Section 9: Animal Nursing: Animal Care, Emergency Care, Pocket Pets/Laboratory Animals, Medical Nursing

Which of the following causes a proliferative otitis externa in rabbits? a. Psoroptes cuniculi b. Cheyletiella parasitovorax c. Encephalitozoan cuniculi d. Cuterebra cuniculi

* a. Psoroptes cuniculi Psoroptes cuniculi, an ear mite, causes a proliferative otitis externa in rabbits.

What is a common cause of gastric ulcers in ferrets? a. Clostridium difficile b. Helicobacter mustelae c. Herpes B virus d. Ferret coronavirus

* b. Helicobacter mustelae Helicobacter mustelae is a common cause of gastric ulcers in ferrets.

The breed of dog frequently affected by entropion is the a. Basset hound b. Samoyed c. Shar-Pei d. Saint Bernard

* c. Shar-Pei Entropion, or infolding of the eyelid, is frequently seen in the Shar-Pei.

A dog's ideal weight is 20 kg and its actual weight is 30 kg. If each day you fed the dog 200 kcal less than what it would take for the dog to maintain its ideal weight, how long would it take for the animal to reach its ideal weight? - 3 weeks - 3 months - 6 months - 1 year

1 year An animal will derive approximately 7700 kcal from 1 kg of adipose tissue. (10 kg × 7700 kcal/kg = 77,000 kcal needed to lose 77,000 kcal/200 kcal lost a day = 385 days)

For a disinfectant cleaner to be registered by EPA as hospital strength, it must be effective at its recommended dilution in killing ______ of the targeted pathogens. - 75% - 90% - 100% - 95%

100%

A healthy, adult horse can drink up to ______ of water a day. - 5 gallons - 12 gallons - 25 quarts - 10 quarts

12 gallons

Orphaned kittens no longer need stimulation for urination and defecation at what age? - Kittens do not need external stimulation for urination and defecation - 4 to 7 days - 10 to 14 days - 16 to 21 days

16 to 21 days

A dishwasher and a good quality detergent can be used for disinfecting nondisposable food and water bowls. The recommended temperature to kill most organisms is - 100° F - 180° F - 212° F - 220° F

180° F

Bleach diluted ______ has consistently been found to be a good disinfectant for both routine use and for use during a disease outbreak. - 1:12 with alcohol - 1:50 with alcohol - 1:2 with water - 1:32 with water

1:32 with water If the bleach is not properly diluted, it can be irritating to mucous membranes. There should be no bleach odor detectable with the proper dilution.

A llama's stomach is functionally similar to, but anatomically different from, a true ruminant stomach. How many compartments does a llama's stomach have? - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5

3 A llama's stomach has three compartments, whereas ruminants, like sheep, goats, and cattle, have four.

To collect blood from the cephalic vein of a dog or cat, you should place the animal in - A sitting or sternal position and lift the head to expose the ventral aspect of the neck - Lateral recumbency and steady the uppermost back leg - A sitting or sternal position and steady a front leg - Lateral recumbency and lift the uppermost rear leg out of the way to expose the medial surface of the other rear leg

A sitting or sternal position and steady a front leg The cephalic vein is on the cranial surface of the front leg.

What is not commonly associated with food allergies? - Bilateral otitis externa - Diarrhea - A sudden change in diet - A nonseasonal pruritus

A sudden change in diet On the average, animals have been on a diet for 2 years before developing a food allergy to that food.

d.If the obstruction is not relieved, the cat will die.

A. Cats must always be sedated to have a urinary catheter passed.

d.Ear vein

A. The medullary cavity of the femur can accept large volumes of fluid.

d.The chest area

A. The neck in the dog often has extra skin, making the skin tent test inaccurate in this area.

d.Fracture, prolapsed eye, minor burn

A. Unconsciousness, dyspnea, abscesses

d.Does not vary with the ventricles and is out of alignment with the atria

A. Varies in a regular manner with every breath

d.Pink

A. White

For large-breed dogs, in addition to a genetic predisposition, research has also incriminated ______ in obesity. - A high percent of the calories in the diet from protein - A high percent of the calories in the diet from carbohydrates - A high percent of the calories in the diet from fat - An energy-dense food provided to puppies

An energy-dense food provided to puppies

Nutrient content as means - Analysis after water has been added - Analysis of nutrient after moisture has been removed - Nutrient content of canned foods only - Nutrient analysis of dry foods only

Analysis of nutrient after moisture has been removed Used to make direct comparison with products of variable moisture content Diet recommendation for diabetic patients is - Foods that are high in fat for weight gain - Foods that are high in sugar for energy - Foods that are high in fiber for slow release of nutrients - Foods that are high in moisture for compensatory hydration *** Foods that are high in fiber for slow release of nutrients Aids in maintaining consistent glucose levels

d.4 to 6 seconds

B. 1 to 2 seconds

d.1320 ml

B. 20 × 132 = 2640/24 = 110 ml/hr

d.Necktie

B. A metal chain may injure the animal and is difficult to apply.

d.A swelling usually observed on the carpus or tarsus

B. A neurologic abnormality

d.Do nothing; no further treatment is required if the bleeding is not excessive.

B. Apply a pressure bandage over the client's original bandage.

d.Propofol and isoflurane

B. Barbiturate anesthetic

d.Prevent any contractile activity of the cardiac cells temporarily

B. Cause the cardiac cells to depolarize and then repolarize in a uniform manner

d.Tell the client that the dog may have eaten garbage and to call the hospital in the morning if the animal is not feeling better.

B. Tell the client to immediately bring the dog in for examination.

d.Apply direct pressure to the wound.

B. Tie the mouth securely closed with your shoelace.

d.Use a tourniquet to apply pressure proximal to the bleeding.

B. Use a blood pressure cuff inflated to 30 mm Hg above systolic pressure proximal to the bleeding.

d.Tachycardia

B. Vasoconstriction occurs in shock.

d.Keep the patient quiet.

B. Warm compresses may increase circulation and worsen the epistaxis (nosebleed)

The "shepherd's crook" is used around the - Front leg - Chest - Back leg - Neck

Back leg Using a crook anywhere else can harm the animal.

To avoid abomasal bloat in calves, milk replacer must - Be low in protein - Be fed at body temperature - Be well mixed - Contain antibiotics

Be well mixed Poorly mixed milk replacer contributes to bloat in preweaned calves.

When restraining a large parrot, be most careful of its - Beak - Wings - Talons - Spurs

Beak Parrots may bite.

Cattle have a visual blind spot located - Off their shoulder points - Behind their rear - Directly in front of their nose - Back from the level of their ears

Behind their rear Cattle have wide-angle vision and can see behind themselves without turning their heads, except for an area directly behind their rear.

Up to how much blood could you safely take from your 360-g rat when doing a venipuncture? a. 18 to 36 ml b. 1.8 to 3.5 ml c. 1.0 ml d. 0.35 ml

b. 1.8 to 3.5 ml The general rule of thumb is that 0.5% to 1% of the body weight can be safely taken. The lower range is safer. More specific rules apply for each species.

Hospitalized patients that require nutritional support are those that have lost ___ of their body weight. a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%

b. 10%

What is the approximate degree of dehydration in a patient that shows increased skin turgor, prolonged capillary refill time, dry mucous membranes, and eyes sunken into the orbits? a. 0.5% to 1% b. 10% to 12% c. 2% to 3% d. 5% to 6%

b. 10% to 12%

Puppies are expected to gain a. 50% of their birth weight in the first week of life b. 10% to 20% of their birth weight in the first week of life c. 1 to 2 lb daily for the first week of life d. 1 to 2 lb in the first few weeks of life

b. 10% to 20% of their birth weight in the first week of life Puppies should gain 10% to 20% of their birth weight in the first week of life.

What are the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate of a cow? a. 100° F, 30/min, 50/min b. 101.5° F, 60/min, 20/min c. 102.5° F, 30/min, 50/min d. 102.5° F, 60/min, 20/min

b. 101.5° F, 60/min, 20/min

Plaster of paris-type casting material can bear weight in approximately a. 2 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 36 hours

b. 12 hours

How long do platelets survive in stored fresh blood? a. 24 hours b. 12 hours c. 2 hours d. 1 hour

b. 12 hours Platelets survive in stored blood for up to 12 hours.

The hemoglobin level of a normal adult dog is a. 12% to 18% b. 12 to 18 g/dl c. 100 to 120 g/dl d. 20% to 80%

b. 12 to 18 g/dl

How much urine does an average adult cat normally produce in 24 hours? a. 5 ml/kg b. 15 ml/kg c. 30 ml/kg d. 45 ml/kg

b. 15 ml/kg

When taking body temperature via the ear or the axilla, the temperature obtained is usually assumed to be a. 10 degrees lower than the rectal temperature b. 2 degrees lower than the rectal temperature c. The same as the rectal temperature d. Of no relation to the rectal temperature

b. 2 degrees lower than the rectal temperature Rectal temperature is considered to be 2 degrees higher than peripheral body temperature.

A client wishes to get a pet hamster but wants to know how long it is expected to live. You tell her that the average lifespan for hamsters is about a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

b. 2 years Hamsters live an average of 18 to 24 months but can live as long as 3 years.

The gestation periods, estrous cycle, and litter size of gerbils, respectively, are about a. 24 days, 4 to 5 days, and 7 to 9 young b. 24 days, 4 to 5 days, and 4 to 5 young c. 21 days, 1 to 2 days, and 4 to 5 young d. 16 days, 4 to 5 days, and 4 to 5 young

b. 24 days, 4 to 5 days, and 4 to 5 young Gerbils have a gestation period of 24 days, an estrous cycle of 4 to 5 days, and an average litter size of 4 to 5, although they may have from 2 to 9 young in a litter.

For accuracy, a central venous pressure reading should be taken at least a. 2 times b. 3 times c. 10 times d. 5 times

b. 3 times Three readings are taken and averaged for the final central venous pressure measurement.

How much water does a 3.5-kg adult rabbit drink a day? a. 100 ml b. 350 ml c. 700 ml d. 1000 ml

b. 350 ml Normal, nonlactating rabbits usually drink about 100 ml/kg of body weight. Thus a 3.5-kg rabbit drinks about 350 ml of water a day.

The PCV of a normal adult dog is a. 10% to 21% b. 37% to 55% c. 10 to 21 g/dl d. 35 to 55 g/dl

b. 37% to 55%

Which of the following is the maximum length of time that a compression bandage should be left on? a. 1/2 hour b. 4 hours c. 72 hours d. 1 week

b. 4 hours After 4 hours, venous return will be compromised.

You are to give a gerbil a combination of drugs before anesthetic induction in a chamber. Which of the following drugs should not be used? a. Diazepam b. Acepromazine c. Atropine d. Telazol

b. Acepromazine Because certain strains of gerbils (20% to 40%) are prone to refl ex, stereotypic, epileptiform seizures, and because acepromazine can lower the seizure threshold, it is better to avoid this as part of the preanesthetic protocol.

Which of these agents should not be used to control blood flow from a nail that was cut too short? a. Styptic powder b. Alcohol c. Silver nitrate d. Cornstarch

b. Alcohol Alcohol prolongs bleeding time.

Psittacosis (ornithosis) is a chlamydial disease that people can develop from contact with infected animals. What species is most likely to transmit psittacosis to people? a. Ferret b. Cockatiel c. Llama d. Horse

b. Cockatiel Psittacosis is primarily an avian respiratory disease, but it can also infect people.

Equine infectious anemia is diagnosed by a. Fecal examination b. Coggins test c. Blood culture d. Bangs test

b. Coggins test

A client calls to say that her horse is sweated up, keeps looking at his belly, and is trying to roll; the veterinarian will most likely find that the horse is suffering from a. Tetanus b. Colic c. Strangles d. Epistaxis

b. Colic Colic has many causative factors, but it usually always manifests in some form of mild to severe abdominal pain.

A wet-to-dry bandage is best for what type of wounds? a. Deep lacerations b. Contaminated wounds that need to be debrided c. Abscesses d. Healing wounds with good granulation tissue

b. Contaminated wounds that need to be debrided Wet-to-dry bandages debride necrotic tissue and do not disrupt delicate granulation tissue.

How often should controlled substances be inventoried? a. Monthly b. Continuously, with use c. Annually d. Every other month

b. Continuously, with use

When taking a respiration rate, a. Count inspiration and expiration as two breaths. b. Count inspiration and expiration as one breath. c. Listen to the expirations only. d. Listen to the inspirations only.

b. Count inspiration and expiration as one breath. Inspiration and expiration should be monitored and counted together as one breath.

Of the breeds listed, the breed of dog most commonly affected with intervertebral disk disease is the a. Dalmatian b. Dachshund c. Great Dane d. Irish setter

b. Dachshund The dachshund, a chondroplastic breed, is commonly affected with intervertebral disk disease.

Oversupplementation of vegetable oils can result in a. Increase in serum nitrogen b. Decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K c. Greasy coat d. Predisposition to autoimmune disease

b. Decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K Fat-soluble vitamins

a. Increase in calories b. Decrease in fat, increase in fiber c. Addition of table scraps d. Decrease in fiber

b. Decrease in fat, increase in fiber Fewer calories are required once growth is complete, and fiber is beneficial for GI function.

How deep should you scrape the skin for a fungal culture? a. Surface scraping only b. Deep scraping after surgical scrub c. Deep scraping with no skin preparation d. Surface scraping down to bleeding dermis with no skin preparation

b. Deep scraping after surgical scrub Surgical scrub removes surface contaminants, and a deep scraping limits culturing of surface contaminants.

What is not one of the common syndromes seen in rabbits with pasteurellosis? a. Upper respiratory infection b. Diarrhea c. Torticollis d. Abscesses

b. Diarrhea Diarrhea is not one of the common syndromes seen in rabbits with pasteurellosis. Those syndromes include upper respiratory infection, torticollis, abscesses, pneumonia, and septicemia.

What drug cannot be given IM? a. Penicillin G procaine, an antibiotic b. Doxorubicin hydrochloride (Adriamycin; chemotherapeutic drug) c. Polysulfated glycosaminoglycan (Adequan; arthritis treatment) d. Dexamethasone (Decadron Phosphate; anti inflammatory drug)

b. Doxorubicin hydrochloride (Adriamycin; chemotherapeutic drug) Adriamycin is caustic to tissues.

The breed of pig that is red is the a. Berkshire b. Duroc c. Yorkshire d. Landrace

b. Duroc

Which of these tapeworms uses people as intermediate hosts and causes the disease known as hydatid disease ? a. Taenia pisiformis b. Echinococcus granulosus c. Dipylidium caninum d. Taenia solium

b. Echinococcus granulosus Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that can infect people who ingest the ova. The person becomes the intermediate host, and the cysts that form can cause space-occupying lesions that can be fatal.

What sling is used to stabilize the coxofemoral joint? a. Velpeau b. Ehmer c. Arm d. Robert Jones

b. Ehmer

The coccidia of the rabbit is a. Psoroptes b. Eimeria c. Aspiculuris d. Otodectes

b. Eimeria

Which of the following is the least desirable method of warming a recumbent patient? a. Instant-heat pads b. Electric heating pad c. Wrapped hot water bottles d. Infrared lamps

b. Electric heating pad Electrical heating pads are not recommended unless the animal is to be under constant, dedicated supervision, because burns from pressure points and electrical fluctuations may occur.

Agents used to induce vomiting are called a. Pyrethrins b. Emetics c. Sulfonamides d. Diuretics

b. Emetics

What breed of dog is particularly susceptible to heat stroke? a. Beagle b. English bulldog c. Italian greyhound d. Schipperke

b. English bulldog The English bulldog, because of respiratory difficulty, is especially prone to heat stroke.

For what disease is the Coggins test used in diagnosis? a. Brucellosis b. Equine infectious anemia c. Tuberculosis d. Bovine leukemia

b. Equine infectious anemia Equine infectious anemia is diagnosed by blood samples and the Coggins test.

What organism causes diamond skin disease in pigs? a. Transmissible gastroenteritis virus b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae c. Haemophilus suis d. Bordetella bronchiseptica

b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Diamond skin disease of swine, including potbellied pigs, is caused by the bacterium Erysipelothrix .

Which disease is the result of a blood parasite infection that causes anemia in cats? a. FIV b. FIA c. FIP d. Malaria

b. FIA Haemobartonella is the parasite that causes feline infectious anemia (FIA).

Bacterins are commonly used to vaccinate animals against all of the following except a. Blackleg b. Feline distemper c. Leptospirosis d. Borreliosis

b. Feline distemper Feline distemper is a parvoviral disease; the others are bacterial diseases, which can be prevented by using a bacterin.

Splenic hyperplasia is commonly seen in which of the following? a. Guinea pig b. Ferret c. Rabbit d. Gerbil

b. Ferret Ferrets often exhibit splenic hyperplasia.

The term pyrexia refers to a. Weakness b. Fever c. Incoordination d. Paralysis

b. Fever Pyrexia is a medical term for "fever."

The species that does not have a fertile postpartum estrus is the a. Mouse b. Hamster c. Rat d. Gerbil

b. Hamster Hamsters do not have a fertile postpartum estrus. The Syrian hamster comes into estrus 2 to 18 days after weaning, whereas Chinese hamsters do so 4 days after weaning. Gerbils, rats, and mice have a postpartum estrus of about 24 hours.

The gland of mice and rats that secretes porphyrin in the tears is a. Hibernating gland b. Harderian gland c. Thymus gland d. Lacrimal gland

b. Harderian gland The harderian gland is a red-brown gland found caudal to the eyeball and is larger than the eyeball. It secretes a lipid and red porphyrin rich secretion that lubricates the eye and lids. It may help determine pineal diurnal rhythms in the neonate. When stressed or during illness, the red tears overflow and stain the face and nose.

The two most common agents involved in feline respiratory disease complex for which vaccines exist are a. Papovavirus and reovirus b. Herpesvirus and calicivirus c. Calicivirus and myxovirus d. Herpesvirus and myxovirus

b. Herpesvirus and calicivirus Herpesvirus and calicivirus are the most common agents associated with feline respiratory diseases.

It is difficult to accurately convert the drug dosage used for cats and dogs to lab animal species because the latter have a a. Low basal metabolic rate b. High basal metabolic rate relative to body surface area c. Low basal metabolic rate relative to body mass d. Higher core temperature

b. High basal metabolic rate relative to body surface area The metabolic rate of laboratory animals is rapid relative to their body surface area. The dose that lightly sedates one animal may heavily anesthetize a cage mate.

Which statement concerning zoonotic diseases is this true? a. Tuberculosis is never transmitted from dogs to people. b. Histoplasmosis is seldom transmitted from dogs to people. c. Animals with toxoplasmosis are always visibly ill. d. Blastomycosis occurs in reptiles and amphibians only.

b. Histoplasmosis is seldom transmitted from dogs to people. Histoplasmosis is seldom transmitted from dogs to people.

When two inbred strains of mice are bred, the offspring are called a. Outbred b. Hybrid c. Knockout d. Transgenic

b. Hybrid

The accepted abbreviation for the intracardiac route of drug administration is a. PO b. IC c. IV d. IM

b. IC The accepted abbreviation for the intramuscular route of drug administration is a. PO b. IC c. IV d. IM *** d. IM The accepted abbreviation for the intravenous route of drug administration is a. PO b. IC c. IV d. IM *** c. IV

Why are intranasal vaccines so effective against respiratory diseases? a. They kill all viruses as they are inhaled. b. Immunoglobulin A is produced at the site of virus entry. c. Given intranasally, they work with nasal mucus to increase protection. d. It is much easier to give them intranasally than subcutaneously or IM.

b. Immunoglobulin A is produced at the site of virus entry. Immunoglobulin A is formed in the mucous membranes of the nasal passages; as a result, it quickly produces immunity

A healthy adult rat recovers ___ from an episode of sialodacryoadenitis. a. In approximately 1 month b. In approximately 1 week c. Immediately d. Not at all

b. In approximately 1 week Healthy adults usually shed the sialodacryoadenitis virus in about 1 week only and show a complete clinical recovery in 1 to 2 weeks. An adult may occasionally have permanent eye damage.

Which of the following is not a symptom of hypostatic pneumonia? a. Fast and frequent shallow breathing b. Increased respiratory effort c. Moist noises when breathing d. Nonproductive cough

b. Increased respiratory effort Hypostatic pneumonia is the pooling of blood and a consequent decrease in the viability of the dependent lung. Most at risk are the old and sick patients in lateral recumbency.

One clinical sign of hyperthermia is a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased respiratory rate c. Decreased temperature d. Increased urine output

b. Increased respiratory rate The other signs indicate hypothermia.

What group reviews animal research protocols to be sure that the methods of care and use are appropriate and in compliance with federal and institutional guidelines? a. American Association for Laboratory Animal Science b. Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee c. American Humane Society d. American Veterinary Medical Association

b. Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee

For subcutaneous administration of fluids, the fluids are preferred to be a. Hypertonic b. Isotonic c. Hypotonic d. Supertonic

b. Isotonic Only isotonic solutions can be properly absorbed when given subcutaneously.

What occurs in an animal with pregnancy toxemia? a. Hyperglycemia b. Ketosis c. Hyperadrenocorticism d. Pyometra

b. Ketosis Ketosis occurs when an animal has pregnancy toxemia.

A benzoyl-peroxide shampoo is used to a. Clean and groom the dog on a regular basis b. Kill bacteria and flush the hair follicles c. Replace the oil in dogs with dry skin d. Remove heavy grease on dogs with Cushing disease

b. Kill bacteria and flush the hair follicles Benzoyl-peroxide shampoo is too harsh for regular grooming but does flush organisms out of the hair follicles. Tar shampoos are preferred for their degreasing attributes.

What anatomical structure is similar in rodents and horses? a. Gallbladder b. Large cecum c. Carnassial teeth d. Rumen

b. Large cecum Horses and rodents have similar digestive tracts, with a large cecum

The breed of chicken known for its white eggs is the a. Rhode Island red b. Leghorn c. White Plymouth rock d. New Hampshire

b. Leghorn The Leghorn lays white eggs, whereas the other three breeds lay brown eggs.

What disease is transmissible from horses to humans? a. Toxoplasmosis b. Leptospirosis c. Cryptococcosis d. Brucellosis

b. Leptospirosis Leptospira infection (Leptospirosis) is a bacterial disease associated with dogs, livestock (including horses), rodents, and wildlife.

What canine bacterial disease can be transmitted through the air by aerosolization of urine? a. Infectious hepatitis b. Leptospirosis c. Parvovirus infection d. Salmonellosis

b. Leptospirosis Leptospirosis is a renal disease. The bacteria are found in the urine of an infected animal.

The feeding tube used in gavage is measured to equal a distance from the a. Mouth to the base of the trachea b. Lips to the eighth rib c. Lips to the last lumbar vertebra d. Lips to the end of the duodenum

b. Lips to the eighth rib This distance places the tip of the feeding tube in the stomach.

Ringtail in rats is most commonly caused by what condition? a. Streptococcus b. Low humidity c. Mycoplasma d. Wet environment

b. Low humidity Ringtail, an avascular necrosis in rats, is caused by humidity less than 50%.

Feeding an animal raw egg whites would put the animal at risk of a(n) - Iron deficiency - Vitamin E deficiency - Biotin deficiency - Protein deficiency

Biotin deficiency Avidin in egg whites will bind to biotin, making it unavailable.

Because of their bellows-like breathing, what species should be held loosely if grasped around the thorax? - Birds - Ferrets - Cats - Hamsters

Birds The lungs of birds cannot inflate if the thorax is grasped tightly.

A nonslip knot or hitch that is safe to place around an animal's neck is the - Bowline - Halter tie - Clove hitch - Sheet bend

Bowline

d.Blood pressure estimation based on pulse strength

C. Blood pressure measurement using an arterial catheter hooked to a transducer

d.Weak femoral pulses

C. Capillary refill time under 1 second

d.Intraosseous

C. Cephalic

d.Attempt resuscitation; transport the pet to the hospital if attempts at resuscitation are unsuccessful.

C. Close the dog's mouth and attempt mouth-to-nose resuscitation and chest compressions; immediately transport the pet to the hospital

d.Use of antibiotic cream after flushing

C. Corticosteroid administration to prevent inflammation

d.Colloids

C. Dextrose

d.Half the intravenous dosage

C. Double the intravenous dosage

d.Organophosphate poisoning

C. Epileptic seizure

d.Excessive amount of muscular contractions

C. Excessively high respiratory rate

d.Eclampsia does not result in elevated body temperature.

C. Heat produced through muscle movement

d. Intravenous catheters

C. Heating pad

d.Dextrose

C. Hetastarch

d.Heart rate

C. Hydration status

d.Take note of the amperage of the lamp.

C. Immediately disconnect the plug of the lamp cord from the wall socket.

d.Rub the effected area with snow.

C. Immerse the effected area in lukewarm water.

d.Intravenous

C. Intramuscular

d.Intraperitoneal

C. Intraosseous administration of fluids (injection into the marrow cavity of a large bone) is the only method listed that allows rapid administration of large fluid volumes.

d.Per os

C. Intraperitoneal injection

d.Immediately start infusion of intravenous fluids.

C. Keep the animal quiet, and prevent it from injuring itself.

d.Ethylene glycol

C. Kerosene

d.Noncontributory to a diagnosis

C. Lower than the peripheral PCV

d.Measure to the pharynx.

C. Measure to the medial canthus of the eye.

d.Ambu bag

C. Otoscope

d.Pleural space disease

C. Pleural space disease

d.Pressure in the thoracic cavity is constant as animal breathes in and out.

C. Pressure in the thoracic cavity is greater than atmospheric pressure.

d.Ventral aspect of the foreleg where it meets the body

C. Proximal to the stifle at the caudal aspect of the leg.

d.Severe skin damage

C. Pulmonary contusion may lead to pulmonary edema, which is a contraindication to rapid fluid therapy.

d.More than 1 hour of vigorous contractions with no pup or kitten produced

C. Pups and kittens normally take longer than 5 minutes to traverse the birth canal.

An all-meat diet will cause a deficiency in - Iron - Calcium - Zinc - Magnesium

Calcium Meat without bones has very little Ca++. The high phosphorus content of meat will cause a mobilization of Ca++ from bones, eventually to the point that they will become so fragile they will fracture just from the weight of the animal.

Alfalfa is a palatable source of protein for herbivores. In what macromineral is alfalfa also abundant? - Cobalt - Calcium - Zinc - Iron

Calcium The others are microminerals.

Which of the following would be most detrimental to feed a growing puppy? - An over-the-counter multivitamin - Multivitamin tablet - Vitamin C tablet - Calcium supplement

Calcium supplement Remodeling of bones is a necessary component of growth in a puppy. Excess calcium will prevent the necessary breakdown of bones and lead to bone deformities.

If you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals? - Cows, weaned heifers or steers, calves - Weaned heifers or steers, calves, cows - Calves, cows, weaned heifers or steers - Calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows

Calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows The risk of spreading disease is reduced by visiting the stock in order, from youngest to oldest.

Of the caged birds listed, which one has the least tolerance for handling? - Cockatiels - Canaries - Parrots - Conures

Canaries The canary is typically the most affected by handling, although the other birds can also have an adverse reaction to rough treatment.

Feline distemper is caused by the same type of organism as what canine disease? - Canine distemper - Canine parvovirus - Parainfluenza - Adenovirus type 2

Canine parvovirus Feline distemper (feline panleukopenia) is caused by a parvovirus similar to the canine parvovirus.

What nutrient represents the greatest fraction of dairy cattle diets after weaning and is essential to optimizing milk production? - Minerals - Vitamins - Carbohydrates - Protein

Carbohydrates

What nutrient makes up the greatest part of most dog rations and supplies energy? - Protein - Fat - Carbohydrates - Vitamins and minerals

Carbohydrates Carbohydrates supply most of the energy in the diet.

Taurine and L-carnitine have been found to aid - Inappetence - Dysphagia - Cardiac muscle function - Temperament

Cardiac muscle function Significant amino acids and proteins for muscle function

Why should you not feed dog food to a cat? - Cats have a lower requirement for essential fatty acids than dogs. - Cats have a lower requirement for arginine than dogs. - Cats have a higher requirement for essential carbohydrates than dogs. - Cats have a higher requirement for taurine than dogs.

Cats have a higher requirement for taurine than dogs. Cats have higher requirements for essential fatty acids and arginine than dogs, and there are no essential carbohydrates for cats or dogs.

Llamas, like true ruminants, can break down what feed constituent into short-chained fatty acids with the assistance of bacteria and protozoa? - Cellulose - Water - Calcium - Phosphorus

Cellulose Ruminants convert cellulose into energy through a process of fermentation.

The knot or hitch used to secure a rope to a vertical bar without slippage is the - Clove hitch - Halter tie - Half hitch - Bowline

Clove hitch A clove hitch will not slip, even when one end is pulled.

For good sanitation, outdoor runs should have floors constructed of - Dirt - Grass - Concrete - Wood

Concrete Most outdoor kennels have floors made of concrete or some other impervious material.

d.Pentastarch

D. Pentastarch is a colloid. All of the other solutions listed are crystalloids.

d.Placing the animal in a sitting position

D. Placing the animal in a sitting position

d.Intravenous and subcutaneous

D. Potassium can be administered both intravenously and at no more than 30 mEq/L subcutaneous without causing pain to the patient.

d.Profuse diarrhea

D. Profuse diarrhea

d.Take radiographs of the fracture.

D. Radiographs are not a first-aid measure and should be taken only when wounds are cleaned and when the patient's condition is stable.

d.Rat poison exposure

D. Rat poison exposure Petechiae are small pinpoint areas of hemorrhage. They indicate a blood clotting disorder.

d.Rectal temperature

D. Rectal temperature

d.Seizure

D. Seizure

d.Splint the leg, if possible, and immediately bring the pet to the clinic.

D. Splint the leg, if possible, and immediately bring the pet to the clinic.

d.Swollen soft tissue from bruising caused by trauma

D. Swollen soft tissue from bruising caused by trauma

d.Tachycardia

D. Tachycardia

d.Perform the Heimlich maneuver; if unsuccessful, prepare the patient for tracheotomy.

D. The Heimlich maneuver is used to relieve upper airway obstruction; if unsuccessful, a tracheotomy will be necessary.

d.Femoral artery

D. The femoral artery is the largest superficial blood vessel used to palpate the pulse, and it is usually easy to feel.

d.Weight

D. The patient's weight does not reveal the seriousness of its condition.

d.Thrombocytopenia

D. Thrombocytopenia

d.Through-the-needle catheter

D. Through-the-needle catheter

d.Urine output

D. Urine output gives us an indication of the amount of water the body is eliminating through the kidneys and thus can be used to monitor fluid input.

d.Withdrawal of the foot and vocalizing

D. Withdrawal of the foot and vocalizing

Of the cattle listed, which is most likely to be docile? - Dairy bull - Beef bull - Dairy cow - Beef cow

Dairy cow Dairy cows are usually accustomed to handling and do not react as the other three may.

In hand-cleaning equipment after surgery, the degree of cleanliness is most influenced by the - Contact time with the cleaner - Degree of mechanical friction - Thoroughness of subsequent rinsing - Temperature of the wash water

Degree of mechanical friction Instruments must be wiped or scrubbed for optimal cleaning.

Low environmental humidity puts neonatal puppies and kittens at risk for - Chilling - Dehydration - Diarrhea - Retardation

Dehydration Dry air is dehydrating.

