Sexuality EAQ
A 16-year-old high school student who has anorexia nervosa tells the school nurse that she thinks she is pregnant even though she has had intercourse only once, more than a year ago. What is the mostappropriate inference for the nurse to make about the student?
Lacking knowledge that anorexia can cause amenorrhea (The loss of body fat from anorexia can cause amenorrhea; the client needs information. No data are available to support the fact that the client is using magical thinking, which is characterized by the belief that thinking or wishing something can cause it to occur; in light of the client's diagnosis of anorexia, this is not the first conclusion. Submitting to peer pressure is not related to this type of concern. Although the nurse should question the timeline again, the client's nutritional status should be explored first.)
During discharge teaching a client who just had a hysterectomy states, "After this surgery, I don't expect to be interested in sex anymore." What should the nurse consider before responding?
Many women believe that their sexual function is related to their uterus.
A client is diagnosed with condyloma acuminatum. Which finding in the client supports the diagnosis?
Moist, fleshy projections on the penis (Moist, fleshy projections on the penis with single or multiple projections is a clinical manifestation of condyloma acuminatum. Macules on the penis or scrotum are clinical manifestations of penile erythema. Chancroid is manifested by pus-filled ulcers on the penis. A swollen penis with tight foreskin is a clinical manifestation of paraphimosis.)
What are the medical concerns in adolescent pregnancies?
Anemia,Poor maternal weight gain,Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Which phase of the woman's sexual response is characterized by elevation of the uterus?
Plateau phase
A female client who has been sexually active for 5 years is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The client is upset and asks the nurse, "What can I do to keep from getting another infection in the future?" Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching by the nurse was effective?
"My partner has to use a condom all the time."
A client asks the nurse at the family planning clinic whether contraception is needed while she is breastfeeding. How should the nurse reply?
"You should use contraceptives, because ovulation may occur at any time without a period."' (Anovulation occurs in nursing mothers for varying periods of time; breastfeeding is not a reliable method of birth control. Periods may not occur for several months; sexual relations need not be delayed until the first period. Ovulation can occur without menstruation. Lactation may delay menses, but does not reliably suppress ovulation.)
A 16-year-old high school student is referred to a community health center by a local hotline because of the fear of having contracted herpes. The teenager is upset and shares this information with the community health center nurse. What should the nurse's initial response be?
"You sound worried. Let me make arrangements to have you examined."
Which nutrient deficiency in the pregnant adolescent may result in decreased birth weight as a consequence of low bone mineral density in the fetus?
Calcium
A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy because of noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. What is the most common reason for this difficulty?
Loss of femininity
On the afternoon of admission to a psychiatric unit, an adolescent boy with the diagnosis of schizophrenia exposes his genitals to a female nurse. What should the nurse's immediate therapeutic response be?
Stating that this behavior is unacceptable
The waiting area of a health care facility displays a pink triangle. What does this signify?
The health care facility welcomes lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer/questioning (LGBTQ) clients.
A nurse is discussing sexuality with a teenage female who has cystic fibrosis. Which statement best reflects the teenager's understanding of healthy sexuality?
"I won't have sex unless I use a condom."
The nurse is counseling a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
"I can safely have anal sex without any barriers."
Before discharge, a breastfeeding postpartum client and the nurse discuss methods of birth control. The client asks the nurse, "When will I begin to ovulate again?" How should the nurse respond?
"Ovulation may occur before you begin to menstruate."
A client visiting the prenatal clinic for the first time tells the nurse that she has heard conflicting stories regarding sex during pregnancy and asks about continuing sexual activity. How should the nurse respond?
"With an uncomplicated pregnancy, there are no limitations on sexual activity."
How long will a client's ovum stay viable after its release to get fertilized?
72 hours (Ovum can be fertilized up to 72 hours after its release. The ovum disintegrates after 72 hours, and menstruation begins soon after. Therefore the ovum cannot be viable for 74, 76, or 78 hours, and fertilization will not occur.)
Which term should the nurse use in a report to describe the absence of menstrual periods in a 35-year-old non-pregnant client?
Amenorrhea The absence of menstrual periods in a non-pregnant client less than 55 years old is called amenorrhea. Rhinorrhea is an allergic state that is manifested by a runny nose. Menopause is cessation of menstruation after 55 years of age. Dyspareunia is pain during sexual intercourse.
An adolescent woman who has become sexually active asks the nurse, "What's the most effective way to prevent a pregnancy?" Which method of preventing pregnancy should the nurse tell her is most effective?
