Test 1 Questions

1.) The relationship between education and income among clinical psychologists is most likely: a. -.7 b. 0.0 c. .3 d. .5

0.0 a. In this situation, there is a full range of values for the variable income, but the variable education has a significantly restricted range, given that all psychologists have approximately 20 years of education. With a severely restricted range, a correlation becomes 0. Note that if this had been a broader question that asked about the overall correlation between education and income, the answer might have been somewhere near .3 to .5

1.) A manager that adhered to Theory Y would tend to: a. Allow her employees to take part in decision-making b. Set firm rules about tardiness, absenteeism, and loafing c. Believe that workers are primarily motivated by pay d. Follow the premises of scientific management

Allow her employees to take part in decision-making a. While Theory X assumes that workers are lazy and must be coerced, Theory Y contents that people are industrious, creative, and seek responsibility. An adherent of Theory Y would likely allow employees to take part in decision-making. The other responses would typify an adherent of Theory X. Note that one way to approach this question is to recognize that Responses 2, 3, and 4 all reflect a similar theme and that Response 1 does not. Even if one did not know about Theory X and Theory Y, the fact that Response 1 does not fit with the other responses would suggest it is the correct answer

1.) The medication of choice for Bipolar I Disorder is: a. Buspar b. Prozac c. Lithium carbonate d. Haloperidol

Lithium carbonate c. Among those listed, the medication of choice for Bipolar I disorder is lithium. Other medications commonly used for Bipolar I disorder include the anti-convulsants Tegretol (carbamezapine) and Depakene (valproic acid). Buspar (Response 1) is use in the treatment of anxiety. Prozac (Response 2) in the treatment of depression, and Haloperidol (Response 4) is used to treat Schizophrenia and tic disorders

1.) Job satisfaction is negatively correlated with a. Education b. Intelligence c. Race d. Turnover

Turnover Job satisfaction is negatively correlated with turnover. It tends to be positively correlated with education (Response 1) and intelligence (Response 2), and tends to be higher among Caucasians than minorities (Response 3)

1.) After you have tested a 19-year-old college student, his parents request the testing results. Your best course of action would be to: a. Release the information to the parents since they are the legal guardians b. Get a release signed by the son before releasing the information c. Withhold the information, because of potential misuse by non professionals d. Proceed with caution

Get a release signed by the son before releasing the information a. A 19-year-old student is considered to be an adult; therefore, information could only be released if he signs a release of information form

1.) The average effect size found in psychotherapy outcome research is about: a. 1.5 b. .9 c. .6 d. .35

a. .9 d. The average effect size found in recent psychotherapy outcome research is about .85. Keep in mind that an effect size is a measure of standard deviation, so .85 means that treated people do about .85 of a standard deviation better. Than untreated individuals

1.) Since the standard error of the measurement is significantly influenced by the reliability coefficient, the range of the standard error of the measurement is: a. -1 to +1 b. 0 to +1 c. 0 to SDx d. 0 to SDy

a. 0 to SDx a. The range of the standard error of measurement is always from 0 to the standard deviation of the test (SDx). The range of the validity coefficient is from -1 to +1 (Response 1). The range of the reliability coefficient is from 0 to +1 (Response 2). The range of the standard error of estimate is from 0 to the standard deviation of the criterion (SDy) (Response 4).

1.) Following an incident of spousal abuse, the intervention with the lowest recidivism rate would be: a. Imprisoning the perpetrator b. Court-ordered group therapy focusing on issues of abuse c. The women leaving the husband and going to a shelter d. Crisis marital counseling

a. Imprisoning the perpetrator a. Unfortunately, there is not only a high incident of spousal abuse, but there is also a high incidence of repeat offenses. Arrest and imprisonment is the intervention that has been demonstrated to have the greatest likelihood of preventing future incidents

1.) On simple and familiar tasks, the presence of others tends to: a. Improve performance b. Compromise performance c. Have no significant effect on performance as compared with when others are not present d. Either improve or compromise performance depending on whether others are critical or complimentary

a. Improve performance a. The presence of others on simple and familiar tasks (e.g., running a marathon) tends to enhance performance. This is termed social facilitation. When the task is novel or complex, social inhibition occurs, and task performance is worsened in the presence of others (Response 2)

1.) A psychiatrist request patient records from a patient you saw seven years ago. The patient has signed the appropriate release. You should: a. Refuse to send the records because the records are probably obsolete b. Send any testing data, as well as the openings and closing summary, but leave out the session-by-session notes c. Send the records with a note warning that the information may be obsolete d. Attempt to dissuade the client from his request

answer: Send the records with a note warning that the information may be obsolete Patients are entitled to have their records released to themselves or to someone they specify (e.g., a psychiatrist). The issue here is that the information is seven years old and might therefore be obsolete. So, this possibility should be noted when you send the records.