Swine must have access to drinking water at all times. If deprived of water for an extended period, they may - Develop sodium chloride toxicity - Become hyperactive - Begin to bite the tail of other pigs in the same pen - Develop potassium deficiency

Develop sodium chloride toxicity With water deprivation, sodium accumulation can lead to convulsions and death. Affected pigs should be rehydrated slowly over a period of several hours.

The guaranteed analysis statement on the label of a bag of food will not give any information on the - Minimum amount of fat in the diet - Minimum amount of protein in the diet - Maximum amount of fiber in the diet - Digestibility of the protein in the diet

Digestibility of the protein in the diet Guaranteed analysis statements address quantities of contents only, not the quality of contents.

A deficiency in the essential amino acid taurine in a feline diet can result in - Anemia - Dilated cardiomyopathy - Calcium oxalate uroliths - Fatty liver

Dilated cardiomyopathy Anemia can be caused by a deficiency of iron, calcium oxalate uroliths may be caused by reduced dietary magnesium, and fatty liver can be caused by a deficiency of riboflavin.

Overfeeding of the nutrient class ______ to ruminants or horses predisposes them to laminitis, or - Vitamins - Minerals - Energy - Protein

Energy Overfeeding to hoofed stock increases their risk of developing laminitis.

Which of the following is not an advantage to feeding a dog with lymphosarcoma a diet high in fat? - High-fat diets are usually very palatable. - Fat would increase the energy density of the diet. - Lymphosarcoma cells cannot use fat for energy. - Fats are beneficial to digestion.

Fats are beneficial to digestion. Animals with cancer typically do not have much of an appetite, therefore a highly palatable, energy-dense diet is preferred. It has been demonstrated for lymphosarcoma cells, and is probably true for other types of cancer, that they are restricted to anaerobic metabolism, that is, glucose.

What would provide the best information on the mineral status of a horse? - Feed analysis - Muscle analysis - Blood and urine analyses - Hair analysis

Feed analysis

The best plan to get an overweight pet to lose weight is to - Increase the amount of fiber in the diet. - Decrease the amount of fat in the diet. - Give the pet diet pills. - Feed the pet less and exercise it more.

Feed the pet less and exercise it more.

Which of the following housing conditions is most likely to aggravate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (heaves) in horses? - Low temperature in the stable - Feeding dusty hay - Screen partitions between stalls - Fresh wood shavings for bedding

Feeding dusty hay The cause of heaves is not entirely environmental, but, in predisposed animals, the feeding of dusty hay can aggravate the condition.

Which of these is not a common strategy for managing heat stress in dairy cattle? - Feeding early in the day - Placing fans over housing areas - Sprinkling or misting cows with water - Cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor

Feeding early in the day Typically, all farms feed early all of the time, plus it is imperative that cows have feed in front of them at all times.

Enteral feeding is - Intravenous supplementation - Feeding at timed intervals - Feeding orphans - Feeding via the gastrointestinal tract

Feeding via the gastrointestinal tract

What disease is not characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration? - Feline infectious enteritis - Feline infectious peritonitis - Feline panleukopenia - Feline distemper

Feline infectious peritonitis Feline infectious peritonitis is characterized by abdominal distention resulting from ascites.

Probably the most prevalent serious viral infection of cats is a. Feline panleukopenia b. Leptospirosis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Cat-scratch fever

Feline panleukopenia (feline distemper) is the most serious viral disease of those listed. Leptospira is a bacterial spirochete. Cat-scratch fever is caused by a gram-negative bacterium; it occurs in people, not in cats.

Frequently, the most challenging aspect of housing goats is - Building materials - Fencing - Heating - Size considerations

Fencing Goat housing does not need to be sophisticated, and goats can handle hot and cold with proper shelter. However, they are good climbers, and fencing must be secure and 4 to 6 feet high.

A common complaint that clients make after their overweight dog has been switched to a high-fiber diet is - Anemia - Lethargy - Vomiting - Flatulence

Flatulence Owners need to be forewarned that often when animals are switched to a high-fiber diet, especially during the first week, there likely will be an increase in flatulence.

Nursing mares and foals should not be put into pastures that were grazed the previous year by - Stallions - Mares - Foals - Yearlings

Foals Avoiding putting foals in the same pasture year after year will help reduce parasite levels in the foals.

What species can have a seizure if handled too harshly? - Gerbils - Guinea pigs - Mice - Rats

Gerbils

What species is least likely to require frequent cage cleaning? - Rats - Mice - Gerbils - Hamsters

Gerbils The most useful preventive measures against kennel cough in a shelter would be - Frequently cleaning exercise areas of feces - Frequently cleaning kennels of urine - Aggressively cleaning and disinfecting food and water dishes - Ensuring that air circulation is good *** Ensuring that air circulation is good

Rats can be safely and humanely picked up by - The scruff of the neck - Grasping them over the shoulders - Grasping the tail - Grasping a back leg

Grasping them over the shoulders Anywhere else, the rat may be injured.

Rabbits should have an unlimited amount of - Alfalfa hay - Alfalfa pellets - Grass hay - Fresh fruits and vegetables

Grass hay Alfalfa hay is high in calcium; too much can lead to uroliths. Alfalfa pellets can cause obesity, heart, liver, and kidney disease if given excessive amounts. Too many fresh fruits and vegetables can cause digestive upset.

Which is a dairy breed? - Simmental - Charolais - Hereford - Guernsey

Guernsey

Vitamin C supplements must be added to prevent scurvy in what species? - Chinchilla - Hamster - Rabbit - Guinea pig

Guinea pig Like humans and other primates, guinea pigs are prone to scurvy with an inadequate amount of vitamin C.

A problem with giving guinea pigs a diet appropriate for rabbits is - Guinea pigs have a higher requirement for protein than rabbits. - Rabbits have a higher requirement for copper, which is toxic to guinea pigs. - Guinea pigs have a higher requirement for vitamin C than rabbits. - Rabbits do not need vitamin B.

Guinea pigs have a higher requirement for vitamin C than rabbits.

All of the following disinfectants can be used on surgical instruments except - Quaternary ammonium compounds - Phenolics - Alcohols - Halogens

Halogens Halogens easily penetrate the protective coating on stainless steel and cause corrosion of the metal.

What piece of restraint equipment is most commonly used on horses? - Twitch - Hobbles - Cradle - Halter

Halter The halter is the main tool of restraint for horses.

The knot or hitch used to secure a lead rope to a stationary object is a - Square - Clove hitch - Bowline - Halter tie

Halter tie This quick-release knot should be the only knot used to tie a lead rope to a stationary object.

What species is not a social animal and should be housed alone? - Chinchilla - Hamster - Gerbil - Guinea pig

Hamster Hamsters are solitary in nature.

Which of these species is an omnivore? - Chinchilla - Hamster - Rabbit - Gerbil

Hamster Hamsters, like rats and mice, are omnivores. Chinchillas, rabbits, and gerbils are herbivores.

Chelating agents in cleaners remove - Oil and grease - Hard water minerals - Urine scale - Blood and serum

Hard water minerals Chelating agents bind minerals.

To judge whether a dog is nervous, observe its body language. A nervous dog usually - Holds its head low between the shoulders - Stares straight at you - Remains in a "sit" position - Has eyes that dart from one thing to another

Has eyes that dart from one thing to another

Chutes used for moving swine should be constructed so that the sides - Have no openings - Have vertical bars - Have horizontal bars - Are wider at the bottom than at the top

Have no openings If pigs see obstructions or movement in front of them, they stop moving.

To judge whether a dog is being aggressive, observe its body language. An aggressive dog - Looks from side to side - Holds its head low between the shoulders - Wags its tail - Has eyes that dart from one thing to another

Head held low between the shoulders is a classic stance of an aggressive dog

Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermic if chased? - Hogs and sheep - Goats and sheep - Goats and hogs - Cattle and goats

Hogs and sheep The hog's insulating layer of fat and the sheep's thick wool will contribute to overheating if these animals are chased or handled for long periods.

What is the best method to encourage a goat to stand still? - Lift up the head and chin - Cover an eye - Hold up a front leg - Tie to a fence

Hold up a front leg Most goats, large or small, will calmly stand in one place if a front leg is lifted.

What breed is usually worked in stanchions or headlocks? - Holstein cow - Simmental bull - Angus heifer - Jersey bull

Holstein cow Dairy cows are worked in stanchions or headlocks.

Filter caps on rodent shoebox cages reduce the - Ammonia levels - Horizontal transmission of pathogens - Cage temperatures - Litter sizes of pregnant females

Horizontal transmission of pathogens Filters on the only opening in shoebox-type housing will filter out small particles, such as pathogens.

A client asks you about a new nutraceutical that you have never heard about. The least important question, as far as your ability to judge the efficacy of the product, would be - Has any research been done by an independent organization? - Have any results been reported in a refereed journal? - Have any toxicity studies been done? - How expensive is the product?

How expensive is the product?

What condition is not associated with weight loss? - Anorexia - Increased nutrient demands - Protein calorie malnutrition - Hyperadrenocorticism

Hyperadrenocorticism Hyperadrenocorticism is not usually associated with weight loss.

In prolonged attempts to capture a sheep or pig in a paddock or pen, it is extremely easy to cause - An abortion - Hyperthermia - A limb fracture - Death from shock

Hyperthermia The insulation of a sheep's heavy wool coat and a pig's layer of body fat can lead to overheating if the animal is chased excessively.

What condition is not exacerbated by obesity? - Joint problems - Diabetes - Hyperthyroidism - Anesthetic complications

Hyperthyroidism

To supply nearly adequate nutrition via the intravenous route, solutions used must be - Hypertonic - Hypotonic - Isotonic - Catatonic

Hypertonic

Transfusions in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia are a. Recommended to replace lost platelets b. Recommended to replace lost RBCs c. Not recommended unless done very early in the condition d. Not recommended, because they may increase hemolysis

Increased hemolysis may be the result of a transfusion in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Transfusion is used in life-threatening situations only, and only absolute minimal numbers of RBCs are used.

Which of the following would be least likely to induce diarrhea in a cat? - Increased fiber in the diet - Panleukopenia - Food allergy - Increased salt content in the diet

Increased salt content in the diet

Hyperlipidemia is usually caused by intolerance of lipids and is characterized by cloudy serum and - Hypoglycemia - Hyperactivity - Increased serum triglycerides - Acidosis

Increased serum triglycerides Triglycerides are lipids.

During lactation, the feed intake of queens typically - Stays the same - Increases about 1.5 times - Increases about 2 to 3 times - Increases about 50%

Increases about 2 to 3 times

Which of the following comprises the major gaseous energy loss as a result of fermentation in the rumen? - Oxygen - Ethane - Carbon dioxide - Methane

Methane Methane is a product of rumen fermentation.

Adult males of what species should not be group-housed? - Rats - Mice - Guinea pigs - Gerbils

Mice Male mice housed together will frequently display aggressive behavior.

What nutrient is sometimes referred to as ? - Vitamins - Carbohydrates - Proteins - Minerals

Minerals

What nutrient is not an energy-producing nutrient? - Sugars - Amino acids - Minerals - Fatty acids

Minerals Minerals are necessary in the diet, but they do not provide energy.

The environmental temperature should be monitored routinely in a farrowing unit. Where should thermometers be placed? - At the herdsman's eye level - At the herdsman's waist - Near the entrance to the room - Near the floor at the pigs' level

Near the floor at the pigs' level The environmental temperature can fluctuate in the room. Thermometers should be placed at the pigs' level to ensure that the pigs are comfortable

Which of the following would be the most accurate estimate of the energy a foodstuff would contribute to an animal? - Gross energy - Net energy - Digestible energy - Metabolizable energy

Net energy The net energy of any feed is the amount of energy left after deducting from the metabolizable energy the energy lost in the so-called "work of digestion."

What piece of restraint equipment usually remains permanently attached to bulls used for breeding? - Halter - Nose lead - Bull staff - Nose ring

Nose ring Nose rings are permanently inserted through the nasal septum of bulls.

A chain shank is used with the halter as an added restraint device. Where should it be placed? - Over the ears - Under the throat - Between the jaws - Over the nose, dorsal to the nostrils

Over the nose, dorsal to the nostrils Placing it anywhere else will cause extreme discomfort to the horse.

The most important factor in assuring weight loss in an obese cat is - Proper diet - A healthy cat - Diet pills - Owner compliance

Owner compliance Getting the owner (and the rest of the family) to feed only the prescribed amount of food is the primary problem in getting pets to lose weight.

What clinical condition is associated with acute overconsumption of a high-fat meal in dogs but is rarely seen in horses and pigs? - Diarrhea - Ascites - Anemia - Pancreatitis

Pancreatitis

Parvovirus causes what disease in cats? - Panleukopenia - Rhinotracheitis - Infectious peritonitis - Infectious anemia

Panleukopenia Coronavirus causes feline infectious peritonitis, and a rickettsial parasite causes feline infectious anemia.

Goose-stepping in swine (excessive lifting of the rear legs during walking) is most likely to be caused by a deficiency of - Copper - Vitamin D - Zinc - Pantothenic acid

Pantothenic acid A deficiency of pantothenic acid in the diet leads to deterioration of the sciatic nerve. Affected pigs exhibit an abnormal gait.

After securing a mouse by its tail, the head and body can be restrained by - Twirling the mouse until it is dizzy and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck - Placing the mouse on a smooth surface, pulling caudally on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck - Grasping the loose skin along its back - Placing the mouse on a grate, pulling back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck

Placing the mouse on a grate, pulling back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck A mouse will instinctively grasp a grate with its forefeet. You can then quickly grasp it by the scruff of the neck.

A client of your practice calls you up with a question about the diet that was prescribed for her cat. This client noticed on the label that the cat food contains several kinds of animal protein. The client says that because all animal protein contains cholesterol, she wondered whether the food contained good cholesterol or bad cholesterol. Which of the following statements would not be included in your answer? - Plant products and animal products contain cholesterol. - Cholesterol is an essential nutrient in the body used for estrogen, testosterone, bile, and so forth. - What is referred to as "good cholesterol" is actually a lipoprotein (HDL) that carries cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. - Bad cholesterol is actually a lipoprotein (LDL) that carries cholesterol to the peripheral tissues.

Plant products and animal products contain cholesterol.

The most common health problem encountered in cattle that have been recently shipped is - Pneumonia - Diarrhea - Lameness - Pinkeye

Pneumonia Cattle that undergo transport stress are at increased risk for pneumonia, also called shipping fever.

Pastures should be free of - Rocks - Ponds - Trees - Fences

Ponds Ponds may serve as reservoirs of pathogens.

If stabling horses on clay floors, you should ______ once a year. - Apply a sealant to the clay floor. - Soak the floor with disinfectant. - Replace the clay surface. - Culture the clay for microbes.

Replace the clay surface. Clay surfaces may become uneven with wear and soaked with urine and should be replaced periodically.

Unlike other large animals, horses usually - Respond to voice commands - Back away when approached - Chase you if you make them angry - Scatter if you try to round up an entire herd

Respond to voice commands Most horses are trained to respond to "whoa" or "hold still" and a few other commands.

Selection of a disinfectant ideally depends on the - Result required - Purchase price - Ease of application - Product stability

Result required

Very low humidity in a colony of rats may precipitate a problem known as - Stud tail - Wet tail - Fan tail - Ring tail

Ring tail Low humidity and overabsorbent bedding may predispose rats to "ringtail," or tail necrosis.

To protect yourself when attacked by a dog, you should - Run. - Kick or hit at it. - Roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms. - Stand still and call for help.

Roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms. This position will protect you and prevent further stimulation of the dog.

What restraint device would you choose to safely and easily collect blood samples from crated sows? - Hog snare - Sling - V trough - Rope snare

Rope snare The rope snare can be placed around the sow's snout, and the end can be secured to the bars of the crate. A large sow can swing a regular hog snare against the bars of the crate and severely injure the handler's arms and hands.

Which of these is not a warning sign of an angry cat? - Hissing and spitting - Rubbing up against the cage bars - Ears lowered - Crouching low with tail lashing

Rubbing up against the cage bars

The following would all be good methods of inducing a cat to eat except - Heating the food - Covering the cage door with a towel - Sprinkling the food with onion powder to increase the olfactory properties of the food - Placing the food in a wide bowl

Sprinkling the food with onion powder to increase the olfactory properties of the food Onions can cause Heinz body anemia in cats.

The apparatus usually used to restrain beef cattle is the - Halter - Stock - Squeeze chute - Nose ring

Squeeze chute A squeeze chute is usually used to restrain beef cattle. Dairy cattle are usually restrained in stanchions.

An animal-care facility is having a problem with coccidioidomycosis. Treatment of runs and pens for this problem will be most successful using a - Steam-cleaner with bleach - Stain-remover with aldehydes - Detergent - Disinfectant

Steam-cleaner with bleach

The best type of feeding bowl for dogs is one made of - Plastic - Steel - Enamel - Ceramic

Steel Steel bowls are nonporous for thorough cleaning and not susceptible to breaking.

Which of the following terms would most likely predict forage with a high ADF value? - Stemmy - Prebloom - Leafy - Green

Stemmy Acid detergent fiber (ADF) and neutral detergent fiber (NDF) are tests to analyze the fiber content of a forage. In general, the higher the ADF or NDF, the less digestible the forage.

The apparatus used to restrain horses is the - Stock - Squeeze chute - Stanchion - Tilt table

Stock Stocks are used to protect the veterinarian or technician while working on a horse.

"Red tears" (chromodacryorrhea) in rats is caused by - Stress - Infection - Toxins - Impaired blood clotting

Stress Stress can cause rats to secrete red porphyrin pigments in their tears.

When carrying a rabbit, it is important to support its hindquarters, so the animal does not - Scratch you with its hind feet - Struggle and possibly fracture its spine - Injure its ear - Defecate and urinate

Struggle and possibly fracture its spine Rabbits carried without support of the rear legs can struggle to the extent that they fracture their spine.

Acidifying diets will help prevent what type of bladder stones? - Struvite - Oxalate - Biurate - Ammonium

Struvite Acidifying diets may decrease the formation of struvite (triple phosphate) stones and contribute to the formation of oxalate stones.

AAFCO - Oversees pet food advertising - Substantiates nutrition claims by implementing procedures for animal feeding tests - Differentiates between soy- and meat-based diets - Sets parameters for pet food prices

Substantiates nutrition claims by implementing procedures for animal feeding tests AAFCO is the Association of American Feed Control Officials.

What breed of sheep is used predominantly for meat? a. Merino b. Romney marsh c. Suffolk d. Karakul

The Suffolk is a meat breed, whereas the others are used for their wool or pelt.

Cats should not be fed dog food because - It is unpalatable. - It will give them diarrhea. - The fat content is too low. - The amino acid content is too low.

The amino acid content is too low. Cats require more arginine and taurine than dogs.

The neonatal calf is a preruminant. What factor most influences rumen development? - The sex of the calf - The season - The breed of the calf - The calf's diet

The calf's diet Development of rumen papillae and function is stimulated by consumption of high-energy feed such as calf starter.

Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hot electric dehorner because - The hair may catch fire. - The smell of burning skin scares goats. - It is difficult to control dehorning pain in goats. - The heat may damage their brains.

The heat may damage their brains. Goats have thinner skulls than calves and may suffer brain damage if too much heat is applied to their heads with a dehorner.

As you walk through the nursery section of a swine production unit, you notice that many of the pigs have rectal prolapses. What does this observation tell you about their behavior? - The pigs are not active enough. - The pigs are piling up. - The pigs are eating too much. - The pigs are well socialized.

The pigs are piling up. Piling up increases the risk of rectal prolapse in piglets

Grazing animals have the best depth perception when - An object is at their side - An object is toward their rear - Their heads are up - Their heads are down

Their heads are down Grazing animals have poor depth perception when they are moving with their heads up. It does not matter where the object is placed, their heads have to be down in order to have the best depth perception.

The reason why lamb was used in the past as the protein source in many hypoallergenic veterinary diets was because - Lamb is more digestible than beef and poultry products. - Lamb causes less pancreatic stimulation. - There was a time when most dogs and cats had not eaten lamb before. - Lamb has a higher biologic value than other typical meat products.

There was a time when most dogs and cats had not eaten lamb before.

Why do piglets need an iron supplement? - The calcium obtained from nursing binds the mineral and makes it useless. - They are born without any and must have it to survive. - They are born with low levels in their tissue and do not have an adequate dietary source while nursing. - It is depleted during digestion.

They are born with low levels in their tissue and do not have an adequate dietary source while nursing. Piglets are born with very low iron reserves and do not obtain much iron while nursing the sow.

The reason that adult dogs and cats will often have diarrhea after consuming a large quantity of milk is because - They are allergic to lactose. - They have an inability to absorb lactose. - The protein in milk causes a toxic reaction to the microvilli of the small intestine, thus decreasing the amount of nutrient that can be absorbed. - Milk coats the intestine, preventing the reabsorption of water, thus leading to diarrhea.

They have an inability to absorb lactose. This is an example of a food intolerance, not a food allergy. These animals lack the necessary enzyme, lactase, needed to break lactose into simple sugars for absorption.

Which statement concerning feeding of llamas is most accurate? - They must be fed once daily. - They must be fed twice daily. - They must be fed free choice. - They should be fed on a regular schedule.

They should be fed on a regular schedule. Owners may have a lifestyle whereby they feed twice a day or free choice. The most important point is that they should feed regularly.

The apparatus ideal for restraining a bull to facilitate hoof trimming is the - Stock - Squeeze chute - Tilt table - Alley way

Tilt table A tilt table is ideal for trimming cattle hooves.

Neonates unable to tolerate gastrointestinal feeding are often administered TPN. What do the letters stand for? - Thiamin/protein/nitrogen mix - Total parenteral nutrition - Typical program for neonates - Triglyceride potassium nutrients

Total parenteral nutrition

A first line of attack to improving voluntary feed intake in a hospitalized patient is to - Initiate vitamin supplementation. - Improve palatability of feeds. - Feed stimulants. - Treat the primary condition.

Treat the primary condition.

Cholesterol would be found in the highest concentration in - Corn oil - Peanut butter - Turkey breast without the skin - Celery

Turkey breast without the skin Cholesterol is found in animal tissues only.

A herd of cattle must be moved from the holding pen in a well-lit barn into a trailer sitting outside at night. The cattle are reluctant to leave the pen and move into the trailer. How can you most easily move the cattle? - Find the lead cow and force her into the trailer. - Wait until dawn. - Turn on a light in the trailer that does not shine in the cattle's faces. - Turn off the lights in the barn.

Turn on a light in the trailer that does not shine in the cattle's faces. Cattle will move to a light source, as long as it is not shining brightly in their eyes.

Which statement about housing rabbits is accurate? - Rabbits should be housed in a warm and humid environment. - Two female rabbits housed together will fight. - Two male rabbits housed together will fight. - Solid-walled cages with wire mesh flooring are best.

Two male rabbits housed together will fight. Rabbits need a cool but dry environment. The cage should have good circulation with a solid floor area for resting and to prevent sore hocks

When choosing a muzzle for a Boston terrier, you should - Use a muzzle made from roll gauze. - Use a leather strap muzzle. - Use a basket-style muzzle. - Use an open-ended style muzzle.

Use a basket-style muzzle. A basket-style muzzle will not interfere with the dog's breathing.

When disinfecting using two products, the rule is to - Use one disinfectant at a time. - Mix the disinfectants together. - Dilute each disinfectant by half. - Select one bactericidal and one bacteriostatic disinfectant.

Use one disinfectant at a time. Using disinfectants in sequence will maximize efficacy and minimize the risk of producing toxic mixes of compounds.

It has been proposed that fiber aids in the passage of hairballs through the digestive tract. Of the following, the least dangerous if consumed in excessive amounts over requirements would be - Vitamin A - Vitamin B - Copper - Calcium

Vitamin B Excess water-soluble vitamins are eliminated via the urine.

The vitamin that is very important in reproduction, is a biologic antioxidant, and is considered necessary for several bodily functions is - Vitamin E - Vitamin K - Vitamin B - Vitamin B

Vitamin E

A nursery pig is presented for necropsy. The history states that it was healthy yesterday afternoon and was found dead this morning. Necropsy reveals "mulberry heart disease." What dietary deficiency is the most likely cause of this pig's sudden demise? - Vitamin E - Vitamin C - Vitamin K - Vitamin B

Vitamin E Mulberry heart disease is a classic finding in pigs that suffer from vitamin E deficiency; it is characterized by degeneration of cardiac muscle.

The vitamin that is synthesized in the intestinal tract of dogs and other animals under normal conditions is - Vitamin E - Vitamin K - Vitamin B - Vitamin B

Vitamin K

What nutrient is not required for normal horn and hoof formation? - Lipids - Vitamin K - Amino acids - Protein

Vitamin K

Lack of what nutrient is associated with prolonged clotting times? - Vitamin B - Vitamin A - Vitamin C - Vitamin K

Vitamin K Vitamin K is essential for normal blood clotting. A cat fed only fish would be most at risk for which of the following problems? - Pansteatitis - Encephalomalacia - Anemia - Mulberry heart disease ***Pansteatitis A high amount of unsaturated fatty acids without supplemented vitamin E puts a cat at risk of yellow fat disease or pansteatitis.

What fluid should you choose to lavage a deep traumatic wound? a. Warm sterile saline b. Undiluted Nolvasan c. 50% dextrose d. Hydrogen peroxide

Warm sterile saline Saline is closest to body fl uids and therefore less irritating.

Lack of the dietary nutrient ______ will cause problems in the shortest amount of time. - Water - Protein - Carbohydrates - Vitamins

Water

A dog has a history of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. This weight loss is most likely due to a loss of - Lean body mass - Fat - Glycogen - Water

Water Acute weight loss is typically due to water loss.

Deficiency of which of the following major nutrients is likely to have the most rapid negative effect on an animal? - Water - Protein - Fat - Carbohydrates

Water Signs of dehydration can develop quickly if an animal's intake of water is deficient.

The most important ingested nutrient is - Minerals - Fats - Vitamins - Water

Water Dehydration is a common clinical problem in sick patients unwilling or unable to eat and drink.

How many white blood cells per high-power field are considered normal in typical canine urine? a. 0 to 3 b. 2 to 8 c. 10 to 14 d. 1 to 8

a. 0 to 3

d.10 ml/kg/hr

a. 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr

What is the normal capillary refill time in a dog? a. 1 to 2 seconds b. 5 to 6 seconds c. 1 minute d. 10 minutes

a. 1 to 2 seconds Normal capillary refill time is 1 to 3 seconds for a dog.

On the average, an adult horse consumes approximately how many gallons of water per day? a. 10 to 15 b. 5 to 7 c. 25 d. 1

a. 10 to 15

The blood urea nitrogen of a normal dog is a. 10 to 28 mg/dl b. 1 to 2 mg/dl c. 10% to 28% d. 1% to 2%

a. 10 to 28 mg/dl

What are the normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate of a dog? a. 101.5° F, 90/min, 20/min b. 101.5° F, 180/min, 25/min c. 100° F, 90/min, 20/min d. 100° F, 180/min, 25/min

a. 101.5° F, 90/min, 20/min

The normal temperature, pulse rate, and respiration rate (TPR) of swine are a. 102° F to 103.6° F, 60 to 80/min, 8 to 18/min b. 99.5° F to 101.5° F, 28 to 45/min, 8 to 16/min c. 101.5° F, 110 to 140/min, 26/min d. 99.5° F, 66 to 114/min, 330 to 480/min

a. 102° F to 103.6° F, 60 to 80/min, 8 to 18/min b: Horse, c: Cat, d: Rat

A delayed hemolytic reaction is indicated by a drop in PCV how many days posttransfusion? a. 2 to 20 days b. Only immediately following transfusion c. After 2 to 3 weeks d. Years later in the patient's life

a. 2 to 20 days Delayed reactions usually occur in the first 2 to 20 days after transfusion.

For a strain to be considered inbred, a minimum of how many generations of brother to sister or parent to offspring must occur? a. 20 b. 16 c. 10 d. 8

a. 20

Mice, rats, and hamsters are weaned at ___ days. a. 21 b. 30 c. 63 d. 45

a. 21

The preferred temperature for most laboratory rodents is a. 21° C b. 15° C c. 24° C d. Any temperature

a. 21° C For most of the common laboratory species, the important thing is moderation with very minimal environmental fluctuations. Temperature is generally preferred to be about 21 degrees C to 22 degrees C, but ranges can be tolerated.

Normal mucosal bleeding time in a dog is a. 30 to 90 seconds b. 20 to 30 minutes c. 5 to 10 seconds d. 600 to 1000 seconds

a. 30 to 90 seconds

The respective gestation periods of a rabbit, guinea pig, and mouse are a. 30, 68, and 21 days b. 30, 42, and 21 days c. 24, 42, and 21 days d. 21, 68, and 30 days

a. 30, 68, and 21 days Rabbits have a gestation period of 28 to 35 days, guinea pigs gestate in 59 to 72 days, and mice in 19 to 21 days.

The normal MCHC of a dog is a. 32 to 36 g/dl b. 1 to 2 g/dl c. 135 to 234 g/dl d. 60 to 98 g/dl

a. 32 to 36 g/dl

Which statement about intraperitoneal fluid is therapy true? a. It is not routinely used because of the slow rate of absorption. b. It is used commonly in veterinary practice when a vein cannot be accessed. c. It is used for shock therapy when there is venous collapse. d. It is used to administer nutrients and fluids because of its closeness to the stomach and intestine.

a. It is not routinely used because of the slow rate of absorption. Intraperitoneal route for fluid therapy is the poorest and slowest route for absorption and the route most likely to result in secondary medical problems.

The term for parturition in the rabbit is a. Kindling b. Queening c. Farrowing d. Littering

a. Kindling

Ninety-five percent of the circulating antibodies in puppies younger than 48 hours old come from the a. Colostrum b. Placenta c. Puppies' bone marrow d. Environment

a. Colostrum The colostrum is the major source of antibodies in young puppies.

The breed of chicken bred for meat is the a. Cornish b. Leghorn c. Rhode Island red d. Wyandotte

a. Cornish The Cornish is a meat breed, whereas the others are bred primarily for eggs

Q fever in sheep is caused by a. Coxiella burnetii b. Clostridium chauvoei c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Campylobacter jejuni

a. Coxiella burnetii

The blood group of canines that is synonymous with the term universal donor is a. DEA 1.1 negative b. DEA 1.1 positive c. DEA 3 positive d. DEA 3 negative

a. DEA 1.1 negative

The breed of dog that frequently has urate crystals in its urine is the a. Dalmatian b. German shepherd c. Chihuahua d. Cocker spaniel

a. Dalmatian Urate crystals are seen more abundantly in the urine of Dalmatians than of other breeds.

What phase of healing begins approximately 6 hours after tissue injury? a. Debridement b. Repair c. Inflammation d. Maturation

a. Debridement

The smallest hamster is the a. Dwarf b. European c. Syrian d. Chinese

a. Dwarf

What condition is produced by a migrating Toxocara canis larva if it moves into a human brain? a. Encephalitis b. Elephantiasis c. Strabismus d. Brain tumor

a. Encephalitis Migrating ascarid larvae in people can cause encephalitis.

The pigeon's crop is part of what structure? a. Esophagus b. Cecum c. Spleen d. Pancreas

a. Esophagus The pigeon's crop is a dilation of the esophagus located at the thoracic inlet.