An intrauterine device (According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, having an intrauterine device inserted provides a 99% effective means of preventing pregnancy. The oral contraception pill has a high 91% effective rate when used correctly. Condoms are 82% effective and the barrier can reduce (but not eliminate) the risk of sexually transmitted infections. Spermicidal foam is a 72% effective means of preventing pregnancy; however, its effectiveness also depends on correct, consistent use. Although refraining from sexual intercourse is the most effective form of birth control (100% effective), this client has come to the nurse for advice about how to prevent pregnancy while being sexually)
Which behavior patterns may be exhibited by teenagers in their late adolescence? Select all that apply.
Concealed temper,Consistent emotions (Psychologically, teenagers in their late adolescence exhibit a consistency of emotions and are more likely to conceal their feelings and anger. An introspective nature and feelings of inadequacy are expressed by teenagers in their middle adolescence. Intense daydreaming is associated with teenagers in their early adolescence.)
Which drug may cause malformations of the male external genitalia?
Dutasteride (Dutasteride is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor that causes malformations of external genitalia in males. Etretinate is a vitamin A derivative that may cause multiple central nervous system defects. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are antithyroid drugs that may cause goiters and hypothyroidism.)
A lactating mother is administered oxytocin. What could be the function of oxytocin in the client?
Ejection of milk (Oxytocin helps in ejection of milk in lactating mothers. Induction of labor and abortion are the functions performed by oxytocin, but not in a lactating mother. Oxytocin controls uterine bleeding after the delivery.)
A nurse is teaching a class about the male anatomy. What is the function of the structure pointed out in the given figure?
Holds the testes (Label A in the figure indicates the scrotum, which holds the testes by forming a protective sac around it. Sperm is produced by the seminiferous tubules within the testes. Cowper gland, the prostate gland, and the seminal vesicles produce and secrete semen. The epididymis transports sperm during maturation.)
Which event is considered as the hallmark of late puberty in young girls?
First menstrual period (First menstrual period is considered the hallmark of late puberty in young girls. Breast enlargement along with change in pubic hair to adult type sexual hair covering the mons pubis and labia majora occurs during mid-puberty stage. Physiologic leukorrhea (increased normal vaginal discharge) marks the uterine development early in puberty.)
Which vaccine is used to prevent a human papilloma virus infection?
Gardasil
What is the most major cause of acne in adolescent women?
Hormonal imbalance (Hormonal imbalances cause premenstrual flares of acne in nearly 70% of women. A clear association between stress and acne has not been demonstrated. A research study showed that 45% of adolescent men have a family history of acne. Studies show some evidence of an association between the intake of dairy products and high glycemic-index foods and acne.)
What causes condylomata acuminate?
Human papillomavirus (HPV) Condylomata acuminate are genital warts which are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).
An 18-year-old adolescent who was diagnosed with new-onset type 1 diabetes mellitus has stress and reports not having a menstrual cycle for a long time. Which condition is the adolescent experiencing?
Hypogonadotropic amenorrhea (Hypogonadotropic amenorrhea may occur in type 1 diabetic adolescents experiencing stress. This condition can also result from sudden and severe weight loss, eating disorders, strenuous exercise, and mental illness.)
A nurse is caring for a client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. Which complication associated with this diagnosis is most important for the nurse to teach prevention strategies?
Infection (The client has a weakened immune response. Instructions regarding rest, nutrition, and avoidance of unnecessary exposure to people with infections help reduce the risk for infection. Clients can be taught cognitive strategies to cope with depression, but the strategies will not prevent depression. The client may experience social isolation as a result of society's fears and misconceptions; these are beyond the client's control. Although Kaposi sarcoma is related to HIV infection, there are no specific measures to prevent its occurrence.)
Why is a Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection particularly troublesome for a female client?
It is often overlooked
Which structure is removed during circumcision of an infant?
Prepuce (Circumcision involves removal of the prepuce, which is a skin folding over the glans. The glans is the tip of the penis. The epididymis is the internal structure that helps in the transportation and maturation of sperm. The vas deferens carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.)
On a routine prenatal visit, what is the sign or symptom that a healthy primigravida at 20 weeks' gestation will most likely report for the first time?