1.) Extreme social neglect or deprivation is a characteristic of: a. Disinhibited social engagement disorder b. Autism spectrum disorder c. Separation anxiety disorder d. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Disinhibited social engagement disorder a. According to DSM-5, extreme social neglect or deprivation may lead to either disinhibited social engagement disorder (Response 1) or reactive attachment disorder. The hallmark of disinhibited social engagement disorder is behavior in which a child actively approaches and interacts with adult strangers, while the hallmark of reactive attachment disorder is a consistent pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior toward the caregiver. While children with autism spectrum disorder (Response 2) tend to have social deficits as well as restricted interests and ritualized behaviors, autism spectrum disorder is not brought about by extreme neglect and deprivation. Separation anxiety disorder (Response 3) is characterized by inappropriate and excessive anxiety concerning being away from home or away from the primary attachment figure. PTSD (Response 4) involves exposure to a traumatic event involving actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence; however, as detrimental as extreme social neglect/deprivation is to a child, it does not qualify as a traumatic event

1.) Who would likely be a proponent of tipping the waiter after each course? a. Skinner b. Watson c. Ellis d. Bandura

Skinner a. Tipping the waiter after each course would be a form of continuous reinforcement. Of all the individuals listed here, Skinner is the proponent of reinforcement. Remember that Watson (Response 2) is a behaviorist involved with classical conditioning; Ellis (Response 3) is a Rational-Emotive Therapist (cognitive behavioral); and Bandura (Response 4), a social cognitive behaviorist, is most well known for observational learning from a model

1.) The part of the brain responsible for consolidation of long-term memory is: a. The medulla b. The hypothalamus c. The hippocampus d. The cerebellum

The hippocampus a. The hippocampus, within the temporal lobes, is involved in the consolidation of long-term memory. Response 1, the medulla, is a part of the brainstem, and is involved in basic functions including respiration, cardiovascular activity, sleep, and consciousness. Response 2, the hypothalamus, plays a major role in homeostasis, including temperature regulation, the sleep-wake cycle, and aggression. Response 4, the cerebellum, is involved in movement and balance

1.) At what age would separation from the mother be most difficult forf a child? a. 0-4 months b. 5-10 months c. 10-16 months d. 16-24 months

a. 10-16 months a. According to the psychoanalytic developmental theorist Margaret Mahler, the first month constitutes an autistic phase (a speculation which has not, incidentally, been supported by further research), and months 2-4 constitute the symbiotic phase. The process of separation-individuation then beings at around 4-5 months, with four subphases : a) differentiation (5-10 months) which includes stranger anxiety; b) practicing (10-16 months) which includes separation anxiety—and hence would be the age for greatest problems during a separation; c) rapprochement (16-24 months); and d) consolidation and object constancy (24-36 months). If you did not know Mahler's stages, you could have tried to guess using your own first hand experiences with children

1.) The concordance rate for identical twins for Bipolar I Disorder is about: a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%

a. 75% b. The concordance rate for identical twins with Bipolar I Disorder ranges from about 75%-80%. Keep in mind that Bipolar I Disorder is among the most heavily genetically loaded disorders

1.) DRO is based on: a. A combination of classical and operant conditioning b. A combination of punishment and reinforcement c. A combination of extinction and reinforcement d. A combination of positive and negative reinforcement

a. A combination of extinction and reinforcement a. DRO, or differential reinforcement for other behaviors, combines operant extinction for an undesired behavior with reinforcement for more appropriate behavior. For example, a child is ignored when she whines, and complimented when she politely asks for what she wants.

1.) When aversive counterconditioning is used to reduce certain sexual behaviors, the fetish object is: a. An unconditioned stimulus b. A conditioned stimulus c. An unconditioned response d. A conditioned response

a. A conditioned stimulus a. This question is specifically asking about the fetish object, e.g., the shoe that someone is turned on by. The fetish object is a stimulus, while the response is most likely sexual excitement. To tease out whether it is an unconditioned or conditioned stimulus, you need only ask yourself whether the response is universal. Does everyone get sexually stimulated when they see a shoe? Clearly not! So the stimulus has been conditioned for that unique individual

1.) The phenomenon of catharsis described in psychoanalytic theory, can be explained by behaviorists as: a. A decrease in affective response due to the therapist's direction to do so b. A decrease in affective response because of the therapist's indirect influences c. Inhibited affective responding brought about by developing cognitive controls d. A decrease in affective response by extinction

a. A decrease in affective response by extinction b. Catharsis involves talking about anxiety-provoking situations and purging the associated emotions. A behaviorist would argue that catharsis works to reduce anxiety by a process of classical extinction. Catharsis would be seen as akin to flooding with response prevention in which the individual is exposed to the feared conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus being present, until the fear response is extinguished

