Success_Aerobic Gram Negative Bacteria

101. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is complication after infection with a. E. coli O157: H7 b. Salmonella Typhi c. Vibrio cholerae O1 d. Yerisinia enterocolitica

O157:H7 doesn't ferment sorbitol a. E. coli O157: H7

170. The causative agent of the septicemic, hemolytic disease known as Oroya fever is a. Bartonella bacilliformis b. Burkholderia mallei c. Haemophilus aegyptius d. Yersinia pestis

a. Bartonella bacilliformis

89. The etiologic agent of whooping cough is a. Bordetella pertussis b. Brucella suis c. Francisella tularensis d. Haemophilus ducreyi

a. Bordetella pertussis

174. Violet-colored colonies are typically produced by a. Chromobacterium violaceum b. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Serratia marcescens

a. Chromobacterium violaceum

129. Which one of the following organisms would produce a yellow slant and a yellow butt on TSI agar after incubating 18 hours? a. Escherichia coli b. Proteus mirabilis c. Salmonella Typhimurium d. Shigella sonnei

a. Escherichia coli

96. A causative agent of the form of conjunctivitis known a pinkeye is a. Haemophilus aegyptius b. Moraxella lacunata c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Klebsiella ozaenae

a. Haemophilus aegyptius

75. The K antigen of the family Enterobacteriaceae is a. Heat liable b. the somatic antigen c. located on the flagellum d. the antigen used to group Shigella

a. Heat liable

168. Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose but not from maltose, lactose, or sucrose? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Neisseria lactamica c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Neisseria sicca

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

92. A gram-negative, " kidney bean" cellular morphology is a distinguishing characteristic of a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Yersinia pestis c. Bartonella spp d. Actinobacter spp

a. Neisseria meningitidis

130. Pyocyanin is characteristically produced by a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Pseudomonas fluorescens c. Shewanella putrefaciens d. Stenotrophomonas maltiophillia

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

137. Which of following non-lactose fermenting organisms does not produce fluorescein? a. Pseudomonas alacligenes b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Pseudomonas fluorescens d. Pseudomonas putida

a. Pseudomonas alacligenes

179. Edwardsiella tarda is occasionally isolated in stool specimens and can biochemically be confused with a. Salmonella b. Enterohemorraghic E.coli c. Vibrio cholerae d. Yersinia enterocolitica

a. Salmonella

115. Shigella sonnei is differentiated from other Shigella spp by a. a positive ONPG b. it is positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction c. its negative oxidase reaction d. its ability to demonstrate motility of 22C

a. a positive ONPG

200. Eikenella corrodens is an opportunistic pathogen, but it is most noted for causing a. abscesses of the oral cavity b. pnemonia c. postsurgical wound infections d. urinary tract infections

a. abscesses of the oral cavity

105. Which of the following is true of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? a. adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens b. rapid growth on sheep blood agar c. ferments glucose and maltose d. ONPG negative

a. adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens

97. The single species in the genus Hafnia is a. alvei b. gergoviae c. ruckeri d. tarda

a. alvei

120. Which of the following reactions is typical for E coli? a. beta hemolytic on sheep agar b. colorless colonies on MacConkey agar c. colorless colonies on xylose-lysine-desoxycholate agar d. green colonies with black centers on Hektoen enteric agar

a. beta hemolytic on sheep agar

155. Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of a. chancroid b. lymphogranuloma venereum c. trachoma d. whooping cough

a. chancroid

85. The sexually acquired disease characterizied by gential ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy, which is caused by a small, gram negative bacillius, is known as a. chancroid b. bacterial vaginosis c. syphilius d. trachoma

a. chancroid

177. Some strains of Serratia marcescens produce a red-colored pigment. Pigment production is enhanced by a. incubation at 22C b. incubation of 42C c. growth on sheep blood agar d. growth on typtic soy agar without blood

a. incubation at 22C enhanced at room temperature

121. Yersinia pestis is characteristically a. urease negative b. hydrogen sulfide positive c. motile at 20-25C d. oxidase positive

a. urease negative

76. The causative agent of melioidosis is a. Burkholderia cepacia b. Burkholderia pseudomallei c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

b. Burkholderia pseudomallei

196. Besides Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which of the following is an important cause of lower respiratory tract infections in patients with cystic fibrosis? a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans b. Burkholdia cepacia c. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum d. Serratia marcescens

b. Burkholdia cepacia

78. A culture of a decubitus ulcer grew a gram- negative facultative bacillus. On TSI is produced an acid slant, acid butt, and gas. Test reactions in other media were as follows: Citrate: negative Indole: positive Urease: negative ONPG: positive Voges-Proskauer: negative The organism was identified as: a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Escherichia coli c. Citrobacter (diversus) koseri d. Providencia stuartii

b. Escherichia coli

164. A number of vacationers who have traveled outside the US have had their vacations interrupted by a case of "traveler's diarrhea." Which of the following is commonly associated with which etiologic agent? a. Aermonas hydrophila b. Escherichia coli c. Proteus mirabilis d. Vibrio parahemolyticus