The most common artery used in dogs and cats to obtain a pulse is the a. Femoral artery b. Saphenous artery c. Cephalic artery d. Coronary artery

a. Femoral artery The easiest and most convenient artery for discerning pulse rate is the femoral, located on the medial side of the hind leg, mid thigh.

The Robert Jones bandage is not appropriate for stabilizing fractures of the a. Femur or humerus b. Radius or carpus c. Tibia or third metacarpal bone d. Third metacarpal bone

a. Femur or humerus

Estrogen toxicity that results from prolonged estrus is a common clinical problem in which of the following species? a. Ferret b. Rabbit c. Hamster d. Guinea pig

a. Ferret It is recommended that ferrets be spayed because of this potential problem.

HEPA is a type of a. Filter b. Cage washer c. Feeder d. Housing unit

a. Filter A high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter prevents airborne microorganisms from entering the animal room or workstation.

Bumblefoot is a bacterial infection that causes swollen feet in what species? a. Gallus domesticus b. Oryctolagus cuniculus c. Cricetulus griseus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Gallus domesticus

From what species might you obtain a cloacal sample? a. Gallus domesticus b. Oryctolagus cuniculus c. Cricetulus griseus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Gallus domesticus Birds have cloacas, the other species listed do not.

What species has a uropygial gland? a. Gallus domesticus b. Oryctolagus cuniculus c. Cricetulus griseus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Gallus domesticus The uropygial gland, or oil gland, produces an oil that is used to preen feathers.

What laboratory animal species has ventral sebaceous glands? a. Gerbil b. Mouse c. Hamster d. Rat

a. Gerbil

Which laboratory animal is monogamous and mates for life? a. Gerbil b. Hamster c. Rabbit d. Guinea pig

a. Gerbil

The main function of brown fat tissue is to store a. Glycogen b. Vitamins c. Glucose d. Water

a. Glycogen Young rodents have masses of brown fat in various cervical locations and between the scapulas. It is thought that the fat helps neonatal and cold-stressed rodents as a thermogenic material and metabolic regulator. The quantity and significance tends to diminish into puberty and adulthood.

Which of these pet birds is sexually dimorphic? a. Grey cockatiel b. Yellow-naped Amazon c. Green parakeet d. Blue and gold macaw

a. Grey cockatiel Male cockatiels have larger orange cheek patches and yellow heads; females have mostly gray heads.

An ideal breed of dog to be kept as a blood donor is the a. Greyhound b. Basset hound c. Dachshund d. Chihuahua

a. Greyhound The greyhound makes an ideal blood donor because of its short hair and long straight veins and because most lack the A factor.

Offspring of what laboratory animal species are born fully furred and with open eyes? a. Guinea pig b. Mice c. Hamster d. Rabbit

a. Guinea pig

Pododermatitis affects what species? a. Guinea pig b. Hamster c. Gerbil d. Rat

a. Guinea pig

Which of the following species cannot synthesize vitamin C and needs to have it supplemented? a. Guinea pig b. Hamster c. Gerbil d. Rabbit

a. Guinea pig

For which of the following are there no commercially available vaccines? a. Guinea pig b. Ferret c. Parrot d. Chicken

a. Guinea pig Parrots can be vaccinated for Pacheco disease and poxviruses. Chickens are vaccinated for Newcastle disease. Ferrets are vaccinated for distemper and rabies.

A diet rich in vitamin C must be provided to what species because they cannot synthesize their own? a. Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates b. Hamsters and rabbits c. Rabbits and guinea pigs d. Nonhuman primates and gerbils

a. Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates Nonhuman primates and guinea pigs require supplementation with vitamin C.

The species with the shortest gestation period is the a. Hamster b. Gerbil c. Mouse d. Rabbit

a. Hamster A hamster has a 16-day gestation.

Porphyrins are secreted by the ___ gland in rats. a. Harderian b. Chromolachrial c. Pituitary d. Ocular

a. Harderian The harderian gland is responsible for keeping the eye moist and producing porphyrins.

The breed of dairy cow that is usually black and white is the a. Holstein b. Guernsey c. Ayrshire d. Jersey

a. Holstein

The most effective way to prevent ringtail in suckling rats is to keep the a. Humidity greater than 50% b. Humidity less than 50% c. Temperature greater than 80 degrees F d. Temperature less than 15 degrees C

a. Humidity greater than 50% Ringtail occurs mainly in young laboratory rats in a low-humidity environment and often in hanging cages. Humidity greater than 50% usually prevents the problem.

A greasy hair coat of a gerbil indicates that the ambient a. Humidity is too high b. Temperature is too low c. Humidity is too low d. Temperature is too high

a. Humidity is too high

What defect can be produced in a human fetus exposed to Toxoplasma gondii? a. Hydrocephalus b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifi da d. Dwarfism

a. Hydrocephalus Toxoplasma gondii that is ingested by a pregnant woman can result in hydrocephalus (water on the brain) in the developing fetus.

The armadillo is one of the few animal models of what human disease? a. Leprosy b. Muscular dystrophy c. Parkinson disease d. Graves disease

a. Leprosy The armadillo is one of the few animal models for leprosy.

When setting a sheep up on its haunches, you should never a. Lift the head over the neck b. Grasp the flank area c. Twist the sheep's head to the side d. Try to set the animal up if it weighs more than 200 lb

a. Lift the head over the neck Lifting the head over the neck may cause injury, whereas turning the head to the side helps set the animal on its haunches.

Which of the following is/are antioxidants? a. Lipoic acids, vitamin E, vitamin C b. L-Carnitine c. Vitamin K d. Krebs cycles

a. Lipoic acids, vitamin E, vitamin C

In rabbits, coccidiosis causes lesions in which of the following two main areas of the body? a. Liver and intestine b. Kidney and brain c. Intestine and kidney d. Brain and liver

a. Liver and intestine

Pole and collar restraint is used for what species? a. Macaca mulatta b. Meriones unguiculatus c. Oryctolagus cuniculus d. Cricetulus griseus

a. Macaca mulatta A pole and collar restraint is used for rhesus monkeys.

To differentiate between a male and female guinea pig, the a. Male has no break in the ridge between the anus and urethral orifice b. Anogenital space is greater in the male c. Female has a perforated vaginal membrane d. Female only has a pair of inguinal nipples

a. Male has no break in the ridge between the anus and urethral orifice The penis can also be palpated in the midline and digital pressure applied to this region to extrude the ensheathed penis. The anogenital space in males is greater in the Muridae rodents only. The female does have the relaxed membrane, which is seen as a U-shaped shallow crease between the anal and urethral openings, but it remains closed except during a few days at estrus and proestrus and at parturition. Both sexes have inguinal nipples, but only the female has mammary glandular tissue.

What human viral disease is contagious to nonhuman primates? a. Measles b. Campylobacteriosis c. Herpes B d. Salmonellosis

a. Measles Measles is a human viral disease that is contagious to nonhuman primates. Campylobacteriosis and salmonellosis are bacterial diseases, and herpes B is a deadly zoonotic virus carried by some nonhuman primates.

What species is prone to audiogenic seizures? a. Meriones unguiculatus b. Oryctolagus cuniculus c. Cricetulus griseus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Meriones unguiculatus Gerbils can have seizures due to auditory (sound) stimuli.

Regarding the anatomy of mice and rats, a. Mice have five pairs of mammary glands and rats have six pairs. b. The aglandular section of the stomach is rich in histamine-producing cells. c. Mice and rats both pant and have sweat glands. d. Rats and mice have a gallbladder.

a. Mice have five pairs of mammary glands and rats have six pairs. This is true. The mammary tissue distributes extensively and includes areas as far dorsal as the shoulder blades along the length of the trunk. The non glandular proximal forestomach does not secrete any enzymes or histamine. Neither species pants or has sweat glands, and it is only the rat that does not have a gallbladder.

Mus musculus is the scientific name of the a. Mouse b. Gerbil c. Hamster d. Rabbit

a. Mouse

Which of the following is a common subclinical, contagious coronavirus seen in mice used in research? a. Mouse hepatitis virus b. Hantavirus c. Encephalomyocarditis virus d. Ectromelia

a. Mouse hepatitis virus Mouse hepatitis virus is a common subclinical, contagious coronavirus seen in mice that are used in research.

Hypertonic solutions a. Must be given IV only b. Must be given subcutaneously only c. May be given intraperitoneally or subcutaneously d. May be given IV, subcutaneously, or intraperitoneally

a. Must be given IV only

The principal cation in extracellular fluid is a. Na b. Mg c. K d. Fe

a. Na

The inguinal rings completely close in which of the following species? a. Nonhuman primate b. Rabbit c. Rat d. Mouse

a. Nonhuman primate The inguinal rings close in the nonhuman primate to prevent the retraction of the testicles. The other species listed all have the ability to retract their testicles back into the abdominal cavity.

The genus and species name for the rabbit is a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Mesocricetus auratus c. Meriones unguiculatus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Oryctolagus cuniculus

When tube feeding a bird, the gavage tube should be passed into the crop by positioning the tube a. Over the tongue and to the right side of the mouth b. Over the tongue and to the left side of the mouth c. Over the tongue and in the middle of the mouth d. Over the tongue and into the trachea

a. Over the tongue and to the right side of the mouth The esophagus deviates to the right and down the neck. At the thoracic inlet, its ventral wall expands to form the crop, which bulges to the right

Which phase of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the depolarization of the atria? a. P wave b. T wave c. P-R interval d. Q-T interval

a. P wave The P wave is the fi rst defl ection, representing excitation or depolarization of the atria.

What is the correct order for the processes of wound healing? a. Inflammation, debridement, repair, maturation b. Maturation, debridement, repair, inflammation c. Debridement, inflammation, maturation, repair d. Repair, inflammation, maturation, debridement

a. Inflammation, debridement, repair, maturation

The sex of juvenile guinea pigs is determined by a. Palpation of the pelvic region b. Behavioral traits c. Secondary sex characteristics d. Anogenital distance

a. Palpation of the pelvic region The penis may be manually prolapsed. The opening of the female is shaped like a Y, and the male is like a colon mark (:).

Colostrum is important for the newborn because it provides a. Passive immunity from the dam b. Protection against internal parasites c. Protection against hypothermia d. Active immunity from the sire

a. Passive immunity from the dam Passive immunity from the dam protects the newborn against diseases to which the dam has developed immunity.

In smaller birds (parakeets), the most accessible sites for IM injections are the a. Pectoral muscles b. Triceps muscle c. Biceps muscle d. Extensor carpi radialis

a. Pectoral muscles The pectoral muscles are located on either side of the keel.

A long-coated guinea pig is the a. Peruvian b. Abyssinian c. American d. Crested

a. Peruvian The Peruvian guinea pig is long coated; all others are short coated.

Normal body temperature is highest in the a. Pigeon b. Hamster c. Rat d. Rabbit

a. Pigeon

When collecting blood using a needle and syringe, how should the bevel of the needle be positioned? a. Up b. Down c. Pointing to the medial side d. Pointing to the lateral side

a. Up The bevel of the needle should be pointed upward.

Milk fever is caused by a a. Raised blood calcium level b. Lowered blood calcium level c. Raised blood magnesium level d. Raised blood phosphorus level

b. Lowered blood calcium level Milk fever is a common occurrence in dairy cattle (sometimes beef), which is generally associated with a high-producing cow after calving, when the calcium demands are highest; colostrum has twice the amount of calcium as regular milk. Calcium is "shifted" from muscle tissue to try to help demand.

Which of the following are both agranulocytes? a. Monocytes and neutrophils b. Lymphocytes and monocytes c. Eosinophils and basophils d. Lymphocytes and eosinophils

b. Lymphocytes and monocytes

What viral disease carried by mice and other rodents is zoonotic? a. Salmonellosis b. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis c. Livim d. Mycoplasmosis

b. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis Lymphocytic choriomeningitis is a zoonotic viral disease carried by mice and other rodents. Salmonellosis is a bacterial zoonotic disease. Lethal intestinal viral infection in mice and mycoplasmosis is not zoonotic.

Rats are primarily a. Diurnal b. Nocturnal c. Crepuscular d. Antisocial

b. Nocturnal Main activity of mice and rats occurs at night, although mice usually exhibit more daylight activity than rats. Crepuscular refers to increased activity during twilight. Rats are very social animals.

The breed of goat with long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose is the a. Toggenburg b. Nubian c. Saanen d. French alpine

b. Nubian The Nubian has long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose.

The type of mouse that has a deficiency in its immune system is a. Swiss b. Nude c. BALB/C d. DBA

b. Nude Nude mice are deficient in T cells and thus susceptible to infections.

The female of what species exhibits the sexually dimorphic characteristic called the dewlap ? a. Meriones unguiculatus b. Oryctolagus cuniculus c. Cricetulus griseus d. Cavia porcellus

b. Oryctolagus cuniculus Female rabbits have a dewlap.

The tests that are very useful in assessing fluid loss in a patient are a. PCV, BUN, and ALT b. PCV, plasma protein, and urine specific gravity c. PCV and BUN d. PCV only

b. PCV, plasma protein, and urine specific gravity PCV, plasma protein, and urine specific gravity, when taken together, give a good picture of the patient's fluid status.

What is one clinical sign of shock? a. Increased blood pressure b. Pale mucous membranes c. Decreased heart rate d. Increased cardiac output

b. Pale mucous membranes

For Doppler assessment of the pulse rate, the most commonly used arteries are the a. Femoral and plantar b. Palmar and plantar c. Saphenous and plantar d. Cephalic and palmar

b. Palmar and plantar Palmar and plantar arteries are convenient to tape the Doppler sensors to, and, because these vessels are close to the surface, they give good arterial sounds.

Which of the following is a virus that is not highly contagious and does not have a commercial vaccine available for non-human animals? a. Parvovirus b. Papillomavirus c. Distemper virus d. Coronavirus

b. Papillomavirus Papillomavirus causes oral warts. What clinical sign is not associated with canine distemper? a. Seizures b. Coughing c. Limping d. Behavioral changes *** c. Limping Seizures and behavioral changes are the hallmark of canine distemper, but it can start with coughing

The young of the altricial rodents generally have their hair and open their eyes at about a. 1 week of age for both b. 2 weeks of age for hair and 1 week of age for eyes c. 1 week of age for hair and 2 weeks of age for eyes d. Within a few days of birth for both

c. 1 week of age for hair and 2 weeks of age for eyes There is a variation, but most of the common altricial rodents (rats, mice, hamsters, gerbils) are haired by 7 to 10 days with eyes open by 14 and 20 days.

A struggling sheep rapidly becomes hyperthermic in hot weather, because its normal body temperature is a. 90° F (36.6° C) b. 98° F (38.3° C) c. 103° F (39.4° C) d. 107° F (40.5° C)

c. 103° F (39.4° C) The normal body temperature of a sheep is about 103° F, with a range of 102° to 104° F.

At what age should a dog or cat be first vaccinated against rabies? a. 3 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 16 weeks

c. 12 weeks

The preferred ratio of hours of light to darkness for most laboratory rodents is a. 14:10 b. 10:14 c. 12:12 d. 20:4

c. 12:12 For most laboratory species, 12 hours of light and darkness are usually best.

Which of these can be positive in the urine of a normal, healthy dog? a. Glucose b. Ketones c. Bilirubin d. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

c. Bilirubin A small amount of bilirubin can be normal in dog urine.

Before inducing anesthesia, how long should a pet rat be fasted? a. 12 hours b. 6 hours c. Fasting is not indicated. d. 24 hours

c. Fasting is not indicated. Fasting is not indicated in rats, because the limiting ridge in the stomach prevents vomiting

What disease of cats interferes with production of immunoglobulins during vaccination? a. Toxascaris leonina infection b. Cheyletiellosis c. Feline leukemia virus infection d. Coccidiosis

c. Feline leukemia virus infection

Psyllium is a source of a. Fat b. Protein c. Fiber d. Carbohydrates

c. Fiber Husks are a fermentable, gel-forming source and a common ingredient in fiber supplements.

The lab rat is known as Rattus norvegicus. What does Rattus refer to? a. Class b. Family c. Genus d. Species

c. Genus Rattus is a genus within the order Rodentia.

The species that is very susceptible to Tyzzer disease, caused by Clostridium piliforme is the a. Hamster b. Rat c. Gerbil d. Mouse

c. Gerbil

Open-rooted molars are seen in which of the following animals? a. Gerbil b. Rat c. Guinea pig d. Hamster

c. Guinea pig Open-rooted molars that grow continuously are seen in the guinea pig. All rodents have open-rooted incisors.

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis, a viral disease with zoonotic potential, is associated with which of the following species? a. Rat b. Gerbil c. Hamster d. Mouse

c. Hamster

The laboratory animal species with hip glands is the a. Gerbil b. Rat c. Hamster d. Mouse

c. Hamster

Sinus arrhythmia occurs when the a. Heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and expiration. b. Heart and pulse rates decrease with inspiration and expiration. c. Heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration. d. Heart and pulse rates decrease with inspiration and increase with expiration.

c. Heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration.

The long-haired breed of cat that resembles the Siamese in color is the a. Manx b. Burmese c. Himalayan d. Persian

c. Himalayan The Himalayan has the full coat of the Persian with the pale coloring and darker parts of the Siamese.

The proper way to restrain and carry a rabbit is a. Grasp the ears with one hand, and put the other hand under the rabbit's abdomen. b. Hold the rabbit by the ears only. c. Hold the rabbit by the scruff with one hand, and grasp the hocks of the rabbit with the other. d. Place both hands under the rabbit's body and lift.

c. Hold the rabbit by the scruff with one hand, and grasp the hocks of the rabbit with the other. Rabbits should not be held by the ears, and their backs should be supported.

What vaccine is used to vaccinate people against rabies? a. Modified-live canine virus b. Bacterin from monkeys c. Human diploid cell vaccine d. Killed chimpanzee virus

c. Human diploid cell vaccine

Which statement concerning zoonotic diseases is this true? a. Cat-scratch fever produces high fever in affected cats. b. Ringworm is not transmitted from cats to people. c. Human pinworms are not found in dogs or cats. d. Rabies does not affect horses.

c. Human pinworms are not found in dogs or cats. Human pinworms ( Enterobius ) are not found in dogs or cats.

A fracture in what bone is least likely to be effectively immobilized with a splint? a. Tibia b. Metacarpal c. Humerus d. Ulna

c. Humerus A splint should stabilize the joint above and below a fracture. The shoulder joint is difficult to stabilize with a splint, because it tends to slip.

Failure of an organ or a part of an organ to grow to its full size is an example of a. Metaplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Hypoplasia d. Atrophy

c. Hypoplasia Hypoplasia is the incomplete or less than normal development of an organ or tissue or cell.

High mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by a. Parasitic infection of the lung b. Pasteurella infection c. Hypoxia from low oxygen pressure d. Cardiotoxic plants

c. Hypoxia from low oxygen pressure Hypoxia from low oxygen pressure is seen in cattle that live at high altitudes.

Thyroid medication, corticosteroids, and anabolic steroids a. Decrease appetite b. Stimulate tear production c. Increase appetite d. Decrease energy

c. Increase appetite Thyroid hormone, corticoid steroids, and anabolic steroids increase appetite due to altered metabolism

How are people commonly exposed to Giardia from wild or domestic animals? a. Undercooked beef b. Infected feces c. Infected water supplies d. Infected animal blood

c. Infected water supplies Water-borne Giardia is the most common method of transmitting the parasite to people.

What phase of healing begins immediately after tissue injury? a. Debridement b. Repair c. Inflammation d. Maturation

c. Inflammation

What does a tonometer measure? a. Venous pressure b. Arterial blood flow c. Intraocular pressure d. Speed of capillary refill

c. Intraocular pressure

Grass tetany in cattle a. Occurs in midsummer b. Is caused by a low blood calcium level c. Is caused by a low blood magnesium level d. Occurs in midwinter

c. Is caused by a low blood magnesium level

The breed of dog frequently exhibiting inherited idiopathic epilepsy is the a. Great Dane b. Miniature schnauzer c. Miniature poodle d. Siberian husky

c. Miniature poodle The miniature poodle is frequently affected by inherited idiopathic epilepsy.

What animal is the most likely reservoir for infectious hepatitis A for people contacting the animal's feces? a. Dog b. Horse c. Monkey d. Snake

c. Monkey Nonhuman primates are the most common source of zoonotic infections.

What species is the most likely source of tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) for people? a. Sheep b. Parrots c. Nonhuman primates d. Dogs

c. Nonhuman primates Monkeys with tuberculosis cough up the organism, and people may inhale the bacteria and develop the disease.

Which of the following is not true of inactivated vaccines? a. A fi nite antigen mass at injection b. Provides cellular and mucosal immunity c. Requires adjuvant d. Relatively stable and safe

c. Requires adjuvant

What area of the bovine body does hardware disease affect? a. Foot b. Abomasum c. Reticulum d. Intestine

c. Reticulum Metal objects can lodge in the reticulum and penetrate to the liver and pericardium of ruminants, especially cattle.

What disease is most dangerous in a herd of breeding horses? a. Influenza b. Strangles c. Rhinopneumonitis d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

c. Rhinopneumonitis Rhinopneumonitis in horses can cause pregnant mares to abort and induces upper respiratory tract disease.

With reference to the eyes, the abbreviation OD (oculus dexter) refers to a. Both eyes b. Left eye c. Right eye d. One eye at a time

c. Right eye OD means right eye, OS means left eye, and OU means both eyes.

A Wood's lamp can be used to detect what condition in the dog? a. Demodectic mange b. Scabies c. Ringworm d. Blastomycosis

c. Ringworm The Wood's lamp detects (fl uoresces) certain species of Microsporum canis.

Tyzzer disease is most commonly seen in what animal? a. Sheep b. Cat c. Rodent d. Ferret

c. Rodent Tyzzer disease is most commonly seen in rodents.

What dog breed has Scottish ancestry? a. Brittany spaniel b. Wheaten terrier c. Rough collie d. Pembroke corgi

c. Rough collie The collie descended from Scottish herding dogs.

The abbreviation meaning "treatment" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd

c. Rx

Which statement about scabies is true? a. People cannot get scabies from dogs. b. Scabies is diagnosed by a fecal examination. c. Scabies is transmissible between dogs and humans. d. Scabies is incurable even with an adulticide treatment.

c. Scabies is transmissible between dogs and humans. Scabies is caused by host-specifi c mites. Canine mites live only a short time on humans.

Cheyne-Stokes respiration signifies a a. Vestibular problem b. Midbrain lesion c. Severe cortical injury d. Brainstem lesion

c. Severe cortical injury Cheyne-Stokes respiration is the rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration and is indicative of injury to the higher brain centers responsible for control of respiration.

When a blood transfusion is to be administered, the blood a. Should be administered in a cooled state directly from the refrigerator to avoid blood component breakdown b. Should be administered after being allowed to warm slowly to room temperature c. Should be warmed to body temperature before administration d. Should be warmed to above body temperature to avoid cooling the patient down before administration

c. Should be warmed to body temperature before administration Blood transfusions are given at body temperature, and prolonged warming is not recommended.

Rumen inoculation is a. Introducing a bacteria percutaneously to destroy a population explosion of ruminal microorganisms b. Drenching an antibiotic solution via an orogastric tube into the rumen c. Siphoning ruminal contents from a healthy animal and introducing them into the rumen of a debilitated animal d. Vaccinating against the many enteric pathogens of ruminants

c. Siphoning ruminal contents from a healthy animal and introducing them into the rumen of a debilitated animal

A spayed female ferret is called a a. Jill b. Hob c. Sprite d. Gib

c. Sprite A jill is an intact female, a hob is an intact male, and a gib is a neutered male.

Which of these veins is not used to collect blood in a dog? a. Saphenous b. Cephalic c. Tail d. Jugular

c. Tail The tail vein is rarely used to draw blood from a dog.

What problem is commonly associated with overfeeding pelleted feed to rabbits? a. Ketosis b. Urinary calculi c. Trichobezoars d. Malocclusion

c. Trichobezoars Trichobezoars, or hair balls, are commonly associated with overfeeding pelleted feed to rabbits.

The normal rectal temperature of an adult cat is a. 94° F to 96° F b. 96° F to 98° F c. 98° F to 100° F d. 100° F to 102° F

d. 100° F to 102° F The normal rectal temperature of an adult cat is 100° to 102° F.

Which of these needles has the largest interior diameter? a. 18-gauge b. 27-gauge c. 22-gauge d. 16-gauge

d. 16-gauge Needle circumference decreases as the gauge number increases.

The normal dentition for the rabbit is a. 1003/1003 b. 2003/2003 c. 1002/1002 d. 2033/1023

d. 2033/1023 A small second set of incisors called peg teeth sit just behind the larger upper incisors. Folds of skin behind the incisors and premolars limit visibility of the rest of the oral cavity. All teeth are open rooted (hypsodontic) and grow continuously through life.

Which of the following heart rates would be considered abnormal for a healthy adult cat? a. 150 beats/min b. 175 beats/min c. 200 beats/min d. 250 beats/min

d. 250 beats/min Cats can have normal heart rates up to 220 beats/min.

What average weight do you expect your male adult mice and rats to be respectively? a. 20 g and 200 g b. 10 g and 200 g c. 25 g and 250 g d. 30 g and 500 g

d. 30 g and 500 g

The total white blood cell count of a normal adult dog is a. 1000 to 3000/μl b. 30,000 to 50,000/μl c. 4000 to 10,000/μl d. 6000 to 17,000/μl

d. 6000 to 17,000/μl

The stomach capacity of puppies and kittens is approximately a. 20 ml/kg b. 30 ml/kg c. 1 ml/kg d. 9 ml/kg

d. 9 ml/kg Most formula amounts are calculated based on a volume of 9 ml/kg stomach capacity for puppies and kittens.

A compression bandage used to immobilize a structure aids in all of the following except a. Controlling swelling b. Reducing movement c. Supporting damaged structures d. Containing an infectious inflammatory condition

d. Containing an infectious inflammatory condition If the infection is not under control, a compression bandage may force bacteria and associated toxic products deeper into the tissues.

Bandaging promotes wound healing by all of the following except a. Protecting the wound from additional trauma and contamination b. Preventing desiccation c. Immobilizing the wound to prevent cellular disruption d. Decreasing oxygen availability

d. Decreasing oxygen availability Covering a wound provides an acidic environment, which increases oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin and thus increases oxygen availability in the wound.

A client calls and says that she thinks her 2-month-old hamster has that "common hamster disease" that you hear about in the pet store. The sign she notices is likely a. Constipation b. Red tears c. Vomiting d. Diarrhea

d. Diarrhea The client is most likely referring to "wet tail." This term is applied to hamsters with enteric disease, because the most frequent sign is the perineum covered with diarrhea. It is not uncommon in young pet store hamsters. This is not a single entity or disease but a clinical feature that has a variety of syndromes associated with it. Gastrointestinal disease is the most significant cause of morbidity and mortality in hamsters.

Eating raw or partially cooked salmon can infect people with what tapeworm? a. Taenia b. Echinococcus c. Dipylidium d. Diphyllobothrium

d. Diphyllobothrium Diphyllobothrium is the broad fish tapeworm. People contract the parasite by eating raw salmon. This can occur when improperly prepared sushi is served.

What type of drug is used to stimulate urine production? a. Depressant b. Relaxant c. Emetic d. Diuretic

d. Diuretic

Which of the following is not a sign of fluid volume overload? a. Restlessness b. Hyperpnea c. Serous nasal discharge d. Dry mucous membranes

d. Dry mucous membranes Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration.

What condition must be reported to the Department of Health? a. Toxocariasis b. Ancylostomiasis c. Strongylosis d. Echinococcosis

d. Echinococcosis Echinococcus granulosus and Echinococcus multilocularis can infect people and cause severe or fatal disease; therefore, infected animals should be reported to prevent human disease.

Which statement concerning parasitism is this true? a. Demodex is the tapeworm of people. b. Equine pinworms have major significance in people. c. Toxocara canis larvae can eat blood from the human intestine. d. Echinococcus multilocularis can use people as intermediate hosts.

d. Echinococcus multilocularis can use people as intermediate hosts. Echinococcus multilocularis ova ingested by people can cause cysts in the lungs.

The ties of the many-tailed spider bandage are positioned on which aspect of the affected limb? a. Dorsal b. Palmar/plantar c. Medial d. Lateral

d. Lateral

A useful venous site for blood collection without an anesthetic in mice is the a. Medial saphenous b. Jugular c. Retro-orbital d. Lateral saphenous

d. Lateral saphenous An excellent site for rapid and repeated blood collection; 100 microliters can easily be taken with a simple prick to the vein. It can also be used in the rat, hamster, gerbil, guinea pig, ferret, and mink.

Signs of pain in a rodent include all of the following, except a. Lack of appetite b. Change in attitude c. Abnormal posturing d. Malocclusion

d. Malocclusion Malocclusion or abnormal dentition is not a sign of pain.

The breed of cat known for its normally stubby tail is the a. Persian b. Maine Coon c. Siamese d. Manx

d. Manx Manx; all of the other breeds listed have a long tail.

Isotonic solutions a. Must be given IV only b. Must be given subcutaneously only c. May be given intraperitoneally or subcutaneously d. May be given IV, subcutaneously, or intraperitoneally

d. May be given IV, subcutaneously, or intraperitoneally

Equine encephalomyelitis (EEE, WEE, VEE) is a viral disease that can be transmitted to people by the bite of an infected a. Tick b. Mite c. Louse d. Mosquito

d. Mosquito The mosquito is the major vector of equine encephalomyelitis. People bitten by infected mosquitoes can develop the disease, which can be fatal.

The major causative agent of chronic respiratory disease in rats is a. Pseudomonas b. Mycobacterium c. Pasteurella d. Mycoplasma

d. Mycoplasma

The most common type of leukocyte found in the peripheral blood of dogs is the a. Monocyte b. Basophil c. Eosinophil d. Neutrophil

d. Neutrophil

What breed of rabbit is most commonly used in research? a. Angora b. Mini Lop c. Netherland dwarf d. New Zealand white

d. New Zealand white

According to the Animal Welfare Act, which of these species must be provided with an environment adequate to promote their psychological well-being? a. Rabbit b. Guinea pig c. Ferret d. Nonhuman primate

d. Nonhuman primate Psychological well-being of primates is covered in the 1985 amendment to the Animal Welfare Act.

An irregular heart rhythm that results from variations in vagal nerve tone as a result of respiration in dogs is a. Normal sinus tachycardia b. Gallop rhythm c. Ectopic heartbeat d. Normal sinus arrhythmia

d. Normal sinus arrhythmia Normal sinus arrhythmia is a nonpathologic arrhythmia.

A client is concerned because she has noticed that a recently lactating doe seems to be abandoning her babies. When she looks in the nest, the young jump like popcorn. You suggest that she a. Provide more heat for the young b. Start to feed them solid food c. Cross foster the young to another doe d. Not worry because the doe normally nurses once a day

d. Not worry because the doe normally nurses once a day A doe typically nurses her young only once or twice a day. Normal, healthy young jump about in the nest.

The breed of dog that commonly has its tail docked is the a. Dachshund b. Siberian husky c. Newfoundland d. Old English sheepdog

d. Old English sheepdog Of the four breeds listed, only the Old English sheepdog has its tail docked.

In taxonomy, what does the term Rodentia refer to? a. Phylum b. Class c. Family d. Order

d. Order Rodentia is the largest order in the class Mammalia.