1.) The standard error of the estimate has: a. A direct relationship with the SD of the predictor and in indirect relationship with validity b. An indirect relationship with the SD of the predictor and a direct relationship with validity c. A direct relationship with the SD of the criterion and an indirect relationship with validity d. An indirect relationship with the SD of the criterion and a direct relationship with validity

a. A direct relationship with the SD of the criterion and an indirect relationship with validity a. The standard error of the estimate is affected by two variables, the standard deviation of the criterion and criterion-related validity. Intuitively, when validity is high, there should be littler error in prediction, and when validity is low, there should be a lot of error in prediction. This is an indirect relationship. The standard error of estimate has a direct relationship with the standard deviation, in that the larger the SD, the larger the error, while conversely, the smaller the SD, the smaller the error

1.) A therapist asks the members of a psychotherapy group to refrain from asking questions of others and to speak only about themselves. The group members comply with this request. This scenario is an example of: a. A group norm b. A group task c. A group expectation d. Social facilitation

a. A group norm a. A group norm is a standard of behavior that group members follow. It can be formally initiated by a leader or it can informally emerge from the members' behavior. A group task (Response 2) is a specific assignment given to a group. Some types of group tasks include conjunctive, disjunctive, and additive. Group expectation (Response 3) is an informally used term that means just what it sounds like, either the expectations that a group has or the expectations that others have for the group. Social facilitation (Response 4) refers to the tendency to perform better on simply, over-learned tasks when one is in the presence of others.

1.) The neurotransmitter associated with voluntary movement is: a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. Norepinephrine d. GABA

a. Acetylcholine a. Acetylcholine (Response 1) is involved in voluntary movement, as well as learning and memory. Serotonin (Response 2) is involved with mood, sleep, appetite, sex, and aggression. Norepinephrine (Response 3) is also involved with mood, and GABA (Response 4) is associated with anxiety and seizures. Dopamine, while not an option in this question, is also involved with voluntary movement.

1.) A Kappa coefficient of .95 suggests: a. A high degree of interrater reliability b. A high degree of test-retest reliability c. A high degree of criterion related validity d. A high degree of construct validity

a. A high degree of interrater reliability a. The Kappa coefficient is a measure of interrater reliability. It is the degree of agreement between two or more raters when performance is subjectively scored. Reliability coefficients range from 0.0 to 1.0 and .95 suggests a very high degree of interrater reliability. The test-retest reliability coefficient (Response 2) reflects the degree of relationship between pairs of scores from the same group of people who are administered an identical test at two points in time. The criterion-related validity coefficient (Response 3) indicates the strength of the relationship between a predictor test and criterion outcomes (e.g., how well SAT scores predict college GPS). Construct validity (Response 4) is the degree to which a test is actually measuring the construct or trait it is attempting to measure (e.g., aggression). Both convergent and divergent validity are necessary to establish construct validity

1.) Which of the following is an example of a protocol analysis? a. A supervisor and a supervisee carefully review the transcript of a psychotherapy session b. A person is told to verbalize his problem-solving process c. The human subjects committee reviews a proposed research protocol d. A researcher attempts to analyze which aspects of an intervention (i.e., treatment protocol) actually account for the treatment outcome

a. A person is told to verbalize his problem-solving process a. A protocol analysis involves subjects verbalizing their thought process as they perform a task. The goal is to better understand the person's cognitive process, especially concerning problem-solving, although it is understood that the process of verbalizing may actually alter the cognitive process. Supervisors and supervisees often carefully review process notes, which are a transcript of a session written from the supervisee's memory (Response 1). Understanding which components account for a treatment effect (Response 4) is often accomplished through the use of a dismantling strategy, in which various components of a treatment are analyzed separately

1.) A T-score of 70 would be equivalent to: a. A z score of +1 b. The 70th percentile rank c. A raw score of about 70 d. A score of about the 98th percentile rank

a. A score of about the 98th percentile rank b. Recall that T-scores, z scores and percentiles are all norm referenced scores that tell us about a person's relative standing or ranking in a group. These scores can also be compared to one another. The mean of T scores is 50, and the standard deviation is 10. A T score of 70 is 2 standard deviations above the mean, which corresponds to the 98th percentile rank. A z score of +1 (Response 1), which is one SD above the mean, is equivalent to a T score of 60 and a percentile rank of 84. A raw score (Response 3) is a criterion-referenced score, and gives no indicated of the person's relative ranking

1.) Under what circumstances may a subpoena for treatment records be ignored? a. The patient asks the therapist to assert privilege b. The therapist plans to assert privilege and will only reveal the records if a court order is issued c. The subpoena is issued in the course of a malpractice lawsuit d. A subpoena cannot be ignored

a. A subpoena cannot be ignored b. A subpoena is a legal document and may never simply be ignored, including when there is a malpractice lawsuit (Response 3). The psychotherapist must show up at the appointed time with the required documents. Although the therapist may assert privilege (Response 1), this does not mean that the subpoena is ignored