Quickening (The recognition of fetal movement commonly occurs in primigravidas at 18 to 20 weeks' gestation; it is felt about 2 weeks earlier in multigravidas. Palpitations should not occur in the healthy primigravidas. Pedal edema may occur at the end of the pregnancy as the gravid uterus presses on the femoral arteries, impeding circulation. Immediate follow-up care is required when it occurs this early in the pregnancy. Vaginal spotting at this time requires immediate follow-up care.)
What should the community nurse teach about the risk of adolescent pregnancy?
Risk for premature birth (The nurse should teach the community that adolescent pregnancy often leads to premature births. Adolescent pregnancy may lead to low birth weight babies due to lack of nutrition and prematurity. Older women have difficulty in becoming pregnant and they are more likely to have babies with chromosomal defects. An adolescent mother is not at risk for increased weight gain because she is more likely to be affected from lack of nutrition, and exposure to alcohol, drugs, and tobacco.)
Which identity may fail to develop if an adolescent lacks physical evidence of maturity?
Sexual identity (A lack of physical evidence of maturity can predispose the adolescent to a failure to establish a sexual identity. Adolescents depend on these physical clues because they want assurance of maleness or femaleness and do not wish to be different from their peers. In an adolescent who does not have a feeling of acceptance and belonging, establishment of a group identity may fail to occur. Failure of a family to foster an adolescent's independence yet balance the family structure may hamper the development of family identity. Healthy adolescents evaluate their own health on the basis of feelings of well-being, ability to function normally, and absence of symptoms.)
The clinic nurse is planning care for a client found to have chlamydia. Which treatment should the nurse plan to implement?
Administration of 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose (The treatment of choice for chlamydial infection is 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose. The one-dose course is preferred because of its ease of completion. Acyclovir may be prescribed in a 7-day course for a genital herpes outbreak. Administering 250 mg of ceftriaxone intramuscularly in a single dose is the drug therapy recommended for gonorrhea. Benzathine penicillin G given intramuscularly as a single 2.4 million unit dose is the treatment for primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis.)
A client takes isosorbide dinitrate daily. The client states, "I would like to start taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction." The nurse explains that taking both of these medications concurrently may result in which complication?
Severe hypotension (Concurrent use of sildenafil and a nitrate, which causes vasodilation, may result in severe, potentially fatal hypotension. Protracted vomiting and respiratory distress are not adverse effects associated with concurrent use of sildenafil and a nitrate. Sildenafil may cause diarrhea; adding a nitrate will not constipation.)
At what age, the pubertal growth spurt reaches its peak in males?
14 years (Pubertal growth spurt reaches peak during 14 years in males marked by general increase in the growth of skeleton, muscles, and internal organs. The pubertal growth spurt reaches peak during 12 years in females. The middle adolescent period occurs at 15 to 17 years shows a slowdown in growth. Physical maturity is attained in late adolescent stage around 18 to 20 years.)
The mother of a pregnant teenager asks the nurse how her daughter could have been so foolish because birth control had been discussed with her many times. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
"Although teenagers can intellectually discuss birth control, they often don't believe that they will become pregnant."
What would be the drug of choice for a client who is diagnosed with chlamydia?
Azithromycin (Azithromycin is recommended for clients with chlamydia infections. Imiquimod is beneficial for treating genital warts in clients with human papillomavirus infections. Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for treating gonorrhea. Benzathine penicillin is recommended for treating syphilis.)
A teenage mother is diagnosed with syphilis. What would be the drug of choice for this client if she wishes to continue breast-feeding?
Benzathine penicillin (Benzathine penicillin is safe to use for syphilis in lactating women. Doxycycline and tetracycline are used in the treatment of syphilis in nonpregnant women. Azithromycin is not the drug of choice for the treatment of syphilis.)
A nurse is speaking with a client who was sexually abused as a child. The client does not know what constitutes inappropriate touch by another person. What issue will have to be addressed with this client?
Boundary violations (Clients who have experienced childhood sexual abuse will have difficulty being aware of their personal boundaries and maintaining appropriate boundaries for themselves and others. Clients who have experienced childhood sexual abuse tend to have decreased, not increased, libidos. Phobic behavior, the irrational fear of an object or situation, is not necessarily a concern that the nurse should have for this client more than for other clients. Clients who have experienced childhood sexual abuse can exhibit aggressive behavior, but it does not directly address the identification of inappropriate touching.)
What transformations occur during the mid-puberty stage of a normally developing adolescent female?