Which of these instruments is used to examine the ear canal? a. Ophthalmoscope b. Fluoroscope c. Microscope d. Otoscope

d. Otoscope An otoscope is used to examine ears.

Sendai virus is a a. Coronavirus b. Rotavirus c. Reovirus d. Paramyxovirus

d. Paramyxovirus Sendai is a ribonucleic acid (RNA) paramyxovirus-parainfluenza type 1 virus.

The rabies virus introduced by a bite from an infected animal travels from the bite area to the brain via a. Venous blood b. Lymph vessels c. Tissue diffusion d. Peripheral nerves

d. Peripheral nerves

Erysipeloid of people, caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, is the result of wound infection with contaminated material. What farm animal is most likely to carry this organism? a. Horses b. Cattle c. Sheep d. Pigs

d. Pigs Pigs get diamond skin disease from Erysipelothrix , which can become a wound contaminant in people who contact an infected pig.

What is the most important skill that a Restrainers can develop? a. Hypnosis b. Firm voice c. Slow movements d. Self-confidence

d. Self-confidence Although all are good skills, self-confidence is the most important.

A cage of mice is in front of you in which some mice have facial hair missing around the nose. You are best to a. Individually separate all the mice with missing hair. b. Squirt with water every time you notice a problem. c. Treat them with ivermectin for mite infestation. d. Separate the mouse that does not have any missing hair.

d. Separate the mouse that does not have any missing hair. Barbering is the chewing off of hair patches so close that the area looks clean shaven. The dominant mouse is typically the only one not barbered. Removing this mouse usually solves the problem.

What animal is a common reservoir for the rabies virus? a. Rabbit b. Rat c. Pig d. Skunk

d. Skunk Skunks can carry rabies for long periods without showing signs of the disease.

d.Slowly remove all bandages while monitoring the patient's heart rate and blood pressure.

d. Slowly remove all bandages while monitoring the patient's heart rate and blood pressure.

A rabbit with a purulent nasal discharge and conjunctivitis would most likely be affected by a. Kennel cough b. Venereal disease c. Ringworm d. Snuffles

d. Snuffles

Which disinfectant is most effective against parvovirus? a. Chlorhexidine b. Povidone iodine c. Alcohol d. Sodium hypochlorite

d. Sodium hypochlorite Sodium hypochlorite (Clorox bleach) is the most effective disinfectant against parvovirus.

Ulcerative pododermatitis in rabbits is commonly called a. Slobbers b. Lumps c. Foot slip d. Sore hocks

d. Sore hocks Sore hocks actually involves the ventral metatarsal region rather than the hock; it is caused by poor husbandry or environmental pressures.

What is the correct term for a female guinea pig? a. Doe b. Queen c. Bitch d. Sow

d. Sow

The equine joint that is never splinted is the a. Carpus b. Hock c. Fetlock d. Stifle

d. Stifle The hock is angled and therefore more difficult to splint. The carpus and fetlock would be more easily splinted, because they have no angulation. Stiles are never splinted.

Into what structure is the drug given when using a gavage needle in a rat? a. Muscle b. Urinary bladder c. Saphenous vein d. Stomach

d. Stomach A gavage needle, also known as a dosing needle , is placed in the stomach to deliver drugs to rodents.

Purpura hemorrhagica is a complication of what disease in horses? a. Rhinopneumonitis b. Infectious anemia c. Influenza d. Strangles

d. Strangles Strangles, caused by Streptococcus equi, can result in purpura.

A Velpeau sling is used to a. Support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation b. Prevent self-trauma c. Stabilize a fractured leg before surgery d. Support the shoulder joint after surgery

d. Support the shoulder joint after surgery

Which of these tapeworms uses people as its definitive host? a. Dipylidium caninum b. Echinococcus granulosus c. Taenia pisiformis d. Taenia solium

d. Taenia solium The larval and adult stages of Taenia solium, the beef tapeworm, can live in people or cattle; therefore, it is a zoonotic disease.

A common problem that results from incorrect restraint of a gerbil is a. Prolapsed rectum b. Fractured back c. Proptosed eyes d. Tail slip

d. Tail slip Grasping the end of the gerbil's tail during restraint may separate the skin from the distal portion of the tail.

One of the main disadvantages to using wire mesh floor cages is that a. More cleaning is required. b. The animal is not in contact with its excreta. c. Enrichment devices cannot be used. d. The animal cannot create a microenvironment.

d. The animal cannot create a microenvironment. Microenvironment is the environment that immediately surrounds the animal. If the caging is wire mesh, it is difficult to keep a constant humidity and temperature. The advantage of wire mesh flooring is that the animal is not in contact with its excreta.

Flushing the external ear canal is contraindicated if a. A viral infection is suspected. b. The patient has floppy ears. c. The patient has previously been diagnosed with a bacterial infection. d. The tympanic membrane is ruptured.

d. The tympanic membrane is ruptured. Flushing the ear when the tympanic membrane is ruptured can lead to the extension of the infection to the middle ear.

What agency prepares standards and enforces the Animal Welfare Act? a. ACLAM b. USDI c. AVMA d. USDA

d. USDA The United States Department of Agriculture is responsible for developing regulations and enforcing the Animal Welfare Act.

Pigs naturally pull back when pressure is applied around their a. Lower jaw (mandible) b. Tail c. Midsection d. Upper jaw (maxilla)

d. Upper jaw (maxilla) When pressure is applied to the upper jaw, a pig will pull back, which can be used to guide the animal.

Feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a a. Bacterium b. Rickettsia c. Fungus d. Virus

d. Virus Feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a virus but is also associated with immunodeficiencies caused by feline leukemia virus or feline immunodeficiency virus infection.

Besides skin tenting, one of the best physical signs to access fl uid status is a. Heart rate b. Respiration c. Pulse d. Weight

d. Weight Weight can give a rough assessment of fluids retained.

Rabbits are a. Spontaneous ovulators b. Induced ovulators c. Cyclic ovulators d. Intensive ovulators

b. Induced ovulators Like cats and ferrets, rabbits are induced ovulators.

Which of the following is not recommended for a weak foal? - Bucket feeding - Bottle feeding - Nasogastric intubation - Intravenous nutrition

Bottle feeding Bottle feeding may cause aspiration pneumonia in a weak foal.

Ruminants that consume excessive concentrates may be predisposed to - Ketosis - Rumen acidosis - Rumen alkalosis - Parturient paresis

Rumen acidosis Fermentation of carbohydrates acidifies the contents of the rumen.

When disturbed by attempts at physical restraint, a horse's initial response is usually to - Kick - Bite - Run - Rear

Run Running is a horse's first instinct when threatened. If it cannot run away, it will fight.

What is a freemartin? - A beef breed calf - A heifer calf born twinned to a bull - A calf with extra teats - A premature calf with birth defects

A heifer calf born twinned to a bull Heifers born with bull twins are called freemartins, and they are almost always infertile.

Protein that is not used by the body is converted to energy, and the waste - Is stored as fat for energy - Is excreted by the kidneys - Is filtered by the liver - Is reabsorbed as amino acids

Is excreted by the kidneys Feeding excess protein is expensive, and it goes to waste.

If the percent dry matter on the label reads protein 45.7% and fat 30.5%, what patient should not eat this food? - A dog with pancreatitis - A malnourished 8-week-old kitten - A malnourished 8-week-old puppy - A postsurgical patient

* A dog with pancreatitis High fat and protein diets are contraindicated.

The breed of dog that is brachycephalic is the a. Pekingese b. Collie c. Greyhound d. Malamute

* a. Pekingese The Pekingese is a brachycephalic or short-nose breed.

A male rabbit is called a a. Boar b. Bull c. Buck d. Barrow

* c. Buck

When using an elimination diet to test whether a dog has a food allergy, improvement should be seen within - 24 hours - 2 days - 1 week - 1 month

1 month Clients need to be informed that it may take a month before any improvement is seen and that it is essential that no other food be given to the animal.

When the newborn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about - 4 hours only - 1 to 2 days only - 5 days only - 1 week only

1 to 2 days only

When young livestock are exposed to poor ventilation or cold stress, what outbreaks often occur? - Pinkeye - Dermatophilosis - Pneumonia - Polioencephalomalacia

Pneumonia Cold stress and poor ventilation decrease immune resistance to the pathogens that cause pneumonia.

The most common cause of fear-based aggression in adult dogs is - Abuse - Neglect - Hunger - Poor socialization

Poor socialization Poor socialization is a more common cause of fear aggression than outright abuse or neglect.

During pregnancy, goats require extra dietary energy during the last - 4 months - 3 months - 2 months - 1 week

2 months Fetal growth is greatest during the last 2 months of gestation.

The number of nipple watering devices in group pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. A pen of 20 pigs should have a minimum of - 1 nipple per pen - 2 nipples per pen - 3 nipples per pen - 4 nipples per pen

2 nipples per pen Providing two nipples in a pen of 20 pigs allows all of the animals access to water. Generally, swine producers are encouraged to install a minimum of two watering devices per pen.

A normal growth rate for puppies (per kilogram of anticipated adult weight) is - 2 to 4 g/day - 4 to 5 g/day - 1 to 2 g/day - 3 to 6 g/day

2 to 4 g/day 2 to 4 g/day/kg of anticipated adult weight; Puppies should be weighed when there is concern about lactation

Solutions of bleach mixed with water are useful for disinfection for up to - 24 hours - 2 to 3 days - A week - 2 to 3 weeks

24 hours Bleach solutions become ineffective 24 hours after mixing.

At what age is a kitten fully able to control its body temperature? - 61 days - 45 days - 28 days - 12 days

28 days At 28 days, kittens are no longer dependent on the ambient temperature and are able to control their body temperature. At this time they begin to explore their surroundings and become more independent.

Effective cage washing necessitates a temperature at some point in the cycle of at least - 50.4° C (123° F) - 71.5° C (161° F) - 82.2° C (180° F) - 100.3° C (213° F)

82.2° C (180° F) Temperature must be achieved for at least 3 minutes to accomplish disinfection.

At what core temperature does a newborn kitten's digestive tract become less functional? - 90° F - 95° F - 100° F - 103° F

90° F The digestive tract becomes nonfunctional, and the kitten should not be fed until the core temperature is greater than 90° F.

What is a newborn piglet's lower critical temperature? - 70° to 75° F - 65° to 70° F - 110° to 115° F - 90° to 95° F

90° to 95° F Newborn piglets do not have the ability to regulate their body temperature, and supplemental heat must be provided to near adult body temperature.

What is the normal body temperature of a kitten during the first 2 weeks of its life? - 102° F - 100° F - 95° F - 104° F

95° F Kittens lack the shiver response and are able to raise their body temperature only 12° F higher than the ambient temperature.

In goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin - B - K - D - A

A

The vitamin C levels in guinea pig food decline after how many months of storage? - 3 months - 6 months - 9 months - 12 months

3 months

When a product is labeled as it must contain at least what percent of said ingredient? - 10% - 28% - 3% - 12%

3% Per AAFCO guidelines

During the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of - 32.2° C (90° F) - 26.7° C (80° F) - 21.1° C (70° F) - 15.6° C (60° F)

32.2° C (90° F) Neonatal puppies and kittens usually stay right next to their dams, in an environment nearing body temperature. Orphaned neonates require a similar environment.

Lack of what vitamin can cause deafness, tissue malfunction, and large coarse skin lesions in dogs? - A - K - B - B

A

The minimum relative humidity in a neonatal puppy housing unit should be - 30% - 50% - 70% - 90%

50%

How high can goats commonly jump? - 6 feet - 5 feet - 4 feet - 3 feet

6 feet All fences and paddocks must be at least 6 feet high, because a goat can easily jump anything lower.

Which of the following is a normal urine pH for a cat? - 6.2 - 6.0 - 7.0 - 7.5

6.2 The normal urine pH range for cats is 6.2 to 6.6.

Alcohol's optimum disinfecting ability occurs at a dilution factor of - 50% - 70% - 90% - 95%

70%

d.Nictitating membrane

A. Conjunctiva

If there were no contraindications for the following feeding routes, the best route would be via - The cephalic vein - The jugular vein - A gastric tube - Femoral artery

A gastric tube If the gut works, use it.

When performing a wing clip on a bird, the wing should be grasped firmly at the a. Flight feathers b. Primary feathers c. Carpal joint d. Radius and ulna

c. Carpal joint Grasping the carpal joint prevents injury to the bird.

For a sow to exit a farrowing crate, she must back up. What device works best to force her to back out of the crate? - A herding panel - A bucket - A hog snare - A broom

A broom The sow's vision will be effectively blocked, causing her to back up. The other items mentioned might work, but the handler's hand and arms would be at risk from the bars of the crate.

Which of the following nonhuman primates does not carry the herpes B virus? a. Pig-tailed macaque b. Rhesus c. Cebus d. Cynomolgus

c. Cebus New World monkeys do not carry the herpes B virus.

The definition of is - Materials used to manufacture a finished feed - Quantitative distribution of the individual nutrients within the finished formula - A nourishing substance, food, or component of food, including minerals, vitamins, fats, protein, carbohydrates, and water - Portions and select ingredients

A nourishing substance, food, or component of food, including minerals, vitamins, fats, protein, carbohydrates, and water

A group of gilts is very nervous, because they have been caught with a snare several times in the past. What would you use to facilitate snaring them? - A cane or herding stick - A lariat - A pair of hog tongs - A bucket placed over the pig's head

A pair of hog tongs Hog tongs facilitate snaring. One handler applies the tongs to the back of the neck, which causes the animal to squeal. As soon as a second person places the snare, the tongs are released. This procedure is usually less stressful than chasing the gilt around the pen.

What restraint equipment is most useful when moving pigs from one place to another? - A bucket - Small fences - A portable barrier - A dog

A portable barrier A hurdle or barrier made of a solid piece of plastic or fiberglass placed in the path of a pig will turn it in the desired direction.

Greasy, foul-smelling feces usually indicates - Too high protein content in the diet - Too high fat content in the diet - Too high carbohydrate content in the diet - A problem with fat absorption

A problem with fat absorption Also called steatorrhea

What is the best route of fluid administration for a slightly dehydrated patient that can drink water and not vomit? a. Oral b. IV c. Intraosseous d. IM

a. Oral Oral fluid administration is the preferred method because of reduced expense, ease of administration, and safety.

The urine of a normal rabbit can be which of the following colors? a. Orange b. Black c. Green d. Turquoise

a. Orange Porphyrins cause the urine of rabbits to look orange.

Fats are required for absorption, transportation, and storage of what vitamins? - A, D, E, and K - A, B complex, C, and D - B complex, D, E, and K - B complex and C

A, D, E, and K Vitamin B complex and vitamin C are both water soluble.

d.1336 ml

A. 0.08 × 20 × 1000 = 1600 ml; 20 × 66 = 1320 ml; (1600 ml + 1320 ml = 2920 ml)

d.At any point after injury

A. 4 hours after injury

d.An alcohol bath

A. A cool-water bath

d.Urethral calculi

A. A ruptured urinary bladder

d.No femoral pulse

A. Alertness

d.Salt

A. Apomorphine is a controlled drug unlikely to be found in a home.

d.Bilateral flexing of fore and hind limbs

A. Bilateral extensor rigidity of forelimbs and bilaterally flaccid or paralyzed hind limbs or both

d.Plasmalyte 148

A. Blood

d.Electrocautery

A. Direct pressure has little potential for damage and can be used while other means of hemostasis are being secured.

d.Pale mucous membranes

A. Elevated body temperature

d.Lower than 100

A. Greater than 180

d.Head lowered, neck flexed

A. Head elevated, neck neutral

d.Hypercalcemia

A. Hyperkalemia is too high a level of potassium in the blood. Because the potassium cannot be properly eliminated from the body, the cat becomes hyperkalemic.

d.Acute heart failure

A. Hypovolemia

d.Bring the cat to you for initial examination, so you can determine whether the animal needs to be seen by a veterinarian.

A. Immediately bring the cat in to be examined by a veterinarian.

d.Trocarize the stomach.

A. Inducing emesis is contraindicated in gastric dilatation/volvulus. Vomitus cannot be passed if the stomach is twisted.

d.Organophosphate insecticide

A. Ingestion of sufficient anticoagulant rodenticides can cause prolonged clotting times.

d.Relieve pain.

A. Keeping a critically injured animal alive is more important than the other three choices.

d.Solu-Delta

A. Mannitol

d.Colloids

A. Only isotonic solutions can be safely administered subcutaneously.

d.Per rectum

A. Per os means orally.

d.Place hands over the patient's nose to slow down rapid respiration.

A. Pinching the trachea will stimulate coughing to allow expansion of the lungs and prevent atelectasis.

d.Immediately bring the dog to the veterinarian.

A. Pressure may cause further injury to the globe.

d.Lining of prepuce

A. The conjunctiva of the eye, not the sclera, is used.

d.Intramuscular

A. The intravenous route provides direct access to the intravascular space.

Rubber and plastic articles should be disinfected with - Alcohols - Halogens - Detergents - Aldehydes

Aldehydes Aldehydes will disinfect rubber and plastic without causing damage.

A horse standing with its ears erect and moving and its head erect is most likely - Depressed - Nervous - Alert - Angry

Alert When the ears are erect and still, the horse may be becoming nervous.

The ______ hay, if processed correctly, has the highest nutritional value when compared to other hays. - Alfalfa - Bluegrass - Oat - Timothy

Alfalfa

A diet high in vegetable protein will cause the animal to produce ______ urine. - Cloudy - Clear - Alkaline - Acidic

Alkaline

What species is prone to trichobezoar formation? a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Cricetulus griseus c. Gallus domesticus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Oryctolagus cuniculus Rabbits are prone to trichobezoar, or hair ball, formation.

The knot or hitch that can be used for breeding hobbles is a - Bowline on a bight - Clove hitch - Halter tie - Reefer

Bowline on a bight When this knot is tied in the middle of a long rope, it forms a nonslip noose that can go around the animal's neck. The long ends can be wrapped around the rear legs and secured so the mare cannot kick.

Gallus domesticus is the scientific name for the a. Pigeon b. Duck c. Chicken d. Crow

c. Chicken

On what animal would you expect to find wattles? a. Rabbit b. Amphibian c. Chicken d. Guinea pig

c. Chicken

Tularemia is most commonly associated with what species? a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Cricetulus griseus c. Gallus domesticus d. Cavia porcellus

a. Oryctolagus cuniculus Tularemia can be contracted by handling rabbit hides or carcasses.

What area of the human body does creeping eruption affect? a. Skin b. Eye c. Liver d. Lung

a. Skin Ancylostoma caninum larvae can burrow through intact skin, including human skin, and cause intense pruritus.

When a calf suckles and ingests warm milk, the reticular groove is stimulated to close so that milk and saliva pass directly into the - Abomasum - Rumen - Reticulum - Duodenum

Abomasum

Which of the following is useful for dissolving urine scale from rabbit pans? - Alkalies - Anionics - Acids - Chelators

Acids Urine scale is high in calcium, which can be dissolved using acids.

Sows often develop constipation during late gestation and early lactation. What should the producer do to minimize this problem and keep them in optimal health? - Increase the daily ration. - Add fiber to the ration. - Confine the animals to prevent exercise. - Decrease the daily ration.

Add fiber to the ration. Sows are limit-fed to prevent obesity. More fiber adds bulk to the diet without increasing calories.

Which is not true about rabbit cecal pellets? - Also known as "day droppings" - Are eaten by the rabbit - Are soft, are dark in color, have a strong odor, and are coated in mucus - Are formed in the cecum and are rich in vitamins and nutrients

Also known as "day droppings" Cecal pellets are also known as night droppings.

The primary difference in a diet to decrease hairballs in cats as compared with other cat diets is - Amount of protein - Amount of fat - Amount of fiber - Amount of salt

Amount of fiber

Scent glands in the male goat are located - Around the tail base - Around the horn base - In the groin area - In the axial area

Around the horn base Scent glands in male goats are located around the horn base and may be destroyed at dehorning.

The principal anion in extracellular fluid is a. SO 4 b. NO 3 c. Cl d. HCO 3

c. Cl

Fiberglass cast materials have all of the following advantages except a. Slow setting time b. Lightweight c. Good ventilation d. Extreme rigidity

a. Slow setting time Fiberglass is known for its rapid setting time.

Urea toxicity in small ruminants typically occurs within 1 hour after ingestion. What is not a sign of urea toxicity? - Low packed cell volume (PCV) - Frequent urination and defecation - Incoordination - Muscle and chin tremors

Low packed cell volume (PCV) An elevated PCV is seen with small ruminants with urea toxicity due to dehydration.

A herding panel is useful when handling - Cattle - Swine - Cats - Goats

Swine The handler should easily be able to manipulate the herding panel, which is used to block the pig's vision. A pig will not attempt to walk through a solid panel.

What clinical condition is often mistaken for obesity and may conceal malnutrition? - Diarrhea - Ascites - Anemia - Pancreatitis

Ascites Ascites create the appearance of a pendulous abdomen, which may be confused with obesity.

How can a person develop sarcocystosis? a. Eating contaminated beef b. Contact with avian blood samples c. Contact with llama saliva d. Bite by an infected mosquito

a. Eating contaminated beef Sarcocystis is a protozoan parasite that can infect people who eat raw or undercooked beef, pork, or lamb.

The dairy breed with the highest average milk yield is the a. Holstein b. Guernsey c. Jersey d. Ayrshire

a. Holstein The Holstein has an average milk yield of over 20,000 lb per year.

Cow's milk should not be given to puppies or kittens as a milk replacer because of its - Low protein and fat levels - High fat and protein levels - Low fat and higher protein levels - High fat and lower protein levels

Low protein and fat levels Puppies and kittens require a significantly higher level of fat and protein in their milk formulas than cow milk provides.

Ducks and geese that eat moldy feed frequently succumb to - Dermatophytosis - Aspergillosis - Pediculosis - Actinobacillosis

Aspergillosis

Cattle add large quantities of saliva to their feed during chewing and also regurgitate during rumination. The most important effect of this is to - Add more moisture to forage materials - Buffer the acids produced in the rumen - Aid chewing and swallowing - Keep the tongue moist

Buffer the acids produced in the rumen Saliva in cattle is basic and helps buffer the acidic products of ruminal fermentation.

When "tail jacking" a cow, grasp the tail - By the end and pull it to one side as far as possible - At the base and elevate it dorsally and to the right - By the end and elevate it dorsally and to the left - At the base and elevate it dorsally and directly in the midline

At the base and elevate it dorsally and directly in the midline The tail should be grasped at the base and elevated straight up. Moving the tail toward one side or holding the tail by the end can damage the tail.

Where is the dunging area most likely to be located in a pen that has adequate space for hogs? - Near the front - All over - In the center - At the rear

At the rear Pigs tend to defecate in a far corner of the pen, because they are in a vulnerable position at this time.

Horses with active laminitis should be fed - Grain only - Alfalfa hay and grain - Alfalfa hay only - Average-quality hay and no grain

Average-quality hay and no grain Grain and alfalfa hay are high in energy; high-energy feeds may exacerbate laminitis.

When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed - By volume, not weight - As a per-day ration - By weight, not volume - According to supplementation

By weight, not volume The horse stomach can hold approximately 5 lb at a time.

d.Induce emesis and observe the kitten at home.

B. Wash the kitten with mild dish soap, rinse well, and then bring the animal to the clinic for examination.

d.Propofol

B. Diazepam

d.Applying silver nitrate

B. Direct pressure

d.Acute blood loss caused by trauma

B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

d.Cat with possible linear foreign body in the bowel

B. Dog with acute gastric dilatation/volvulus

d.Cold applied every 10 minutes

B. Dry heat has the greatest effect on reducing pain and muscle spasm.

d.14 to 18 gauge

B. Eighteen- to 20-gauge needles allow subcutaneous fluids to be administered in a reasonable period of time without causing undue pain to the patients. Smaller sizes should be used in pediatric or very small patients.

d.Induce emesis then bring the pet to the clinic only if it shows signs of toxicity.

B. Emesis should be induced, because this is a noncorrosive toxin. The pet should be brought in for antidotal treatment before signs of toxicity occur.

d.Tarsal

B. Femoral

d.D5W

B. Hypertonic saline

d.As a continuous, slow infusion over the entire treatment period

B. In the early stages after initial fluid administration

d.Induce emesis then bring the pet to the clinic only if it shows signs of toxicity.

B. Induce emesis then immediately bring the pet to the clinic for examination and treatment.

d.It will resolve spontaneously.

B. It is a life-threatening medical emergency.

d.Totally absent, including the heartbeat

B. Lagging behind the heartbeat

d.Diabetes mellitus

B. Myocardial disease

d.Cat with a small laceration on a paw pad

B. Of the listed conditions, respiratory distress is the most critical.

d.An upper respiratory viral infection

B. One should suspect urethral obstruction in male cats that are straining in the litter box until that problem is ruled out.

d.Unusually warm

B. Pale or white

d.Splenic vein

B. Portal vein

d.A need to double the required fluid for rehydration

B. Rapid intravenous administration of potassium can lead to cardiac arrest.

d.Dog with gastric dilatation/volvulus

B. Respiratory function is an immediate concern.

d.Observe the animal for hemorrhage.

B. See the veterinarian immediately. Because of the high risk of peritonitis, most emergency clinicians recommend exploratory surgery as soon as possible after penetrating abdominal injuries.

It is acceptable and humane to lift a newborn pig by the - Tail - Ear - Front leg - Back leg

Back leg Lifting by any of the other body parts may cause injuries.

What vitamin is not fat soluble? - A - D - E - C

C Vitamin C is water soluble.

d.24 hours

C. 1 to 4 hours.

d.500 beats/min

C. 200 beats/min

d.8.0

C. 7.4

d.Renal failure

C. Rapid fluid replacement adds to the intracranial pressure, making cases of cerebral edema worse.

d.Use a roll of tape as a speculum to keep the mouth open and prevent the animal from biting the tube.

C. .Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the area of the thoracic inlet.

d.Ligate the umbilical cord.

C. Administer a drop of oxytocin under the tongue.

d.Nasal oxygen catheter

C. Administration of oxygen via a chest tube would result in pneumothorax.

d.An increased heart rate

C. An initial increase in heart rate that then decreases as the patient nears death

d.Breathing

C. Analgesia.

d.Rapid access to the circulatory system in hypovolemic animals

C. Animals with septicemia

d.Neoprostaglandins

C. Antiprostaglandin

d.2 to 3 inches anterior to the umbilicus on the midline

C. At the level of the umbilicus, to the right or left of the midline, is the site that will result in the smallest chance of causing damage to abdominal contents.

d.Administer aspirin for discomfort, and see the veterinarian within 48 hours for treatment.

C. Attempt to gently push the fishhook through the skin, then cut and remove it. If this is not possible or successful, bring the animal to see the veterinarian as soon as possible.

d.Intravenous catheter placement

C. Be sure the airway is patent.

d.A cough is induced.

C. Respiration becomes more labored

d.Let the animal try to come to you.

C. Rostrally

d.Another dose of insulin, then observe the cat at home

C. Some corn syrup or sugar solution on the gums, then bring the cat to the clinic for medical attention

d.Prepare the patient for immediate tracheostomy.

C. Swing the patient to remove as much fluid as possible from the airway, then initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

d.Equine herpes virus 4

C. Tetanus

d.Place the fluid between the teeth and the cheek in large enough amounts so that the patient will be forced to swallow.

C. The patient should be allowed to swallow on its own accord so that aspiration pneumonia can be prevented. Administration of the fluid between the cheeks and the teeth will also reduce the risks of aspiration.

d.Eight to tenth ribs

C. Third to sixth ribs

d.Renal failure

C. Thrombocytopenia

d.To the lateral points of the temporomandibular joint

C. To the area adjacent and ventral to the mandible

d.XII; tachycardia

C. X; bradycardia

Disinfection is most difficult following contamination of premises with - Canine distemper virus - Feline leukemia virus - Canine parvovirus - Feline calicivirus

Canine parvovirus Parvovirus can survive in the environment for months.

When confronted by a dog inside a kennel that is snarling, growling, and lunging at the bars, what restraint instrument is safest for you and the dog? - Restraint gloves - Capture pole - Blanket - Rope leash

Capture pole The capture pole allows you to remain a safe distance from the dog, and the noose will not cause the animal to choke if used properly.

To capture a herd of goats, it is best to - Chase them with a dog. - Capture the lead goat and the rest will follow. - Use small panels to block off escape. - Stand in front of the barn and call.

Capture the lead goat and the rest will follow. Save steps and aggravation by learning which goat is the lead goat. A dog will cause them to only scatter more.

Sudden ration changes would not cause - Cachexia - Laminitis - Diarrhea - Colic

Cachexia Cachexia is a profound and marked state of malnutrition.

Which of the following is most often associated with cancer patients? - Cachexia - Obesity - Polyphagia - Increased appetite

Cachexia Cancer patients often lose weight even if their intake of food does not diminish

Which of the following is an example of a dietary macromineral? - Iron - Calcium - Zinc - Copper

Calcium Iron, zinc, and copper are examples of microminerals.

What species has the highest protein requirement? - Cats - Dogs - Rabbits - Sheep

Cats Cats are carnivores and therefore require more protein than herbivores and omnivores.

If a cat is eating grass, then you know that the - Cat wants to vomit - Cat has worms - Cat has a nutritional deficiency - Cause is unknown

Cause is unknown It is unknown why cats and dogs eat grass.

Which of these signs is not seen in fearful animals? - Constricted pupils - Standing or lying tensely at the rear of the cage - Facing the back corner of the cage, glancing over the shoulder to keep people in sight - Ears pulled back

Constricted pupils Fearful animals have dilated pupils.

Which of the following does not result in glucose in the blood? - Diet - Conversion of protein to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver - Breakdown of glycogen - Conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver

Conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver Fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose.

Typical sources of fiber in dog food would include all of the following, except - Peanut hulls - Beet pulp - Cellulose - Cornstarch

Cornstarch Cornstarch is a source of energy.

A roll-bar in a farrowing crate keeps the sow from contacting the pen wall as she lies down; the function of the roll-bar is to prevent - Injuring the teats - Upsetting the food - Crushing the young - Breaking the pen wall

Crushing the young This kind of housing is typical for preventing injuries to piglets.

In what condition should dietary ash be reduced and 5 g of NaCl per pound of food be added to stimulate water intake and thus achieve moderate diuresis? - Diarrhea - Ascites - Pancreatitis - Crystalluria

Crystalluria Increased urine production may help prevent crystalluria from developing into urolithiasis.

d.10%

D. 10%

d.Kept strictly quiet and confined; see the veterinarian immediately

D. A patient with a possible herniated disk should be strictly confined to minimize further spinal cord damage. It should be immediately examined by a veterinarian to assess the extent of injury and start appropriate therapy.

d.Radiographic examination

D. A radiographic examination should not be performed until the patient's condition is stabilized.

d.Apply a warm compress to the penis.

D. A warm compress may increase circulation and worsen the paraphimosis (prolonged erection).

d.Administration of in situ antibiotics

D. Administration of in situ antibiotics

d.Esophageal stethoscope

D. An animal must be anesthetized to insert an esophageal stethoscope.

d.Brick red

D. Brick red

d.Bring the cat to the clinic for examination.

D. Bring the cat to the clinic for examination.

d.Cool-water bath

D. Cool-water bath

d.Dilated pupils

D. Dilated pupils

d.Give a baby aspirin to reduce pain before moving the animal.

