Security+ SYO-701 Practice Tests

d. CTM (Cyber Threat Management)

A block cipher mode that combines a unique counter with encryption key to generate a stream of pseudorandom data blocks which are then used for encrypting data is called: a. CBC b. GCM c. CFB d. CTM

a. True

A hash function is a mathematical algorithm that maps data of arbitrary size to a fixed-size hash value, typically represented as a short string of characters. The hash function result, also known as a digest or checksum, provides a unique representation of the original data input. The functionality of hash functions relies on the fact that if there is any change to the data after the original hash was generated, the new hash value calculated after content modification will be different from the original result because hash functions are designed to be sensitive to changes in the input data. a. True b. False

a. PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)

A hierarchical system for the creation, management, storage, distribution, and revocation of digital certificates is known as: a. PKI b. RA c. PKCS d. CA

b. False

A honeyfile can be any type of file (e.g., a document, email message, image, or video file) containing real user data intentionally placed within a network or system to attract potential attackers or unauthorized users. a. True b. False

d. All of the above

A honeyfile can be used for: a. Attracting cyber attackers b. Triggering alerts when accessed c. Monitoring network activity d. All of the above

b. BIA (Business Impact Analysis)

A process used by organizations to assess and evaluate the potential impact of disruptive incidents or disasters on their critical business functions and operations is referred to as: a. BPA b. BIA c. SLE d. BCP

d. TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)

A security protocol designed to improve the security of existing WEP implementations is known as: a. WPA2 b. RC4 c. CCMP d. TKIP

b. VPN (Virtual Private Network)

A system that uses public network (such as the Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is referred to as: a. WWAN b. VPN c. PAN d. VLAN

b. SSH (Secure Shell)

A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is known as: a. RDP b. SSH c. Telnet d. SCP

a. True

An IV is a random or pseudorandom value used in cryptography to ensure that the same plaintext input does not produce the same ciphertext output, even when the same encryption key is used. The IV is typically used with encryption algorithms in block cipher modes to enhance security by introducing randomness to the encryption process. a. True b. False

b. EFS (Encryption File System)

An MS Windows component that enables encryption of individual files is called: a. SED b. EFS c. BitLocker d. FDE

a. True

An access control vestibule (a.k.a. mantrap) is a physical security access control system used to prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to restricted areas. An example mantrap could be a two-door entrance point connected to a guard station wherein a person entering from the outside remains locked inside until he/she provides authentication token required to unlock the inner door. a. True b. False

b. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol)

An encryption protocol primarily used in Wi-Fi networks implementing the WPA2 security standard is called: a. TKIP b. CCMP c. SSL d. IPsec

a. Warning signs c. Lighting f. Fencing/Bollards

Examples of deterrent security controls include: (Select 3 answers) a. Warning signs b. Sensors c. Lighting d. Video surveillance e. Security audits f. Fencing/Bollards

c. Organizational security policy d. Risk assessments e. Security awareness training

Examples of managerial security controls include: (Select 3 answers) a. Configuration management b. Data backups c. Organizational security policy d. Risk assessments e. Security awareness training

b. False

Examples of techniques used for encrypting information include symmetric encryption (also called public-key encryption) and asymmetric encryption (also called secret-key encryption, or session-key encryption). a. True b. False

f. All of the above

Hash functions find use in a variety of applications, including: a. Cryptography b. Data integrity verification c. Password verification and storage d. Digital signatures e. Blockchain technology f. All of the above

b. TGT (Ticket Granting Ticket)

In a Kerberos-protected network, this type of secure token is granted to users during their initial login to enable them access to multiple network services without the need to re-enter their login credentials. a. OTP b. TGT c. AS d. TGS

a. True

In asymmetric encryption, any message encrypted with the use of a public key can only be decrypted by applying the same algorithm and a matching private key (and vice versa). a. True b. False

a. True

In cryptography and security, the term "Secure enclave" typically refers to a protected and isolated hardware or software environment within a computing device, such as a smartphone, tablet, or computer, where sensitive data and cryptographic operations can be stored and processed securely. a. True b. False

a. True

In cryptography, the number of bits in a key used by a cryptographic algorithm is referred to as key size or key length. The key length determines the maximum number of combinations required to break the encryption algorithm, therefore typically a longer key means stronger cryptographic security. a. True b. False

b. Authorization

In the AAA security architecture, the process of granting or denying access to resources is known as: a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting

c. Accounting

In the AAA security architecture, the process of tracking accessed services as well as the amount of consumed resources is called: a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting

a. True

In the Zero Trust security architecture, the Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) is a Data Plane component that enforces the security policies defined at the Control Plane by the Policy Decision Point (PDP). a. True b. False

b. Usernames and passwords d. Biometrics e. MFA (Multi-factor Authentication)