1.) Which of the following designs is least likely to be threatened by history? a. AB b. ABAB c. Time series d. One group pre-post

a. ABAB a. History is defined as a coincidentally occurring event that is not part of treatment, which influences outcome. The threat of history is best taken care of by an ABAB design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented once again and the person is measured repeatedly (B). Since measurements of treatment effect are obtained at two different times, this design controls for the possibility that some of the treatment effect was confounded by a historical event. In the other three designs, treatment is only implemented at one point in time and there is no control group. One would not be able to tease out whether changes were caused by treatment or some coincidentally occurring event. For example, in an AB design (Response 1), baseline (A) is followed by treatment (B). Similarly, in a one group pre-posttest design (Response 4), the same group of people is assessed once before and once after treatment. A time series (Response 3) usually involves a group that is measured at several points before and after treatment, however, treatment only occurs once. It therefore remains unclear if the observed effects are due to treatment or history. Note that "time series" is often used to refer in a more general (and confusing) way to any single-subject design, including AB and ABAB

1.) Which of the following is not described by Piaget as typical of the preoperational child? a. Use of symbolic activity b. Ability to conserve c. Egocentrism d. Intuitive thinking

a. Ability to conserve a. The preoperational child (ages 2 to 7) is egocentric (Resposne 3), relies on intuitive thought rather than logical or deductive reasoning (Response 4), and increasingly uses symbolic activity (Response 1). The ability to conserve (Response 2) does not appear until the stage of concrete operations (age 7 to 11)

1.) In terms of parenting, which theorist would recommend the use of natural, logical consequences and a focus on the goals of misbehavior? a. Adler b. Minuchin c. Bowen d. Haley

a. Adler a. Alfred Adler's Individual Psychology has been widely adapted and used in parenting programs. STEP (Systematic Training in Effective Parenting) helps parents structure family life so that children experience natural and logical consequences of both good behavior and misbehavior. These programs also help parents to identify the goals of their children's misbehavior (e.g., attention) so that they can help their children reach their goals in healthier, more adaptive ways.

1.) Which of the following predominates in a state of relaxed wakefulness? a. Theta waves b. REM sleep c. Alpha waves d. Delta waves

a. Alpha waves c. Alpha waves occur during periods of relaxed wakefulness, and are predominant just before falling asleep. Theta waves (Response 1) occur in early stage 1 sleep. Delta waves (Response 4) are slow waves that occur in stages 3 and 4, the deepest, non-dreaming part of sleep. REM sleep (Response 2) is dreaming sleep, during which there is rapid eye movement, increased respiration and heart rate, and relaxed muscle tone

1.) An adult who is administered the Adult Attachment interview is able to recall many attachment experiences but has difficulty describing them in a coherent and linear manner. When this adult's infant is assessed in the Strange Situation, the infant will probably demonstrate an attachment pattern that is: a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoidant d. Disorganized/disoriented

a. Ambivalent a. In the adult attachment interview, adults are asked to discuss their early attachment experiences. Their responses are not analyzed by the content of the memories but rather by the manner in which these memories are discussed. The adult in this example would be considered 'preoccupied.' Such adults are overly concerned with the attachment memories but 'get lose' while they are talking, often losing their line of thought. The children of such adults tend to have ambivalent attachments. In general, adults who receive the Adult Attachment Interview can be categorized as 'secure/autonomous' (high coherence and consistency); 'insecure/dismissing' (contradictions and lapses in memory); and 'insecure/preoccupied' (confused, incoherent). After receiving one of these three labels, adults who discuss trauma and loss may be additionally categorized as 'unresolved/disorganized' if they show momentary lapses of reasoning. In general, secure adults tend to have secure infants (Response 1); dismissing adults tend to have avoidant infants (Response 3); preoccupied adults tend to have ambivalent/anxious infants; and disorganized/unresolved adults tend to have disorganized infants (Response 4)

1.) When treating Asian American clients, one should consider that they typically prefer: a. An active, directive approach b. A non-directive approach c. A focus on separation-individuation issues d. An emotional-expressive approach

a. An active, directive approach a. It is frequently cited finding that Asian Americans prefer a logical, structured, and directive approach in therapy. Asian Americans, especially if somewhat unacculturated, are likely to seek the services of a psychologist for more practical types of problems, such as vocational selection or evaluation of aptitude rather than for emotional problems. Note that both a focus on separation-individuation (Response 3) and an emotional-expressive approach (Response 4) may actually be contraindicated because they may violate significant cultural norms

1.) You are offered a choice between two scrumptious desserts, pecan pie and chocolate cake, and you feel quite torn. When pressed to decide, you select the chocolate cake. You then tell your friend that you really aren't that fond of pecan pie. Your behavior can be explained by: a. An approach-approach conflict b. An approach-avoidance conflict c. The self-serving bias d. The reciprocity hypothesis

a. An approach-approach conflict a. The approach-approach conflict is one in which the person much choose between two desirable alternatives, and, subsequent to choosing, slightly devalues the alternative not chosen. This is a bit like what one would expect as a result of cognitive dissonance. In an approach-avoidance conflict (Response 2), the individual is both drawn to and repelled by the same alternative. Self-serving bias (Response 3) predicts the kinds of attributions we make for our successes (internal attributions) versus our failures (external attributions). Reciprocity hypothesis (Response 4) explaines how people choose their mates.

