Security Forces 3P071 Vol.1

What command does the second element leader give their rank upon the approach of the inspecting official?

"Second Element, ATTENTION".

As the flight chief, what three things should you look for during your inspection of the flight?

(1) Fit for duty, (2) appearance complies with directives and (3) Is in possession of all required equipment and ensure that all equipment is in good working condition.

When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

1. Is there any danger to the handler? 2. What is the type and size of building? 3. Is it day or night? 4. Is there any indication of forced entry? 5. What is the possibility of innocent persons being inside?

What three actions should personnel conducting a crime scene do when they find an item of possible evidentiary value?

1. Refrain from touching or moving the item. 2. Immediately tell the person leading the search. 3. They must protect the item until the person leading ht investigation or an investigator arrives.

The Unit Training Section has several areas of responsibility:

1. Responsible for identifying local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements. 2. Develops schedules and conducts unit orientation and initial training. 3. Verifies completed qualification training for duty positions. 4. Informs Stan-Eval individuals have completed their qualification training. 5. Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training. 6. Meets ancillary training requirements. 7. Trains augmenters, as required. 8. Prepares localized job qualification standards (JQS). 9. Maintains a test bank of Air Force, MAJCOM, and local questions and establishes test control procedures. 10. Works with the base training manager. 11. Obtains advice from base training managers on other desirable courses available for training section personnel.

After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?

15

How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

30 Duty Days

What is a post priority chart?

A listing of your posts and patrols in order of precedence as outlined in the ISI.

Which search technique is used during searches in rooms, buildings, and small outdoor areas?

A systematic circle search.

Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

AF Forms 629 and 1297.

What AFI governs the Stan-Eval Program?

AFI 36-2225.

When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.

What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill

Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33-337

What installations are required to have an Installation Security Plan (ISP)?

All installations having or supporting protection level resources

While preserving the crime scene, whose names will SF patrolmen record that enters or exits the crime scene?

All personnel at the crime scene along with anyone who enters the scene to provide medical treatment.

How often does the Stan Eval conduct an inspection on each functional area or workcenter?

Annually, at a minimum, within a 10-13 month window in each duty position.

Confidential

Applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe.

Top Secret (TS)

Applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe.

Secret (S)

Applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe.

In field conditions, at a minimum, how should category I and II weapons be protected when normal protection is not available?

As a minimum, ensure category I and II weapons (which include most rifles and machine guns) stored under field conditions are under constant surveillance when normal protection hardware such as vaults or intrusion detection systems (IDS) are not available.

When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

Who identifies all positions within a squadron requiring evaluations?

Chief, security forces.

Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the

Close Bound Sentries (CBS)

Define collective skills training.

Combines groups of individuals who normally function as a team.

When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

Detection

From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

Downwind.

When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?

During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.

What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

ESRT

Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?

Electronic security systems.

Code 3

Emergency

The MWD program provides SF units with the capability to:

Enforce military laws and regulations, suppress illegal drug use, detect explosives, and protect installations and resources during peacetime, wartime, and in support of operations other than war.

When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?

Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC)

What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Feedback

The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the

Flight Chief

Whose duties include the supervision, morale, welfare, and discipline of flight personnel as well as evaluating the performance of flight personnel?

Flight Chief (NCOIC of the flight).

What are some of the basic requirements you should follow when developing flight schedules?

Flight schedules must require, as a minimum, the normal eight-hour working period and not exceed 12-hour shift, provide for completion of proficiency and recurring training requirements, provide an uninterrupted sleep schedule.

If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog

GUARD

Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

ISRT

When you are going to release a crime scene to SFOI/AFOSI, when would it be appropriate to advise a suspect of his or her Article 31/5th Amendment rights?

If the subject wants to talk and SF Investigations/AFOSI have not arrived on-scene.

Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

Immediately secure the area.

What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.

Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

Individual training

Code 4

Information, not a response code

What should on-duty SF refer to if they feel an incident is beyond their purview?

Investigative matrix contained in AFI 31-206, SF Investigations.

As a supervisor, why is it important you are familiar with and qualified to perform the duties of their immediate subordinates?

It allows you to accurately assess the requirements of the duty position and to compare them with the skills and abilities of your subordinates.

Why is adequate and fair post rotation so important to a flight?

It can assist you in keeping flight morale high.

What is the purpose of security markings on classified material?