D. Medication should not be given without the doctor's consent.

d.Nasal discharge

D. Nasal discharge

d.Not to induce vomiting and to immediately bring in the cat

D. Not to induce vomiting and to immediately bring in the cat

Before it is taken into the surgery room, portable equipment should be - Wiped with a dry sterile cloth - Fumigated with formaldehyde gas - Damp dusted with a disinfectant - Scrubbed with a sanitizer

Damp dusted with a disinfectant Items taken into the surgery should be clean and dust-free, but scrubbing is not necessary. Chlorine bleach must never be combined with ammonia because of the potential production of - An iodophor - Chlorhexidine - Chlorine gases - Alcohol *** Chlorine gases Chlorine gases are poisonous.

When hypochlorite solution comes in contact with formaldehyde, the gas produced is a very - Effective disinfectant - Dangerous carcinogen - Pleasant deodorant - Weak antiseptic

Dangerous carcinogen

Goiter can be caused by - Deficiency of iodine - Deficiency of iron - Deficiency of vitamin C - Deficiency of essential fatty acids

Deficiency of iodine

Most scent glands in male goats can be destroyed at the time of - Birth - Weaning - Foot trimming - Dehorning

Dehorning Most scent glands are located around the base of the horn buds and can be destroyed during electric dehorning.

Because of their high fiber content and bulky nature, dry dog food should not be fed to dogs with - Diarrhea - Ascites - Anemia - Pancreatitis

Diarrhea

The major consideration in evaluating a dog's diet is - Maintenance requirements - Reproduction and lactation - Carbohydrate content - Digestibility

Digestibility

What type of floor is the most difficult to disinfect? - Tile - Cement - Wood - Dirt

Dirt

A product that destroys 100% of bacteria is classified as a - Sterilant - Disinfectant - Sanitizer - Germicide

Disinfectant Disinfectants are products that destroy pathogens, such as bacteria.

Of domestic fowl, which poses the least threat to a handler? - Ducks - Geese - Turkeys - Chickens

Ducks A duck's bill is blunt and can pinch but will not break the skin. Also, ducks are small; consequently, their wings do not cause painful bruises.

Enteral feeding is indicated in a horse with - Rabies - Dementia - Ileus - Dysphagia

Dysphagia Dysphagia; Difficulty in swallowing is an indication for enteral feeding.

Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)? - E - B - D - A

E

What is the best time of day to restrain sheep in the summer? - Midafternoon - Afternoon - Early morning - Midmorning

Early morning Early morning is the coolest time and allows the owner to observe the flock for signs of distress throughout the rest of the day.

It is July, and the weather is hot and humid. For what time of day should an appointment be made to blood test a group of replacement gilts? - Early morning - Late afternoon - Midmorning - It does not matter

Early morning Pigs cannot dissipate heat, because they do not have functional sweat glands. It is always wise to schedule such activities early in the day to avoid overheating the animals.

Horses are generally fed grain to meet what need? - Appetite - Energy - Digestion - Vitamin

Energy Generally inadequate with forage diet only

Consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grain, or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring, by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine, and production of epsilon toxin. This syndrome is called - Parturient paresis - Urolithiasis - Posthitis - Enterotoxemia

Enterotoxemia Enterotoxemia due to clostridial overgrowth is also called overeating disease. Sheep and goats are commonly vaccinated against the disease.

A local swine producer calls your clinic to schedule an appointment for blood testing a group of replacement gilts. The gilts are currently penned in a large pasture but are fed daily on a fenced concrete pad. It is July, and the weather is hot and humid. What instructions would you give to the producer about penning the gilts before you and the veterinarian arrive? - Fence them in their current mud wallow. - Pen the animals in the corner of the pasture the night before and withhold water. - No special instructions are necessary. - Entice the animals into the feeding area and confine them on the concrete pad just before the scheduled appointment time.

Entice the animals into the feeding area and confine them on the concrete pad just before the scheduled appointment time. It is always easier to catch pigs when they are confined in a small area. Bringing them into the area just before the arrival of the veterinarian can avoid problems associated with water deprivation.

What ingredient can be added to the diet of hogs to provide increased energy and reduce dust in the feed? - Fat - Water - Soybean meal - Silage

Fat Fats or oils provide a readily available source of energy to the diet, with the added benefit of reducing the level of dustiness of the feed.

Advantages of giving an animal in respiratory distress a high-fat diet would not include which of the following? - Less CO is produced from the metabolism of fat. - Fat is more energy dense. - Diets are more palatable. - Fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower.

Fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower.

What nutrient will provide the most calories per gram? - Carbohydrates - Fats - Vitamins - Proteins

Fats One gram of fat provides 2.25 times more calories than a gram of protein or carbohydrate. Vitamins are not a source of calories.

Patients with pancreatitis or hyperlipidemia should avoid foods high in - Fiber - Dextrose - Fats - Water

Fats Require increased digestibility

To restrain a kid for dehorning, you should - Fold the legs into your lap and grasp the scruff of the neck. - Fold the legs into your lap and place each hand alongside the cheeks, holding the ears out of the way with your thumbs. - Grasp both legs on one side with one hand, and the other legs with the other hand, and flip the animal onto your chest. - Grasp all four legs in one hand, and hold the neck stretched out with the other.

Fold the legs into your lap and place each hand alongside the cheeks, holding the ears out of the way with your thumbs.

Finely ground hog feed (particle size 600 to 800 microns) can increase the incidence of - Gastric ulcers - Reproductive problems - Respiratory infections - Lameness

Gastric ulcers Studies show that the production of digestive acids increases when the pig ingests finely ground particles of feed. Antibacterial drugs are routinely added to hog feed to increase performance and feed efficiency. What group of animals benefits the most from this practice? - Breeding boars - Breeding sows - Finishing hogs - Nursery and grower pigs *** Nursery and grower pigs Young pigs grow rapidly, and addition of antibacterial drugs to the diet increases feed efficiency and the rate of gain during this period of the pig's life.

What species is not nocturnal? - Hamster - Gerbil - Hedgehog - Sugar glider

Gerbil The gerbil and the mouse are diurnal.

What is an example of a soluble carbohydrate? - Lignin - Glucose - Cellulose - Pectin

Glucose Lignin, cellulose, and pectin are all dietary fiber or insoluble carbohydrates.

To restrain a snake, you should - Grasp it behind the head and let the rest of the body hang down. - Grasp it behind the head and support the rest of the body with your other hand. - Grasp it with one hand at mid upper body and the other at mid lower body. - Grasp it by the tail and let the rest of the body hang down.

Grasp it behind the head and support the rest of the body with your other hand. A snake's head must be controlled, and the body must be supported in the middle so that the vertebrae are not damaged.

Of the following, which takes priority in the use of amino acids in an animal? - Growth and lactation - Maintenance - Exertional work - Exercise

Growth and lactation

What is a trichobezoar? - Hairball - Laceration - Abscess on the body surface - Any ingested metal foreign body

Hairball If used improperly, what restraint instrument is most likely to cause broken bones, strangulation, and death? - Cat bag - Nose lead - Restraint gloves - Capture pole *** Restraint gloves Restraint gloves decrease your tactile perception to the extent that you could cause strangulation, broken bones, and, ultimately, death.

Fiber serves as a major energy source for - Monogastric mammals - Herbivorous animals - Carnivorous animals - Snakes

Herbivorous animals Grazing animals; mammals lack fiber-degrading enzyme systems, so fiber is not digested in a monogastric carnivore, whereas herbivores are able to ferment fiber to produce energy.

Ultrasonic cleaners work through creating - Steam under pressure - High-frequency sound waves - Mechanical scrubbing - Radiation

High-frequency sound waves

To keep animals germ free inside a barrier unit, the air pressure inside compared with that outside must be - Higher - Lower - Equal - Much lower

Higher Higher pressure inside will prevent entry of outside contaminants when the door is opened.

You and the veterinarian are called to a local farm, where several litters of pigs are suffering from diarrhea. The piglets are 7 to 10 days old and are housed with their dams in conventional farrowing crates. The veterinarian prescribes immediate antibiotic injections, followed by oral medication for 3 days. The sows are extremely agitated by the presence of strangers and seem to be protective of their offspring. To minimize a sow's reaction to handling her piglets, you should remove them from her presence. Generally, the piglets will not squeal if you lift them by grasping the - Tail - Hind leg - Foreleg - Chest

Hind leg

The best measure of whether an animal is eating the right amount of food is - If the proximate analysis of the food is correct for the life stage of the animal - If the CHO/fat/protein ratio is adjusted correctly for the animal - If the animal has a 3 out of 5 body condition score - If the animal eats all of the food it is given

If the animal has a 3 out of 5 body condition score The best measure is if the animal is maintaining its ideal weight.

Pet food labels list ingredients - In descending order by weight - In ascending order by volume - By animal-derived ingredients first - By nonanimal ingredients first

In descending order by weight Ingredients are listed in descending order by weight in accordance with AAFCO guidelines

Excessive carbon monoxide levels in a swine barn are usually associated with - Too many animals in a building or room - Overheating of the animals in a building or room - Incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater - Excessive waste buildup in the pits

Incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater

A cat that was quiet and manageable before going into a cage has turned into a snarling mass of fangs and claws. What is the most likely cause of this behavior change? - Someone hit it or beat it. - It has been frightened. - It is defending its territory. - It is lonely.

It is defending its territory. Cats are territorial and establish territory quickly.

Goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketosis during - Middle of gestation - Late lactation - Early gestation - Late gestation

Late gestation The disease is also termed pregnancy toxemia and occurs when energy demands in the doe exceed intake.

After more than 1 day of not eating, animals are deriving most of their glucose from - Fat stores - Glycogen stores - Lean body mass - Fiber pockets

Lean body mass Muscle is burned for glucose; fat is burned for volatile fatty acids.

Normal behavior for a healthy, well-socialized cat in a new place is to - Cower in a corner - Lose bladder and bowel control - Sit in one spot - Look around and investigate

Look around and investigate The cat's natural instinct is to investigate a new territory.

Hazardous components of a cleaner or disinfectant are stated in the manufacturer's - SOPS - GLPS - VFAS - MSDS

MSDS Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) outline the hazards of chemical products.

What term refers to the quantities of nutrients necessary to maintain a constant body weight in mature dogs at rest? - Maintenance requirements - Reproduction and lactation - Palatability - Digestibility

Maintenance requirements Maintenance includes basic nutrient requirements only.

The cardinal rule when working with cats is to - Make sure doors, windows, and hiding places are firmly closed. - Always wear restraint gloves. - Put them in a cat bag for easier handling. - Always cover their head with a blanket or towel.

Make sure doors, windows, and hiding places are firmly closed. Cats can squeeze through very small spaces. To prevent escape from a cage, examination room, or hospital, all doors should remain securely latched.

The squeeze-back is a desirable feature in cage housing for - Cats - Rats - Dogs - Monkeys

Monkeys Primates may be difficult to handle, so it is important to have a way to restrain them without requiring direct contact between the handler and the animal.

Horses respond to a handler's body language more than other large animals. If you are nervous about handling horses, you should - Talk loudly. - Move quietly but confidently and say nothing. - Whistle. - Move quickly and talk constantly.

Move quietly but confidently and say nothing. Horses are very adept at reading body language and may detect signs of nervousness.

Potassium is critical for - Muscle function - Weight gain - Palatability - Digestion

Muscle function Intracellular cation essential for smooth, skeletal, and cardiac muscle contraction

What type of energy-producing nutrient is a dog or cat able to manufacture, if it is not available in the animal's body? - Soluble carbohydrates - Insoluble carbohydrates - Essential amino acids - Nonessential amino acids

Nonessential amino acids Soluble and insoluble carbohydrates and essential amino acids must be fed or supplemented. Nonessential amino acids are not essential in the diet.

The most common nutritionally caused problems in dogs and cats is/are - Joint problems - Cardiac problems - Reproductive problems - Obesity

Obesity It has been estimated that more than 50% of pet dogs and cats in the United States are overweight and 25% are obese.

Flaxseed is an especially good source of - B vitamins - Vitamin C - Omega-3 and six vitamins - Vitamin D

Omega-3 and six vitamins

The safest place to stand next to a horse is - Directly in front - On the left side - On the right side - On the left and to the front

On the left side One should stand on the left side near the shoulder.

Feeders in finishing hog pens should have - One feeder space per pig - Wide openings so that two pigs can eat per hole - One feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs - Shallow feeder spaces

One feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs One feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs allows the animals ample access to the food supply and is economical for the producer to provide.

Passive antibodies a. Give temporary protection to the puppy b. Are the major protection source for the mother while she is pregnant c. Are produced by a series of vaccinations d. Last for most of the puppy's life

Passive antibodies are passed from the mother to the puppy and provide temporary protection to the puppy in the first few weeks to months of its life. Passive antibodies are passed from the mother to the puppy and provide temporary protection to the puppy in the first few weeks to months of its life.

Horses prone to esophageal obstruction should not be fed - Pellets - Grain - Hay - Salt

Pellets Pellets are more likely to form an obstruction than other forms of feed.

What disinfectant should not be used around cats or other felines? - Quaternary ammonium compounds - Phenolics - Halogens - Alcohols

Phenolics Cats, birds, and some reptiles are more sensitive to phenol toxicity than other species.

A predominant deficiency of what nutrient causes angular limb deformities, given current North American feeding practices of llamas? - Phosphorus - Calcium - Vitamin A - Vitamin D

Phosphorus

Pigs can be challenging animals to handle. When working with swine, understand that - There is no cause for concern about personal safety. - Pigs are not normally vicious, but caution is advised when working with them. - Lactating sows are calm and do not mind if their piglets are handled. - All pigs are extremely dangerous and will attack humans without provocation.

Pigs are not normally vicious, but caution is advised when working with them.

In finishing buildings with pits, exhaust fans should pull air out of the building from the - Pit area - Ceiling - Sides of the building - Ends of the building

Pit area Animal wastes that collect in the pits produce noxious gases that should not be pulled back into the building. Exhaust fans must be set up so that they move the air from the pit area out of the building.

When applying a chain twitch to a horse, you should - Place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure. - Place it on the upper lip and tighten as much as possible. - Place it on the ear and tighten with intermittent pressure. - Place it on the lower lip and tighten as much as possible.

Place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure. The twitch is placed on the upper lip, with pressure applied intermittently to keep the horse's attention on the twitch and at the same time preserve circulation to the lip.

Of the following steps to place a cat in a cat bag, which should be first? - Close the zipper - Place the bag on the table - Hook the bag around the cat's neck - Place the cat in the center of the bag

Place the bag on the table Place the open bag on the table.

What condition is most likely to increase a dog's nutritional requirements? - Sedentary lifestyle - Pregnancy and lactation - Old age - Obesity

Pregnancy and lactation

What foal type has the greatest nutritional requirement? - Healthy, active foal - Foal with an umbilical infection - Newborn foal - Premature foal with septicemia

Premature foal with septicemia Infection increases nutrient needs; septicemia is a more infectious process than umbilical infection.

Food allergies are usually due to which constituent of the diet? - Fat - Antioxidants - Preservatives - Protein

Protein

Soybean meal is often a basic component of swine diets. What does this ingredient provide? - Fat - Protein - Minerals - Vitamins

Protein Soybean meal provides a readily available source of protein (44% to 48.5%) and satisfies the amino acid requirements of pigs.

A cat being fed a homemade vegetarian diet could be expected to be deficient in all of the following, except - Vitamin A - Niacin - Vitamin B - Protein

Protein A diet meeting all of a cat's essential nutrient requirements cannot be entirely derived from plant products.

By determining the nitrogen content of a food sample, one can estimate the amount of ______ in the diet. - Fat - Fiber - Carbohydrate - Protein

Protein Protein is a nitrogenous compound.

An inappropriate use of a puppy crate is for - Housebreaking - Traveling - Punishing - Sleeping

Punishing A puppy or dog must regard its crate as a "den," where it feels safe and comfortable.

Calcium in the diet must be carefully regulated for what species? - Chinchilla - Hamster - Rabbit - Guinea pig

Rabbit Rabbits have an unusual metabolism of calcium. Excessive amounts can lead to uroliths; deficiencies can cause osteodystrophy.

For effective sanitation, lights in the surgical suite should be - Recessed into the ceiling - Close to the air inlet - Fitted with fluorescent bulbs - Activated by entry of personnel

Recessed into the ceiling These are not the surgery lights but the lights used to illuminate the room.

If a bird is presented to you in a cage that contains toys, perches, and water and food dishes, what is the best procedure for capturing the bird? - Throw a towel over the bird and grasp it. - Turn the lights down and reach in behind the bird. - Talk gently and coax the bird to stand on your finger. - Remove all of the paraphernalia from the cage and then reach in behind the bird.

Remove all of the paraphernalia from the cage and then reach in behind the bird. Removing all paraphernalia reduces the chance that the bird will injure itself in attempts to escape.

Hypoallergenic diets oftentimes contain - Soybean - Corn - Rice - Ethoxyquin

Rice Protein source with low allergic potential

What animals have the strongest instinct to remain in a group when threatened? - Sheep - Goats - Pigs - Chickens

Sheep

A horse with cardiac disease may not require a major dietary change. The only change may be to restrict intake of - Hay - Grain - Salt - Water

Salt Salt restriction is a common dietary adjustment in many species with heart failure; it may help reduce blood pressure and the work of the heart.

Use of a detergent cage-washer is an example of - Disinfection - Sanitation - Sterilization - Chelation

Sanitation

Ultrasonic cleaners are used to - Sanitize instruments - Disinfect instruments - Sterilize instruments - Lubricate instruments

Sanitize instruments

During busy days in surgery, the area in the suite most likely to need decontamination is the - Doorway to the operating room - Cabinets holding surgical packs - Scrub sink floor and walls - Air conditioning and heating duct grills

Scrub sink floor and walls

Prolonged undernutrition in adult horses adversely affects all of the following except - Wound healing - Immune system - Skeletal structures - Gastrointestinal tract

Skeletal structures Skeletal structures are maintained in the face of malnutrition in horses.

The apparatus used to restrain adult pigs is the - Snare - Squeeze chute - V-trough - Hobbles

Snare Adult pigs are routinely restrained using a snare around the snout.

Before inducing anesthesia in your rabbit you do a quick physical. You find the rabbit's temperature to be 39.0 o C, the pulse to be 250 beats/min, and the respiration to be 40 breaths/min. These are all a. Normal b. Really high c. On the high side d. Low

a. Normal These are all normal rabbit values.

A hog snare is used to catch and restrain pigs. For the snare to be effective, it should be placed over the - Base of the animal's ear - Entire mouth and nose - Snout and as far back in the mouth as possible - Hind leg above the hock

Snout and as far back in the mouth as possible The snare must control the pig's head. When the pig feels the pressure of the snare, it will pull backward.

Soap for hand washing is most likely to harbor microbes if it is in - A pressurized dispensing pump - Solid bar form - An aerosol canister - A sponge-brush combination

Solid bar form Handling bar soap may contaminate it.

When restraining a rooster, be most careful of the - Beak - Spurs - Wings - Feet

Spurs The spurs on a rooster's feet are sharp and can cause injury.

Although there is good serologic evidence that animals in shelters are exposed to many of the same pathogens, not all shelters experience a disease problem. The difference can best be explained by variance in the - Degrees of pathogenic virulence - Standards of management practice - Prevailing weather conditions - Genetic makeup of the animals

Standards of management practice Proper husbandry helps animals maintain good immune function for resistance to disease.

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a high-energy storage molecule used directly or indirectly to drive other cellular processes that require energy. What process is not driven by ATP? - Transport of molecules and ions across cell membranes against concentration gradients that maintain the internal environment of the cell - Synthesis of chemical compounds - Contraction of muscle fibers and other fibers producing motion of the cells - Synthesis of other low-energy compounds

Synthesis of other low-energy compounds Should be "synthesis of other high-energy components."

What common vice might become apparent if pigs are crowded into a pen with insufficient space for the number of animals? - Tail biting - Hyperactivity - Self-mutilation - Bar biting

Tail biting Tail biting is commonly seen when pigs are overcrowded. Producers often remove the tails from newborn piglets to alleviate this vice as the animals grow older.

What procedure is not a distraction technique? - Taping the legs together - Firm petting - Twitching - Blowing on the face

Taping the legs together Taping the legs is considered a restraint technique.

The amino acid found in animal tissue that is required by cats but not dogs is - Methionine - Taurine - Lysine - Arginine

Taurine Deficiencies can result in cardiomyopathy and retinal atrophy.

Puncture wounds in horses and other species pose a particular risk for the development of - Rabies - Colibacillosis - Tetanus - Strangles

Tetanus The anaerobic environment of a puncture wound is favorable for the growth of Clostridium tetani, the pathogen that causes tetanus.

The normal dentition for the hamster is a. 1003/1003 b. 2003/2003 c. 1002/1002 d. 2033/1023

The Muridae rodents (hamsters, mice, rats, and gerbils) all have a total of 16 teeth.

If you need to tie a cow's tail out of the way, it is best to tie it to - The cow's own body - A fence rail no higher than its hock - A nail directly overhead - The front of the chute or stanchion

The cow's own body Never tie a tail to anything but the animal's body. If you forget to untie the tail and the cow bolts, the tail may be pulled off.

Which statement regarding disinfecting kennels is false? - Mixing different disinfectants together can be dangerous. - The disinfectant must be allowed to stay in contact with all of the surfaces for 30 seconds, or it will not kill the disease organism. - The area should be rinsed thoroughly after the appropriate contact time. - The area should be dried before the animal is returned to the cage.

The disinfectant must be allowed to stay in contact with all of the surfaces for 30 seconds, or it will not kill the disease organism. Disinfectants must remain on the surfaces for varying lengths of time. The manufacturer's instructions must be followed.

Floors are cleaned best using a - Wet vacuum - Dry vacuum - Wet mop - Dry mop

Wet vacuum

Fences and dividers between groups of pigs should be constructed so that - The slats are positioned horizontally. - The slats are positioned vertically. - The top of the fence is no higher than the largest pig's back. - The bottom of the fence is at least 8 inches above the floor of the pen.

The slats are positioned vertically. Vertical slats prevent the pigs from climbing the fence.

An especially important period of puppy development that is critical to normal behavior as an adult is - The nursing period - Whelping - Weaning - The socialization period

The socialization period

What does it mean when piglets lie in a pile, with some on top of others? - They are well fed. - They are well socialized. - They are hungry. - They are cold.

They are cold. Piling of piglets is a sign of cold stress

When handling cattle with horns, stand - Directly in front of the animal - To the left of the animal - To the left and in front of the animal - To one side, directly behind the horns

To the left and in front of the animal This the safest area, as long as you stand well beyond the reach of the animal's head.

When washing hands, it is important to remember that the highest density of bacteria occurs - Under the nails - Over the knuckles - Between the digits - On the palm

Under the nails

In home-cooked diets for dogs and cats, what are the most common nutritional deficits? - Protein and fat - Water and magnesium - Vitamin A and copper - Salt and protein

Vitamin A and copper

The vitamin needed by dogs in heavy training to facilitate development of erythrocytes to carry oxygen from the lungs to the muscles is - Vitamin E - Vitamin K - Vitamin B - Vitamin B

Vitamin B

What vitamin is also known as ? - Vitamin E - Vitamin K - Vitamin B - Vitamin B

Vitamin B

Lack of what nutrients can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids? - Vitamin B and magnesium - Vitamins E and C - Vitamin C and calcium - Vitamins A and B

Vitamin C and calcium

Pigs exhibit territorial behavior. When several unfamiliar animals are mixed in a group pen, fighting may occur. If the animals are of similar size, the aggressive behavior - Will begin shortly after the animals are introduced and will be short term - Will not begin until several days after the pigs are introduced to the pen - Will continue as long as the pigs are in the same pen - Will not occur

Will begin shortly after the animals are introduced and will be short term Pigs are territorial and establish a dominance order when new animals are introduced. It is important to pen together pigs of similar size to minimize fighting. The aggression is normally short-lived, because the pigs determine the dominance order.

When tying a horse to a fence rail, keep the rope - Knee high with about 3 feet of slack - Knee high with about 8 feet of slack - Wither high with about 8 feet of slack - Wither high with about 3 feet of slack

Wither high with about 3 feet of slack Anything lower or longer, and the animal can get tangled in the rope.

When restraining a sheep, what body part should not be grabbed? - Front leg - Head - Back leg - Wool

Wool Pulling on the wool of sheep can damage subcutaneous tissues and the fleece, and it may cause hemorrhages.

Which of the following values is a normal rectal temperature for a dog? a. 102 ° F b. 98 ° F c. 106 ° F d. 95 ° F

a. 102 ° F

The blood smear of a normal dog should have What percentage of lymphocytes? a. 12% to 30% b. 60% to 70% c. 2% to 8% d. 25% to 60%

a. 12% to 30%

Which of the following are potential side effects of chemotherapy? a. Anorexia, anemia, and alopecia b. Vomiting, constipation, and flatulence c. Anorexia, increased hair growth, and hyperactivity d. Aggression, drooling, and polyphagia

a. Anorexia, anemia, and alopecia Chemotherapy affects the fast-growing cells of the body, such as those in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, bone marrow, and hair follicles.

Which of the following conditions is/are more common in geriatric patients? a. Arthritis and degenerative joint disease b. Viral and bacterial infections c. Lameness that results from accidents and muscle damage d. Gastric torsion and dilatation

a. Arthritis and degenerative joint disease Degenerative joint disease is most often diagnosed in older patients.

Which of the following is not considered an ape? a. Baboon b. Orangutan c. Chimpanzee d. Gibbon

a. Baboon The baboon, a member of the genus Papio , is not considered an ape. The orangutan, chimpanzee, and gibbon are all anthropoids, or apes.

Four of five mice housed together have large areas of alopecia on their muzzles. The most likely problem is a. Barbering b. Lice infestation c. Mite infestation d. Fighting

a. Barbering The mouse with no alopecia is the dominant animal and is chewing the hair and whiskers from the subordinate animals. This is called barbering .

The purpose of the fluorescein dye test is to a. Evaluate for corneal abrasions/ulcerations b. Evaluate tear production ability c. Measure the pressure in the eye d. Clear the nasolacrimal ducts

a. Evaluate for corneal abrasions/ulcerations The fluorescein dye test is a diagnostic test to detect corneal injury by placing dye onto the surface of the cornea.

The incidence of trichinosis in people is decreased by a. Feeding cooked garbage to hogs b. Applying hydrated lime to the premises c. Smoking meat before eating it d. Eliminating rabbits from the farm

a. Feeding cooked garbage to hogs Cooking kills Trichinella larvae in the garbage. Cooking meat to 158° F before eating also kills the larvae. Smoking the meat does not affect the larvae.

Red leg is a common finding in what laboratory animal? a. Frogs b. Ferrets c. Mice d. Guinea pigs

a. Frogs Red leg is a sign of septicemia in frogs.

Sterile water is a. Hypotonic b. Isotonic c. Hypertonic d. Equitonic

a. Hypotonic

The accepted abbreviation for the oral route of drug administration is a. PO b. IC c. IV d. PM

a. PO

Monitoring reflexes of the rabbit for anesthesia would include all of the following except a. Tail pinch b. Ear pinch c. Palpebral d. Watching the third eyelid and pupil response

a. Tail pinch The other reflexes can be used to help determine the depth of anesthesia.

A pulse deficit occurs when a. The heart rate is faster than the pulse rate. b. The heart rate is slower than the pulse rate. c. The pulse rate is too thready to palpate. d. There is an absence of palpable pulse.

a. The heart rate is faster than the pulse rate. As the name implies, there is a deficit or "downfall" of the pulse to accurately represent the pumping of the heart.

A common disease of juvenile hamsters is a. Wet tail b. Seizures c. Snuffles d. Leukemia

a. Wet tail

d.50 to 100 cm H2O

b. 0 to 10 cm H2O

Normal central venous pressure readings for dogs are a. 8 to 10 cm b. 0 to 5 cm c. 10 to 20 cm d. 0 to 20 cm

b. 0 to 5 cm Normal canine central venous pressure readings are in the range of 0 to 5 cm of H2O.

The serum creatinine level of a normal dog is a. 55% to 93% b. 1 to 2 mg/dl c. 10 to 30 mg/dl d. 1% to 2%

b. 1 to 2 mg/dl

How soon after a significant exposure to the feline leukemia virus will a cat have a positive result on a feline leukemia test (ELISA antigen test)? a. 4 to 8 months b. 4 to 8 weeks c. Within days d. Not before 1 year

b. 4 to 8 weeks An animal exposed to FeLV usually tests positive within 4 to 8 weeks following exposure. If the test is positive, a follow-up FeLV test should be done in 3 to 4 weeks. If it is still positive, a Hardy test/immunofluorescent assay (IFA) should be done.

When examining a patient, you count 7 pulses in 10 seconds. How should you record this animal's pulse rate? a. 7 beats/min b. 42 beats/min c. 28 beats/min d. 70 beats/min

b. 42 beats/min

Normal daily water maintenance requirements for a typical adult dog and cat are approximately a. 10 to 15 ml/kg b. 50 to 100 ml/kg c. 100 to 300 ml/kg d. 500 to 600 ml/kg

b. 50 to 100 ml/kg

When using a mercury thermometer to measure rectal temperature, what is the minimum time the thermometer should be left in the rectum? a. 10 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 2 minutes d. 5 minutes

b. 60 seconds

What is the average length of gestation for a dog? a. 70 days b. 63 days c. 59 days d. 55 days

b. 63 days

Chondroitin sulfates are an example of a. Flavor enhancement b. A nutraceutical c. FDA-approved treatment d. Parenteral medication

b. A nutraceutical A coined phrase from nutrition and pharmaceutical

The Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals is used by what organization in its voluntary accreditation of laboratory animal facilities? a. MISMR b. AAALAC c. AALAS d. NIH

b. AAALAC The Association for Assessment and Accreditation of Laboratory Animal Care International is a voluntary accreditation body.

The type of guinea pig that has short, coarse hair arranged in whorls or rosettes is the a. Peruvian b. Abyssinian c. English d. Dunkin-Hartley

b. Abyssinian

Failure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause a. Polydipsia b. Azoturia c. Anorexia d. Pyrexia

b. Azoturia Buildup of waste products leading to a diseased state of renal function

What disease of monkeys that causes small sores in and around the mouth can be fatal to people? a. Tuberculosis b. B-virus encephalitis c. Salmonellosis d. Coccidiosis

b. B-virus encephalitis B-virus of monkeys can cause encephalitis in people.

The breed of dog that is considered naturally barkless is the a. Pug b. Basenji c. Pomeranian d. Lhasa apso

b. Basenji A Basenji can make a sound, but that sound is not considered a bark.

Which of these animals is most likely to transmit the rabies virus to people? a. Marmot b. Fox c. Mule deer d. Bear

b. Fox Foxes, bats, raccoons, and skunks are the most common wild animals involved in transmission of the rabies virus.