1.) The main reason for treatment failure with addictive behaviors is that these behaviors: a. Are both operantly and classically reinforced b. Are intermittently reinforced c. Are reinforced on a variable ratio schedule d. Are self-reinforcing

a. Are self-reinforcing b. The high failure rate in treating addictive behaviors stems from the fact that many addictions are very powerfully reinforcing. They are considered to be self-reinforcing in that the person does not depend on any external reinforcement. Thus, addictive behaviors are not necessarily both operantly and classically conditioned (Response 1). Because the individual receives self-reinforcement every time the behavior is performed, these behaviors are not being intermittently reinforced (Response 2). The variable ratio schedule (Response 3) is one type of intermittent reinforcement

1.) Gestalt therapists believe that dreams are reflections of: a. Unconscious aggressive and libidinal drives b. The collective unconscious c. Aspects of the client d. The social environment

a. Aspects of the client a. Gestalt therapists believe that different parts of a dream reflect different aspects of the person. They work with dreams by having the patient become each element of the dream. The notion that dreams reflect unconscious aggressive and libidinal drives (Response 1) would be most associated with Freudians or classical psychoanalysts. The collective unconscious (Response 2) would be associated with C. G. Jung

1.) A child looks up in the sky, sees a bird, and then says "plane." This behavior represents: a. Assimilation b. Accommodation c. Equilibration d. Object permanence

a. Assimilation a. Piaget coined the term adaptation, which is the process by which a person adjusts to the environment using two complementary processes, assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation involves incorporating a new experience into an already established mental structure, while accommodation (Response 2) involves modifying or expanding a cognitive structure or schema to take in new information. In this situation, when the child calls a bird a plane, she is assimilating the bird into an already existing schema for things that fly (plane). Equilibration (Response 3) refers to the striving toward balance between the person and the outside environment, as well as among the person's schemata. Object permanence (Response 4) is typically achieved by the child's second birthday, refers to the child's ability to understand that objects continue to exist independent of the child's involvement with them

1.) According to the DSM-5, the diagnosis for a child who demonstrates significant impairment in social interactions as well as stereotyped or repetivie motor movements and inflexible adherence to routine, with no impairment in language or intellect would be: a. Autism Spectrum Disorder b. Asperger's disorder c. Social Communication disorder d. Stereotypic movement disorder

a. Autism Spectrum Disorder a. In the DSM-5, Autism Spectrum Disorder is a new disorder that encompasses autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, and childhood disintegrative disorder. The two essential features are: a) persistent deficits in social communication and social interactions across multiple contexts; and b) restricted, repetitive patters of behavior, interests, or activities. Specification of with or without accompanying intellectual impairment and with or without accompanying language impairment is also recorded; thus, neither impairment in language nor intellect is not required for the diagnosis. Social Communication disorder (Resposne 3) involves difficulties in the social use of verbal and nonverbal communications, but does not include restrictive, repetitive patterns of behavior. Stereotypic movement disorder (Response 4) involves motor behavior that is repetitive and nonfunctional (e.g., body rocking, head banging, self biting, etc.) but there are no impairments in social communication and interaction

1.) Beck emphasizes: a. Automatic thinking and logical errors b. Irrational beliefs c. Positive self-statements d. Positive and negative reinforcement

a. Automatic thinking and logical errors a. Although there are similarities in terminology, you need to know which terms apply to which cognitive theory. Beck is the founder of Cognitive Therapy. He is known for "automatic thinking" and "logical errors." His contemporary Ellis, the founder of Rational-Emotive Therapy, coined the term "irrational beliefs" (Response 2). Positive self-statements (Response 3) are a focus of the Cognitive- Behavioral Therapy of Meichenbaum. Positive and negative reinforcement (Response 4) are most commonly associated with Skinner, and sometimes with Thorndike

1.) The Eriksonian stage corresponding to the second year of life is: a. Autonomy versus shame b. Trust versus mistrust c. Initiative versus guilt d. Industry versus inferiority

a. Autonomy versus shame a. This is another one of those concepts you just need to know. The Eriksonian stage corresponding to the second year of life (Freud's anal stage) is autonomy versus shame. Trust versus mistrust (Response 2) corresponds to the first year of life (Freud's oral stage). Initiative versus guilt (Response 3) corresponds to Freud's phallic stage of 3-6 years, and industry versus inferiority (Response 4) corresponds to the latency stage of 6-12 years