Breast enlargement and the growth of pubic hair (During mid-puberty, the breast enlarges from a small bud of breast tissue, while pubic hair develops and covering the mons pubis and labia majora. Scanty and irregular menstrual periods are a characteristic feature of late-puberty. The first appearance of pubic hair, an increase in normal vaginal discharge, changes in the nipple and areola, and the development of a small bud of breast tissue occur during early-puberty.)
A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of tertiary syphilis. Which system of the body should the nurse assess most closely in this stage of the disease?
Cardiovascular (Tertiary syphilis is the last stage, affecting several body systems: skin, cardiovascular, and neurological. Aortic valvular disease and aortic aneurysms can occur. Although lesions occur on the genitalia during primary and secondary syphilis, the reproductive system is not the major body system affected in tertiary syphilis. Structures of the lower respiratory tract and gastrointestinal are not the major structures involved in tertiary syphilis.)
Which herbal therapies would be beneficial to a client with menstrual cramping?
Catnip Fennel Black haw
Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
Cervicitis (Cervicitis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital warts are caused by the Human papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by the Herpes simplex virus.)
What is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
Chlamydia
What is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in infants born to adolescent mothers?
Chlamydia (Ophthalmia neonatorum is a neonatal infection caused when the infant is born to a mother who has a chlamydia infection.)
When caring for a transgender client, which would the nurse use to decide how to address the client?
Client's preference
Which are barrier methods of contraception? Select all that apply.
Condom Lea's shield Diaphragm (A condom is considered a barrier method of contraception because it prevents the entrance of sperm into the vagina. Lea's shield is a reusable vaginal contraceptive made of silicone. A diaphragm is a cervical covering used to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Spermicidal foams are a chemical methods of contraception. Coitus interruptus is a withdrawal contraceptive method.)
A female client is admitted to the hospital after attempting suicide. She reveals that her desire for sex has diminished since her child's birth 3 years ago. What is most directly related to the client's loss of interest in sex?
Depression
An adolescent reports scrotal pain, redness, dysuria, and fever. Which condition does this adolescent have?
Epididymitis (Epididymitis is a condition associated with scrotal pain, dysuria, redness, and fever. Varicocele can be palpated as a worm-like mass situated above the testicles. Manifestations of testicular torsion include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The presence of a heavy, hard mass that is palpable accompanied by back pain and shortness of breath is associated with testicular cancer.)
An 18-year-old adolescent male complains of painful urination and yellow-green mucosal discharge from urethra not associated with abdominal pain. What condition is the client likely to have?
Epididymitis (Epididymitis is a condition characterized by dysuria, pyuria, scrotal pain, redness, and swelling. Epididymitis is not associated with gastrointestinal symptoms as in testicular torsion. Varicocele is a condition characterized by elongation, dilation, and tortuosity of the veins of the spermatic cord superior to the testicle which is not associated with urethral discharge. Gynecomastia has no symptoms of abnormal urethral discharge.)
Before a client with syphilis can be treated, what should be determined?
Existence of allergies
The nurse is assessing an elderly male. Which finding is seen with aging?
Reduced size of testes (A reduction in the size of the testes is a characteristic of aging. The testes are symmetrical in shape and length; any change in their symmetry denotes an abnormality. Presence of pubic hair is normal. The penis is covered with foreskin; however, circumcised men do not have foreskin. An easily retractable foreskin is an age-related finding.)
What over-the-counter drugs are used to treat vulvovaginal candidiases
2, 3, Miconazole and clotrimazole are standard over-the-counter drugs used to treat candidiasis
Which gland secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) to help control the events of puberty?
Hypothalamus (The hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland. This gland exerts hormonal influence on the events of puberty. GnRH travels through a network of capillaries to the anterior pituitary gland, where it stimulates the production and secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), but the anterior pituitary itself does not secrete GnRH. The posterior pituitary and thyroid glands have no involvement in the neuroendocrine events of puberty.)
What is the action of oxytocin in a pregnant client at term?
Induction of labor
An obese adolescent who has short stature and is hyperphagic is diagnosed with hypogonadism. Which congenital disorder may be present in this adolescent?
Prader-Willi syndrome (Prader-Willi syndrome is a congenital disorder characterized by hypogonadism. The client may have short stature and be hyperphagic. Alström syndrome, Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, and pseudohypoparathyroidism are congenital disorders characterized by obesity but not hypogonadism.)
A client asks a nurse for contraceptive information regarding a number of different methods available. What information should the nurse include as part of the teaching plan?