b. Escherichia coli It is the ETEC

193. The porphyrin test in most useful for the following identification of which of the following? a. Campylobacter b. Haemophilus c. Moraxella d. Neisseria

b. Haemophilus

197. The organism that is linked to peptic ulcers and is the most frequent cause of gastritis is a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Helicobacter pylori c. Salmonella Typhimurium d. Yersinia entercolitica

b. Helicobacter pylori

110. Infection of the gastric mucosa leading to gastritis or peptic ulcers is most commonly associated with a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Heliobacter pylori c. Salmonella Typhi d. Shigella sonnei

b. Heliobacter pylori

161. Why are cultures for Gardnerella vaginalis not recommended? a. The bacteria grow so slowly that results take too long to be relevant. b. Isolation of the bacteria may not be clinically significant c. It is unsafe to grow this bacterium d. Artificial media are not available

b. Isolation of the bacteria may not be clinically significant Because it is part of normal flora

67. The majority of clinical isolates of Klebsiella are: a. K.ozaenae b. K. pneumoniae c. K. aerogenes d. K. oxytoca

b. K. pneumoniae

173. Lack of motility is a characteristic of a. Enterobacter b. Klebsiella c. Salmonella d. Serratia

b. Klebsiella

122. Lack of motility is characteristic of a. Enterobacter cloacae b. Klebsiella oxytoca c. Morganella morganii d. Providencia stuartii

b. Klebsiella oxytoca

188. Association with faucet aerators and humidifiers used with ventilation in intensive care units is commonly a factor in outbreaks of infections with which of the following microorganisms? a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Salmonella spp d. Serratia marcescens

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

196. A young man developed keratitis associated with use of contact lenses that had been immersed in a contaminated cleaning solution. The most common bacterial etiologic agent is such cases is a. Chryseobacterium meningosepctium b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Francisella tularensis d. Escherichia coli

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

150. Kingella denitrificans can be differentiated from Nesseria gonorrhoeae because it is a. able to grow on Thayer-Martin agar b. able to reduce nitrates c. oxidase positive d. glucose positive

b. able to reduce nitrates

90. An important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae or the infection it produces is a. a gram stain of the organism reveals gram-negative bacilli b. asymptomatic infections are common in females c. produces disease in humans and domestic animals d. the bacteria survive long periods outside the host's body

b. asymptomatic infections are common in females

189. Which of the following is not appropriate for the cultivation of Neisseria gonorrheae? a. chocolate agar b. celfusulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar c. Martin-Lewis agar d. Modified Thayer-Martin agar

b. celfusulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar

87. Campylobacter spp are associated most frequently with cases of: a. osteomyelitis b. gastroenteritis c. endocarditis d. appendicitis

b. gastroenteritis

139. Which of the following in not true of Haemophilus spp? a. obligate parasites b. grow well on sheep blood agar c. small, pleomorphic, gram negative coccobacilli d. many are found as normal flora in the human respiratory tract

b. grow well on sheep blood agar

180. The porphyrin test determines an organism's requirement for a. cystiene b. hemin c. NAD d. thiol

b. hemin

175. Which of the following is not true about Pasteurella multocida? a. Most common human infections occur in soft tissues, bones, and joints. b. humans harbor the organism as part of their normal flora c. it is the most virulent of the species in the genus d. it grows on sheep blood agar

b. humans harbor the organism as part of their normal flora transmitted through cat bites; not part of normal human flora

124. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Klebsiella (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis? a. is often sexually transmitted b. is isolated on chocolate agar c. is the causative agent of granuloma inguinale d. can be diagnosed by detection of Donovan bodies in clinical specimens

b. is isolated on chocolate agar

95. Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize a. maltose b. lactose c. glucose d. sucrose

b. lactose

127. Isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae a. is enhanced by cold enrichment b. required incubation under increased CO2 c. from contaminated sites is made easier by the use of CIN agar d. is not affected if clinical specimens is refrigerated before culturing

b. required incubation under increased CO2

83. The Hameophilus influenzae vaccine protects against which serotype? a. serotype a b. serotype b c. sertype c d. serotype d

b. serotype b

93. Which of the following nonfermenters is rarely isolated in the US? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia c. Burkholderia mallei d. Burkholderia cepacia

c. Burkholderia mallei causes malledosis; endemic to Southeast asia and Australia

143. Production of a yellow pigment is characteristic of which of the following Enterobacter sp? a. E. aerogenes b. E. cloacae c. E. sakazakii d. E. taylorae

c. E. sakazakii

157. Which of the following is the most common indicator of bacterial vaginosis? a. Eikenella b. Capnocytophaga c. Gardnerella d. Listeria

c. Gardnerella

131. Color plate 28 shows the gram stain of CSF from a 1 year old girl suspected of having meningitis. After 24 hours of growth, small tan colonies were isolated on chocolate agar incubated in CO2. Sheep blood agar also incubated in CO2 has no growth. Which of the following organisms should be suspected? a. Brucella canis b. Bordetella parapertussis c. Haemophilius influenzae d. Neisseria meningitids

c. Haemophilius influenzae

183. The characteristic growth pattern known as "satelliting" is associated with a. Burkholderia pseudomallei b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Yersinia pestis

c. Haemophilus influenzae

133. Of the following microorganisms, which one will turn a dark purple when tetram-ethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride is applied? a. Acinetobacter baumannii b. Stenotrophomonas maltiophillia c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Yersinia enterocolitica

c. Moraxella catarrhalis

133. Of the following microorganisms, which one will turn a dark purple when tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride is applied? a. Acinetobacter baumanni b. Strenotrophomonas maltophilia c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Yersinia entercolitica

c. Moraxella catarrhalis tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride this means the oxidase test (purple= positive)

