SWT301 - All
Q14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard? a) syntax testing b) equivalence partitioning c) stress testing d) modified condition/decision coverage
C
Q24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST? a) Test management b) Test design c) Test execution d) Test planning
C
Q1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because: a) Each test stage has a different purpose. b) It is easier to manage testing in stages. c) We can run different tests in different environments. d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
A
Q11. Which of the following is false? a) Incidents should always be fixed. b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ. c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement. d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
A
Q13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents? a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test. b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements. c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction. d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
A
Q2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities? a) Regression testing b) Integration testing c) System testing d) User acceptance testing
A
Q20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults? a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then. c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then. d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
A
Q22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing? a) Boundary value analysis b) Usability testing c) Performance testing d) Security testing
A
Q28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they: a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready. b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code. c) can be performed by inexperienced staff. d) are cheap to perform.
A
Q5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"IF the customer wants 'return'Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"IF the customer replies 'Cheap-day'Say: "That will be £11:20"ELSESay: "That will be £19:50"ENDIFELSESay: "That will be £9:75"ENDIFNow decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that allthe questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and allreplies given. a) 3 b)4 c)5 d) 6
A
Q6 Error guessing: a) supplements formal test design techniques. b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing. c) is only performed in user acceptance testing. d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
A
Q12. Enough testing has been performed when: a) time runs out. b) the required level of confidence has been achieved. c) no more faults are found. d) the users won't find any serious faults.
B
Q15. Which of the following is false? a) In a system two different failures may have different severities. b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault. c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system. d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
B
Q16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct? a) They are used to support multi-user testing. b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements. c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool. d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
B
Q19. The oracle assumption: a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked. b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test. c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test. d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
B
Q23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan? a) Features to be tested b) Incident reports c) Risks d) Schedule
B
Q32. Integration testing in the small: a) tests the individual components that have been developed. b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems. c) only uses components that form part of the live system. d) tests interfaces to other systems.
B
Q35 A failure is: a) found in the software; the result of an error. b) departure from specified behaviour. c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program. d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
B
Q40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide: a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers. b) facilities to compare test results with expected results. c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code. d) restricted access to the source code library.
B
Q8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to: a) find as many faults as possible. b) test high risk areas. c) obtain good test coverage. d) test whatever is easiest to test.
B
Q26. Data flow analysis studies: a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program. b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes. c) the use of data on paths through the code. d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
C
Q27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%The next $28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? a) $1500 b) $32001 c) $33501 d) $28000
C
Q29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts? a) Actual results b) Program specification c) User requirements d) System specification
C
Q31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle? a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements. b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment. c) It reduces defect multiplication. d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
C
Q33. Static analysis is best described as: a) the analysis of batch programs. b) the reviewing of test plans. c) the analysis of program code. d) the use of black box testing.
C
Q34. Alpha testing is: a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site. b) the first testing that is performed. c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site. d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
C
Q37. The most important thing about early test design is that it: a) makes test preparation easier. b) means inspections are not required. c) can prevent fault multiplication. d) will find all faults.
C
Q4. Which of the following requirements is testable? a) The system shall be user friendly. b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults. c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load. d) The system shall be built to be portable.
C
Q7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria? a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite. b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered. c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found. d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
C
Q9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?v - test controlw - test monitoringx - test estimationy - incident managementz - configuration control1 - calculation of required test resources2 - maintenance of record of test results3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun4 - report on deviation from test plan5 - tracking of anomalous test results a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4 b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3 c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2 d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
C
Q10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true? a) System tests are often performed by independent teams. b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing. c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix. d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
D
Q17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required? a) Metrics from previous similar projects b) Discussions with the development team c) Time allocated for regression testing d) a & b
D
Q18. Which of the following is true of the V-model? a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements. b) It only models the testing phase. c) It specifies the test techniques to be used. d) It includes the verification of designs.