The rim of a condom must be held in place while the penis is withdrawn from the vagina. (Rationale Unless the condom is held firmly, it can be displaced, allowing the sperm to enter the vagina. Sperm may be deposited at the beginning of intercourse, without the man's knowledge. Spermicidal cream is needed because the diaphragm may be displaced in some positions. When the woman has an increase rise in her basal temperature, she is most fertile and should avoid intercourse.)
A young pregnant adolescent is diagnosed as having bacterial vaginosis. What further complications related to bacterial vaginosis may occur during pregnancy? Select all that apply.
reterm labor and birth Intraamniotic infection Postpartum endometritis
A client undergoing presurgical testing before a total abdominal hysterectomy says to the nurse, "After I have this surgery I know my husband will never come near me again." What is the nurse's bestinitial response?
"You're concerned about how your husband will respond to your surgery."
Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect to administer to a female client who exhibits the genital lesions presented in the illustration?
Acyclovir sodium
Which statement about varicocele is true?
Varicocele occurs most often on the left side. (Varicocele occurs most often on the left side. The left testicle is smaller when associated varicocele is present. Testicular size decreases with increasing duration of varicocele. Dihydrotestosterone levels decrease with increasing duration of a varicocele.)
A young pregnant adolescent reports bleeding and abdominal pain and is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. Which risk factors should the nurse look for in the client? Select all that apply.
Habit of smoking, Damage to the fallopian tubes, History of pelvic inflammatory disease. (Adolescents who smoke experience a higher risk for ectopic pregnancy. Inflammation of the fallopian tubes and ovaries and a history of pelvic inflammatory disease are risk factors. The use of contraceptive pills and a history of irregular menses are not associated with ectopic pregnancy.)
Which hormone is crucial for ovulation and complete maturation of a client's ovarian follicles?
Luteinizing hormone
Which gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used to treat endometriosis?
Nafarelin acetate,Leuprolide (Leuprolide and nafarelin acetate are gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists used to treat endometriosis. Trazodone is used in cases of erectile dysfunction. Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug used to relieve pain in endometriosis. Isotretinoin is an oral agent that is effective against severe cystic acne.)
A nurse in the clinic is obtaining a health history of a 16-year-old boy with a complaint of a thick urethral discharge. What is the mostappropriate nursing action to help confirm a tentative diagnosis of gonorrhea?
Obtaining a urethral specimen for a culture
Which structures are included in the external genitalia in males?
Penis,Scrotum (The male reproductive system is divided into primary reproductive organs and secondary reproductive organs. Secondary reproductive organs include ducts, sex glands, and external genitalia. The external genitalia consists of the penis and the scrotum. Testes are the primary reproductive organs. The urethra is the duct, and the seminal vesicles are sex glands.)
A mother and her 5-year-old daughter have been referred to a child advocacy center for a forensic pediatric sexual examination. Before the child is examined or interviewed, the mother gives a detailed history, relaying her suspicion that the child's maternal grandfather sexually assaulted her. As the interview progresses, the mother suddenly says, "My father sexually molested me when I was a child, but I try not to think about it." What defense mechanism does the nurse recognize that the mother's statement demonstrates?
Suppression (Suppression is voluntary refusal to admit an unacceptable idea or behavior. Introjection is the unconscious incorporation of wishes, values, and attitudes of others as if they were one's own. Passive-aggressive behavior is the expression of anger and hostility toward others in an indirect and nonassertive way. Reaction formation is the exact opposite of an unconscious feeling.)
A woman arrives at the prenatal clinic stating that her pregnancy test is positive. She asks the nurse for information regarding an abortion. After verifying that the woman is at 8 weeks' gestation, the nurse counsels her that having an abortion is controversial and that many women have long-lasting feelings of guilt after an abortion. What is the nurse's legal responsibility?
To provide the client with correct, unbiased information
An adolescent girl who participated in unprotected intercourse requires an emergency contraception. Which drugs could be prescribed?
Uliprestel Levonorgestrel (Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved drugs for emergency contraception include uliprestel, levonorgestrel, and a combination of estrogen and progestin. Misoprostol, mifepristone, and methotrexate are used to induce abortion after a pregnancy is confirmed.)
What is the concentration of estradiol in the blood during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
130 pg/mL (In the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, 20-150 pg/mL of estradiol is released. Therefore 130 pg/mL of estradiol would be its concentration during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. Concentrations of 159, 165, and 171 pg/mL are greater than the reference range.)
