactive iodine therapy (D) Radioactive iodine therapy only

Which is largest unit of measure (A) Microgram (B) Milligram (C) Gram *(D) Kilogram*

Which is largest unit of measure (A) Microgram (B) Milligram (C) Gram (D) Kilogram

Which is least effective method for delivering fluids to a 12% dehydrated patient (A) Central intravenous (B) Intraosseous (C) Peripheral intravenous *(D) SQ*

Which is least effective method for delivering fluids to a 12% dehydrated patient (A) Central intravenous (B) Intraosseous (C) Peripheral intravenous (D) SQ

Which is least likely to be a clinical sign of patient experiencing allergies (A) Face rubbing (B) Ear problems *(C) Loss of appetite* (D) Skin rashes

Which is least likely to be a clinical sign of patient experiencing allergies (A) Face rubbing (B) Ear problems (C) Loss of appetite (D) Skin rashes

Which is most beneficial in preventing gastrointestinal ulceration? (A) Antibiotic administration *(B) Enteral feeding* (C) Famotidine (D) Witholding food

Which is most beneficial in preventing gastrointestinal ulceration? (A) Antibiotic administration (B) Enteral feeding (C) Famotidine (D) Witholding food

Which is most common in cats (A) Non-insulin dependent diabetes (B) Type 2 diabetes (C) Insulin dependent diabetes *(D) All of the above*

Which is most common in cats (A) Non-insulin dependent diabetes (B) Type 2 diabetes (C) Insulin dependent diabetes (D) All of the above

Which is most commonly implicated in cases of gastric ulcers in horses, dogs, cats *(A) NSAIDs* (B) ABX (C) Parasiticies (D) Immunotherapy

Which is most commonly implicated in cases of gastric ulcers in horses, dogs, cats (A) NSAIDs (B) ABX (C) Parasiticies (D) Immunotherapy

Which is most commonly see cardiovascular disease in dogs (A) Boxer right ventricular cardiomyopathy *(B) Dilated cardiomyopathy* (C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (D) Ventricular septal defect

Which is most commonly see cardiovascular disease in dogs (A) Boxer right ventricular cardiomyopathy (B) Dilated cardiomyopathy (C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (D) Ventricular septal defect

Which is most important in nutritional management of inflammatory skin disorders? *(A) Assessment of current foods being fed and identification of an appropriate feeding plan* (B) Assessment of feeding method and elimination of corn from diet (C) Determination of an appropriate feeding plan including elimination of gluten from diet (D) Assessment of feeding plan and elimination of carbs from the diet

Which is most important in nutritional management of inflammatory skin disorders? (A) Assessment of current foods being fed and identification of an appropriate feeding plan (B) Assessment of feeding method and elimination of corn from diet (C) Determination of an appropriate feeding plan including elimination of gluten from diet (D) Assessment of feeding plan and elimination of carbs from the diet

Which is not a common risk factor for obesity in dogs (A) Age (B) Feeding semimoist food (C) Feeding homemade diets *(D) Feeding dry dog food*

Which is not a common risk factor for obesity in dogs (A) Age (B) Feeding semimoist food (C) Feeding homemade diets (D) Feeding dry dog food

Which is not a sign of inflammatory bowel disease in cats (A) Vomiting (B) Diarrhea *(C) Weight gain* (D) Weight loss

Which is not a sign of inflammatory bowel disease in cats (A) Vomiting (B) Diarrhea (C) Weight gain (D) Weight loss

Which is not included in the veterinary technician practice model (A) Assessment (B) Evaluation (C) Intervention *(D) Prescription*

Which is not included in the veterinary technician practice model (A) Assessment (B) Evaluation (C) Intervention (D) Prescription

Which is not part of standard set of personal protective gear in an isolation war *(A) Filtered respirator mask* (B) Gloves (C) Gown (D) Shoe cover

Which is not part of standard set of personal protective gear in an isolation war (A) Filtered respirator mask (B) Gloves (C) Gown (D) Shoe cover

Which is not true of NE or NG tubes (A) Inexpensive (B) Easy to place (C) Useful for short term feeding support *(D) Costly and inefficient*

Which is not true of NE or NG tubes (A) Inexpensive (B) Easy to place (C) Useful for short term feeding support (D) Costly and inefficient

Which is optional on information panel of all pet foods (A) Feeding guidelines *(B) Freshness date* (C) Manufacturer or distributor (D) Nutritional adequacy statement

Which is optional on information panel of all pet foods (A) Feeding guidelines (B) Freshness date (C) Manufacturer or distributor (D) Nutritional adequacy statement

Which is postpartum complication caused by hypocalcemia *(A) Eclampsia* (B) Galactostasis (C) Mastitis (D) Metritis

Which is postpartum complication caused by hypocalcemia (A) Eclampsia (B) Galactostasis (C) Mastitis (D) Metritis

Which is recommended method to prevent exposure to chemicals spilled on an animals fur (A) Applying chemicals solvents *(B) Bathed with mild dish washing detergent* (C) Induce emesis (D) Wipe it off with a dry paper towel

Which is recommended method to prevent exposure to chemicals spilled on an animals fur (A) Applying chemicals solvents (B) Bathed with mild dish washing detergent (C) Induce emesis (D) Wipe it off with a dry paper towel