D
Q21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? a) To find faults in the software. b) To assess whether the software is ready for release. c) To demonstrate that the software doesn't work. d) To prove that the software is correct.
D
Q25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique? a) Statement testing b) Path testing c) Data flow testing d) State transition testing
D
Q3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage. b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage. c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage. d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
D
Q30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection? a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator. b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader. c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs. d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
D
Q36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%The next $28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? a) $4800; $14000; $28000 b) $5200; $5500; $28000 c) $28001; $32000; $35000 d) $5800; $28000; $32000
D
Q38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true? a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications. b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code. c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans. d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
D
Q39. Test cases are designed during: a) test recording. b) test planning. c) test configuration. d) test specification.
D
B
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools. A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers. B. ii. and iv. are more for developers. C. ii, iii and iv. are more for developers. D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.
D
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct? A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing. B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team. C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly. D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do. color=#800000 size=2 face=Arial>
D
Q. 12: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit criteria? A. To enhance the security of the system B. To prevent the endless loops in code. C. To swerve as an alternative or Plan-B D. To define when to stop testing
C
Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design? Exhibit: A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout. B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout. C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout. D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
D
Q. 14: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task? A. Ensuring proper environment setup B. Writing a test summary report C. Assessing the need for additional tests D. Finalizing and archiving testware.
B
Q. 15: What is beta testing? A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location. B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations. C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location. D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.
B
Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1
C
Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print Biggest dimension is & biggest_dimension print Width: & width print Length: & length How many more test cases are required? A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage. B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage. C. None, existing test cases can be used. D. One more test case will be required for 100 statement coverage.
C
Q. 18: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove? A. Usability defects found by customers B. Defects in infrequently used functionality C. Defects that were detected early D. Minor defects that were found by users
A
Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? A. Implementation and execution. B. Planning and control. C. Analysis and design. D. Test closure.
D
Q. 1: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively from X2? Exhibit: A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2
A
Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE? A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects. C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.
A
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID? Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Conditions Age <21 yrs 21-29 yrs 30-50yrs > 50yrs Insurance Class A A or B B. C or D C or D Actions Premium �100 �90 �70 �70 Excess �2,500 �2,500 �500 �1000 A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500. C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
A
Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented? A. During test planning. B. During test analysis. C. During test execution. D. When evaluating exit criteria
B
Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ? i) Regression testing is run ONLY once ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made iii) Regression testing is often automated iv) Regression tests need not be maintained Options: A. ii, iv. B. ii, iii. C. i, iii, iv. D. iii.
A
Q. 24: Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of software failure? A. Damaged reputation B. Lack of methodology C. Inadequate training D. Regulatory compliance
D
Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept. iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool. Options: A. i, ii, iii. B. ii, iii, iv. C. i, iii, iv. D. i, ii, iv.
B
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle? A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases. B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code. C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later. D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.
C
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools? i) Easy to access information about tests and testing. ii) Reduced maintenance of testware. iii) Easy and cheap to implement. iv) Greater consistency of tests. Options: A. ii and iv B. ii and iii C. i and iv D. i and iii
A
Q. 28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors when deploying a new tool in an organization? A. Providing coaching to users and defining usage guidelines B. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis C. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing D. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews
A
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria? A. To define when a test level is complete. B. To determine when a test has completed. C. To identify when a software system should be retired. D. To determine whether a test has passed.
C
Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testw are items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items. A. ii, iv and v. B. ii, iii and iv, C. i, ii and iv. D. i, iii and v.
B
Q. 30: Which test design technique relies heavily on prior thorough knowledge of the system? A. Data driven testing technique B. Experience-based technique C. White-box technique D. Structure-based technique
C
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated? A. Tool support for performance and monitoring. B. Tool support for static testing. C. Tool support for test execution and logging. D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
A
Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes. Options: A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W. B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y. C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y. D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
A
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component? A. Black Box Techniques. B. White Box Techniques. C. Glass Box Techniques. D. Experience Based Techniques.