1.) The frequency of sex in later life is most highly correlated with: a. Availability of partners b. Previous sex history c. Age d. Physical health

a. Availability of partners a. It is estimated that 70% of men and 20% of women over age 60 are sexually active. Sexual activity is usually limited by the absence of an available partner. Studies have demonstrated that sex drive does not decrease as men and women age, and, in fact, may sometimes increase. For men, physiological changes associated with aging include a longer time for erection to occur, decreased penile turgidity, and ejaculatory seepage. For women, changes include decreased vaginal lubrication due to lower estrogen levels. There is also a significant relationship between how active one's sex life was in early adulthood with how active it is in older age (Response 2)

1.) The term "vicarious learning is most closely associated with whom? a. Skinner b. Watson c. Ellis d. Bandura

a. Bandura b. Vicarious learning means that we can learn by watching and imitating others, and by anticipating future reinforcement. This notion is associated with Bandura's model of observational learning. Bandura's theory is usually called Socially Learning Theory or Social Cognitive Behaviorism. Skinner (Response 1) is associated with operant or instrumental learning. Watson (Response 2) with classical conditioning, and Ellis (Response 3) with Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET)

1.) A women goes to a psychic who tells her that she is a very sensitive person. The women response enthusiastically, "you've got me pegged!" This interaction is an example of the: a. Hawthorne effect b. Rosenthal effect c. Barnum effect d. Law of effect

a. Barnum effect c. The Barnum effect (Response 3) occurs when someone finds personal meaning in a statement that could apply to anyone. In this case, the psychic capitalized on this effect in order to convince her client that she has psychic powers. The Hawthorne effect is associated with a change in behavior that results from being observed (ruling out Response 1). In the original Hawthorne studies (1927-1932) experimenters were studying the physical and environmental aspects of the workplace (e.g., lighting) on productivity and discovered that worker productivity increased in all instances simply as a result of observation by the researchers. The Rosenthal effect or experimenter expectancies refers to the cues or clues transmitted by the experimenter to the subjects that results in subjects conforming to the experimenter's expectations (ruling out Response 2). In t he original Rosenthal study (1960s) teachers in an inner city school were given information about students who were expected to blossom academically. While these students were selected at random, at the end of the year these students did blossom compared with those not on the list. The law of effect, proposed y Thorndike, asserts that people will tend to repeat an action that had a previously pleasurable outcome (ruling out Response 4)

1.) In order to adhere to the highest possible standards, when sending patient information electronically to an insurance company for billing, you should: a. Clearly mark it confidential b. Follow it up with a hard copy in the mail c. Code the client's name d. Refuse to do so

a. Clearly mark it confidential a. This question refers to sending confidential patient information by modem, for example. In this situation, it is sufficient to identify the information as confidential

1.) The brain damage that leads to cerebral palsy happens: a. Before birth b. At the time of birth c. After birth d. Before birth, at the time of birth, or after birth

a. Before birth, at the time of birth, or after birth b. Cerebral palsy (CP) is caused by abnormal brain development or brain damage that affects a child's ability to control his or her muscles. Until recently it was widely believed that CP was most commonly caused by lack of oxygen to the brain (asphyxia) related to difficult labor or delivery. In fact, this is rarely the cause. Common causes of CP include random genetic mutations, maternal infections. That affect the fetus, fetal stroke, infections in infancy, and traumatic head injury after birth. Thus, the brain damage that leads to CP may occur before birth, at the time of birth, or after birth (Response 4)

1.) Research on sex biases has found that, when asked to rate the quality of an essay: a. Male judges will rate male writes more favorably, while female judges will rate female writers more favorably b. Male judges will rate females writers more favorably, while female judges will rate male writers more favorably c. Both male and female judges will rate female writers more favorably d. Both male and female judges will rate male writers more favorably

a. Both male and female judges will rate male writers more favorably b. Research on sex bias has found that both male and female judges tend to rate male writes more favorably

1.) Research on the impact of early. Maturation in adolescence has found that: a. Boys tend to benefit more b. Girls tend to benefit more c. Both boys and girls benefit more when compared to late-maturing peers d. Both boys and girls benefit less when compared to late-maturing peers

a. Boys tend to benefit more a. Overall, girls who mature earlier tend to be at a disadvantage compared to late-maturing peers, while boys who mature earlier tend to have an advantage over late-maturing peers

1.) Research has demonstrated that with regard to attachment behavior: a. Infants seldom form attachment to more than one person during the first year of life b. Attachment to the mother emerges primarily because of her association with food c. Attachment patterns are not significantly related to coping with the "strange situation" d. By age one, most infants are securely attached

a. By age one, most infants are securely attached b. Some 60% or so of infants are securely attached by age one. Response. 1 is not true: infants can attach to more than one person during the first year, for example to both mother and father. Harlow's experiments with monkeys demonstrated that attachment, contrary to Freud's hypothesis, is not based on the fulfillment of drives such as hunger (Response 2). The Strange Situation (Response 3) was developed by Ainsworth specifically to assess for quality of attachment. It involves leaving the child with the mother, introducing a stranger, having the mother leave and then return. Ainsworth proposed three types of attachment: secure, ambivalent, and avoidant