Which is seen as chalk-white or cream-colored urine in rabbits (A) Coprophagy (B) Dysbiosis *(C) Dystrophic calcification* (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which is seen as chalk-white or cream-colored urine in rabbits (A) Coprophagy (B) Dysbiosis (C) Dystrophic calcification (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which is the correct progression of wound healing *(A) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase* (B) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, granulation phase, maturation phase (C) Proliferative phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase (D) Proliferative phase, granulation phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase

Which is the correct progression of wound healing (A) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase (B) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, granulation phase, maturation phase (C) Proliferative phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase (D) Proliferative phase, granulation phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase

Which is true in gathering patient data during the nursing process? (A) Past medical history should be ignored because presenting problem might not be related (B) Consulting veterinarian is not needed for a vet tech to assess a patient (C) PE should be focused on area of concern for efficiency *(D) Owners presenting complaint an a description of history should be taken*

Which is true in gathering patient data during the nursing process? (A) Past medical history should be ignored because presenting problem might not be related (B) Consulting veterinarian is not needed for a vet tech to assess a patient (C) PE should be focused on area of concern for efficiency (D) Owners presenting complaint an a description of history should be taken

Which is true of artificial warming devices? (A) Warm water blankets are most effective in preventing hypothermia (B) Commercial warming devices do not require insulation because they are tested to be safe (C) Can solely provide sufficient heat support to prevent hypothermia *(D) Directed at warming the core as supposed to the periphery*

Which is true of artificial warming devices? (A) Warm water blankets are most effective in preventing hypothermia (B) Commercial warming devices do not require insulation because they are tested to be safe (C) Can solely provide sufficient heat support to prevent hypothermia (D) Directed at warming the core as supposed to the periphery

Which is true of urinary catheterization (A) Disinfecting prepuce is not required *(B) Catheter must be disinfected periodically* (C) After catheter is properly placed, no concern for dislodgment (D) Aseptic technique is not required when handling collection bag

Which is true of urinary catheterization (A) Disinfecting prepuce is not required (B) Catheter must be disinfected periodically (C) After catheter is properly placed, no concern for dislodgment (D) Aseptic technique is not required when handling collection bag

Which is typically the largest vein to collect blood (A) Cutaneous ulnar vein (B) Left jugular vein (C) Medial metatarsal vein *(D) Right jugular vein*

Which is typically the largest vein to collect blood (A) Cutaneous ulnar vein (B) Left jugular vein (C) Medial metatarsal vein (D) Right jugular vein

Which is used to describe high-pitched, discontinuous inspiratory sound associated with reopening of airways that closed during expiration *(A) Crackle* (B) Stertor (C) Stridor (D) Wheeze

Which is used to describe high-pitched, discontinuous inspiratory sound associated with reopening of airways that closed during expiration (A) Crackle (B) Stertor (C) Stridor (D) Wheeze

Which is/are antioxidants *(A) Vitamin A, vitamin E, vitamin C* (B) L-carnitine (C) Vitamin (D) Krebs cycles

Which is/are antioxidants (A) Vitamin A, vitamin E, vitamin C (B) L-carnitine (C) Vitamin (D) Krebs cycles

Which is/are water soluble (A) A and D (B) E and K *(C) B12 and C* (D) A and E

Which is/are water soluble (A) A and D (B) E and K (C) B12 and C (D) A and E

Which knots are used to secure the end of two ropes together or to form a nonslipping noose *(A) Square knot* (B) Nonslip knot (C) Surgeon's knot (D) Reefer's knot

Which knots are used to secure the end of two ropes together or to form a nonslipping noose (A) Square knot (B) Nonslip knot (C) Surgeon's knot (D) Reefer's knot

Which lab tests would not be used to diagnose IMHA (A) Autoagglutination test (B) CBC (C) Coombs test *(D) Fructosamine*

Which lab tests would not be used to diagnose IMHA (A) Autoagglutination test (B) CBC (C) Coombs test (D) Fructosamine

Which may be caused by right-sided heart failure? (A) Aortic stenosis (B) Mitral valve dysplasia (C) Dysrhythmias *(D) Tricuspid dysplasia*

Which may be caused by right-sided heart failure? (A) Aortic stenosis (B) Mitral valve dysplasia (C) Dysrhythmias (D) Tricuspid dysplasia

Which may be viral enteritis (A) Parvovirus (B) Coronavirus (C) All of the above *(D) None of the above*

Which may be viral enteritis (A) Parvovirus (B) Coronavirus (C) All of the above (D) None of the above

Which may contribute to ringworm in companion animals? (A) Microsporum canis (B) M. gypseum (C) Trichophyton mentagrophytes *(D) All of the above*

Which may contribute to ringworm in companion animals? (A) Microsporum canis (B) M. gypseum (C) Trichophyton mentagrophytes (D) All of the above

Which might a cow in pain exhibit? (A) Dullness and depression (B) inappetence and grinding teeth (C Stance with one food behind the other *(D) All of the above*

Which might a cow in pain exhibit? (A) Dullness and depression (B) inappetence and grinding teeth (C Stance with one food behind the other (D) All of the above