In the context of the AAA framework, common methods for authenticating people include: (Select 3 answers) a. IP addresses b. Usernames and passwords c. MAC addresses d. Biometrics e. MFA

a. True

In the field of data security, the term "Tokenization" refers to the process of replacing sensitive data with nonsensitive information which holds a reference to the original data and enables its processing but has no value when breached. a. True b. False

b. False

Key escrow is a cryptographic technique that enables storing copies of encryption keys with a trusted third party. A Recovery Agent (RA) is a trusted third party (an individual, entity, or system) who is authorized to assist in the retrieval of encryption keys and data on behalf of the data owner. Key escrow and RA are both used to ensure that encrypted data can be decrypted even if the data owner loses access to their encryption key. Since key escrow and RAs are both components of a single security solution, the only way to implement key escrow systems is with the use of RAs. a. True b. False

a. Data masking

Replacing password characters in a password field with a series of asterisks is an example of: a. Data masking b. Tokenization c. Anonymization d. Pseudo-anonymization

b. False

SFTP is an extension of the FTP protocol that adds support for SSL/TLS encryption. a. True b. False

a. True

The MIME specification extends the email message format beyond plain text, enabling the transfer of graphics, audio, and video files over the Internet mail system. S/MIME is an enhanced version of the MIME protocol that enables email security features by providing encryption, authentication, message integrity, and other related services. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Directive security controls" refers to the category of security controls that are implemented through policies and procedures. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "KEK" refers to a type of cryptographic key often used in key management systems to add an additional layer of security when encrypting and decrypting other cryptographic keys. a. True b. False

b. False

The term "Non-repudiation" describes the inability to deny responsibility for performing a specific action. In the context of data security, non-repudiation ensures data confidentiality, provides proof of data integrity, and proof of data origin. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Obfuscation" is used to describe techniques employed to obscure or hide the true meaning or nature of data, making it challenging for unauthorized parties to decipher or reverse-engineer the information. a. True b. False

b. False

The term "Zero Trust security" refers to a cybersecurity model that eliminates implicit trust from networks and requires all users and devices to be continuously verified before being granted access to resources. The implementation of the Zero Trust security involves two distinct components: a Data Plane, responsible for defining and managing security policies, and a Control Plane, responsible for enforcing the security policies established by the Data Plane. a. True b. False

a. Encryption d. Firewalls f. AV software

What are the examples of preventive security controls? (Select 3 answers) a. Encryption b. IDS c. Sensors d. Firewalls e. Warning signs f. AV software

a. Policy Engine (PE) f. Policy Administrator (PA)

What are the key components of the Zero Trust Control Plane's Policy Decision Point (PDP)? (Select 2 answers) a. Policy Engine (PE) b. Monitoring and logging c. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) e. Microsegmentation f. Policy Administrator (PA)

b. A network of honeypots

What is a honeynet in the context of cybersecurity? a. A network of IDSs b. A network of honeypots c. A network of infected hosts d. A network of IPSs

d. A unique identifier that is designed to track attackers

What is a honeytoken? a. A decoy file that is designed to attract attackers b. A unique identifier assigned to a honeyfile c. A decoy system that is designed to lure potential attackers d. A unique identifier that is designed to track attackers

b. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)

What is the name of a network protocol that enables secure file transfer over SSH? a. TFTP b. SFTP c. Telnet d. FTPS

b. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption? a. SFTP b. HTTPS c. FTPS d. SNMP

c. Hiding data within another piece of data

What is the purpose of steganography? a. Checking data integrity b. Verifying hash values c. Hiding data within another piece of data d. Encrypting data

d. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

What is the recommended replacement for DES? a. DSA b. RSA c. RC4 d. AES

a. Data encryption

What is the typical use of a public key? a. Data encryption b. Data decryption c. User/device authentication d. All of the above

c. 256-bit key

Which AES key length provides the highest level of security? a. 128-bit key b. 192-bit key c. 256-bit key d. 320-bit key

b. GCM (Galois/Counter Mode)