The species that is prone to nasal dermatitis initiated by its burrowing activity is the a. Hamster b. Gerbil c. Rat d. Mouse

b. Gerbil

What species has ventral midline sebaceous glands that are more prominent in the male? a. Hamster b. Gerbil c. Rat d. Mouse

b. Gerbil

Which of the following is not an induced ovulator? a. Rabbit b. Guinea pig c. Ferret d. Cat

b. Guinea pig

The species that is often referred to as cavies is the a. Rat b. Guinea pig c. Hamster d. Rabbit

b. Guinea pig Relates to the scientific name Cavia porcellus

Which of these laboratory animal species hibernates? a. Rabbit b. Hamster c. Gerbil d. Guinea pig

b. Hamster

The basis of restraint techniques for most animals is proper control of the a. Tail b. Head c. Torso d. Legs

b. Head Once the head is properly controlled, it is usually easy to manage the rest of the animal

People who own cats can be exposed to Toxoplasma oocysts from cat feces in a litter box. After being passed in the feces, the oocyst is a. Infectious immediately b. Infectious after 2 to 4 days c. Infectious after 24 hours d. Infectious after 1 to 5 hours

b. Infectious after 2 to 4 days Oocysts are not infectious until they sporulate, which takes 2 to 4 days after they are passed in feces.

d.Injury to brainstem

b. Injury to T2 to L4

IACUC stands for a. International Animal Care and Utilization Committee b. Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee c. International Association for Compassion, Understanding, and Care d. Institutional Association for Compassion, Understanding, and Care

b. Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee

What is a common problem in ferrets whereby they become weak and may temporarily drag their rear legs? a. Disk disease b. Insulinoma c. Hypoadrenocorticism d. Saddle thrombus

b. Insulinoma Ferrets often suffer from insulinomas, which cause them to become weak and temporarily drag their rear legs.

Which sex of rat, mouse, hamster, and gerbil has the longest anogenital distance? a. Female b. Male c. Not a valid indicator in these species d. Male in rat and hamster, female in mouse and gerbil

b. Male The male rat, mouse, hamster, and gerbil have an anogenital distance twice as long as the female's.

The genus and species name for the hamster is a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Mesocricetus auratus c. Meriones unguiculatus d. Cavia porcellus

b. Mesocricetus auratus

The two most common types of vaccines in common use today in veterinary practices are a. Killed (inactivated) and activated b. Modified live and killed c. Killed and reactivated d. Modified live and modified killed

b. Modified live and killed Most modern vaccines are either modified live or killed (inactivated).

Blood collection from the orbital sinus is common in what animal? a. Rabbit b. Mouse c. Lizard d. Pigeon

b. Mouse

Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis is caused by a. Clostridium piliforme b. Mycoplasma pulmonis c. Mycoplasma piliforme d. Paramyxovirus

b. Mycoplasma pulmonis The etiologic agent is M. pulmonis.

You notice that one of the gerbils in a cage of postpubertal young has some nasal hair loss with some erythema and scabbing. No other alopecia is noted. This is likely caused by a. Barbering b. Nasal dermatitis c. Putting its nose through the food bars d. Demodex

b. Nasal dermatitis It is most likely nasal dermatitis or "sore nose," especially at this age and in cases of overcrowding or high humidity. The harderian gland then secretes excessive porphyrin, which becomes an irritant. There is excessive grooming leading to self-traumatization. Staphylococcus infection often invades the area. Barbering, a dominance behavior, does not usually occur with gerbils. "Bald nose," which occurs when the animal aggressively puts its nose through the bar to get food, is not usually accompanied by scabbing or erythema.

Which of these is a zoonotic disease of sheep? a. Psittacosis b. Orf c. Shigellosis d. Yellow fever

b. Orf

Which of the following is not done on a routine physical examination of a cat? a. Open the mouth and look at the teeth, tongue, and gums. b. Perform a rectal examination. c. Listen to the heart and lungs. d. Palpate the abdomen for masses.

b. Perform a rectal examination. Rectal examinations are performed for special reasons and are not done on all patients.

Cystocentesis is contraindicated in all of the following except a. Bleeding disorders b. Periparturient dams c. Pyometra d. Bladder tumors

b. Periparturient dams All of the other choices have inherent risks associated with them because of the status of the animal; a pregnant dog or cat may easily have a cystocentesis, because this poses no risk to her or the fetuses.

Pinpoint hemorrhage of the mucous membranes and skin is termed a. Epiphora b. Petechiation c. Lichenification d. Cyanosis

b. Petechiation

The species that has air sacs and lungs is the a. Rabbit b. Pigeon c. Hamster d. Ferret

b. Pigeon

What drug is used as an anthelmintic? a. Penicillin b. Piperazine c. Pyrethrin d. Streptomycin

b. Piperazine

Young mice and rats are a. Kits b. Pups c. Piglets d. Bunnies

b. Pups

Bubonic or pneumonic plague (Yersinia pestis) can be transmitted to people by the bite of a. Mosquitoes b. Rodent fleas c. Biting flies d. Ticks

b. Rodent fleas The rodent flea is the most common source of plague transmitted from animals to people. People can also become infected by inhaling the organism.

The breed of dog particularly prone to parvoviral infection after 4 months of age is the a. German short-haired pointer b. Rottweiler c. Yorkshire terrier d. Afghan hound

b. Rottweiler

The first concern when dealing with any animal should be the a. Safety of the animal b. Safety of the handlers c. Protection of the equipment d. Time the procedure will take

b. Safety of the handlers Safety of the people working on the animal should always be the primary concern, although the safety of the animal must also be taken into consideration.

Of the breeds listed, the breed of dog most commonly affected with gastric dilatation/volvulus (bloat) is the a. Pug b. Saint Bernard c. Lhasa apso d. Shar-Pei

b. Saint Bernard The Saint Bernard, a large, deep-chested breed, is highly susceptible to gastric dilatation and torsion (bloat).

A significant difference in IM injections in small animals compared to large animals is a. The muscles for injection are not comparable. b. The needle is first inserted into large animals before the syringe is attached. c. There is no pre swabbing with an antiseptic. d. IM injections are avoided in large animals if possible.

b. The needle is first inserted into large animals before the syringe is attached. In large animal IM injections, the needle is inserted first into the tissue without being attached to the syringe, in case the animal kicks or reacts adversely.

Subcutaneous fluids are contraindicated when a. The patient has mild dehydration. b. The patient requires 5% dextrose. c. The patient is very small. d. There is evidence of chronic heart failure.

b. The patient requires 5% dextrose. Dextrose is an unbalanced hypotonic solution and may cause sloughing.

Nude mice are used in research because they lack which of the following structures? a. Thyroid gland b. Thymus gland c. Gallbladder d. Spleen

b. Thymus gland Nude mice are used in research because they lack a thymus gland.

If 1 hour after surgery, it is suspected that an animal is bleeding, and the packed cell volume (PCV) remains normal, it would be beneficial to evaluate the a. Hemoglobin b. Total protein c. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) d. Red blood cell (RBC) count

b. Total protein PCV may be normal because of compensatory vasoconstriction and splenic contraction. Blood loss includes protein loss, for which there are no immediate compensatory mechanisms.

What disease are nonhuman primates routinely tested for in the laboratory setting? a. Aspergillosis b. Tuberculosis c. Polio d. Pasteurellosis

b. Tuberculosis Nonhuman primates are routinely tested for tuberculosis in the laboratory setting.

How frequently should splints be adjusted on foals? a. Once a day b. Twice a day c. Every other day d. Three times a day

b. Twice a day

Which of the following procedures would be chosen to allow a wound to heal by second intention? a. Two surgeries performed 1 week apart b. Wound closed surgically and a drain placed c. Wound left open and not closed surgically d. Three days after the injury, wound closed after a local antiseptic is applied

b. Wound closed surgically and a drain placed Second intention means that the wound is allowed to contract on its own.

People can contract tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani, by a. Contact with sheep b. Wound infection from fecal contaminated soil c. Performing a necropsy on a hawk d. Performing a fecal examination on a dog

b. Wound infection from fecal contaminated soil Wound infection is the most common method of tetanus infection in people.

The abbreviation meaning "as needed" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd

b. prn

When using isopropyl alcohol as a disinfectant, What is the recommended concentration? a. 25% b. 50% c. 70% d. 99%

c. 70%

An animal with what condition is more prone to fluid overload? a. Early renal disease b. Parvovirus infection c. Cardiac insufficiency d. Fractured humerus

c. Cardiac insufficiency Fluid overload increases the volume and workload on the heart.

All adult amphibians are a. Omnivores b. Herbivores c. Carnivores d. Their dietary preference is unknown.

c. Carnivores

The maximum amount that can be safely administered to the rabbit by IM injection in one site is a. 1 cc b. 1.5 cc c. 0.5 cc d. 2 cc

c. 0.5 cc

The total plasma protein level of a normal dog is a. 6 to 7 g/dl b. 10% to 40% c. 10 to 30 g/dl d. 1 to 2 g/dl

c. 10 to 30 g/dl

The higher the hematocrit and total protein values, the greater the degree of a. Anemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Dehydration d. Hyperkalemia

c. Dehydration

When gavage is used to feed young puppies, vomiting immediately following the feeding is usually the result of a. Not giving enough formula b. Leaving some formula in the gavage tube c. Giving too much formula and overextending the stomach d. Holding the puppy in the wrong position while gavage is given

c. Giving too much formula and overextending the stomach Overextension of the stomach results in vomiting immediately following gavage.

What dog breed would probably require the smallest amount of thiobarbiturate anesthetic per pound of body weight? a. Jack Russell terrier b. Lhasa apso c. Great Pyrenees d. Keeshond

c. Great Pyrenees The larger the animal, the lower its basal metabolic rate and, consequently, the anesthetic agent is more slowly metabolized.

Cavia porcellus is the scientific name for the a. Potbellied pigs b. Rabbit c. Guinea pig d. Yucatán pig

c. Guinea pig

Use of penicillin is contraindicated in the a. Rabbit b. Mouse c. Guinea pig d. Gerbil

c. Guinea pig

The glandular portion of the stomach in birds is referred to as the a. Diverticulum b. Ventriculus c. Proventriculus d. Cloaca

c. Proventriculus The diverticulum is the crop; the ventriculus is the gizzard, or the muscular portion of the stomach; and the cloaca is where urine and feces exit the body.

The scientific name of the rabbit ear mite is a. Aspiculuris b. Otodectes c. Psoroptes d. Eimeria

c. Psoroptes Otodectes is the ear mite of the dog.

Which of the following is classified as a lagomorph? a. Hamster b. Guinea pig c. Rabbit d. Gerbil

c. Rabbit

d.Anaphylactic shock

c. Septic shock

You want to do monogamous, non intensive, timed breeding on mice. Which of the following statements is false? a. The female is best put in the male's cage in the evening until next morning. b. The copulatory plug will likely be found in the bedding the next morning. c. The breeding pair should be left together until after postpartum estrus. d. Vaginal smear signs should indicate large cornified cells.

c. The breeding pair should be left together until after postpartum estrus. Intensive breeding refers to taking advantage of the postpartum estrus that occurs in mice within 24 hours of whelping. If the breeding pair is left together, this would not be non intensive breeding. The other statements are true.

Which of the following statements is true as it pertains to clipping overgrown nails in a dog? a. The nails should be immediately clipped back to 1/4 inch in length. b. A Dremel-type instrument should be used to file each nail to 1/2 inch. c. The nails should be gradually trimmed back over the course of several weeks. d. The dog should be temporarily housed on concrete to encourage each nail to break at an appropriate length.

c. The nails should be gradually trimmed back over the course of several weeks. Clipping back overgrown nails should be done gradually so that the ("quick") ungual vein responds to the shortening of the nail and gradually regresses.

Interesting morpho physiological characteristics of guinea pigs include all of these except a. Both sexes have two inguinal nipples. b. The urine is alkaline with ammonium phosphate crystals. c. They have a glandular and aglandular divided stomach. d. Their blood contains Foa-Kurloff cells.

c. They have a glandular and aglandular divided stomach. Unlike the Muridae rodents, guinea pigs do not have an aglandular portion of the stomach. Foa-Kurloff cells protect the fetus from maternal rejection.

Which of the following is considered a potential vector for Lyme disease (borreliosis), which can cause severe human illness? a. Flea b. Mite c. Tick d. Louse

c. Tick Ixodes and other ticks can transmit Borrelia from deer to mice to people and dogs.

A Thomas splint is an example of a a. Coaptation splint b. Anchor splint c. Traction splint d. Reducing splint

c. Traction splint

An animal that results from the introduction of genetic material (DNA) from one animal into the fertilized egg of a different animal is a. Recombinant b. Knockout c. Transgenic d. Conisogenic

c. Transgenic

Horses and rabbits are a. Ruminants b. Omnivores c. Cecum fermenters d. Carnivores

c.Cecum fermenters The fermentation process in the cecum constitutes the bulk of the digestion process.

A healthy animal that is susceptible to certain diseases and is placed in a room with other animals as a means of detecting the presence of diseases is called a. SCID b. Conventional c. Transgenic d. Sentinel

d. Sentinel

A male guinea pig is called a a. Buck b. Barrow c. Bull d. Boar

d. Boar A buck is a male rabbit, a barrow is a male pig, and a bull is a male bovine.

The normal PCV of a horse is a. 20% to 39% b. 48% to 58% c. 12% to 30% d. 32% to 52%

d. 32% to 52%

d.Cardiogenic

d. Cardiogenic

The most critical factor to expedient healing of decubitus sores is a. Regular rotation of the patient b. Application of antibiotics to prevent infection c. Administration of sedatives to keep the animal still d. Exposure to air so that the area remains dry

d. Exposure to air so that the area remains dry Once decubital sores are present, they should be kept dry, because a moist environment only aids secondary bacterial infections and not healing.

What drug is not an antibiotic? a. Chloramphenicol b. Amoxicillin c. Tetracycline d. Furosemide

d. Furosemide

What zoonotic viral disease of primates produces a mild disease with ulcers on the mucous membranes and tongue in its natural host, the Macaca? a. Rabies b. Tuberculosis c. Measles d. Herpes B

d. Herpes B

Which of these IV fluids would increase oncotic (osmotic) pressure? a. Lactated Ringer b. 5% dextrose in water c. Normal saline d. Hetastarch

d. Hetastarch Hetastarch has a higher molecular weight than the other fluids.

Yersinia pestis is most pathogenic to a. Dogs b. Cattle c. Horses d. Humans

d. Humans Of the species listed, Yersinia pestis (plague) occurs most often in people.

Milk fever may have all of the following clinical signs except a. Staggering b. Ascending paralysis c. Neck kink d. Hypersalivation

d. Hypersalivation Hypersalivation is not a clinical sign associated with milk fever.

What is the likely cause of vulval swelling in a spayed ferret? a. Insulinoma b. Hyperpituitarism c. Hyperadrenocorticism d. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hyperthyroidism Hyperadrenocorticism produces estrogens, which commonly cause vulval swelling in ferrets

Which route of drug administration produces the fastest onset of action? a. Topical b. Oral c. IM d. IV

d. IV

Where are the anal sacs located? a. Ventral to the mandible b. Cranial to the scapula c. In the inguinal area d. In the perianal area

d. In the perianal area

If the purpose of a breeding system is to decrease genetic variability, then one should a. Random breed b. Outbreed c. Not breed at all d. Inbreed

d. Inbreed Inbreeding establishes genetically identical animals known as homozygotes. This is most common with mice. An inbred strain is established by breeding siblings or breeding parents with their own offspring for a minimum of 20 generations. Random breeding maintains a wide range of characteristics and maintains heterozygosity.

Failure to use adequate padding in bandages on limbs can produce any of the following except a. Tendonitis b. Pressure sores c. Severe edema d. Instability

d. Instability

Which of the following would not be seen in a peripheral blood smear from a normal dog? a. Erythrocytes b. Platelets c. Leukocytes d. Megakaryocytes

d. Megakaryocytes Megakaryocytes are multinucleated bone marrow cells that produce platelets by breaking off pieces of cytoplasm.

The type of cage that is designed to separate urine and feces for specimen collection is a. Squeeze b. Front opening c. Microisolator d. Metabolism

d. Metabolism

The type of caging system that provides rodents with excellent containment and protection from disease organisms is a. Front-opening b. Shoebox c. Suspended d. Microisolator

d. Microisolator

d.More than 60 minutes

d. More than 60 minutes

Which of the following is the most commonly used species in research? a. Rabbit b. Guinea pig c. Rat d. Mouse

d. Mouse

The genus of the ferret ear mite is a. Psoroptes b. Eimeria c. Aspiculuris d. Otodectes

d. Otodectes

Contagious ecthyma (orf) is an infectious viral dermatitis of a. Swine b. Horses c. Cattle d. Sheep

d. Sheep

Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, could infect people who perform which activity? a. Examining cat feces b. Vaccinating cattle c. Deworming horses d. Skinning rabbits

d. Skinning rabbits Wound contact with infected rabbits can cause tularemia in people.

What type of cat is most likely to be deaf? a. Calico b. Orange tiger c. Tortoiseshell d. White

d. White The dominant gene for a white coat also predisposes to deafness.

The two infectious agents most often involved in otitis externa in the dog are a. Viruses and protozoa b. Yeast and viruses c. Viruses and bacteria d. Yeast and bacteria

d. Yeast and bacteria Most otitis externa cases have clinical signs that are the result of bacteria or yeast infections or both.

The abbreviation meaning "divided" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd

d. dd

Which of the following would be an unlikely treatment for chronic diarrhea? - Increasing fiber in the diet - Decreasing fiber in the diet - Increasing digestibility of the food - Increasing the amount of vitamin C in the diet

Increasing the amount of vitamin C in the diet Fiber can be used to decrease the passage rate of food through the gut, thus allowing for more water to be reabsorbed, leading to a firmer stool. Nevertheless, if the cause of the diarrhea is a food allergy, fiber will prolong the contact of the antigen with the gut wall, so decreasing the amount of fiber in a diet for chronic diarrhea is also frequently tried.

What has been demonstrated to prevent periodontal disease? - Tartar-control diets - Chew toys - Instrumental dental cleaning - Dry food

Instrumental dental cleaning Diets and toys have been shown to decrease calculus and tartar, but they have not been shown to prevent periodontal disease.

What condition does not cause obesity in companion animals? - Overfeeding - Genetic predisposition - Insufficient exercise - Surgical neutering of males and females

Insufficient exercise Neutering can be associated with obesity, but it does not cause it.

Which of the following is the best route to give epinephrine in an emergency if a vein is inaccessible? a. Intratracheal b. Subcutaneous c. Oral d. Drip under the tongue

Intratracheal Absorption in the lungs is quicker than in the mouth or under the skin.

What mineral is considered to be a trace mineral? - Calcium - Potassium - Iodine - Sodium

Iodine Calcium, potassium, and sodium are all macrominerals.

A deficiency of what nutrient can cause anemia? - Iron - Zinc - Iodine - Manganese

Iron Deficiencies in zinc can cause skin lesions and poor coat condition, iodine can cause hypothyroidism, and manganese deficiency can cause defective growth and reproduction.

Newborn piglets raised in confinement must be supplemented with - Zinc - Iron - Copper - Manganese

Iron Piglets raised outdoors obtain iron from the dirt lots, whereas piglets raised in confinement are generally given iron injections.

An advantage of a nasoesophageal (NE) tube over a gastrostomy tube is - It does not require general anesthesia to put the tube in. - You can use regular dog or cat canned food with the NE tube. - The NE tube can be left in place longer than a gastrostomy tube. - There is less chance of aspiration pneumonia with an NE tube.

It does not require general anesthesia to put the tube in. After more than 1 day of not eating, animals are deriving most of their energy from - Fat stores - Glycogen stores - Protein stores - Fiber pockets *** Fat stores Glycogen stores are exhausted in about 24 hours. Fat is burned to make volatile fatty acids for energy.

The height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according to the size of the pigs in the pen. It should be set at a level that is - Even with the elbow of the pigs - Just above the shoulder of the pigs - Halfway between the shoulder and the elbow of the pigs - Comfortably reachable when the pigs are lying down

Just above the shoulder of the pigs The pig should have to reach up slightly to drink from a nipple watering device to minimize waste. In addition, the pigs are less likely to come into contact with the nipple, which could cause damage to themselves or to the device.

When restraining a foal for treatment or diagnostic procedures, you should - Lead the mare out of sight of the foal - Keep the mare nearby, within sight of the foal - Leave the mare with the foal but heavily sedate the mare - Pick the foal up off the ground so it cannot run away

Keep the mare nearby, within sight of the foal The foal and mare should remain within eyesight of each other. If not, both will fret and struggle to be reunited.

. What can a producer do to provide an acceptable environment for a lactating sow and her offspring? - Keep the sow comfortable, and let the piglets huddle against her for warmth. - Heat the entire farrowing area to a comfortable level for the piglets, and let the sow cool herself through perspiration. - Keep the overall area comfortable for the sow, and provide zones of supplemental heat for the piglets. - Set the room temperature at a level halfway between the two extremes.

Keep the overall area comfortable for the sow, and provide zones of supplemental heat for the piglets. If a sow is too warm, milk production decreases, resulting in smaller pigs. In addition, an uncomfortable sow changes position often and could crush her pigs. Keeping her comfortable is, therefore, to the advantage of the piglets. They should be provided with a source of heat well away from the sow.

What animal would you expect to have the highest water intake? - Heifer - Bull - Lactating cow - Dry cow

Lactating cow A lactating cow has to replace the body fluids used to produce milk.

For oral administration of liquid medication to a dog or cat, you should - Tilt the head up slightly and roll the lips over the canine teeth to open the mouth. - Leave the head in a horizontal position and administer the liquid between the lips and cheek. - Tilt the head straight up and open the mouth, using the index finger of your other hand. - Tilt the head straight up, administer the liquid between the lips, and stroke the throat.

Leave the head in a horizontal position and administer the liquid between the lips and cheek. The head should remain horizontal and the mouth closed. Stroking the throat induces swallowing.

While blood is being collected from a gilt during hot weather, she begins to show signs of porcine stress syndrome. What should you do? - Let go and refrain from stressing her further. - Cover her with a blanket to preserve body heat. - Continue restraining her to avoid exciting the other gilts. - Continue with the blood collection and ignore the reaction.

Let go and refrain from stressing her further. If the restraint is continued, the reaction may progress, and the gilt will die

Successful strategies for preventing diarrhea in unweaned dairy calves include all of the following, except - Vaccination of the dam - Dry, draft-free housing - Colostrum feeding - Limiting the amount of milk fed

Limiting the amount of milk fed Vaccination of the cow and calf, proper housing, and proper colostrum management will help prevent diarrhea. Limiting the amount of milk fed will not prevent diarrhea.

In an isolation unit where sick animals are housed, the air pressure in the unit compared with that in the quarters housing healthy animals must be - Higher - Lower - Equal - Much higher

Lower This will prevent air from travelling from sick-animal areas to well-animal areas.

Metabolizable energy differs from gross calorie content by - Pertaining to canned foods only - Measuring the usable energy in a food - Measuring only the nutrients in a food - Pertaining to dry foods only

Measuring the usable energy in a food Energy derived from the end products of digestion

To lift a full-grown rabbit out of its cage, you should grasp it by the - Ears - Lumbar vertebrae - Shoulders - Scruff of the neck

Scruff of the neck Anywhere else, the rabbit or handler may be injured.

Oversupplementation of which of the following can be detrimental? - Vitamin C - Vitamin K - Selenium - Biotin

Selenium Signs of selenium toxicity include nervousness, anorexia, and ataxia. Appetite may be stimulated by all of the following, except - Certain medications - Warming the food - Sense of smell - Refrigerating the food *** Refrigerating the food Decreases palatability and odor

The knot or hitch used to tie together two ropes of different sizes is a - Bowline - Sheet bend - Halter tie - Clove hitch

Sheet bend

Which of the following is not required of a well-built doghouse? - Windproof against drafts - Raised off the ground - Insulated against cold - Spacious and roomy inside

Spacious and roomy inside A doghouse need only be big enough for the dog to stand and turn around, but the other items are required.

The opening of the anal sac ducts is on the rectum at the a. 4 and 8 o'clock positions b. 2 and 10 o'clock positions c. 12 and 6 o'clock positions d. 11 and 4 o'clock positions

a. 4 and 8 o'clock positions Four o'clock and 8 o'clock positions are the normal positions for the openings of the anal sacs. Decubitus sores are a. Found in the ears in severe cases of otitis externa b. Found around the rectum in cases of anal sac problems c. Found on the skin because of urine scalding and pressure from lying in one position too long d. Found in the mouth as the result of prolonged anorexia *** c. Found on the skin because of urine scalding and pressure from lying in one position too long Decubital ulcers are bedsores that result from pressure or prolonged exposure to urine contamination combined with pressure.

A chest or abdominal bandage, when applied firmly for compression, should not remain in place on a small animal for longer than a. 4 hours b. 1 hour c. 6 hours d. 8 hours

a. 4 hours

The blood glucose level of a normal dog is a. 45 to 70 mg/dl b. 1000 to 2000 mg/dl c. 70 to 100 mg/dl d. 10 to 30 g/dl

a. 45 to 70 mg/dl

In general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats? a. 5 to 7 days b. 1 to 3 days c. 48 to 72 hours d. 28 days

a. 5 to 7 days Limits digestive upset by allowing for a slow change and adjustment As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for

To calculate the quantity of food to administer at one feeding to a 2-day-old orphaned puppy, you would multiply the body weight in grams by a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%

a. 5% The question asks for quantity at one feeding, not over 24 hours, therefore 5%.

The total RBC count of a normal dog is a. 5.5 to 8.5 10 6 /μl b. 3000 to 5000/μl c. 1.1 to 6.4 10 6 /μl d. 10,000 to 20,000/μl

a. 5.5 to 8.5 10 6 /μl

The normal white blood cell count of a horse is a. 5000 to 12,500/μl b. 10,000 to 20,000/μl c. 4000 to 5000/μl d. 10,500 to 30,000/μl

a. 5000 to 12,500/μl

d.25 to 30/min

a. 80 to 120/min

If you are syringe-feeding a patient, the most appropriate positioning of the head would be a. A natural position b. Flexed upward 90 degrees c. Turned 90 degrees to one side d. Hanging over the edge of the table

a. A natural position Aspiration pneumonia is a risk with syringe feeding, but this risk can be minimized by ensuring that the animal's head is in a natural position and that the animal swallows each bolus.

What organization certifies laboratory technicians and includes researchers and technicians in its membership? a. AALAS b. USDA c. AALAC d. ASLAP

a. AALAS The American Association for Laboratory Animal Science (AALAS) administers a program that certifies laboratory technicians and includes researchers and technicians in its membership.

Teratology involves the study of a. Abnormal fetal development b. Number of live births c. Reproductive organ maturation d. Deaths before delivery

a. Abnormal fetal development

What organization's major focus is voluntary accreditation of laboratory animal facilities? a. American Association for Accreditation of Laboratory Animal Care b. American Society of Laboratory Animal Practitioners c. American Association for Laboratory Animal Science d. American College of Laboratory Animal Medicine

a. American Association for Accreditation of Laboratory Animal Care

Which of these bandages should not be used on wounds with exudate? a. An occlusive bandage b. A dry-dry bandage c. A wet-dry bandage d. Wound lavage without a bandage

a. An occlusive bandage An occlusive bandage holds the exudate to the wound, causing more necrosis.

The sex of a juvenile chinchilla is determined by a. Anogenital distance b. Secondary sex characteristics c. Palpation of the pelvic region d. Blood test

a. Anogenital distance The clitoris in the chinchilla can be mistaken for a penis due to its size and shape. The male chinchilla lacks a scrotum, making it difficult to visualize the testicles. Therefore anogenital distance is used to determine the sex of juvenile chinchillas.

The cages of immunocompromised animals should be cleaned a. Before cleaning the general nursing wards b. After cleaning the general nursing wards c. Only when they are dirty d. At least three times a day

a. Before cleaning the general nursing wards Immunocompromised animals are highly susceptible to contracting diseases because of their altered immune state, therefore first cleaning these animals' cages, and following good isolation procedures, will minimize the risk to these already at-risk patients.

Regarding the reproduction of guinea pigs, a. Breeding is best at about 4 to 5 months of age. b. Lordosis and a nonperforated vaginal membrane are found in estrus. c. The estrous cycle is 4 to 5 days. d. The dam does not pass antibodies in the milk.

a. Breeding is best at about 4 to 5 months of age. Virgin guinea pigs are best bred at this age and defi nitely before 6 to 8 months, or there will be fusion of the symphysis pubis that will occlude the passage of a fetus through the birth canal. Lordosis is a typical estrus response, but the only time that the vaginal closure membrane is perforated is during the 3 to 4 days of proestrus and estrus and at parturition. The estrous cycle is 16 days. The sow does pass antibodies in the milk.

Ferrets are very susceptible to a. Canine distemper b. Feline panleukopenia c. Canine hepatitis d. Feline rhinotracheitis

a. Canine distemper

Causing an animal to lie on its side with pressure exerted its muscles and nerves by a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes is called a. Casting b. Chuting c. Haltering d. Hog tying

a. Casting Casting is a means of restraint by applying ropes to pull the animal down on its side and is used mainly when a chute is not available.

The scientific name for heaves in horses is a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b. Acute bronchopneumonia c. Tracheobronchitis d. Pulmonary embolism

a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

What horse breed is considered a draft horse? a. Clydesdale b. Standardbred c. Thoroughbred d. American saddlebred

a. Clydesdale The Clydesdale is a draft horse used for pulling.

You are to give an IM injection to a guinea pig. What maximum volume should you use? a. 0.1 ml b. 0.3 ml c. 0.5 ml d. 1 ml

b. 0.3 ml The maximum volume suggested for an IM injection in a guinea pig is 0.3 ml.

Which of these shows the correct order for placing a splint on the antebrachium? a. Place tape stirrups; place a contact layer on the wound, a layer of padding, a gauze conforming layer, and the splint; and attach stirrups to the gauze layer and wrap with protective tape. b. Place tape stirrups; then the splint, a layer of padding, and gauze to conform to the limb; and then wrap with protective tape. c. Apply a padded layer to the wound, place the splint, and then wrap with tape. d. Place the splint on the leg, secure it with a layer of gauze, and wrap with tape at the top of the leg.

a. Place tape stirrups; place a contact layer on the wound, a layer of padding, a gauze conforming layer, and the splint; and attach stirrups to the gauze layer and wrap with protective tape.

Which of the following is a characteristic of New World monkeys? a. Prehensile tail b. Ischial callosities c. Cheek pouches d. Opposable thumbs

a. Prehensile tail New World monkeys have prehensile tails, but none of the other characteristics listed. Those all belong to Old World monkeys.

In what species is coprophagia a normal behavior? a. Rabbit b. Nonhuman primate c. Ferret d. Gerbil

a. Rabbit

Pregnancy toxemia is most commonly seen in which of the following animals? a. Rabbit b. Rat c. Gerbil d. Hamster

a. Rabbit Pregnancy toxemia is most commonly seen in rabbits.

Which of the following species has a gestation period of 30 days? a. Rabbit b. Mouse c. Ferret d. Gerbil

a. Rabbit The mouse has a gestation of 21 days, the ferret 42 days, and the gerbil 24 days.

When a healthy animal's airway is obstructed, thereby decreasing its ability to properly ventilate, the most likely condition that will result is a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

a. Respiratory acidosis The animal becomes acidotic because of problems with respiration (poor ventilation) that cause an increase in blood PCO 2 with a resulting decrease in blood pH (acidosis).

The all-white breed of goat is the a. Saanen b. French alpine c. LaMancha d. Toggenburg

a. Saanen The Saanen is a large, all-white breed of goat.