Which might be useful in prevention of muscle atrophy (A) Passive limb movement (B) Hydrotherapy (C) Massage *(D) All of the above*

Which might be useful in prevention of muscle atrophy (A) Passive limb movement (B) Hydrotherapy (C) Massage (D) All of the above

Which nutrient is most important for patients with acute or chronic vomiting? (A) Protean (B) Vitamins (C) Minerals *(D) Water*

Which nutrient is most important for patients with acute or chronic vomiting? (A) Protean (B) Vitamins (C) Minerals (D) Water

Which of the agencies regulates pet food labels and research facilities (A) AAFCO (B) FDA (C) FTC *(D) USDA*

Which of the agencies regulates pet food labels and research facilities (A) AAFCO (B) FDA (C) FTC (D) USDA

Which of the following agencies is responsible for approving new pet food ingredients (A) AAFCO *(B) FDA* (C) FTC (D) USDA

Which of the following agencies is responsible for approving new pet food ingredients (A) AAFCO (B) FDA (C) FTC (D) USDA

Which of the following animals are herbivores? (A) Dogs (B) Ferrets *(C) Prairie dogs* (D) Iguanas

Which of the following animals are herbivores? (A) Dogs (B) Ferrets (C) Prairie dogs (D) Iguanas

Which of the following are dorsal to the abdominal region (A) Cervical vertebrae (B) Thoracic vertebrae *(C) Lumbar vertebrae* (D) Sacral verebrae

Which of the following are dorsal to the abdominal region (A) Cervical vertebrae (B) Thoracic vertebrae (C) Lumbar vertebrae (D) Sacral verebrae

Which of the following are effects of hypothermia? (A) Increased metabolic rate (B) Decreased clotting time *(C) Cardiac dysfunction* (D) Increased peripheral blood flow

Which of the following are effects of hypothermia? (A) Increased metabolic rate (B) Decreased clotting time (C) Cardiac dysfunction (D) Increased peripheral blood flow

Which of the following are strict omnivores? *(A) Dogs* (B) Ferrets (C) Prairie dogs (D) Rabbits

Which of the following are strict omnivores? (A) Dogs (B) Ferrets (C) Prairie dogs (D) Rabbits

Which of the following behaviors is commonly associated with clinical signs of pain in dogs (A) Vocalization and increased appetite (B) Playful actions and excessive licking of the owners *(C) Panting, anorexia, and depression* (D) Increased attention to the environment

Which of the following behaviors is commonly associated with clinical signs of pain in dogs (A) Vocalization and increased appetite (B) Playful actions and excessive licking of the owners (C) Panting, anorexia, and depression (D) Increased attention to the environment

Which of the following bones is located where the spinal cord exits the body (A) Interparietal bones *(B) Occipital bone* (C) Parietal bones (D) Temporal bones

Which of the following bones is located where the spinal cord exits the body (A) Interparietal bones (B) Occipital bone (C) Parietal bones (D) Temporal bones

Which of the following conditions is a common sign of heart failure *(A) Tachypnea* (B) Bradypnea (C) Tachycardia (D) Bradycardia

Which of the following conditions is a common sign of heart failure (A) Tachypnea (B) Bradypnea (C) Tachycardia (D) Bradycardia

Which of the following described as seizures involving loss of consciousness with tonic-clonic whole body movements, possibly with salivation, urination, and defecation (A) Absence seizures (B) Focal seizures *(C) Generalized seizures* (D) Changes in eating habits

Which of the following described as seizures involving loss of consciousness with tonic-clonic whole body movements, possibly with salivation, urination, and defecation (A) Absence seizures (B) Focal seizures (C) Generalized seizures (D) Changes in eating habits

Which of the following describes a patient suffering from pyometra? (A) Hard, painful nipple, galactostasis (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures (C) In hard labor for 30-60 minutes with on new young produced *(D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydraiton, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia*

Which of the following describes a patient suffering from pyometra? (A) Hard, painful nipple, galactostasis (B) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, seizures (C) In hard labor for 30-60 minutes with on new young produced (D) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydraiton, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia

Which of the following diets is intended to be dispensed under the supervision of veterinarians in the context of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship *(A) Veterinary therapeutic* (B) Holistic (C) Raw (D) OTC

Which of the following diets is intended to be dispensed under the supervision of veterinarians in the context of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship (A) Veterinary therapeutic (B) Holistic (C) Raw (D) OTC

Which of the following does the pancreas produce (A) Oxytocin *(B) Glucagon* (C) Glycogen (D) Calcitonin

Which of the following does the pancreas produce (A) Oxytocin (B) Glucagon (C) Glycogen (D) Calcitonin

Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight gain, bradycardia, exercise intolerance, and lethargy in a dog? (A) Hyperadrenocorticism (B) Hypoadrenocorticism (C) Hyperthyroidism *(D) Hypothyroidism*

Which of the following exhibit coughing, fever, mucopurulent discharge? (A) Kennel cough (B) Canine parvovirus *(C) Canine distemper* (D) Infectious canine tracheobronchitis

Which of the following exhibit coughing, fever, mucopurulent discharge? (A) Kennel cough (B) Canine parvovirus (C) Canine distemper (D) Infectious canine tracheobronchitis