Which block cipher mode combines CTM for encryption with an authentication mechanism to ensure both data confidentiality and integrity? a. CBC b. GCM c. ECB d. CFB

a. CFB (Ciphertext Feedback)

Which block mode transforms a block cipher into a stream cipher enabling the encryption of individual bits or bytes of data? a. CFB b. CBC c. GCM d. ECB

b. TLS (Transport Layer Security)

Which cryptographic protocol is designed to provide secure communications over a computer network and is the successor to SSL? a. IPsec b. TLS c. AES d. CCMP

a. ECC (Elliptical curve cryptography)

Which cryptographic solution would be best suited for low-power devices, such as IoT devices, embedded systems, and mobile devices? a. ECC b. DES c. RSA d. AES

c. DHE (Diffie-Hellman key exchange) d. ECC (Elliptic Curve Cryptography) g. RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)

Which of the algorithms listed below are not symmetric ciphers? (Select 3 answers) a. AES b. DES c. DHE d. ECC e. IDEA f. RC4 g. RSA

c. A pair of keys where one is used for encryption and the other for decryption

Which of the answers listed below best describes the characteristics of a public-private key pair? a. Both keys are examples of a symmetrical key b. Two keys that are identical c. A pair of keys where one is used for encryption and the other for decryption d. Both keys are examples of a shared key

b. Focused on the day-to-day procedures of an organization d. Used to ensure that the equipment continues to work as specified f. Primarily implemented and executed by people (as opposed to computer systems)

Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe operational security controls (Select 3 answers) a. Also known as administrative controls b. Focused on the day-to-day procedures of an organization c. Executed by computer systems (instead of people) d. Used to ensure that the equipment continues to work as specified e. Focused on managing risk f. Primarily implemented and executed by people (as opposed to computer systems)

b. Digital certificates c. IP addresses f. MAC addresses

Which of the answers listed below refer to common methods of device authentication used within the AAA framework? (Select 3 answers) a. Usernames and passwords b. Digital certificates c. IP addresses d. MFA e. Biometric authentication f. MAC addresses

b. Encryption d. IDSs (Intrusion Detection System) f. Firewalls

Which of the answers listed below refer to examples of technical security controls? (Select 3 answers) a. Security audits b. Encryption c. Organizational security policy d. IDSs e. Configuration management f. Firewalls

a. Temporary service disablement c. MFA (Multi-factor Authentication) d. Backup power systems e. Sandboxing f. Temporary port blocking

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to compensating security control(s)? (Select 5 answers) a. Temporary service disablement b. Video surveillance c. MFA d. Backup power systems e. Sandboxing f. Temporary port blocking

b. Log monitoring d. Security audits e. CCTV (closed-circuit television) f. IDS (Intrusion Detection System) g. Vulnerability scanning

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to detective security control(s)? (Select 5 answers) a. Lighting b. Log monitoring c. Sandboxing d. Security audits e. CCTV f. IDS g. Vulnerability scanning

c. Adaptive identity

Which of the answers listed below refers to a Zero Trust Control Plane security approach that takes into account user identity, device security, network conditions, and other contextual information to enable dynamic access decisions? a. Implicit trust b. Monitoring and logging c. Adaptive identity d. Microsegmentation

a. MD5 (Message Digest Method 5)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a cryptographic hash function that has been widely used in the past but is now considered deprecated for security-sensitive applications due to known vulnerabilities? a. MD5 b. SHA c. CRC d. HMAC

d. SMTPS (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Secure)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a deprecated TLS-based method for secure transmission of email messages? a. S/MIME b. STARTTLS c. DKIM d. SMTPS

d. RC4 (Rivest Cipher 4)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a deprecated stream cipher used in some legacy applications, such as WEP? a. RSA b. DES c. SSL d. RC4

e. All of the above

Which of the answers listed below refers to a honeynet example? a. A network of fake websites b. A network of fake servers c. A network of fake databases d. A network of fake file shares e. All of the above