1.) An individual presents to a hospital emergency room with a flushed face, rambling speech, tachycardia, restlessness, and diuresis. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Diabetes b. Panic disorder c. Opioid intoxication d. Caffeine intoxication

a. Caffeine intoxication b. The symptoms described are classic symptoms of caffeine intoxication, which can result from consuming as little as three cups of coffee. Patients with diabetes (Response 1) often complain of diuresis (excessive urination) but not the other symptoms. Individuals with panic disorder (Response 2) may experience tachycardia, but not the other symptoms. Opioid intoxication (Response 3) is characterized by pupillary constriction, drowsiness, and slurred speech- none of the symptoms presented

1.) The shape of a z-score distribution: a. Is normal b. Is skewed c. Is flat (rectangular) d. Cannot be determined, since insufficient information has been given

a. Cannot be determined, since insufficient information has been given b. To answer this question, you need to keep in mind that the shape of a Z-score distribution is identical to (or follows) the shape of the raw score distribution. Since the shape of the raw score distribution is not given in this example, the best answer is Response 4. Flat or rectangular (Response 3) would be correct if the question asked about the shape of the distribution of percentile ranks

1.) Young children often lack the cognitive capacity to conserve. To cope with this inability, they often focus on the most salient aspect of a stimulus. This strategy is termed: a. Equilibration b. Centration c. Seriation d. Primary circular reaction

a. Centration a. The pre-operational child centers on only one aspect of an object or situation at a time. For example, the child can't understand that a mommy can also be a sister. Centration is also one component involved in the inability to conserve: the pre-operational child fails to understand that a tall, thing glass may actually hold the same amount of liquid as a short but stout glass. Here, the child centers or focuses only on the height of the glass, and reports that the t all glass holds more liquid. Equilibration (Response 1) is the need for balance between the person and the outside environment, as well as among the person's schemata. This need will determine the extent to which a child uses assimilation or accommodation. Seriation (Response 3) involves putting things in order, an easy task for the concrete operational child but not for the pre-operational child. Primary circular reactions (Response 4) occur early in the sensorimotor stage (1-4 months) when a child's own action stimulates the child to perform that action more. For example, sucking the thumb feels good which makes the child suck more which feels good and makes the child suck more, etc.

1.) In psychotherapy outcome research, the factors that appear most responsible for lack of improvement are: a. Therapist factors b. Therapist-client interactional factors c. Client factors d. Type of treatment factors

a. Client factors a. Psychotherapy outcome is most influenced by client factors, eg., diagnosis, motivation for change, distress, etc.

1.) According to Marcia, adolescents can be in one of four possible identity states. Which of the following best describes foreclosure? a. Commitment and resolution of crisis b. Commitment and absence of crisis c. Crisis and absence of commitment d. Absence of both crisis and commitment

a. Commitment and absence of crisis a. According to James Marcia, there are 4 possible identity statuses for adolescents. The adolescent in foreclosure commits himself or herself to a goal without exploring alternatives, thus there is a commitment with an absence of crisis. In identity achievement, the person has struggled and explored several options and developed goals and values. He or she has resolved the crisis, and made a commitment (Response 1). In moratorium, the person is actively struggling with exploring options and making a decision, but has not yet made a commitment. There is crisis and absence of commitment (Response 3). In identity diffusions, the adolescent lacks direction and is not seriously considering options or trying to develop goals, thus, there is an absence of both crisis and commitment (Response 4)

1.) Preadolescent sibling relationships are characterized by: a. Competitiveness/hostility b. Aggressiveness/passivity c. Loyalty/friendship d. Conflict/friendship

a. Conflict/friendship b. Research into sibling relationships in preadolescence indicates that these relationships are characterized by periods of both conflict and friendship (Response 4). Conflict is theorized to be the result of less emotional inhibition with one's siblings, which leads to more overt presentations of hostility. However, sibling preadolescent relationships also include periods of calm and friendship, which tend to occur in the presence of other family members while engaging in shared activities

1.) Kohlberg proposed three major levels of moral development. Which of the following corresponds to level 2? a. Punishment obedience orientation b. Conformity to please and gain approval c. Morality of contract and laws d. Morality of conscious

a. Conformity to please and gain approval a. Kohlberg's three major levels of moral development are each divided into two substages. The first major level is Preconventional Morality with an emphasis on compliance with rules to avoid punishment and get rewards. The two substages are Punishment-Obedience and Instrumental Hedonism. The second major level is Conventional Morality, with a focus on conforming to rules to get social approval. The 2 substages are Good Boy/Good Girl and Law and Order. The 3rd level is Postconventional Morality with two substages of Morality of Contract, Rights and Laws, and Morality of Conscience