A nursing team holds a conference to develop goals for the care of a withdrawn, shy male client with low self-esteem who is afraid to talk to members of the opposite sex. Which objective should be given priority and documented in the client's plan of care?
"The client will increase his self-esteem."
A nurse is planning to provide discharge teaching to the family of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
"Wash used dishes in hot, soapy water." (A person cannot contract human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) by eating from dishes previously used by an individual with AIDS; routine care is adequate. Washing used dishes in hot, soapy water is sufficient care for dishes used by the AIDS client. Dishes do not need to soak for 24 hours before being washed. The client's dishes do not need to be boiled for 30 minutes after use. Paper plates are fine to use but are not indicated to prevent the spread of AIDS.)
A client confides to the nurse that she enjoys engaging in sex with multiple male adult sex partners simultaneously. What is the mostappropriate response by the nurse?
"What are you using for birth control and protection from sexually transmitted infections?"
The nurse is assessing the development of a male child and finds that the child is tall, with deficient secondary sex characteristics and hypogenitalism. Which chromosomal notation is associated with the child's condition?
48,XXXY (The male child is tall, with deficient secondary sex characteristics and hypogenitalism, indicating Klinefelter syndrome. The chromosomal abnormality present in the child is denoted as 48,XXXY. The chromosomal complement 45,XO is seen in children with Turner syndrome. A child with Turner syndrome will have short stature and a webbed neck. The 47,XXX chromosomal complement indicates that the child has triple X, or superfemale, chromosomal abnormality. This condition is associated with impaired language and mental capacity. A child with the chromosomal complement 47,XYY has Jacobs XYY chromosomal abnormality, which is associated with normal sexual development and aggressive sexual tendencies.)
Which client has the highest risk for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection?
A client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs (Clients who use equipment to snort (straws) and smoke (pipes) drugs are at the highest risk for becoming infected with HIV as their judgment may be impaired regarding the high-risk behaviors. Safe activities that prevent the risk of contracting HIV include mutual masturbation, masturbation, and other activities that meet the "no contact" requirements. A client who undergoes perinatal HIV voluntary testing may reduce the chances of getting infected. Insertive sex between partners who are not infected with HIV are not at risk of becoming infected with HIV.)
Which client may have concerns related to sexuality when hospitalized with a chronic illness?
An 18-year-old (An 18-year-old client is an adolescent, which is the stage of development where concerns about sexuality may occur when hospitalized with a chronic illness. The other clients are not developmentally characterized as adolescents; therefore, the nurse would not anticipate an 8-year-old, 10-year-old, or 12-year-old to have this concern.)
During a pelvic examination of a 24-year-old woman, the nurse suspects a vaginal infection because of the presence of a white curdlike vaginal discharge. What other finding supports a fungal vaginal infection?
An itchy perineum (An itchy perineum usually occurs with candidiasis, a fungal infection; pruritus is the most common symptom. An odorous, frothy greenish discharge occurs with trichomoniasis, a protozoal infestation. Ischemia of the cervix is not associated with candidiasis; candidiasis causes vaginal and cervical inflammation. A forgotten tampon may cause bacterial, not fungal, vaginitis.)
Which statement is true for attachment in the newborn?
Attachment is the interaction between parent and child.
The nurse is aware that the Cowper gland is also often referred to by which other term?
Bulbourethral gland (Cowper glands are accessory glands of the male reproductive system; they are also referred to as the bulbourethral glands. Skene glands are a part of the female reproductive system. The prostate gland is also a gland of the male reproductive system. Bartholin glands are part of the female reproductive system.)
A client who has been told she needs a hysterectomy for cervical cancer is upset about being unable to have a third child. Which action should the nurse take next?
Ensure that other treatment options for her will be explored.
What is a manifestation of tertiary syphilis?
Gummas (Gummas which are chronic, destructive lesions affecting the skin, bone, liver, and mucous membranes occur during tertiary syphilis. A chancre appears during primary syphilis. Alopecia and condylomata lata occur during secondary syphilis.)
A female adolescent reports excessive hair growth in the pubic region and under the arms. What may be responsible for these changes?
High levels of estrogen (High estrogen levels in the later stages of puberty generally promote the growth of pubic and axillary hair. Progesterone is generally involved in the implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus and the maintenance of pregnancy. High testosterone levels increase pubic and axillary hair in males. Low follicle stimulating hormone levels reduce estrogen levels.)
What are the manifestations of hypoestrogenism? Select all that apply.