d. DHE (Diffie-Hellman key exchange)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a key exchange protocol that generates temporary keys for each session, providing forward secrecy to protect past and future communications? a. PFS b. SHA c. PGP d. DHE

d. XOR (Exclusively-OR)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a logical operation commonly used in the context of cybersecurity, particularly in encryption and obfuscation techniques? a. AND b. OR c. NOT d. XOR

b. HSM (Hardware security modules)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a piece of hardware and associated software/firmware designed to provide cryptographic and key management functions? a. EFS b. HSM c. SFC d. TPM

a. PSK (Pre-Shared Key)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a shared secret authentication method used in WPA, WPA2, and EAP? a. PSK b. 802.1X c. SAE d. TKIP

b. PFS (Perfect Forward Secrecy)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution designed to strengthen the security of session keys? a. ECB b. PFS c. EFS d. PFX

c. IPsec (Internet Protocol Secure)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a suite of protocols and technologies providing encryption, authentication, and data integrity for network traffic? a. TLS b. SSH c. IPsec d. VPN

b. Physical security controls

Which of the answers listed below refers to security controls designed to deter, detect, and prevent unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction of material assets? a. Managerial security controls b. Physical security controls c. Technical security controls d. Operational security controls

B. FDE (Full Disk Encryption )

Which of the answers listed below refers to software technology designed to provide confidentiality for an entire data storage device? a. TPM b. FDE c. EFS d. HSM

c. ECB (Electronic Code Book)

Which of the block cipher modes listed below is the simplest/weakest and therefore not recommended for use? a. CBC b. GCM c. ECB d. CTM

a. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

Which of the cryptographic algorithms listed below is the least vulnerable to attacks? a. AES b. DES c. RC4 d. 3DES

a. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) b. DES (Data Encryption Standard) e. IDEA (International Data Encryption Algorithm) f. RC4 (Rivest Cipher 4)

Which of the following algorithms do(es) not fall into the category of asymmetric encryption? (Select 4 answers that apply) a. AES b. DES c. DHE d. ECC e. IDEA f. RC4 g. RSA

b. Sometimes called logical security controls c. Executed by computer systems (instead of people) e. Implemented with technology

Which of the following answers can be used to describe technical security controls? (Select 3 answers) a. Focused on protecting material assets b. Sometimes called logical security controls c. Executed by computer systems (instead of people) d. Also known as administrative controls e. Implemented with technology f. Primarily implemented and executed by people (as opposed to computer systems)

a. Also known as administrative controls c. Focused on reducing the risk of security incidents e. Documented in written policies

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of managerial security controls? (Select 3 answers) a. Also known as administrative controls b. Sometimes referred to as logical security controls c. Focused on reducing the risk of security incidents d. Executed by computer systems (instead of people) e. Documented in written policies f. Focused on protecting material assets

a. IRPs (Incident Response Plans) c. Backups and system recovery d. DRPs (Disaster Recovery Plans) e. Forensic analysis

Which of the following answers refer(s) to corrective security control(s)? (Select 4 answers) a. IRPs b. Log monitoring c. Backups and system recovery d. DRPs e. Forensic analysis

a. DES (Data Encryption Standard) c. MD5 (Message Digest Method 5) e. SHA-1 (Secure Hash Algorithm 1) f. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) g. RC4 (Rivest Cipher 4)

Which of the following answers refer(s) to deprecated/insecure encryption protocols and cryptographic hash functions? (Select 5 answers that apply) a. DES b. AES-256 c. MD5 d. ECC e. SHA-1 f. SSL g. RC4

a. CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)

Which of the following answers refers to a block cipher mode that works by chaining the ciphertext blocks together, such that each ciphertext block depends on the previous block? a. CBC b. GCM c. ECB d. CFB

c. KDC (key distribution center)

Which of the following answers refers to a centralized server that is used to distribute cryptographic keys and authenticate users and services within a computer network? a. PKI b. RAS c. KDC d. NAS

b. ECDHE (Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman)

Which of the following answers refers to a cryptographic key exchange protocol that leverages ECC for enhanced security and efficiency? a. S/MIME b. ECDHE c. DHE d. ECDSA

d. SED (Self-encrypting drives)