Which of the following nonhuman primates is considered to be platyrrhine, or broad nosed? a. Saimiri b. Cynomolgus c. Stump-tailed macaque d. Macaca arctoides

a. Saimiri New World monkeys are considered broad nosed. Only the Saimiri (squirrel monkey) is a New World monkey.

Which of these veins is found on the lateral aspect of the back leg? a. Saphenous b. Cephalic c. Femoral d. Jugular

a. Saphenous The saphenous vein is found lateral to the hock.

Mad cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) is thought to have originated in what species? a. Sheep b. Dogs c. Pigs d. Rodents

a. Sheep Cows developed bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) after eating the offal of sheep with a similar disease, called scrapie . The offal was added to their diet as a protein source.

The easiest large domestic animal to handle is the a. Sheep b. Goat c. Cow d. Pig

a. Sheep The sheep is usually the easiest to handle, because it is less aggressive than the others listed.

The best type of caging system for a near-term pregnant rat is a. Shoebox b. Suspended c. Metabolism d. Squeeze

a. Shoebox Shoebox caging offers a solid flooring with contact bedding.

The breed of cat that frequently has crossed eyes and a kinked tail is the a. Siamese b. Himalayan c. Persian d. Maine Coon

a. Siamese The Siamese frequently has genetically induced crossed eyes and a bend at the distal end of the tail.

Bleeding from a nail during a nail trim is frequently stopped by using a. Silver nitrate sticks b. Baking powder c. K-Y Jelly d. Ice packs

a. Silver nitrate sticks Silver nitrate is a simple, effective, and inexpensive method to cauterize a broken nail.

Puppies, kittens, and nursing mothers require a. Similar levels of protein in their diet b. Vitamin supplementation c. High levels of fiber for energy d. Few calories

a. Similar levels of protein in their diet High-protein diets are necessary for lactation and growth.

Which of the following has a prehensile tail? a. Spider monkey b. Common marmoset c. Rhesus macaque d. Chimpanzee

a. Spider monkey The spider monkey, a New World monkey, has a prehensile tail by which it can hang from branches

A New World monkey commonly used in research is the a. Squirrel b. Baboon c. Chimpanzee d. Rhesus

a. Squirrel The rhesus is commonly used in research; however, it is an Old World monkey.

What horse breed is used for harness racing? a. Standardbred b. Thoroughbred c. Percheron d. Palomino

a. Standardbred

A contaminated wound differs from one that is infected in that a. The bacterial count is lower in a contaminated wound. b. An infected wound can never be closed. c. A contaminated wound should not be bandaged. d. A contaminated wound cannot become an infected wound.

a. The bacterial count is lower in a contaminated wound. Bacterial numbers are the main distinguishing factor in contaminated versus infected wounds Which of the following would delay wound healing? a. Moisture b. Desiccation c. Antibiotics d. Drains *** a. Moisture Wounds heal better in a dry rather than a moist environment, because bacteria grow better in moisture.

A pulse deficit occurs when a. The pulse rate lags behind the heart rate. b. The pulse rate is higher than the heart rate. c. The blood pressure is lower than expected. d. There is an enlarged QRS wave on the electrocardiograph.

a. The pulse rate lags behind the heart rate. A deficit means to lag behind and refers to the pulse rate lagging behind the actual heartbeat.

What canine parasite can cause the disease called visceral larva migrans in children? a. Toxocara canis b. Isospora c. Toxascaris leonina d. Trichuris vulpis

a. Toxocara canis Toxocara canis larvae migrate in the human body if ingested and can cause multiple lesions, including retinitis and blindness.

The Animal Welfare Act is administered and enforced by the a. United States Department of Agriculture b. American Humane Society c. National Institutes of Health d. American Association for Laboratory Animal Science

a. United States Department of Agriculture

d.25 to 30 ml/kg/hr

b. 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr

Isosthenuria is best described as a. Urine with a specific gravity and osmolality similar to glomerular filtrate and plasma b. Urine with a specific gravity and osmolality greater than glomerular filtrate and plasma c. Urine with a specific gravity and osmolality less than glomerular filtrate and plasma d. Urine with a specific gravity greater than plasma but less than glomerular filtrate

a. Urine with a specific gravity and osmolality similar to glomerular filtrate and plasma Iso, "to be in balance"; animal is unable to concentrate urine.

What disorder is common in female rabbits older than 5 years? a. Uterine adenocarcinoma b. Mammary adenocarcinoma c. Adrenal adenoma d. Thyroid adenoma

a. Uterine adenocarcinoma Uterine adenocarcinoma is common in female rabbits older than 5 years.

A person who ingests Toxocara canis ova is most likely to develop a. Visceral larva migrans b. Cutaneous larva migrans c. Creeping eruption d. Anal pruritus

a. Visceral larva migrans Visceral larva migrans occurs in people when Toxocara canis larvae enter the human body by ingestion.

The breed of dog that requires a smaller dose of thiobarbiturate anesthetic per pound than that calculated by its weight is the a. Whippet b. Labrador retriever c. Collie d. Newfoundland

a. Whippet The whippet and other thin breeds of dog require much less thiobarbiturate because they lack body fat.

A small group of anestrus females come into heat when a male is introduced. This is known as the a. Whitten effect b. Bruce effect c. Lee Boot effect d. Facultative diapause

a. Whitten effect The Whitten effect is most common in mice. Group-caged female mice may be in a phase of continuous anestrus that is terminated on the introduction of a male or his odor. Synchronization of cycles occurs, with most of the females coming into estrus in about 72 hours.

What does it mean when you hear rales on auscultation of the lungs of a foal? a. You hear moist congestion in the lungs. b. You hear a fast heart rate. c. A foreign object is trapped in the esophagus. d. The foal has a tracheal tear.

a. You hear moist congestion in the lungs.

The abbreviation meaning "every" is a. q b. prn c. Rx d. dd

a. q

Abdominal palpation in large animals is correctly termed a. Percussion b. Ileus c. Ballottement d. Tympany

c. Ballottement Ballottement is usually performed in large animals, using the fist.

Which statement concerning newborn foals is this true? a. Equine encephalitis vaccine should never be given to a newborn foal. b. An injection of tetanus antitoxin is recommended. c. Newborn foals should be kept in lateral recumbency for at least 2 hours. d. The umbilical cord should be severed.

b. An injection of tetanus antitoxin is recommended. Tetanus toxoid is given at 4 months. Encephalitis vaccine is given at 6 to 8 months. Never sever an umbilical cord, because it will keep hemorrhaging and could exsanguinate (bleed out) the foal.

The breed of beef cattle that is black and polled is the a. Limousin b. Angus c. Charolais d. Hereford

b. Angus The Limousin is gold, the Charolais is white, and the Hereford is red with a white face.

Which is not a route of injection? a. IV b. Anteroposterior c. IM d. Subcutaneous

b. Anteroposterior

Which statement about anthrax is true? a. People cannot get anthrax from eating contaminated meat. b. Anthrax is caused by bacteria. c. Anthrax spores can survive outside of the host for a few hours only. d. Anthrax affects cattle and humans only.

b. Anthrax is caused by bacteria. Anthrax is caused by a bacteria that sporulates.

The scientific name of the mouse pinworm is a. Eimeria b. Aspiculuris c. Hymenolepis d. Oxyuris

b. Aspiculuris

Eating raw or rare meat from which wild Can animals cause trichinosis in people? a. Deer b. Bear c. Squirrel d. Antelope

b. Bear Bears that eat from garbage dumps may develop trichinosis.

Which statement is true about rabies? a. Contact with infected urine is the most common mode of transmission. b. Bites from suspected animals should be left untreated to prevent spreading the virus. c. Rural dogs develop natural immunity to rabies because of their exposure to wild animals. d. Dogs, cats, horses, and cows can transmit rabies, but rabbits, gerbils, hamster, and mice seldom do.

b. Bites from suspected animals should be left untreated to prevent spreading the virus.

The sex of a parrot is determined by a. Anogenital distance b. Blood test c. Palpation of the pelvic region d. Secondary sex characteristics

b. Blood test Many parrots do not exhibit obvious signs of sexual dimorphism. A blood test or surgical sexing is the recommended method of determining gender.

Fluids administered via the subcutaneous route should be at a. Room temperature and hypertonic b. Body temperature and isotonic c. Body temperature and hypotonic d. Room temperature and hypotonic

b. Body temperature and isotonic Isotonic fluids have an osmotic pressure approximately equal to that of extracellular fluid, and at body temperature, they are better assimilated into the body

What disease of cattle cannot be prevented by vaccination? a. Blackleg b. Botulism c. Malignant edema d. Brucellosis

b. Botulism Vaccines are available for blackleg, malignant edema, and brucellosis, but not for botulism.

What disease can cause cyclic fever in people and can be contracted from cattle? a. Borreliosis b. Brucellosis c. Tetanus d. Malignant edema

b. Brucellosis Brucellosis in people is called undulant fever .

Which statement about central venous pressure (CVP) is true? a. CVP is an indirect method of measuring blood pressure. b. CVP measures fluid pressure in the right atrium. c. CVP rises when the amount of circulating fluid falls. d. CVP falls when cardiac output rises.

b. CVP measures fluid pressure in the right atrium. Central venous pressure measures fluid pressure in the right atrium or anterior vena cava.

What ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses? a. Na/Cl b. Ca/P c. Vitamins A/D d. Mg/CO

b. Ca/P Bran is high in phosphorous.

What respiratory disease of cats causes ulcerative stomatitis? a. Rhinotracheitis b. Calicivirus infection c. Pneumonitis d. Distemper

b. Calicivirus infection Calicivirus infections in cats cause ulcers of the mouth.

Blue eye, or corneal edema, can occur with what canine disease or after vaccination against that disease? a. Toxocariasis b. Canine adenovirus infection c. Kennel cough d. Rabies

b. Canine adenovirus infection Canine adenovirus infection (infectious canine hepatitis) or vaccination with a modified-live virus can result in corneal edema.

The best method for euthanizing a large group of mice is a. Decapitation b. Carbon dioxide c. Cervical dislocation d. Lethal injection

b. Carbon dioxide

Blood transfusion reactions that result from incompatibility are rarest in a. Dogs b. Cats c. Horses d. Cows

b. Cats All cats are considered to be of the same blood group.

In what species are the young precocious? a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Cavia porcellus c. Mesocricetus auratus d. Meriones unguiculatus

b. Cavia porcellus The young of the guinea pig, Cavia porcellus, are born fully furred with their eyes open and the ability to move or run around. Oryctolagus cuniculus, the domestic rabbit; Mesocricetus auratus, the golden hamster; and Meriones unguiculatus, the Mongolian gerbil, all have young born hairless, with eyes closed, and the inability to run around.

Which of these veins is located on the cranial (dorsal) surface of the front leg? a. Saphenous b. Cephalic c. Femoral d. Jugular

b. Cephalic The cephalic is found on the front leg.

Increased carbon dioxide levels are detected by a. Chemoreceptors in the pulmonary artery b. Chemoreceptors at the bifurcation of the carotid arteries c. Chemoreceptors at the bifurcation of the jugular veins d. Chemoreceptors in the renal veins

b. Chemoreceptors at the bifurcation of the carotid arteries

Tyzzer disease is caused by a. Coronavirus b. Clostridium piliforme c. Syphacia obvelata d. Paramyxovirus

b. Clostridium piliforme This is a bacterial disease that occurs in many rodents and other mammalian species. Stress is considered an important component.

What is the causative agent of Tyzzer disease? a. Sin Nombre virus b. Clostridium piliforme c. Salmonella tyzzer d. Herpes T virus

b. Clostridium piliforme Tyzzer disease is caused by C. piliforme.

Which of the following agents is not safefor cats? a. Halogens b. Coal tar c. Benzoyl peroxide d. Chlorhexidine

b. Coal tar Coal tar causes toxicity in cats and is irritating to the tissue.

The Bruce effect in mice is when a. Anestrus females come into heat with the introduction of a male. b. Pregnant females are exposed to the urine of a strange male and abort. c. Females go into pseudopregnancy without being bred. d. Females that are bred at the postpartum estrus have an extended lactation.

b. Pregnant females are exposed to the urine of a strange male and abort. The Bruce effect is when a female bred within the past 24 hours is exposed to the pheromones or presence of a strange male and aborts the existing pregnancy.

Bandaging provides all of the following except a. Keeping the wound warm b. Promoting an alkaline environment c. Minimizing postoperative edema d. Absorbing wound exudates

b. Promoting an alkaline environment Bandaging promotes an acidic environment at the wound surface by preventing carbon dioxide loss and absorbing ammonia produced by bacteria.

Sacculus rotundus, appendix, and cecum are parts of what laboratory animal's gastrointestinal tract? a. Mouse b. Rabbit c. Hamster d. Guinea pig

b. Rabbit

Two species that are prone to trichobezoars are the cat and the a. Hamster b. Rabbit c. Ferret d. Dog

b. Rabbit Gastric hair balls can be a problem in rabbits, especially if they are obese or are not fed a high-fiber diet.

What lab animal is best housed singly, because they often fight? a. Gerbil b. Rabbit c. Guinea pig d. Rat

b. Rabbit Rabbits are best housed singly, because they often fight. Gerbils, guinea pigs, and rats are social and rarely fight.

All of the following are rodents, except the a. Guinea pig b. Rabbit c. Hamster d. Gerbil

b. Rabbit Rabbits are lagomorphs, not rodents.

Caudal paralysis, as a consequence of injury to the spinal cord from a fractured back, occurs commonly in the a. Gerbil b. Rabbit c. Hamster d. Guinea pig

b. Rabbit Rabbits have delicate bones and can suffer vertebral fractures and dislocations just by kicking hard if they are improperly restrained.

Pyrogen and Draize tests involve which of the following species? a. Guinea pig b. Rabbit c. Rat d. Mouse

b. Rabbit The pyrogen test, used to check for the presence of bacterial toxins, and the Draize test, used to check for product toxicity and tissue irritation, use the rabbit.

Dutch and New Zealand are types of a. Guinea pigs b. Rabbits c. Hamsters d. Rats

b. Rabbits

To sanitize a large piece of equipment, such as a sheep transport cage, you would use a. Cabinet cage washer b. Rack cage washer c. Bottle washer d. Tunnel cage washer

b. Rack cage washer A rack cage washer is the only one in which a cage of this size would fit.

You are monitoring a patient under anesthesia. Fluid therapy helps a. Lower the blood pressure b. Raise the blood pressure c. Prevent bleeding d. Slow the heart rate

b. Raise the blood pressure Fluids raise the blood pressure by increasing the volume of blood.

What phase of healing begins 3 to 5 days after tissue injury? a. Debridement b. Repair c. Inflammation d. Maturation

b. Repair

Scours in calves a. Is caused by E. coli only b. Requires treatment to replenish fluids c. Usually occurs at about 3 months of age d. Is seldom fatal

b. Requires treatment to replenish fluids Electrolytes are used to treat scours from almost any cause. Specific treatment for bacterial infection and supportive treatment for viral scours are also needed.

What bandage is most commonly used for temporary immobilization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle before surgery? a. Full-leg stack b. Robert Jones c. Modified Robert Jones d. Military field

b. Robert Jones A Robert Jones bandage provides stability through compression of many cotton layers; a modified Robert Jones is less bulky and provides little or no splinting capabilities.

What bacterium that is pathogenic to humans is contracted from chickens, horses, and reptiles? a. Proteus b. Salmonella c. Bordetella d. Pasteurella

b. Salmonella

The breed of dog born with no tail is the a. Old English sheepdog b. Schipperke c. Miniature poodle d. Miniature schnauzer

b. Schipperke

What splint is used on simple, closed fractures of the radius and ulna or tibia and fibula in young dogs and occasionally on large animals (mostly the rear limbs of cattle)? a. Kimzey b. Schroeder-Thomas c. Board d. Plastic (PVC)

b. Schroeder-Thomas The toes of a bandaged limb should be monitored daily for all of the following except a. Warmth b. Sensitivity c. Color d. Swelling *** b. Sensitivity

When giving an IM injection, it is good practice to withdraw the syringe plunger after the needle is inserted to a. Draw air into the syringe b. See whether the needle has been inserted into a blood vessel c. Make the plunger easier to depress d. Provide stability to the syringe

b. See whether the needle has been inserted into a blood vessel Before administering any injection, you should aspirate to check for blood.

When planning the appropriate nutritional treatment for a patient, the caloric intake should a. Meet the metabolic requirements of the patient b. Slightly exceed the metabolic requirements of the patient c. Be slightly less than the metabolic requirements of the patient d. Greatly exceed the metabolic requirements of the patient

b. Slightly exceed the metabolic requirements of the patient Metabolic requirements of the patient should be exceeded to give the patient an energy reserve to fi ght the current disease, but excessive calories would increase the stress on the systems to dispose of the excess and may lead to obesity.

Long-handle neck tongs can be used to grasp a pig to apply a a. Harness b. Snout rope c. Dental speculum d. Halter

b. Snout rope Long-handle neck tongs can be used to help apply a snout rope, which is a better means of restraint.

Animals in which certain disease-causing agents have been eliminated are a. Microbially defined b. Specific-pathogen-free c. Axenic d. Conventional

b. Specific-pathogen-free

The cage type frequently used for housing nonhuman primates is a. Rack b. Squeeze c. Cabinet d. Metabolism

b. Squeeze

All of the following are Old World monkeys, except the a. Rhesus b. Squirrel c. Cynomolgus d. Stump tail

b. Squirrel Squirrel monkeys are New World, nonhuman primates.

The function of a Robert Jones bandage is to a. Support the shoulder joint after surgery b. Stabilize a fracture before surgery c. Support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation d. Stabilize a fracture after surgery

b. Stabilize a fracture before surgery It is used for immobilization of fractures distal to the elbow or stifle before surgery. It stabilizes a fracture before surgery with its several layers of rolled cotton compressed tightly and therefore prevents constriction of the limb.

Which phase of the ECG represents the repolarization phase of the ventricles? a. P wave b. T wave c. P-R interval d. Q-T interval

b. T wave The T wave results from recovery or repolarization of the ventricles.

What vein may readily be used for blood collection in mice and rats? a. Brachial vein b. Tail vein c. Jugular vein d. Ear vein

b. Tail vein The tail vein may readily be used for blood collection in mice and rats.

The term nystagmus refers to a. The eyes being off center b. The eyes moving in a horizontal or vertical motion c. Abnormal protrusion of the eye d. Marked edema of the eyes

b. The eyes moving in a horizontal or vertical motion Nystagmus is an involuntary, constant movement of the eye in a horizontal or vertical motion

When restraining a domestic cat, the best rule to remember is a. Always wear gloves. b. Use the least amount of restraint possible for the procedure. c. Always grasp the cat with your fingers encircling its head. d. Always use a cat bag or towel.

b. Use the least amount of restraint possible for the procedure. Cats respond best when the least amount of restraint is applied to the extent necessary for the procedure being performed.

What type of preparation is a biologic? a. Antibiotic b. Vaccine c. Anesthetic d. IV fluid

b. Vaccine

On a deep skin scraping, sarcoptic mange mites are a. Easy to find, because they are so numerous on the patient b. Very difficult to find, because very few are often on the patient c. Never found, because they are temporary parasites d. More often found if you pinch the skin before doing the skin scraping

b. Very difficult to find, because very few are often on the patient Multiple scrapings are often necessary to find a single sarcoptic mite.

A factor included in body condition score of dogs and cats is a. Age b. Visible waist c. Weight d. Palpation of ribs

b. Visible waist Should show an hourglass profile when viewed from above Which of the following is/are examples of preservatives? a. Omega-3 oils b. Sucrose, dextrose c. Lactated Ringer d. Potassium sorbate *** d. Potassium sorbate Potassium sorbate is fungistatic.

A young, inactive, ruffled-looking guinea pig with piloerection and dull eyes is brought into the clinic. The client reports that it has not eaten for a few days, is showing a shuffling gait, and is sore when touched at the joints. You notice it is dehydrated as well. The likely cause is a. Vitamin D deficiency b. Vitamin C deficiency c. Ketosis d. Bordetella

b. Vitamin C deficiency These are signs of scurvy or scorbutism that result from hypovitaminosis C. Overt signs of deficiency are shown within 14 days. If untreated, these guinea pigs usually die within 2 weeks of onset of clinical signs.

If you are advising a pregnant woman to avoid Toxoplasma gondii , which of the following would you tell her? a. Store cat feces in an open container. b. Wear gloves while gardening to avoid contact with cat feces. c. Wash your hands after handling your dog. d. Avoid procedures involving horses.

b. Wear gloves while gardening to avoid contact with cat feces. Cats can transmit Toxoplasma gondii to people. Cats defecate in gardens, and the woman might come into contact with the feces while gardening.

Of the following horse breeds, which is in the pony class? a. Arabian b. Welsh c. Morgan d. Appaloosa

b. Welsh The Welsh is a pony.

The gestation period, estrous cycle, and average litter size of hamsters, respectively, are about a. 24 days, 4 to 5 days, and 4 to 5 young b. 21 days, 1 to 2 days, and 4 to 5 young c. 16 days, 4 to 5 days, and 5 to 9 young d. 16 days, 1 to 2 days, and 4 to 5 young

c. 16 days, 4 to 5 days, and 5 to 9 young The gestation period of hamsters is 16 days (the shortest among the Muridae rodents); the estrous cycle is typical at 4 to 5 days, and there are usually 5 to 9 young in a litter of Syrian hamsters.

For canine distemper and hepatitis, the most commonly recommended time for the last vaccine in a puppy series is at a. 10 weeks of age b. 8 weeks of age c. 16 weeks of age d. 24 weeks of age

c. 16 weeks of age Most vaccine manufacturers recommend a final vaccination for canine distemper and hepatitis at 16 weeks of age to prevent maternal antibody interference.

Which of these catheters is best to use to draw multiple blood samples? a. 24-gauge femoral catheter b. 22-gauge cephalic catheter c. 18-gauge jugular catheter d. 24-gauge catheter in the lateral saphenous vein

c. 18-gauge jugular catheter Multiple blood samples can be obtained from a jugular catheter.

You are to give a mouse fluids on recovery from anesthesia. The maximum amount of the warmed fluids that you should be giving IP at one dose is a. 0.5 to 1 ml b. 1 to 2 ml c. 2 to 3 ml d. 5 to 10 ml

c. 2 to 3 ml It is suggested that no more than 2 to 3 ml be given intraperitoneally to mice. Rats can tolerate up to 5 to 10 ml.

The blood smear of a normal dog should have What percentage of eosinophils? a. 60% to 77% b. 35% to 75% c. 2% to 10% d. 12% to 30%

c. 2% to 10%

A minimum of how many generations of brother-sister matings is necessary to create an inbred strain? a. 4 b. 10 c. 20 d. 50

c. 20 Twenty generations of brother-sister matings are necessary to create an inbred strain.

When applying physical therapy to a patient, cold or hot compresses are usually applied for What time period? a. 1 hour b. 10 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 3 to 4 hours

c. 20 minutes Hot or cold compresses are applied for 20-minute intervals with frequent rewarming or cooling changes during this time period.

Weaning in mice, rats, and hamsters usually occurs at what age? a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 4 weeks

c. 3 weeks Weaning in mice, rats, and hamsters usually occurs at 3 weeks.

A client wishes to get a pet gerbil. You tell him that the average lifespan for gerbils is a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years

c. 3 years Gerbil females average about 3 years, whereas males average about 2 and 3/4 years, but both sexes can live up to 4 years.

What is the usual approximate life span of mice, rats, and hamsters? a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 3 years d. 1 year

c. 3 years The usual lifespan of mice, rats, and hamsters is 3 years, although some may live slightly longer.

How much urine does an average dog normally produce in 24 hours? a. 5 ml/kg b. 15 ml/kg c. 30 ml/kg d. 45 ml/kg

c. 30 ml/kg

Use of a cephalic catheter for IV fluid administration is usually limited to a. 2 to 4 hours b. 7 to 14 days c. 48 to 72 hours d. 30 days

c. 48 to 72 hours Beyond 3 days, the patency of the catheter decreases, and the risk of infection increases.

Subcutaneous fluids are usually absorbed in a. 48 hours b. 1 to 2 hours c. 5 to 8 hours d. 5 to 10 minutes

c. 5 to 8 hours Subcutaneous fluids are absorbed in 5 to 8 hours and are often administered three times daily.

The normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of a dog is a. 300 to 345 fl (femtoliter) b. 1 to 2 fl c. 60 to 77 fl d. 103 to 400 fl

c. 60 to 77 fl

A glass rectal thermometer has a. No constriction in the mercury to interfere with temperature taking b. An elongated bulb and a mercury constriction c. A round bulb and a mercury constriction d. A round bulb with no mercury constriction

c. A round bulb and a mercury constriction Rectal thermometers have a round bulb and a mercury constriction to stop the mercury from falling until the thermometer can be read.

Which of the following could be a symptom/ sign of toxoplasmosis in people? a. Subcutaneous, red tracts b. Chronic cough c. Abortion during first trimester d. Chronic diarrhea

c. Abortion during first trimester

How do pigeon blood cells differ from those of rabbits and rodents? a. There are no thrombocytes. b. There are no eosinophils. c. All of the mature blood cells are nucleated. d. Only the mature erythrocytes are nucleated.

c. All of the mature blood cells are nucleated. In pigeons, as in all birds, all of the blood cells are nucleated.

People infected with Dirofi laria immitis via a mosquito could develop lesions in the a. Myocardium b. Glomeruli c. Alveoli of the lungs d. Cerebral cortex

c. Alveoli of the lungs Dirofi laria immitis in people can cause coin lesions on radiographic examination of the lungs, because this is the capillary bed where the microfi lariae are trapped.

The department within the USDA that is responsible for administering the Animal Welfare Act is the a. Food and Drug Administration b. National Institutes of Health c. Animal Plant and Health Inspection Service d. Public Health Service

c. Animal Plant and Health Inspection Service The Animal Plant and Health Inspection Service is the only division of the USDA listed; it administers the Animal Welfare Act, and the Regulator Enforcement and Animal Care division enforces the Animal Welfare Act.

From what area is it best to approach a horse? a. Rear b. Directly in the front c. At a 45-degree angle from the left shoulder d. Any direction is okay

c. At a 45-degree angle from the left shoulder It is best to approach the horse at a 45-degree angle from the left shoulder, because this is what most horses are accustomed to.

Rodents practice coprophagy primarily to recover a. Water b. Vitamin A c. B-vitamin complex d. Fats and carbohydrates

c. B-vitamin complex Fecal pellets often constitute a significant portion of what rodents consume. It is presumed that they provide nutrients, such as vitamin B, that are produced by the colonic bacteria.

What laboratory animal species is most sensitive to bright light? a. Syrian hamster b. Long-Evans rat c. BALB/C mouse d. Dutch rabbit

c. BALB/C mouse Retinal damage occurs in albino strains exposed to bright lights.

A previously unvaccinated mature horse that receives a traumatic wound that becomes contaminated should be given a. Tetanus antitoxin only b. Tetanus toxoid only c. Both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid d. Local wound therapy only

c. Both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid Tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid are given together. The antitoxin immediately supplies immunoglobulins against tetanus; the toxoid causes the equine lymphocytes to produce immunoglobulin for long-term protection.

What tissue is the preferred tissue to be submitted for rabies diagnosis? a. Heart b. Lung c. Brain d. Lymph node

c. Brain Rabies virus causes Negri bodies to form in the brain, and these can be used to diagnose the disease in the laboratory.

Birds are attracted to a. Pelleted foods b. Human foods c. Brightly colored feed d. Foods high in salt

c. Brightly colored feed Vision stimulation

Infertility and abortion in cattle can be caused by a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Foot and mouth disease c. Campylobacter fetus d. Coronavirus diarrhea of calves

c. Campylobacter fetus Campylobacter (Vibrio) can cause infertility and abortion in cattle.

Pasteurellosis a. Is a gram-positive coccobacillus b. Is passed directly only c. Can produce rhinitis, torticollis, abscesses, and vaginal discharge d. Is eliminated once signs are displayed

c. Can produce rhinitis, torticollis, abscesses, and vaginal discharge Pasteurella multocida is a gram-negative rod that can affect one or more body systems. The most common signs are nasal discharge and sneezing. The organism is transmitted through direct contact and via fomites and is difficult to eradicate.

Against what disease should ferrets be vaccinated? a. Feline panleukopenia b. Feline rhinotracheitis c. Canine distemper d. Canine parvovirus infection

c. Canine distemper

Two of the most common viral infections of dogs include a. Rickets and scurvy b. Pasteurellosis and staphylococcosis c. Canine distemper and canine hepatitis d. Toxoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis

c. Canine distemper and canine hepatitis

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease associated with birds? a. Hantavirus b. Ectromelia c. Chlamydiosis d. Encephalomyocarditis

c. Chlamydiosis Chlamydiosis is also known as psittacosis

What coccidian is most likely to infect people Who drinks contaminated water? a. Sarcocystis b. Eimeria c. Cryptosporidium d. Isospora

c. Cryptosporidium Cryptosporidium is a protozoan parasite of cattle and other animals that can contaminate water supplies and infect people who drink the water.

Which of the following is the most aseptic technique for collecting urine for culture and sensitivity? a. Free catch b. Expression c. Cystocentesis d. Catheterization

c. Cystocentesis Cystocentesis is the most sterile technique to obtain urine for culture and sensitivity.

One clinical sign of hypothermia is a. Increased body temperature b. Increased cardiac output c. Decreased blood pressure d. Bright red mucous membrane

c. Decreased blood pressure The other signs indicate hyperthermia.

A client brings her new 7-week-old puppy into the clinic and is curious about the ideal vaccination schedule for her pet. You tell her that the ideal schedule is a. Distemper at 12, 16, and 20 weeks with rabies at 12 weeks b. Distemper at 8, 12, and 16 weeks with rabies at 8 weeks c. Distemper at 8, 12, and 16 weeks with rabies at 12 weeks d. Distemper at 8, 12, and 16 weeks with rabies at 1 year of age

c. Distemper at 8, 12, and 16 weeks with rabies at 12 weeks Distemper vaccinations are started at 8 weeks with boosters 3 to 4 weeks apart. A killed rabies vaccine can be given at 12 weeks.

The breed of dog that commonly has its ears cropped is the a. Borzoi b. Keeshond c. Doberman pinscher d. Cocker spaniel

c. Doberman pinscher Of the breeds listed, only the Doberman pinscher has its ears cropped.

A female rabbit is called a a. Queen b. Sow c. Doe d. Bitch

c. Doe A queen is a female cat, a sow is a female pig, and a bitch is a female dog.

The 1985 amendment to the Animal Welfare Act provided standards for the exercise of a. Cats b. Hamsters c. Dogs d. Ferrets

c. Dogs

A characteristic that distinguishes lagomorphs from rodents is a. Five toes on front and rear feet b. Large cecum c. Double pair of upper incisors d. Lengthy small intestine

c. Double pair of upper incisors

Which of these birds does not eat seeds? a. Finch b. Macaw c. Duck d. Parakeet

c. Duck Finches, macaws, and parakeets eat different sizes of seeds.

The most accessible vein for blood collection in the rabbit is the a. Jugular b. Femoral c. Ear d. Orbital

c. Ear

Which is the most common sign of ear mite infestation in cats? a. Purulent discharge from the ear b. Serosanguineous discharge from the ear c. Ear flap hematomas d. Persistent head shaking

c. Ear flap hematomas Otodectes cynotis can cause irritation in the ear canal, which may result in a hematoma when the cat tries to scratch the ear.