Hot flashes Amenorrhea Reduced bone density (Low levels of estrogen may cause hot flashes, amenorrhea, and reduced bone density. Gynecomastia and hypermenorrhea are manifestations of excess estrogen production.)
The nurse is educating a couple concerning the process of fertilization. The nurse explains to the couple that which component stimulates the release of estrogen and progesterone after fertilization?
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (After fertilization, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulates the corpus luteum to produce estrogen and progesterone. Inhibin is a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles; it inhibits the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Testosterone does not affect the release of estrogen and progesterone. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth and maturity of the ovarian follicle necessary for ovulation.)
A client is undergoing highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). From what viral disease could the client possibly be suffering?
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) (Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is a combination of antiretroviral drugs used to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Because hepatitis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and human papillomavirus (HPV) are not retroviral, HAART is ineffective for these disorders.)
A 16-year-old client has a steady boyfriend with whom she is having sexual relations. She asks the nurse how she can protect herself from contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which guidance is most appropriate for the nurse to provide?
Insist that her partner use a condom when having sex.
A nurse is counseling a client who has gonorrhea. What additional fact about gonorrhea, besides the fact that it is highly infectious, should the nurse teach this client?
It can produce sterility.
Which structure indicated in the figure is the primary reproductive organ of the female?
Label A indicates the ovary, the primary reproductive organ of a female. Label B indicates the fallopian tubes, label C indicates the uterus, and label D indicates the symphysis pubis. The fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina are the secondary reproductive organs of the female.
Which method of contraception may provide adolescents with the longest duration of protection?
Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is a T-shaped intrauterine system which releases levonorgestrel. It must be placed within seven days of menses and provides protection up to five years. The NuvaRing, a flexible, soft, and transparent ring placed in the vagina, must be replaced every three weeks. The levonorgestrel implant is a small rod that provides protection for up to three years. Spermicidal suppositories are inserted into the vagina to kill sperm and provide protection for only a short duration.)
Which hormonal deficiency causes breast atrophy in female clients?
Luteinizing hormone (A luteinizing hormone deficiency causes atrophy of the breasts. A growth hormone deficiency causes decreased bone density and pathologic fractures. A thyroid-stimulating hormone deficiency results in hirsutism, weight gain, and menstrual abnormalities. An adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency causes postural hypotension, hypoglycemia, and anorexia.)
Which hormone elevations indicate Turner syndrome? Select all that apply.
Lutropin Follitropin (Elevation of lutropin and follitropin indicates Turner syndrome. Elevation of prolactin indicates possible galactorrhea, pituitary tumor, disease of hypothalamus or pituitary gland, and hypothyroidism. Elevated testosterone levels in women indicate adrenal neoplasm, ovarian neoplasm, and polycystic ovary syndrome. Elevated progesterone levels in men indicate possible testicular tumors and hyperthyroidism. Elevated progesterone levels in women indicate possible ovarian luteal cysts.)
hat is the function of the structure labeled in the given figure?
Massages the ovaries (he structure labeled in the figure represents the fallopian tubes, fingerlike projections that massage the ovaries to facilitate ovum extraction. The ovaries produce ovum. The uterus accommodates the fetus. The cervix serves as an entry to the sperm and is also involved in expulsion of menses.)
Which part of the female reproductive system produces testosterone in females?
Ovary (Testosterone is an androgen, and in females, androgens are produced by the ovaries and adrenal glands. The uterus holds the fetus during pregnancy. Fallopian tubes facilitate fertilization of oocyte and sperm. An ovarian follicle is a collection of oocytes in the ovary.)
A client is admitted to the hospital after general paresis develops as a complication of syphilis. Which therapy should the nurse anticipate will most likely be prescribed for this client?
Penicillin therapy (Massive doses of penicillin may limit central nervous system damage if treatment is started before neural deterioration from syphilis occurs. Tranquilizers are used to modify behavior, not to treat general paresis. Behavior, not paresis, is treated with behavior modification. Electroconvulsive therapy is used to treat certain psychiatric disorders.)
Which organism is responsible for causing dermatitis related to a sexually transmitted infection?
Phthirus pubis (Phthirus pubis is responsible for dermatitis related to sexually transmitted infections. Candida albicans may lead to vulvovaginitis. Campylobacter jejuni may cause proctitis. Ureaplasma urealyticum may cause salpingitis, infertility, reproductive loss, and ectopic pregnancies.)