Which of the following answers refers to a data storage device equipped with hardware-level encryption functionality? a. HSM b. TPM c. EFS d. SED

c. IDEA (International Data Encryption Algorithm)

Which of the following answers refers to a deprecated (largely replaced by AES) symmetric-key block cipher encryption algorithm? a. ECDSA b. RSA c. IDEA d. DSA

b. DES (Data Encryption Standard)

Which of the following answers refers to a legacy symmetric-key block cipher encryption algorithm? a. RC4 b. DES c. RSA d. DSA

b. IKE (Internet Key Exchange)

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used to set up secure connections and exchange of cryptographic keys in IPsec VPNs? a. SSL b. IKE c. ESP d. DHE

b. RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)

Which of the following answers refers to a public-key cryptosystem that leverages the mathematical properties of large prime numbers to facilitate secure key exchange, create digital signatures, and encrypt data? a. ECC b. RSA c. PKI d. DSA

a. TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

Which of the following answers refers to an embedded microcontroller used for secure boot, disk encryption, and system integrity verification? a. TPM b. SoC c. UEFI d. HSM

c. SHTTP

Which of the following answers refers to an obsolete protocol used for secure data transfer over the web? a. SMTPS b. SRTP c. SHTTP d. S/MIME

a. Digital certificate

Which of the following best applies to the concept of non-repudiation? a. Digital certificate b. MFA c. Hashing d. Encryption

c. Data backups e. Firewalls g. Asset management

Which of the following examples do not fall into the category of physical security controls? (Select 3 answers) a. Lighting b. Access control vestibules c. Data backups d. Fencing/Bollards/Barricades e. Firewalls f. Security guards g. Asset management

b. Configuration management c. System backups e. Patch management

Which of the following examples fall into the category of operational security controls? (Select 3 answers) a. Risk assessments b. Configuration management c. System backups d. Authentication protocols e. Patch management

a. Active user account credentials c. Actual URLs to live websites or resources

Which of the following should not be used as honeytokens? (Select all that apply) a. Active user account credentials b. Database entries mimicking real data c. Actual URLs to live websites or resources d. Dummy server logs with enticing information e. Fake identifiers, including usernames, passwords, email addresses, and IP addresses

b. GPG (Gnu Privacy Guard) e. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)

Which of the following software application tools are specifically designed for implementing encryption algorithms to secure data communication and storage? (Select 2 answers) a. VPN b. GPG c. SSH d. IPsec e. PGP

b. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) d. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

Which of the following solutions provide(s) the AAA functionality? (Select 2 Answers) a. CHAP b. TACACS+ c. PAP d. RADIUS e. MS-CHAP

b. Honeypots mimic real systems to attract cyber attackers d. Honeypots contain apparent vulnerabilities that are closely monitored by a security team

Which of the following statements about honeypots are true? (Select 2 answers) a. Honeypots are always part of a honeynet b. Honeypots mimic real systems to attract cyber attackers c. Honeypots are a type of anti-malware solution d. Honeypots contain apparent vulnerabilities that are closely monitored by a security team e. Honeypots are used to launch attacks on cyber attackers

b. Gap analysis

Which of the following terms describes the process of identifying differences between an organization's current security posture and its desired security posture? a. Tabletop exercise b. Gap analysis c. Security awareness training d. Risk assessment

a. IRP (incident response plan) b. AUP (acceptable use policy)

Which of the following terms fall into the category of directive security controls? (Select 2 answers) a. IRP b. AUP c. IDS d. MFA e. IPS

d. CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability)

Which of the terms listed below can be used to describe the basic principles of information security? a. PKI b. AAA c. GDPR d. CIA

d. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

Which part of IPsec provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality? a. SPD b. PFS c. AH d. ESP

a. Authentication

Which part of the AAA security architecture deals with the verification of the identity of a person or process? a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting

d. SRTP (Secure Real-time Transport Protocol)

Which protocol enables secure, real-time delivery of audio and video over an IP network? a. S/MIME b. RTP c. SIP d. SRTP

b. Shared account

Which type of user account violates the concept of non-repudiation? a. Standard user account b. Shared account c. Guest user account d. Service account