D
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful? A. Supporting reviews. B. Validating models of the software. C. Testing code executed in a special test harness. D. Enforcement of coding standards.
D
Q. 36: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? S. Process-compliant approaches T. Heuristic approaches U. Consultative approaches V. Regression-averse approaches 1. Includes reuse of existing test material 2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts 3. Adheres to industry-specific standards 4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently A. S4, T3, U2, V1 B. S1, T2, U3, V4 C. S2, T3, U1, V4 D. S3, T4, U2, V1
B
Q. 37: What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party? A. Exploratory testing B. Independent testing C. Integration testing D. Interoperability testing
C
Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? A. It does not require familiarity with the code. B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
A
Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code. A. vwy B. vwz C. vxy D. vxz What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage? Exhibit: A. A B. ABD C. ABCD D. ACD
A
Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning? A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks. B. Initiating corrective actions. C. Monitoring progress and test coverage. D. Measuring and analyzing results.
C
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques? A. Test cases can be easily automated. B. Test cases are independent of each other. C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system . D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
B
Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing: i) Functional testing of the component in isolation. ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents. iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes. iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules. A. i and ii. B. I, ii and iii C. iii. D. ii and iv size=2 face=Arial>
A
Q. 42: Which of the following is a KEY test control task? A. Initiating corrective actions B. Determining the scope C. Implementing the test policy D. Scheduling test implementation
D
Q. 43: What is the name of a skeletal implementation of a software component that is used for testing? A. Use case B. Domain C. Driver D. Stub
A
Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing: A. You have discovered every bug in the program. B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program. C. You have completed every test in the test plan. D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
B
Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means: A. That you have tested every statement in the program. B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program. C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program. D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
D
Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following): A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them. C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs. D. All of the above
E
Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are: A. Deviations from standards, B. Requirement defects, C. Design defects, D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E. All of the above.
A
Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective A. Identifying defects. B. Fixing defects. C. A. and B D. None of the above
A
Q. 49: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if the specifications are outdated? A. Structure-based and experienced-based techniques B. Black-box and specification-based techniques C. Specification-based and structure-based techniques D. Structure-based technique and exhaustive testing
A
Q. 4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report? a) Summary b) Test incident report identifier c) Test deliverables d) Risks and contingencies e) Variances f) Approvals g) Output specifications A. a, e and f B. a, c and d C. a, b and f D. a, d and e
A
Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because: A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well. B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result. C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions. D. All of the above.
D
Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers): A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free. B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing. C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks. D. All of the above. face=Arial>
B
Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are A. Only Project risks B. Only Product risks C. Project risks and Product risks D. Project risks or Product risks
C
Q. 53: System testing should investigate A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
B
Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of A. System testing B. Acceptance testing C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
C
Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
D
Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives A. Finding defects B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information C. Preventing defects. D. Debugging defects
A
Q. 57: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester? A. Reviewing tests developed by others B. Writing a test strategy for the project C. Deciding what should be automated D. Writing test summary reports
D
Q. 58: Which is not the project risks A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
A
Q. 59: Which of the following is a potential risk in using test support tools? A. Under estimating the effort needed to maintain the test assets B. Losing access to important testing information when needed C. Relying too much on qualitative and quantitative assessments D. Lowering the morale of the test team because of repetition
D
Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor? A. Failure of third party vendor B. Training issues C. Problems requirements definition D. Poor software functionality
C
Q. 60: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % statement coverage? if ((temperature < 0) or (temperature > 100)) { alert (DANGER); if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) { speed = 50; } } else { check = false; } A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3
B
Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools? A. Customers and users B. Developers and designers C. Business and systems analysts D. System and acceptance testers
A
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities? A. Developers. B. Analysts. C. Testers. D. Incident Managers.
C
Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report? A. The name and / or organisational position of the person raising the problem. B. Version of the Software Under Test. C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem. D. Actual and expected results.
A
Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test? A. Test case specification. B. Test design specification. C. Test procedure specification. D. Test results.
B
color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial> Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions. A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false. B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.