It identifies the level (or differing levels) of classification, warns you of special protective measures or procedures to follow, and facilitates declassification or downgrading action.

List the resources designated as PL1.

Nuclear Weapons, Command, Control, Communications, and Computer (C4) Systems critical to the success of active nuclear missions, Designated critical space and launch resources and aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States and Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft.

Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound

OPSEC practices.

Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

OUT and HEEL

What are the key actions during the preliminary examination while searching for evidence?

Observe and record.

While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?

Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.

Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?

Only MAJCOM commanders.

Master surveillance control facility operators (MSCFO)

Operate IDS equipment used to secure protection level resources in restricted areas, dispatch SF to alarms, and make initial notifications. Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV. Act as a subordinate command, control, and communication (C3) control center for SF posted during normal operations. Control entry into structures, alert shelters, and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitors do not exist in the designated area

Which protection level is contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

PL4 resources.

As an armorer, what are your basic functions?

Protect, account for, and the issue/turn-in of weapons, ammunition, and equipment.

What should you question your personnel about during post check visits?

Question each individual about SF basic duties, responsibilities, SSIs and post procedures.

What is the biggest task of the unit deployment manager?

Receiving tasking orders and deploying your troops in support of the various on-going operations throughout the world.

Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

Reports and analysis.

Code 1

Routine

The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?

SF Investigations

Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

SF Manager

What are the three main branches of most SF units?

SFO, SFT and SFA.

Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Senior security forces NCOs.

In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

Simplicity and directness.

What does SEI stand for?

Special experience identifier.

What does the SFT program provide a squadron?

Standardized unit training that complements other training conducted either through formal courses or through OJT.

Define individual skills training.

Teaches individuals tasks for a specific duty position tailored to MAJCOM and local requirements.

What is the main vehicle for distributing anticipated funding (both direct and reimbursable) for the upcoming execution year in an equitable manner?

The Financial Plan.

Who is responsible for developing a traffic code and for ensuring it meets all local and legal requirements?

The chief of security forces.

When must you notify SF training that qualification training is completed?

The first duty day following completion.

What are the steps involved in "Close Ranks, MARCH"?

The first element stands fast, the second element takes one pace forward and halts, the third element takes two paces forward and halts, and the fourth element takes three paces forward and halts. The elements automatically cover and remain at attention.

What are the initial actions taken after the flight chief gives the order to "Fall in?"

The flight falls in six paces in front of the flight chief, forming one to four elements, depending on the size of the flight. The element leaders are positioned at the right flank of each element.

When a MWD handler conducts a search of a suspect, what position is their canine in?

The guard position.

What three tests make-up the standard field sobriety test?

The one leg stand, the walk and turn, and the horizontal gaze nystagmus.

All permanently assigned SF vehicles must be properly marked. What does that mean?

They all must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.

In addition to ensure personnel are in possession of the required equipment, what else should the flight chief ensure?

They need to ensure the equipment is in working condition.

Explain why you, as a supervisor, should maintain a record of each subordinate's qualifications and certifications qualification.

To assist in assigning posts.

What is the primary function of reviewing paperwork?

To ensure ideas being communicated are stated logically in acceptable, consistent English usage (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across in the fewest words.

What is the primary goal of motor vehicle traffic supervision?

To reduce traffic accidents and maintain a free flow of traffic

What is the primary responsibility of the unit scheduler?

To review and update the schedule monthly and coordinate and schedule ancillary training with unit duty sections and base agencies.

Single Scope Background Investigations (SSBI) are required for personnel requiring what clearance?

Top Secret

What is the unit flight schedule based on?

Unit needs

Code 2

Urgent

List basic equipment issued to SF personnel.

Whistle, flashlight, cold and foul weather gear, web gear, handcuffs, restricted area badge, ID card and SF shield.

What actions must you take if you discover classified material unsecured?

You are required to secure it and to immediately notify your security manager or commander of the incident.

When using MWD in security operations, what must you consider prior to posting?

You need to consider wind direction, location of priority resources, and likely avenues of approach when deciding best location for dog posts.

What does the post priority chart define?

Your posting priority from FPCON Normal thru FPCON Delta.

As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for

argument

The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to

cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.

The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year

The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.

Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented?

installation commander

All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have

portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system

It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

proficiency.

When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

psychological deterrent.

The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the

security force members

When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have two single-person

security patrols

Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying

voluntarily