Which of the following is a common cause of tachycardia *(A) Hypoxia* (B) Hyperkalemia (C) Hypocalcemia (D) Toxin ingestion

Which of the following is a common cause of tachycardia (A) Hypoxia (B) Hyperkalemia (C) Hypocalcemia (D) Toxin ingestion

Which of the following is a false statement (A) Use minimal restraint with a cat to start the procedure *(B) Treat all cats the same when it comes to handling* (C) Use distraction techniques when restraining cats (D) Use towels to restrain cats, versus muzzles

Which of the following is a false statement (A) Use minimal restraint with a cat to start the procedure (B) Treat all cats the same when it comes to handling (C) Use distraction techniques when restraining cats (D) Use towels to restrain cats, versus muzzles

Which of the following is a sign of insulin overdose in treated diabetic patients? (A) Muscle wasting (B) Polyuria *(C) Severe lethargy and seizures* (D) Vomiting and halitosis

Which of the following is a sign of insulin overdose in treated diabetic patients? (A) Muscle wasting (B) Polyuria (C) Severe lethargy and seizures (D) Vomiting and halitosis

Which of the following is a technique to keep from joints becoming stiff (A) Cold compress (B) Coupage *(C) Passive range of motion* (D) Warm compress

Which of the following is a technique to keep from joints becoming stiff (A) Cold compress (B) Coupage (C) Passive range of motion (D) Warm compress

Which of the following is a technique used to help loosen purulent material within the pulmonary parenchyma (A) Cold compress *(B) Coupage* (C) Passive range of motion (D) Warm compress

Which of the following is a technique used to help loosen purulent material within the pulmonary parenchyma (A) Cold compress (B) Coupage (C) Passive range of motion (D) Warm compress

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease that is spread by fleas? (A) Borrelia burgdorferi (B) Rickettsia rickettsii (C) Ehrlichia *(D) Yersinia pestis*

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease that is spread by fleas? (A) Borrelia burgdorferi (B) Rickettsia rickettsii (C) Ehrlichia (D) Yersinia pestis

Which of the following is an acceptable method of making food more palatable to the pet *(A) Warming the food* (B) Adding onion salt to food (C) Heating food above body temperature (D) Adding warm milk to food

Which of the following is an acceptable method of making food more palatable to the pet (A) Warming the food (B) Adding onion salt to food (C) Heating food above body temperature (D) Adding warm milk to food

Which of the following is an appropriate method for restraining an animal that does not respond well to gentle words and handling? (A) Force patient down and proceed with procedure without full control (B) Recruit help from the owner for physical restraint (C) Running patient around until it is too tired to struggle *(D) Use chemical agents for restraint*

Which of the following is an essential amino acid? *(A) Argine* (B) Alanine (C) Asparagine (D) Aspartate

Which of the following is an essential amino acid? (A) Argine (B) Alanine (C) Asparagine (D) Aspartate

Which of the following is characterized as droopy eyelids, protruding nicitans, miosis? (A) Brachycephalic syndrome *(B) Horner wyndrome* (C) Wobbler syndrome (D) Vestibular syndrome

Which of the following is characterized as droopy eyelids, protruding nicitans, miosis? (A) Brachycephalic syndrome (B) Horner wyndrome (C) Wobbler syndrome (D) Vestibular syndrome

Which of the following is commonly seen in rabbits, in which the intestinal flora is disrupted (A) Coprophagy *(B) Dysbiosis* (C) Dystrophic calcification (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which of the following is commonly seen in rabbits, in which the intestinal flora is disrupted (A) Coprophagy (B) Dysbiosis (C) Dystrophic calcification (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which of the following is defined as the assessment of the patient through the tactile sense of one's hands and fingers? (A) Auscultation (B) Centrifugation (C) Mentation *(D) Palpation*

Which of the following is defined as the assessment of the patient through the tactile sense of one's hands and fingers? (A) Auscultation (B) Centrifugation (C) Mentation (D) Palpation

Which of the following is described as a transient alteration in consciousness, with or without external signs *(A) Absence seizures* (B) Focal seizures (C) Generalized seizures (D) Myoclonus

Which of the following is described as a transient alteration in consciousness, with or without external signs (A) Absence seizures (B) Focal seizures (C) Generalized seizures (D) Myoclonus

Which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae? (A) Brachycephalic syndrome (B) Horner syndrome *(C) Wobble syndrome* (D) Vestibular syndrome

Which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae? (A) Brachycephalic syndrome (B) Horner syndrome (C) Wobble syndrome (D) Vestibular syndrome

Which of the following is described as seizures involving specific parts of the body, many times without a loss of consciousness (A) Absence seizures *(B) Focal seizures* (C) Generalized seizures (D) Myoclonus

Which of the following is described as seizures involving specific parts of the body, many times without a loss of consciousness (A) Absence seizures (B) Focal seizures (C) Generalized seizures (D) Myoclonus

Which of the following is least useful when resuscitating a dog in shock? *(A) D5w* (B) Hetastarch (C) Hypertonic saline (D) Plasma-lyte 48

Which of the following is least useful when resuscitating a dog in shock? (A) D5w (B) Hetastarch (C) Hypertonic saline (D) Plasma-lyte 48