The coccidia of rabbits is a. Isospora b. Taenia c. Eimeria d. Toxocara

c. Eimeria Isospora is the coccidia of dogs and cats.

The term sleeping sickness in horses refers to a. Strangles b. Distemper c. Encephalitis d. Tetanus

c. Encephalitis a: Bacterial respiratory infection, b: Viral infection, d: Causes rigidity and convulsions

Which of the following is not a primary skin lesion? a. Macule b. Vesicle c. Excoriation d. Wheal

c. Excoriation Excoriation is a secondary, self-induced lesion. A primary lesion is a lesion caused directly by disease.

In most cases of respiratory, cardiovascular, and musculoskeletal disorders, which of the following is contraindicated? a. Feeding b. Drinking c. Exercise d. Grooming

c. Exercise Exercise is usually detrimental to these conditions, because it places unneeded strain on the systems mentioned.

The term for parturition in the guinea pig is a. Kindling b. Queening c. Farrowing d. Littering

c. Farrowing

Slobbers, or moist dermatitis, is a condition that occurs in a. Mice b. Rats c. Rabbits d. Guinea pigs

c. Rabbits

Which statement about PCV measurement in Is acute blood loss true? a. It is an accurate assessment of the condition, but only if combined with serum albumin determination. b. It is an accurate assessment of the condition, but only if combined with a BUN determination. c. It is an inaccurate assessment of the condition because of vasoconstriction and splenic contraction. d. It is an inaccurate assessment of the condition because of vasodilation and hepatic contraction.

c. It is an inaccurate assessment of the condition because of vasoconstriction and splenic contraction. PCV can be inaccurate in assessing blood loss early in acute hemorrhage because of vasoconstriction and a large influx of RBCs resulting from splenic contraction.

What is true about a degloving injury in a dog? a. It commonly results from tight bandages. b. It is considered a clean wound. c. It results in skin loss. d. It can never be closed surgically.

c. It results in skin loss. A degloving wound has the skin removed from the bone and soft tissues.

The term pruritus refers to a. Edema b. Alopecia c. Itching d. Dandruff

c. Itching

The vein of choice for blood sampling in horses is the a. Cephalic vein b. Saphenous vein c. Jugular vein d. Coccygeal vein

c. Jugular vein Routine blood sampling of horses is nearly always done from a jugular vein.

The colloquial term for acetonemia in cattle is a. Milk fever b. Mastitis c. Ketosis d. Bloat

c. Ketosis Ketosis is when the cow is unable to meet her energy demands after calving and mobilizes stored energy, the catabolism of which produces ketones.

The breed of goat with almost no external ears is the a. Oberhasli b. French alpine c. LaMancha d. Saanen

c. LaMancha The LaMancha has almost no external ears (gopher ears) or extremely short ears (elf ears).

To auscult the pulmonic, aortic, and mitral valves of the dog, you should place your stethoscope in a. Left intercostal spaces 4 to 6 b. Right intercostal spaces 6 to 8 c. Left intercostal spaces 3 to 5 d. Right intercostal spaces 3 to 5

c. Left intercostal spaces 3 to 5 The pulmonic valve is at the left third intercostal space, the aortic valve at the left fourth intercostal space, and the mitral valve at the left fifth intercostal space.

Which of the following is generally not a core vaccine for dogs? a. Distemper b. Adenovirus c. Leptospira d. Parvovirus

c. Leptospira Leptospira, although becoming increasingly more frequent as an administered vaccine, is currently not a core vaccine. Core vaccines are based on (1) severity of disease, (2) transmissibility, and (3) zoonotic potential.

Rabbits can transmit what disease to people? a. Syphilis b. Herpesvirus infection c. Leukemia d. Tularemia

c. Leukemia Tularemia, caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis , is a zoonotic disease.

All of the following are outbred stocks of rats, except the a. Long-Evans b. Sprague-Dawley c. Lewis d. Wistar

c. Lewis

What is the earliest common clinical sign seen in ferrets or rabbits that are overheating? a. Sweating b. Panting c. Licking their front legs d. Vocalizations

c. Licking their front legs Ferrets and rabbits have a limited ability to thermoregulate, because they cannot sweat or pant. When hot, they lose body heat by salivating and licking their front legs.

In what species would you expect to find a hemipenis? a. Rat b. Rabbit c. Lizard d. Pigeon

c. Lizard

Which of the following is an outbred strain of rat? a. Fisher b. Lewis c. Long-Evans d. Wistar Kyoto

c. Long-Evans All of the other rats listed are inbred.

What rat is also known as the hooded rat? a. Himalayan rat b. Wood rat c. Long-Evans rat d. Wistar rat

c. Long-Evans rat The hooded rat, which has black or brown coloration over its head and shoulders, is also known as the Long-Evans rat .

Which of these compounds is not found in lactated Ringer solution? a. Sodium chloride b. Potassium chloride c. Magnesium chloride d. Calcium chloride

c. Magnesium chloride Magnesium chloride is not a constituent of lactated Ringer solution.

What dog breed is considered to have the greatest tendency to exhibit destructive behavior? a. Chihuahua b. Pomeranian c. Malamute d. Shih Tzu

c. Malamute The malamute and other northern breeds are considered to have the greatest tendency to exhibit destructive behavior.

Which of these is an example of a disease transmitted by an arthropod vector? a. Lice infestation transmitted by community use of a saddle blanket b. Toxoplasmosis transmitted by contact with infective cat feces c. Malaria transmitted from one person to another by a mosquito d. Ascariasis transmitted by eating contaminated dirt

c. Malaria transmitted from one person to another by a mosquito An arthropod vector involves transmission of disease from animal to animal or from animal to person via an insect.

The instrument used in measuring central venous pressure is called a a. Doppler b. Sphygmomanometer c. Manometer d. Pulse oximeter

c. Manometer A manometer is used to measure the pressure in the catheter during the central venous pressure procedure.

Which of the following sites should not be used for blood sampling in rabbits? a. Cephalic vein b. Jugular vein c. Medial saphenous vein d. Ear vein

c. Medial saphenous vein Medial saphenous vein is generally not a vein used for sampling in any species, but in the rabbit, it is difficult, because the animal resists the restraint required. When other veins are still intact, they should always be chosen first.

The genus and species name for the gerbil is a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Mesocricetus auratus c. Meriones unguiculatus d. Cavia porcellus

c. Meriones unguiculatus

Which of these drugs comes in an oral form only? a. Enrofloxacin (Baytril; antibiotic) b. Metoclopramide (Reglan; antacid and antiemetic) c. Methimazole (Tapazole; hyperthyroidism treatment) d. Cimetidine (Tagamet; antihistamine)

c. Methimazole (Tapazole; hyperthyroidism treatment) Tapazole comes in an oral form or can be compounded into a transdermal gel.

What fungus can cause ringworm in people? a. Malassezia b. Cryptococcus c. Microsporum d. Brucella

c. Microsporum Microsporum and Trichophyton are dermatophytes of animals that can cause the skin lesions or ringworm in people.

A client says that she is worried because she has noticed that the four guinea pig pups that were born about 3 hours ago are not nursing at all, and she is positive she has been watching closely. You suggest that she a. Bring in the sow and pups so that the veterinarian can give oxytocin b. Give it Mamalac and begin to stimulate for urination and defecation c. Not worry because guinea pig pups do not nurse for the first 12 to 24 hours d. Not worry until the next one is born

c. Not worry because guinea pig pups do not nurse for the first 12 to 24 hours Guinea pigs do not nurse for the first 12 to 24 hours. The young are born precocial.

When doing daily examinations, you note that a rabbit has a glossy hair coat and no lumps, is defecating in one spot, and is passing liquid, cream-colored urine. You should a. Report the ill health to the veterinarian b. Note the abnormal signs on the chart c. Note on the chart that all is normal d. Immediately isolate the rabbit

c. Note on the chart that all is normal These are all normal. Normal urine does vary in color and consistency and can be white, turbid, pale yellow, dark yellow, bright orange, brown, and bright red. Excess of dietary calcium may be responsible for thick, white urine.

Hypocalcemia in dogs a. Does not occur b. Occurs most often at parturition c. Occurs most often in mid to late lactation d. Can occur at any time

c. Occurs most often in mid to late lactation Hypocalcemia occurs when the bitch is at peak lactation, generally around her fifth week of lactation; but depending on litter size and individual animals, it may occur earlier.

Which statement about immunizations is this true? a. Older animals have more effective immune systems and thus require less frequent vaccinations. b. Young animals have passive immunity, making vaccination unnecessary for the first year of life. c. Older animals can have reduced immune status and may require more frequent vaccination. d. Young animals should be given only killed vaccines because of the passive immunity they get from their mothers.

c. Older animals can have reduced immune status and may require more frequent vaccination. Older animals often have compromised immune systems, and vaccine procedures should not be reduced unless titers are taken to establish immune status.

Which of the following is not a parenteral route of drug administration? a. Subcutaneous b. IM c. Oral d. IV

c. Oral

Dyspnea is a. Increased thirst b. A type of painful cough c. Painful breathing d. A slow heart rate

c. Painful breathing Dyspnea means painful, difficult breathing.

Snuffles in rabbits is most commonly caused by a. Bordetella sp. b. Clostridium spiroforme c. Pasteurella multocida d. Eimeria sp.

c. Pasteurella multocida Snuffles, or upper respiratory disease (rhinitis, sinusitis, conjunctivitis, lacrimal duct infection), is caused by P. multocida. The most common forms are rhinitis and sinusitis with a typical white or yellowish mucopurulent discharge.

Which of the following is not an infectious disease of small animals? a. Distemper b. Leptospirosis c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. Pneumonitis

c. Patent ductus arteriosus Patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital cardiac abnormality.

Which of these compounds can be safely given via IV? a. Metoclopramide (Reglan; antacid and antiemetic) b. Tap water c. Penicillin sodium succinate (antibiotic) d. Penicillin G procaine (antibiotic)

c. Penicillin sodium succinate (antibiotic) The succinate (clear liquid solution) form of penicillin can be given IV.

The least desirable method of administering insulin is a. Intramuscular (IM) b. Subcutaneous c. Per os d. Intravenous (IV)

c. Per os Insulin is not absorbed efficiently via the gastrointestinal system.

What breed of cat is most likely to develop hairballs? a. Domestic shorthair b. Burmese c. Persian d. Siamese

c. Persian The Persian cat, as a result of its long hair, is most likely to develop hairballs.

What type of guinea pig has long, silky hair? a. Abyssinian b. English c. Peruvian d. Duncan-Hartley

c. Peruvian

The most appropriate solution to use as an ear cleaner in an animal that does not have an intact tympanum is a. Commercial ceruminolytic b. Dilute povidone-iodine c. Physiologic saline d. Dilute chlorhexidine

c. Physiologic saline If the tympanic membrane is ruptured, or a rupture is suspected, it would be harmful to the animal to place any type of antiseptic or cleaner into the tympanic cavity.

A breeding system in which one male is placed with two or more females is a. Intensive b. Monogamous c. Polygamous d. Pair

c. Polygamous

The breed of dog prized for its lack of shedding is the a. Collie b. Labrador retriever c. Poodle d. Pug

c. Poodle The poodle, while shedding, retains loose hair within its hair coat, which predisposes it to mat formation.

Which lymph node may be palpated caudal to the stifle? a. Axillary b. Inguinal c. Popliteal d. Mandibular

c. Popliteal The popliteal lymph node is located behind the stifle.

The principal intracellular cation that is commonly measured in a blood chemistry profile and that contributes to maintaining the acid-base balance is a. Sodium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Bicarbonate

c. Potassium Potassium is an intracellular cation, and there is no constancy of relationships between extracellular and intracellular potassium. With acidosis, cells tend to take in hydrogen and give up potassium.

A detailed description of the procedures to be used in a research project that is reviewed by an appointed committee is a a. Prospectus b. Report c. Protocol d. Summary

c. Protocol

During fluid therapy, a low plasma protein combined with a decreased cardiac rate can easily result in a. Cardiac arrest b. Rapid rehydration and recovery from shock c. Pulmonary edema d. Seizures

c. Pulmonary edema Low osmotic pressure in the plasma combined with slow movement of the blood results in pooling of the blood in the lungs and pulmonary edema.

Induced ovulators include a. Mouse and rat b. Gerbil and hamster c. Rabbit and ferret d. Hamster and rat

c. Rabbit and ferret

When applying a tendon support bandage on a horse's front leg, the outer wrap may be secured by a. Tucking the end of the roll of bandage into the top of wrapped bandage b. Using adhesive tape and ensuring that the end of the tape overlaps c. Using adhesive tape and ensuring that the ends of the tape do not overlap d. Using a piece of twine wrapped completely around the leg

c. Using adhesive tape and ensuring that the ends of the tape do not overlap Adhesive tape is perfectly acceptable to secure the bandage. However, because it has no elasticity to it (no give), if it completes 360 degrees, it can make a pressure point on the caudal (and to a lesser degree, the cranial) aspect of the bandage.

Campylobacter fetus, which can cause abortion in cattle, is transmitted by a. Oral ingestion b. Inhalation c. Venereal contact d. Penetrating wounds

c. Venereal contact The venereal route is the usual means of transmission for Campylobacter infection.

Which of the following vitamins is/are water soluble? a. Vitamins A and D b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin K

c. Vitamin B B vitamins are water-soluble.

What animal is covered by the Animal Welfare Act? a. Rat specifically bred for research b. Sheep used for wool-production experiments c. Wild mouse used in research d. Chicken used in egg-production experiments

c. Wild mouse used in research Birds, mice, or rats bred specifi cally for research and sheep used for fi ber or food are all exempt from the Animal Welfare Act.

The breed of pig that is white and has erect ears is the a. Landrace b. Hampshire c. Yorkshire d. Berkshire

c. Yorkshire

Severe combined immunodeficient (SCID) mice lack a . B cells b. Null cells c. T cells d . B and T cells

d . B and T cells SCID mice lack both T and B cells.

How long does a modified live vaccine remain effective after it is mixed, if it is left at room temperature? a. 2 to 3 hours b. 24 hours c. Several days d. 1 hour

d. 1 hour Mixed vaccines are viable for 1 hour at room temperature if they are kept in the dark, away from ultraviolet light.

Which urine specific gravity would you expect to see in a dehydrated dog? a. 1.007 b. 1.025 c. 1.015 d. 1.060

d. 1.060 Urine is concentrated (high specific gravity) in dehydrated animals

Which statement concerning subcutaneous Is the administration of fluids true? a. Fluids should be infused with a large-bore needle. b. Fluids should be first warmed to above body temperature. c. A 9% saline solution can safely be administered subcutaneously. d. A 50% dextrose solution cannot safely be administered subcutaneously.

d. A 50% dextrose solution cannot safely be administered subcutaneously. A dextrose solution with a concentration greater than 2.5% given subcutaneously could cause sloughing of skin and abscess formation.

What breed of guinea pig has a rough hair coat? a. Crested b. American c. Peruvian d. Abyssinian

d. Abyssinian The Abyssinian is the only rough-coated breed of guinea pig.

Analgesia should be provided by a regimen that a. Requires a specified time to elapse between administrations b. Requires an interval of time to elapse that allows the animal to demonstrate the current level of pain c. Provides one administration of an analgesic agent every 24 hours d. Administers the analgesic before the onset of anticipated pain returns

d. Administers the analgesic before the onset of anticipated pain returns Pain relief is a basic right of any animal. Healing, whether it is medical or surgical, is greatly facilitated by the preemptive alleviation of painful stimuli.

Which breed of cattle is a beef breed? a. Guernsey b. Holstein c. Jersey d. Angus

d. Angus The Angus is a breed of beef cattle. All others are breeds of dairy cattle.

The sex of juvenile mice is determined by a. Palpation of the pelvic region b. Behavior traits c. Secondary sex characteristics d. Anogenital distance

d. Anogenital distance The anogenital distance in male mice is twice that of female mice.

A pharyngostomy tube is used when a patient is a. Dyspneic b. Anemic c. Anuric d. Anorexic

d. Anorexic Pharyngostomy tubes are used to force-feed a patient.

Animals that are free of absolutely all microorganisms and parasites are called a. Specific-pathogen-free b. Conventional c. Microbially defined d. Axenic

d. Axenic

A type of inbred albino mouse is a. DBA b. Swiss c. C57/BL d. BALB/C

d. BALB/C

What is the best method of handling an extremely agitated cat? a. Apply firm restraint b. Use a cat bag c. Use a cat muzzle d. Back off and allow the cat to calm down

d. Back off and allow the cat to calm down Attempts to control an extremely agitated cat often end with injury to the cat through use of excessive force.

Rabies is a fatal viral disease that is most likely to be transmitted to people by the bite of a a. Guinea pig b. Macaw c. Rhesus monkey d. Bat

d. Bat Bats are one of the most common animals to become rabid, and they can infect people by biting.

The breed of dog known for its ability to track scents is the a. Boston terrier b. Welsh corgi c. Bedlington terrier d. Bloodhound

d. Bloodhound The bloodhound is frequently used in tracking.

Which canine disease responds to antibiotic therapy? a. Canine distemper b. Parvovirus infection c. Canine adenovirus infection d. Bordetella bronchiseptica infection

d. Bordetella bronchiseptica infection Bordetella bronchiseptica is a bacterial pathogen that should respond to antibiotics. The other choices are viral diseases, which do not respond to antibiotics.

What breed of dog is more commonly born by cesarean section? a. Collie b. Beagle c. Pomeranian d. Boston terrier

d. Boston terrier The Boston terrier, because of its large head, is frequently born by cesarean section.

The breed of beef cattle noted for its heat tolerance is the a. Angus b. Longhorn c. Hereford d. Brahman

d. Brahman

What disease causes abortions in cattle, fistulous withers in horses, and undulant fever in people? a. Campylobacteriosis b. Leptospirosis c. Erysipelas d. Brucellosis

d. Brucellosis Brucella abortus causes disease in cattle, horses, and people.

Which of the following causes diarrhea in dogs and humans? a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Pseudomonas d. Campylobacter

d. Campylobacter

The common mite of the hedgehog is a. Sarcoptes b. Demodex c. Cheyletiella d. Caparinia

d. Caparinia

Another term for a laxative is a. Relaxant b. Diuretic c. Adjuvant d. Cathartic

d. Cathartic

The genus and species name for the guinea pig is a. Oryctolagus cuniculus b. Mesocricetus auratus c. Meriones unguiculatus d. Cavia porcellus

d. Cavia porcellus

Kurloff corpuscles are a common finding in what species? a. Rattus norvegicus b. Cricetulus griseus c. Mesocricetus auratus d. Cavia porcellus

d. Cavia porcellus Guinea pigs commonly have Kurloff corpuscles.

What dog breed is considered to have the greatest tendency to exhibit aggressive behavior? a. Irish setter b. Labrador retriever c. Saint Bernard d. Chow Chow

d. Chow Chow

Signs of snuffles in rabbits include a. Vomiting b. Diarrhea c. Splayed legs d. Chronic rhinitis

d. Chronic rhinitis Snuffles is an acute, subacute, or chronic inflammation of the nasal passages of rabbits. It is caused by Pasteurella .

Which of these dog breeds is sensitive to ivermectin? a. Husky b. German shepherd c. Pug d. Collie

d. Collie

The breed of dog known for its predisposition to retinal problems is the a. Pekingese b. Dalmatian c. Doberman pinscher d. Collie

d. Collie The collie has a high incidence of an underdeveloped retina.

Which of the following has the least influence on the acceptability of food to dogs and cats? a. Salt content b. Size c. Shape d. Color

d. Color Has some effect on birds but not so much on small animals

Which of the following is a small South American primate often used as a laboratory animal? a. Rhesus macaque b. Green monkey c. Woolly monkey d. Common marmoset

d. Common marmoset The common marmoset is a small South American primate often used as a laboratory animal. The rhesus macaque is the most commonly used primate in research but is from Asia. The green monkey, also used in research, is from Africa, and the woolly monkey, from South America, is rarely used in research.

A rat is all hunched up in front of you with dyspnea, inactivity, ruffled hair coat, wheezy sounding lungs, and nasal and ocular discharge of slightly red color. There is no photophobia or a swollen neck. The veterinarian likely suspects a. Sendai virus b. Sialodacryoadenitis c. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis (MRM) d. Either Sendai virus or MRM

d. Either Sendai virus or MRM The Sendai virus and murine respiratory mycoplasmosis show respiratory signs. Sialodacryoadenitis (SDAV) does as well; however, common clinical signs of SDAV are photophobia and swollen neck (inflamed salivary glands, lacrimal glands, and lymph nodes). Actual signs for these three diseases depend on the immune status of the animal at the time of infection.

Which of the following lists the stages of wound healing in the correct order? a. Collagen, maturation, exudative b. Maturation, collagen, exudative c. Exudative, maturation, collagen d. Exudative, collagen, maturation

d. Exudative, collagen, maturation Stages of wound healing tend to overlap;however, for successful healing, it follows this route.

The pulse of a horse is most conveniently palpated using the a. Femoral artery b. Dorsal pedal artery c. Coccygeal artery d. Facial artery

d. Facial artery The facial artery is the most easily palpated and best accepted by the horse. Although the dorsal pedal artery is also fairly easily palpated, it is not considered the most accurate.

Females that are bred at the postpartum estrus have an extended gestation period. This is known as the a. Whitten effect b. Bruce effect c. Lee Boot effect d. Facultative diapause

d. Facultative diapause Facultative diapause, or delayed implantation, is when females bred at the postpartum estrus have an extended pregnancy.

Ferrets are susceptible to all diseases except a. Human influenza b. Rabies c. Heartworm d. Feline distemper

d. Feline distemper

Rodents are generally fed ad libitum, which means a. Once daily b. Twice daily c. With water d. Free choice

d. Free choice

Seizures are a common problem in the a. Rabbit b. Hamster c. Mouse d. Gerbil

d. Gerbil

What species of reptile is venomous? a. King snake b. Iguana c. Water dragon d. Gila Monster

d. Gila Monster

Which of these dog breeds is most likely to get hip dysplasia? a. Beagle b. Yorkshire terrier c. Borzoi d. Golden retriever

d. Golden retriever

What laboratory animal species has a gestation period similar to that of cats? a. Gerbil b. Mouse c. Rabbit d. Guinea pig

d. Guinea pig

The laboratory animal species most likely to experience dystocia is a a. Rat b. Gerbil c. Hamster d. Guinea pig

d. Guinea pig Dystocia is a problem in guinea pigs, particularly those bred for the first time after age 6 months.

Malocclusion in which of the following species involves elongated premolars and molars? a. Rabbit b. Ferret c. Rat d. Guinea pig

d. Guinea pig The guinea pig has open-rooted premolars and molars that continually grow. If the teeth are not aligned properly, they overgrow and irritate the gingiva, causing excessive salivation.

Scurvy is most likely to be seen in what animal? a. Rabbit b. Gerbil c. Hamster d. Guinea pig

d. Guinea pig The guinea pig is unable to synthesize vitamin C like most other mammals and is thus susceptible to scurvy, a vitamin C deficiency.

The species that gives birth to large, precocious young is the a. Ferret b. Rabbit c. Hamster d. Guinea pig

d. Guinea pig Young are well developed because of a long gestation period of 68 days.

What is the basic tool of restraint for the horse? a. Leg hobbles b. Nose twitch c. Casting d. Halter

d. Halter A halter is the most common horse restraint and the first tool usually used; the others may be used if more restraint is needed to perform a procedure.

The species that normally has cream-colored urine is the a. Rat b. Gerbil c. Mouse d. Hamster

d. Hamster

Which of the following rodents has cheek pouches? a. Gerbil b. Mouse c. Rat d. Hamster

d. Hamster

If a client asks whether it is okay to feed sunflower seeds to her gerbil, you suggest that the seeds a. Can be used as the main diet b. Should never be eaten c. Have increased vitamin C and calcium and decreased vitamin D d. Have increased fat and decreased calcium

d. Have increased fat and decreased calcium If gerbils eat sunfl ower seed to the detriment of other food, there will be a deficiency of calcium and other minerals as well as increased fat intake leading to obesity.

d.International units

d. International units

When an animal has a sinus bradycardia, the heart rate a. Is too fast b. Has stopped c. Is normal d. Is too slow

d. Is too slow Bradycardia means "slow heart rate."

Lactated Ringer solution is a. Equitonic b. Hypertonic c. Hypotonic d. Isotonic

d. Isotonic

The breed of dairy cow whose milk contains the highest percentage of butterfat is the a. Holstein b. Ayrshire c. Guernsey d. Jersey

d. Jersey The Jersey produces milk with an average butterfat content of 4.73%.

Which of the following diseases of sheep is not zoonotic? a. Rabies b. Chlamydia infection c. Toxoplasmosis d. Johne's

d. Johne's

An intra-articular injection is given into a/the a. Blood vessel b. Eye c. Skin d. Joint

d. Joint

Blood sampling in cats is best achieved from the a. Cephalic vein b. Saphenous vein c. Cuticle bleed d. Jugular vein

d. Jugular vein Cat veins are smaller and more fragile than other species; the jugular vein provides a large vessel with easy access and minimal discomfort to the animal, and the sample is retrieved more efficiently from this vein than from the cephalic.

Ferret young are called a. Pups b. Kids c. Jills d. Kits

d. Kits

The breed of dog most likely to be affected by hip dysplasia is the a. Wirehaired fox terrier b. Brittany spaniel c. Whippet d. Labrador retriever

d. Labrador retriever Hip dysplasia is most commonly seen in dogs whose mature weight is greater than 40 pounds.

Which of the following is the best way to retrieve a parrot from a cage? a. Grasp the parrot's legs in one hand, the neck in on the other hand, and pull out the parrot. b. Place a towel over the body, hold the wings tightly to its chest, and pull out the parrot. c. Grasp the tail near the base of the body with one hand, the wings with the other hand, and pull out the parrot. d. Place a towel over it, firmly hold its neck, hold the towel lightly wrapped around the wings and body, and pull out the parrot.

d. Place a towel over it, firmly hold its neck, hold the towel lightly wrapped around the wings and body, and pull out the parrot. Birds need to expand their chest to breathe. It is safer to hold a bird's neck than a mammal's neck, because birds have complete tracheal rings. * Which of the following is not an observable skin condition? a. Alopecia b. Seborrhea c. Hyphema d. Erythema *** c. Hyphema Hyphema means "blood in the eye."

What caging material with high-impact strength is transparent and can withstand high temperatures? a. Polystyrene b. Polypropylene c. Polydextran d. Polycarbonate

d. Polycarbonate

An animal in sternal recumbency is a. On its side b. Sitting on its rump c. Positioned with its back on the table or floor d. Positioned with its abdomen on the table or floor

d. Positioned with its abdomen on the table or floor In sternal recumbency, the animal's chest and abdomen are adjacent to the table.

When "clearing" a skin scraping in search of a dermatophyte infection, heat the slide after applying a. Alcohol b. Acetic acid c. Peroxide d. Potassium hydroxide

d. Potassium hydroxide Potassium hydroxide clears the hair and allows the ringworm spores to be visualized. Before doing a skin scraping for a fungal culture, apply a. Alcohol b. Peroxide c. Tincture of iodine d. Potassium hydroxide *** a. Alcohol Alcohol kills bacteria in the area that may inhibit fungal culture attempts.

The function of the anal glands is to a. Produce a scented, oily, sweaty material that serves no function b. Produce sweat that helps lower the body temperature c. Produce an oily substance to lubricate feces d. Produce a scented material used to mark territory

d. Produce a scented material used to mark territory The anal sacs store secretions that are produced by the anal gland.

The major functions of a stent bandage include all of the following, except a. Works in regions that are difficult to cover b. Applies direct pressure and decreases motion c. Reduces the tension on the primary incision line d. Provides good absorption of exudates

d. Provides good absorption of exudates

In the avian species, intraosseous fluid administration is performed by using the a. Proximal humerus b. Distal radius c. Distal femur d. Proximal tibia

d. Proximal tibia The proximal tibial bone is used for intraosseous administration of fluids and some medications.

What is true about psittacosis (chlamydiosis)? a. Psittacosis is spread to humans only by direct contact with an infected bird. b. Testing live birds for psittacosis is easy and highly accurate. c. Psittacosis causes a severe rash on the hands and face in people. d. Psittacosis in birds is controlled by adding antibiotics to bird feed.

d. Psittacosis in birds is controlled by adding antibiotics to bird feed. The tests for psittacosis are not very sensitive or specific. Only liver histopathology is diagnostic.

A client is concerned that her guinea pig is not getting enough vitamin C in its diet, because she is not sure how old the food is. She would be best to a. Feed it rabbit chow b. Give it multivitamins for children (Flintstones variety is the type she has) c. Put enough ascorbic acid tablets in the water for 2 days d. Put some kale, cabbage, and red peppers in its food hopper

d. Put some kale, cabbage, and red peppers in its food hopper These vegetables are high in vitamin C and can be supplemented, provided that they are clean, fresh, and make up no more than 20 to 30 g of the daily diet. She is still best to feed a fresh pelleted diet that has been milled within the past 90 days. On a body weight basis, the daily requirement for vitamin C is 10 mg/kg. If added to the water, vitamin C deteriorates within 24 hours. Rabbit food has no added vitamin C and has high levels of vitamin D. Multivitamins carry the risk of overdose of other vitamins.

d.Put the horse in a quiet, dark, well-bedded stall.

d. Put the horse in a quiet, dark, well-bedded stall.

In addition to cats, the cat bag is a useful restraint device for what animal? a. Miniature swine b. Rhesus macaque c. Guinea pig d. Rabbit

d. Rabbit In addition to cats, the cat bag is a useful restraint device for rabbits.

What species normally has two types of feces, day feces and night feces? a. Hamster b. Gerbil c. Guinea pig d. Rabbit

d. Rabbit Rabbits have moist night feces, which are reingested, and dry day feces.

Tachypnea is a. Rapid heart rate b. Rapid pulse c. Excessive coughing d. Rapid respiration rate

d. Rapid respiration rate Tachypnea is a rapid respiration rate.

What is seen in chromodacryorrhea in rats? a. Diarrhea b. Hematuria c. Head tilt d. Red tears

d. Red tears Red tears from the harderian gland are seen in chromodacryorrhea.

What laboratory animal species has cheek pouches and callous pads on its buttocks? a. Hamster b. Guinea pig c. Rabbit d. Rhesus monkey

d. Rhesus monkey

The disease of rats and mice caused by low humidity is a. Sore hocks b. Wet tail c. Sore nose d. Ring tail

d. Ring tail

The breed of cat with uniquely folded (bent over) ears is the a. Persian b. Burmese c. English flop d. Scottish fold

d. Scottish fold The Scottish fold first appeared in Scotland as a result of a spontaneous mutation in the 1960s. It has folded ears, a short nose, and large round eyes.

With regard to the behavior of guinea pigs, a. They tend to be nocturnal animals. b. They dig and hibernate. c. They react to fear by stomping their feet. d. Secretions from the anal and supracaudal gland are used to mark territory.

d. Secretions from the anal and supracaudal gland are used to mark territory. Part of their hierarchy is maintained by these secretions and other displays. They are considered to be crepuscular but are active throughout the day and night. Fear is shown by scattering and immobility responses, and they do not dig or hibernate.