166. The flattened adjacent sides of the cellular appearance of which microorganisms are said to resemble kidney beans? a. Aeromonas hydrophilia b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Pasteurella multocida

c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

169. Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose and maltose but not sucrose or lactose? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Neisseria lactamica c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Neisseria sicca

c. Neisseria meningitidis

147. Which of the following species of Pasteurella is associated with human infections following cat bites? a. P. avium b. P. canis c. P. multocida d. P. stomatis

c. P. multocida

144. A gram negative bacillius was recovered from the urine of a child of with history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The organism was oxidase negative, lactose negative, urease positive, and motile. The most likely identification of this agent would be a. Escherichia coli b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Proteus mirabilis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c. Proteus mirabilis

172. A positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction is characteristic of a. Hafnia alvei b. Moraxella catarrhalis c. Proteus vulgaris d. Salmonella Enteritidis

c. Proteus vulgaris

136. Which of the following organisms produces a positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction? a. Citrobacter freundii b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Providendia stuartii d. Yersinia enterocolitica

c. Providendia stuartii

176. Pus was aspirated from an empyema. A gram stain of the aspirated material showed many white blood cells and numerous gram-negative bacilli. The culture grew many colonies producing a soluble green pigment. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be a. Chromobacterium violaceum b. Legionella pneumophila c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Serratia marcescens

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

134. Cardiobacterium hominis, an inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract of humans, has been recovered as the etiologic agent from cases of endocarditis. An identifying characteristic of the organism a. positive oxidase b. positive catalse c. indole negative d. inability to grow on sheep blood agar

c. indole negative

198. New York City agar was developed for the isolation of a. Bordetella pertussis b. Campylobacter fetus c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

94. Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to prevent infections by a. E coli b. Haemophilius influenzae c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

82. Severe disseminated intravascular coagulation often complicates cases of septicemia caused by: a. Acinetobacter sp. b. Moraxella sp. c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Neisseria meningitidis

d. Neisseria meningitidis

106. The method of serogrouping Shigella used in clinical laboratory is based on a. bacteriocins b. H antigens c. K antigens d. O antigens

d. O antigens

79. An example of an oxidase positive glucose nonfermenting organism is a. Aeromonas hydrophila b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pnemoniae d. Pseudomonas aeroginosa

d. Pseudomonas aeroginosa

163. Swimmer's ear, a form of external otitis is commonly caused by a. Acinetobacter bumanni b. Bordetella bronchiseptica c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

86. Which of the following disease is most likely to be acquired from a hot tub or whirlpool? a. Q fever b. Erysipelas c. Acinetobacter cellulitis d. Pseudomonas dermatitis

d. Pseudomonas dermatitis

91. Which of the following organisms would most likely produce the biochemical reactions shown in color plate 27? Refer to book a. Citrobacter freundii b. Proteus mirabilis c. Providencia rettgeri d. Salmonella

d. Salmonella

171. A positive gelatin reaction is characteristic of a. Morganella morganii b. Proteus vulgaris c. Salmonella Typhyimurium d. Serratia liquefaciens

d. Serratia liquefaciens

88. An organism occasionally misidentified as an enteric pathogen because it produces a large amount of H2S is a. Burkholderia cepacia b. Burkholderia pseudomallei c. Pseudomonas putida d. Shewanella puterfaciens

d. Shewanella puterfaciens

72. The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile best describes which organism? a. Proteus vulgaris b. Yersinia pestis c. Salmonella enterica d. Shigella dystenteriae

d. Shigella dystenteriae

151. Plesiomonas was recently moved to which family? a. Brucelleaceae b. Enterobacteriaceae c. Legionellaceace d. Vibrioonaceae

d. Vibrioonaceae

160. Cefusulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar is recommened for the recovery of a. Brucella suis b. Cardiobacterium hominis c. Rhodococcus equi d. Yersinia enterocolitica

d. Yersinia enterocolitica

149. Which of the following in not characteristic of Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius? a. indole negative b. requires V factor c. require X factor d. aminolevulinic acid positive

d. aminolevulinic acid positive

146. Which of the following is not characteristic of Eikenella corrodens? a. it is thin, gram negative bacilli b. colonies sometimes pit the surface of the agar medium c. it is found in the mouth and upper respiratory tract of humans d. it is often a pure culture when recovered from infections

d. it is often a pure culture when recovered from infections