Which of the following is not generally a symptom of osteoarthritis in cats? (A) Changes in mobility (B) Changes in activity level (C) Changes in grooming *(D) Changes in eating habits*

Which of the following is not generally a symptom of osteoarthritis in cats? (A) Changes in mobility (B) Changes in activity level (C) Changes in grooming (D) Changes in eating habits

Which of the following is not used to determine a patient's dehydration status (A) Capillary refill time (B) Eye position *(C) Discharge in pinna* (D) PCV

Which of the following is not used to determine a patient's dehydration status (A) Capillary refill time (B) Eye position (C) Discharge in pinna (D) PCV

Which of the following is one of the most important components of the successful rearing of lambs (A) Establishment of a ram-lamb bond *(B) Establishment of a ewe-lamb bond* (C) Establishment of a lamb-lamb bond (D) Establishment of a ram-ewe bond

Which of the following is one of the most important components of the successful rearing of lambs (A) Establishment of a ram-lamb bond (B) Establishment of a ewe-lamb bond (C) Establishment of a lamb-lamb bond (D) Establishment of a ram-ewe bond

Which of the following is the act of manually providing movement of joints without muscle contraction in a repetitive manner? (A) Active range of motion *(B) Passive range of motion* (C) Proprioception (D) Stretching

Which of the following is the act of manually providing movement of joints without muscle contraction in a repetitive manner? (A) Active range of motion (B) Passive range of motion (C) Proprioception (D) Stretching

Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of severe hypertension? (A) Acute blindness *(B) Syncope* (C) Tachycardia (D) Weakness

Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of severe hypertension? (A) Acute blindness (B) Syncope (C) Tachycardia (D) Weakness

Which of the following is the most important first steps when a dyspneic patient presents to the veterinary hospital (A) Obtain thoracic radiographs (B) Obtain arterial blood gas *(C) Stabilize patient before performing any diagnostic testing* (D) Perform complete PE

Which of the following is the most important first steps when a dyspneic patient presents to the veterinary hospital (A) Obtain thoracic radiographs (B) Obtain arterial blood gas (C) Stabilize patient before performing any diagnostic testing (D) Perform complete PE

Which of the following is the responsibility of the vet and not the tech (A) Calculating fluid rate *(B) Order fluid type* (C) Initiating fluid therapy (D) Monitoring the infusion

Which of the following is the responsibility of the vet and not the tech (A) Calculating fluid rate (B) Order fluid type (C) Initiating fluid therapy (D) Monitoring the infusion

Which of the following is the series of joint, segment, whole-body movements used for locomotion? *(A) Gait* (B) Gallop (C) Stance (D) Stride

Which of the following is the series of joint, segment, whole-body movements used for locomotion? (A) Gait (B) Gallop (C) Stance (D) Stride

Which of the following is the shortest portion of the small intestine? (A) Cecum *(B) Duodenum* (C) Ileum (D Jejunum

Which of the following is the shortest portion of the small intestine? (A) Cecum (B) Duodenum (C) Ileum (D Jejunum

Which of the following is true of hamsters? (A) Male hamsters often attack newly introduced female hamsters (B) Hamsters live 4-5 years *(C) Female hamsters may hide their young in their cheek pouches, leading to death* (D) Best method of restraint is to pick them up by their tail

Which of the following is true of hamsters? (A) Male hamsters often attack newly introduced female hamsters (B) Hamsters live 4-5 years (C) Female hamsters may hide their young in their cheek pouches, leading to death (D) Best method of restraint is to pick them up by their tail

Which of the following methods of delivery fluids should not be used in severely dehydrated patients (A) Intraosseous fluid administration (B) Intravenous fluid administration *(C) SQ fluid administration* (D) Intraperitoneal fluid administration

Which of the following methods of delivery fluids should not be used in severely dehydrated patients (A) Intraosseous fluid administration (B) Intravenous fluid administration (C) SQ fluid administration (D) Intraperitoneal fluid administration

Which of the following might be a dysphoric or delirious animal experience because of opioid overdose? (A) Thrashing and yowling continuously (B) Claustrophobia *(C) Only rare response to soothing interaction* (D) Chewing on cage doors

Which of the following might be a dysphoric or delirious animal experience because of opioid overdose? (A) Thrashing and yowling continuously (B) Claustrophobia (C) Only rare response to soothing interaction (D) Chewing on cage doors

Which of the following needle sizes has the largest inside diameter *(A) 16 gauge* (B) 18 gauge (C) 20 gauge (D) 22 gauge

Which of the following needle sizes has the largest inside diameter (A) 16 gauge (B) 18 gauge (C) 20 gauge (D) 22 gauge

Which of the following term refers to passive, retrograde movement of ingested material to a level above the upper esophageal sphincter? (A) Expectoration (B) Hematemesis *(C) Regurgitation* (D) Vomiting

Which of the following term refers to passive, retrograde movement of ingested material to a level above the upper esophageal sphincter? (A) Expectoration (B) Hematemesis (C) Regurgitation (D) Vomiting

Which of the following terms is used to describe passing larger volumes of urine than normal? (A) Fomite (B) Poikuria *(C) Polyuria* (D) Vector