A nurse is counseling a couple in the fertility clinic regarding steps they must take in order to increase their chances of conceiving. Which alteration to their present circumstances will put added stress on the couple?
Planning when to have intercourse (A strategy for increasing the chances of conceiving requires the couple to plan intercourse only while the woman is ovulating; this removes spontaneity and is often stressful. Obtaining and delivering the necessary specimens may be inconvenient but should not be stressful. The number of office visits and examinations that are required may be cumbersome but should not be stressful. Although taking daily temperatures may be annoying, it should not be stressful)
The nurse is educating new parents about circumcision. Which structure of the penis would this nurse tell the parents is removed during circumcision?
Prepuce (Circumcision is a procedure that involves removal of the prepuce, a skin fold over the glans. The glans is the tip of the penis. The epididymis is the internal structure that promotes transportation of the sperm. The vas deferens carries the sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.)
According to the most recent Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, which statement is correct?
Prevalence of gender dysphoria ranges from five to 14 in 1,000 natal males. (According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders ( DSM) prevalence of gender dysphoria ranges from five to 14 in 1,000 natal males. Prevalence of gender dysphoria in 1,000 natal females ranges from two to three as per the DSM. Prevalence of transgender people is between one in 11,900 and one in 200,000 people, but this data is not present in the DSM. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, not DSM, invasive cancer of the cervix is the third most common cancer of the female genital system after ovarian and uterine cancers. It is not specific to one transwomen population.)
Which hormone is crucial in maintaining the implanted egg at its site?
Progesterone (Progesterone is necessary to maintain an implanted egg. Inhibin regulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Estrogen plays a vital role in the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone is important for bone strength and development of muscle mass.)
A nurse is teaching a birthing/prenatal class about breast-feeding. Which hormone stimulates the production of milk during lactation?
Prolactin (Prolactin is the hormone that initiates and produces milk during lactation. Inhibin prevents the secretions of follicle stimulating hormone and gonadotropin releasing hormone. Estrogen and progesterone are the sex hormones produced by the ovaries.)
The primary healthcare provider suspects pituitary gland dysfunction in a female client. Which diagnostic test would the primary healthcare provider suggest to the client?
Prolactin test (A prolactin test is used to detect pituitary gland dysfunction that causes amenorrhea. Therefore the primary healthcare provider would suggest that the client have a prolactin test to determine if the client does or does not have any pituitary gland dysfunction. Estradiol is tested to determine functioning of the ovaries. In men, the estradiol test is used to detect testicular tumors. The Sims-Huhner test is used to evaluate the hostility of the cervix for passage of sperm from the vagina into the uterus. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test detects malignancies, particularly cervical cancer.)
A male client has discharge from the penis. Gonorrhea is suspected. To obtain a specimen for a culture, what should the nurse do?
Swab the drainage directly from the urethra to obtain a specimen.
Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by Treponema pallidum?
Syphilis (Syphilis is an STI caused by Treponema pallidum. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea. Haemophilus ducreyi and Klebsiella granulomatis cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Candida albicans may cause vulvovaginitis.)
What sexually transmitted diseases are caused by bacteria? Select all that apply.
Syphilis,Gonorrhea (Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, a motile spirochete bacterium. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Hepatitis A and herpes simplex are caused by viruses. Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan.)
A drug is administered to a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. Which statement regarding the drug administration is correct?
The dose of a drug should be increased for pregnant clients. (During pregnancy, a client's hepatic metabolism and glomerular filtration are increased. As a result, the excretion rate is faster. Therefore the dose of a drug should be increased for the drug action to be optimal. It is true that all drugs should not be given to the pregnant client, because of the teratogenic effects on the fetus. The client should see her healthcare provider if in doubt. The dose of a drug should be altered for a pregnant client depending on the trimester she is in. How a drug affects the fetus depends on the stage of development of the fetus and the dosage and strength of the drug administered. During the first 3-8 weeks after fertilization, the major organs are developing and the dose of a drug should be decreased or withdrawn for pregnant clients.)
Which terms might the nurse use to describe a client who was born a man but lives as a woman?
Transgender Transwoman
What is female athlete triad?
amenorrhea, an eating disorder, and osteoporosis (Athletes with amenorrhea, irregular eating habits and reduced nutritional intake, and osteoporosis are said to have female athlete triad. Simple amenorrhea is not considered female athlete triad. Hypogonadotropic amenorrhea results from a problem in the central hypothalamic-pituitary axis, where there is a hypothalamic suppression resulting in amenorrhea.)