Which of the following terms is used to describe passing larger volumes of urine than normal? (A) Fomite (B) Poikuria (C) Polyuria (D) Vector

Which of the following treatments used to treat heartworm disease in dogs is a common microfilaricide treatment? (A) Thiacetarsamide (B) Melarsomine dihydrochloride *(C) Ivermectin* (D) All of the above

Which of the following treatments used to treat heartworm disease in dogs is a common microfilaricide treatment? (A) Thiacetarsamide (B) Melarsomine dihydrochloride (C) Ivermectin (D) All of the above

Which of the following type of uroliths are found in alkaline urine? *(A) Struvite uroliths* (B) Ammonium urate uroliths (C) Calcium oxalate uroliths (D) Cystine uroliths

Which of the following type of uroliths are found in alkaline urine? (A) Struvite uroliths (B) Ammonium urate uroliths (C) Calcium oxalate uroliths (D) Cystine uroliths

Which of the following types of cancer commonly arises form cartilage or bone? (A) Adenocarcinoma *(B) Sarcoma* (C) Lymphoma (D) Carcinoma

Which of the following types of cancer commonly arises form cartilage or bone? (A) Adenocarcinoma (B) Sarcoma (C) Lymphoma (D) Carcinoma

Which of the following types of fluids is used to replace intravascular volume (A) Hypertonic crystalloid *(B) Isotonic crystalloid* (C) Synthetic colloid (D) Whole blood

Which of the following types of fluids is used to replace intravascular volume (A) Hypertonic crystalloid (B) Isotonic crystalloid (C) Synthetic colloid (D) Whole blood

Which of the following vitamins is a form of vitamin D (A) Cobalamin *(B) Ergocalciferol* (C) Pyridoxine (D) Thiamin

Which of the following vitamins is a form of vitamin D (A) Cobalamin (B) Ergocalciferol (C) Pyridoxine (D) Thiamin

Which of the routes of injectable drug is not advised in dehydrated patients, especially in an emergency (A) IM (B) IO (C) IV *(D) SQ*

Which of the routes of injectable drug is not advised in dehydrated patients, especially in an emergency (A) IM (B) IO (C) IV (D) SQ

Which of these drugs is an antacid used to reduce acidity of the stomach *(A) Amphojel* (B) Misoprostol (C) Omeprazole (D) Sucralfate

Which of these drugs is an antacid used to reduce acidity of the stomach (A) Amphojel (B) Misoprostol (C) Omeprazole (D) Sucralfate

Which of these is an antiucler drug used to treat ulcers of the stomach and upper small intestine (A) Cimetidine (B) Fanmotidine (C) Ranitidine *(D) Sucralfate*

Which of these is an antiucler drug used to treat ulcers of the stomach and upper small intestine (A) Cimetidine (B) Fanmotidine (C) Ranitidine (D) Sucralfate

Which of these is common indicate of small bowel diarrhea? (A) Decreased volume of feces (B) Mucus in feces *(C) Normal frequency of bowel movements* (D) Tenesmus

Which of these is common indicate of small bowel diarrhea? (A) Decreased volume of feces (B) Mucus in feces (C) Normal frequency of bowel movements (D) Tenesmus

Which organism is responsible for ringworm in cattle *(A) Trichophyton verrucosum* (B) Microsporum gypseum (C) Epidermophyton floccusum (D) Microsporum canis

Which organism is responsible for ringworm in cattle (A) Trichophyton verrucosum (B) Microsporum gypseum (C) Epidermophyton floccusum (D) Microsporum canis

Which part of the gastrointestinal system is associated with melena (A) Involvement of the stomach *(B) Involvement of the jejunum or ileum* (C) involvement of the large intestine (D) Colitis

Which part of the gastrointestinal system is associated with melena (A) Involvement of the stomach (B) Involvement of the jejunum or ileum (C) involvement of the large intestine (D) Colitis

Which plane across the body divides it into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal (A) Sagittal plane *(B) Transverse plane* (C) Median plane (D) Dorsal plane

Which plane across the body divides it into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal (A) Sagittal plane (B) Transverse plane (C) Median plane (D) Dorsal plane

Which potent chemical is used for cold sterilization of hard instruments (A) Ethylene oxide (B) Formalin *(C) Glutaraldehyde* (D) Formaldehyde

Which potent chemical is used for cold sterilization of hard instruments (A) Ethylene oxide (B) Formalin (C) Glutaraldehyde (D) Formaldehyde

Which qualifies an individual as a credentialed veterinary technologist? *(A) 4 year bachelor of science in veterinary technology accredited by the AVMA* (B) Diploma from accredited high school (C) 4 year bachelor of science degree in animal science (D) Associate of science degree in veterinary technology

Which qualifies an individual as a credentialed veterinary technologist? (A) 4 year bachelor of science in veterinary technology accredited by the AVMA (B) Diploma from accredited high school (C) 4 year bachelor of science degree in animal science (D) Associate of science degree in veterinary technology

Which refers to a structure with a location that is closer to the crown of the tooth in relation to another structure (A) Palatal (B) Mesial *(C) Coronal* (D) Apical

Which refers to a structure with a location that is closer to the crown of the tooth in relation to another structure (A) Palatal (B) Mesial (C) Coronal (D) Apical

Which refers to excessive salivation? (A) Borborygmus (B) Dyschezia (C) Polyphagia *(D) Pytalism*

Which refers to excessive salivation? (A) Borborygmus (B) Dyschezia (C) Polyphagia (D) Pytalism

Which results in infertility and neonatal mortality in rabbits? (A) Coprophagy (B) Dysbiosis (C) Dystrophic calcification *(D) Vitamin A deficiency*

Which results in infertility and neonatal mortality in rabbits? (A) Coprophagy (B) Dysbiosis (C) Dystrophic calcification (D) Vitamin A deficiency

Which route may expose veterinary technicians to organisms that cause disease (A) Inhalation (B) Ingestion (C) Needle sticks *(D) All of the above*

Which route may expose veterinary technicians to organisms that cause disease (A) Inhalation (B) Ingestion (C) Needle sticks (D) All of the above

Which statement about cats is true *(A) Cats need more protein than dogs* (B) It is important to provide plenty of variety by buying different brands of food (C) Hairballs are a sign of illness (D) Giving liver as a treat can result in vitamin A deficiency

Which statement about cats is true (A) Cats need more protein than dogs (B) It is important to provide plenty of variety by buying different brands of food (C) Hairballs are a sign of illness (D) Giving liver as a treat can result in vitamin A deficiency

Which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false (A) Occurs without infection (B) Occurs when skin edges are held together in apposition *(C) Usually has some degree of suppuration* (D) Occurs with minimal scar formation

Which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false (A) Occurs without infection (B) Occurs when skin edges are held together in apposition (C) Usually has some degree of suppuration (D) Occurs with minimal scar formation

Which statement regarding vitamin supplementation is true *(A) Vitamin E level should be appropriate to the levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids in food* (B) Vitamin E can reverse cancer cachexia (C) Mega doses of vitamins are advised for dogs receiving commercial dry food diets (D) All of the above

Which statement regarding vitamin supplementation is true (A) Vitamin E level should be appropriate to the levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids in food (B) Vitamin E can reverse cancer cachexia (C) Mega doses of vitamins are advised for dogs receiving commercial dry food diets (D) All of the above

Which terms is used to describe tooth surface facing the lips (A) Rostral (B) Caudal (C) Lingual *(D) Vestibular*

Which terms is used to describe tooth surface facing the lips (A) Rostral (B) Caudal (C) Lingual (D) Vestibular

Which tests may be recommended for an equine patient that is experiencing upper airway complications (A) BAL (B) TTW *(C) MRI* (D) Pulmonary function testing

Which tests may be recommended for an equine patient that is experiencing upper airway complications (A) BAL (B) TTW (C) MRI (D) Pulmonary function testing

Which toxic plant would have an effect on the cat's kidney (A) Apricot seeds *(B) Easter lily* (C) Onion (D) Mistletoe

Which toxic plant would have an effect on the cat's kidney (A) Apricot seeds (B) Easter lily (C) Onion (D) Mistletoe

Which toxic plants would have an effect on the cardiovascular system? *(A) Oleander* (B) Marijuana (C) Morning glory (D) tobacco

Which toxic plants would have an effect on the cardiovascular system? (A) Oleander (B) Marijuana (C) Morning glory (D) tobacco

Which type of feeding is most physiologic and often safest route (A) IV (B) IO *(C) Oral* (D) SQ

Which type of feeding is most physiologic and often safest route (A) IV (B) IO (C) Oral (D) SQ

Which type of nutrition is defined as providing nutrients via IV *(A) Parentera*l (B) Enteral (C) Oral (D) Emergency

Which type of nutrition is defined as providing nutrients via IV (A) Parenteral (B) Enteral (C) Oral (D) Emergency

Which type of vertebrae are unique in that they form a single solid structure: (A) Cervical vertebrae (B) Thoracic vertebrae (C) Lumbar vertebrae *(D) Sacral vertebrae*

Which type of vertebrae are unique in that they form a single solid structure: (A) Cervical vertebrae (B) Thoracic vertebrae (C) Lumbar vertebrae (D) Sacral vertebrae

Which type of visit is not considered an outpatient service (A) Exam (B) Vaccination (C) Lab work *(D) Surgery*

Which type of visit is not considered an outpatient service (A) Exam (B) Vaccination (C) Lab work (D) Surgery

Which types of cells make up bone (A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteocytes (C) Osteoclasts *(D) All of the above*

Which types of cells make up bone (A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteocytes (C) Osteoclasts (D) All of the above

Which types of diabetes are more common in dogs (A) Insulin dependent (B) Type 1 (C) Non-insulin dependent *(D) Both A and B*

Which types of diabetes are more common in dogs (A) Insulin dependent (B) Type 1 (C) Non-insulin dependent (D) Both A and B

Which will heal through first intention? (A) Abscess (B) Degloving *(C) Simple laceration* (D) Puncture wound

Which will heal through first intention? (A) Abscess (B) Degloving (C) Simple laceration (D) Puncture wound

Which would a regurgitating patient show (A) Forceful contraction of abdomen and diaphragm (B) Restlessness (C) Salivation *(D) Undigested food in expelled substance*

Which would a regurgitating patient show (A) Forceful contraction of abdomen and diaphragm (B) Restlessness (C) Salivation (D) Undigested food in expelled substance

Which would be common in dogs experiencing anemia (A) Anorexia (B) Weakness (C) Tachypnea *(D) All of the above*

Which would be common in dogs experiencing anemia (A) Anorexia (B) Weakness (C) Tachypnea (D) All of the above

Which would contribute to geriatric vestibular syndrome? (A) Increased IO pressure *(B) Otitis media* (C) Coccidioides immitis (D) Histoiplasum capsulatum

Which would contribute to geriatric vestibular syndrome? (A) Increased IO pressure (B) Otitis media (C) Coccidioides immitis (D) Histoiplasum capsulatum

White muscle disease can be treated with (A) Selenium (B) Vitamin E (C) First cut of alfalfa with higher levels of protein *(D) Both a and b*

White muscle disease can be treated with (A) Selenium (B) Vitamin E (C) First cut of alfalfa with higher levels of protein (D) Both a and b

Why do tortoises require ultraviolet light in their habitat (A) Prevent vitamin A deficiency *(B) Promote cholecalciferol synthesis* (C) Reduce vitamin D level (D) Regulate body temperature

Why do tortoises require ultraviolet light in their habitat (A) Prevent vitamin A deficiency (B) Promote cholecalciferol synthesis (C) Reduce vitamin D level (D) Regulate body temperature

With exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ___ of their body weight *(A) 7%* (B) 15% (C) 25% (D) 40%

With exception of cats, most animals have a total blood volume equivalent to ___ of their body weight (A) 7% (B) 15% (C) 25% (D) 40%

With significant dehydration in a healthy patient, which would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC? *(A) Increased urine UG and increased PCV* (B) Increased urine SG and decreased PCV (C) Decreased urine SG and decreased PVC (D) Decreased urine SG and increased PCV

With significant dehydration in a healthy patient, which would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC? (A) Increased urine UG and increased PCV (B) Increased urine SG and decreased PCV (C) Decreased urine SG and decreased PVC (D) Decreased urine SG and increased PCV

Within a few ____ of ingesting high levels of sodium, normal dogs and cats easily excrete the excess in their urine *(A) Hours* (B) Days (C) Months (D) Weeks

Within a few ____ of ingesting high levels of sodium, normal dogs and cats easily excrete the excess in their urine (A) Hours (B) Days (C) Months (D) Weeks

Work of respiratory system can be divided into the following four parts. The movement of gases across the alveolar membrane is (A) Diffusion (B) Distribution (C) Perfusion *(D) Ventilation*

Work of respiratory system can be divided into the following four parts. The movement of gases across the alveolar membrane is (A) Diffusion (B) Distribution (C) Perfusion (D) Ventilation

You must give a dog 250 mg of a medication that comes in tablets labeled 100 mg each. How many tablets will you give? (A) 1 1/2 (B) 2 (C) 2 1/4 *(D) 2 1/2*

You must give a dog 250 mg of a medication that comes in tablets labeled 100 mg each. How many tablets will you give? (A) 1 1/2 (B) 2 (C) 2 1/4 (D) 2 1/2

____feet is known as the "kill zone" in cattle when considering restraint (A) 2-4 (B) 6-8 *(C) 10-12* (D) 12-14

____feet is known as the "kill zone" in cattle when considering restraint (A) 2-4 (B) 6-8 (C) 10-12 (D) 12-14

___is a highly fatal neurologic disease in horses, characterized by a stiff, stilted gait, hyperexcitabilty, seizure, coma (A) West nile *(B) Tetanus* (C) Equine degenerative myelopathy (D) Herpes

___is a highly fatal neurologic disease in horses, characterized by a stiff, stilted gait, hyperexcitabilty, seizure, coma (A) West nile (B) Tetanus (C) Equine degenerative myelopathy (D) Herpes

highly convoluted ____ extends from glomerular capsule to the connection with the connection duct (A) Nephron *(B) Renal tubule* (C) Ureter (D) Urethra

highly convoluted ____ extends from glomerular capsule to the connection with the connection duct (A) Nephron (B) Renal tubule (C) Ureter (D) Urethra

i general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats *(A) 5-7 days* (B) 1-3 days (C) 48-72 hours (D) 28 days

i general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats (A) 5-7 days (B) 1-3 days (C) 48-72 hours (D) 28 days

inflammation, infected, sepsis, neoplasia, and reaction to transfusion of blood products are common causes of (A) Hyperthermia (B) Hypothermia *(C) Pyrexia* (D) Pyridoxine

inflammation, infected, sepsis, neoplasia, and reaction to transfusion of blood products are common causes of (A) Hyperthermia (B) Hypothermia (C) Pyrexia (D) Pyridoxine

loss of body water that has a solute concentration equal to that which remains in the compartment is *(A) Isotonic dehydration* (B) Hypovolemia (C) Hypotonic dehydration (D) Hypertonic dehydration

loss of body water that has a solute concentration equal to that which remains in the compartment is (A) Isotonic dehydration (B) Hypovolemia (C) Hypotonic dehydration (D) Hypertonic dehydration

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