1.) Your expertise is sought to help address theme-interference problems. You would most likely provide: a. Client-centered case consultation b. Consultee-centered case consultation c. Consultee-centered administrative consultation d. Program-centered administrative consultation

a. Consultee-centered case consultation a. In providing consultation, theme-interference problems are problems that the supervisee (or consultee) is experiencing, that can affect patients' progress. Thus, the type of consultation needed in this instance is consultee-centered case consultation

1.) A child with a specific learning disorder with impairment in reading is most likely to: a. Continue to have impairment in reading as an adult b. Have a low vocabulary score c. Have impaired vision d. Have a comorbid conduct disorder

a. Continue to have impairment in reading as an adult a. The most likely outcome for a child with a specific learning disorder with impairment in reading is to have continued problems in this area as an adult, although for some individuals the problems seems to resolve by adulthood. While individuals with conduct disorder frequently underachieve academically, and many are diagnosed with a specific learning disorder, it is not true that most individuals with a specific learning disorder have a comorbid conduct disorder (Ruling out Response 4)

1.) The highest rates of responding during acquisition of a new behavior are associated with which of the following schedules of reinforcement? a. Variable interval b. Variable ratio c. Continuous d. Contiguous

a. Continuous a. During acquisition of a new behavior, the highest rates of responding are associated with a schedule of continuous reinforcement, i.e., when behavior is reinforced every single time it occurs. Therefore, Response 3 is the correct answer. Keep in mind that problems associated with continuous schedules of reinforcement include satiation (people get so much reinforcement that they 'feel full' ), as well as the fact. That these schedules are very susceptible to extinction (have a low resistance to extinction). Therefore, while people are trained on continuous reinforcement schedules, these schedules are typically 'thinned,' or gradually changed to intermitted schedules of reinforcement. Of all the intermittent schedules, Response 2, the variable ratio results in the highest rates of responding. Response 4, contiguous, is not a schedule of reinforcement but has to do with classical conditioning and implies two stimuli being presented closely in time

1.) The part of the brain not fully developed at birth is the: a. Brainstem b. Cerebellum c. Cortex d. RAS

a. Cortex a. The cortex is the part of the brain that is not fully developed at birth. The brainstem (Response 1), cerebellum (Response 2), and RAS (Response 4) all involve functions that are necessary for life, and that are fully developed by the time of birth

1.) Masters and Johnson's technique of sensate focus is based on: a. Counterconditioning b. Aversive counterconditioning c. Positive reinforcement d. Negative reinforcement

a. Counterconditioning a. Sensate focus is a classical conditioning intervention that involves counterconditioning. In counterconditioning, a person learns a new response (e.g., pleasurable feelings) that is incompatible with a problematic response (e.g., performance anxiety). Aversive counterconditioning (Response 2) involves pairing a pleasurable but problematic conditioned stimulus (e.g., the taste of alcohol) with a more powerful, aversive unconditioned stimulus (e.g., vomiting because the person has taken Antabuse). Positive and negative reinforcement (Responses 3 & 4) are both forms of operant conditioning and are not the basis of sensate focus

1.) You are involved in your company's assessment center, and are responsible for evaluating managerial level employees for promotion. You are also responsible for the quarterly performance appraisals of management level employees. A potential problem in this situation is: a. The halo effect b. A recency effect c. Criterion contamination d. A central tendency bias

a. Criterion contamination c. Criterion contamination occurs when the criterion is subjectively scored, and t he rater has knowledge of t he employees' predictor scores. In this case, you are aware of how employees performed in the assessment center (a predictor of future managerial success) and then rate them on the criterion (quarterly performance appraisals). When criterion contamination occurs, scores on the criterion are influenced by one's knowledge of predictor scores. For example, those employees who did well in the assessment center are given higher quarterly appraisals than those who did poorly. Criterion contamination results in a spuriously high criterion- related validity coefficient. The halo effect involves generalizing from one characteristic of the person (e.g., she is attractive) to other aspects (e.g., she performs well at work) (Response 1). Recency biases occur when evaluations cover an extended period of time (e.g., one year) and the evaluator is most influenced by recent performance (e.g., within the last month or two). Quarterly evaluations would actually reduce the likelihood of a recency effect (Response 2). A central tendency bias occurs when a rater tends to rate all employees as about average (Response 4).

1.) A researcher is interested in the relationship between morality and criminal behavior among Christians. The research measures morality based on rate of church attendance, and finds that many of the non churchgoers have no criminal record. The best explanation for this finding is: a. Criterion contamination b. Criterion deficiency c. Criterion relevance d. Criterion-related validity

a. Criterion deficiency a. In research, the conceptual criterion is the theoretical construct that the researcher is attempting to measure, in this case, morality. In this research, morality is measured based on rate of church attendance, however, this criterion is deficient or lacking. In other words, as the researchers found, there are many moral people who do not attend church. Criterion relevance (Response 3) is the extent to which the actual criterion (e.g., church attendance) truly measures the conceptual criterion (e.g., morality); the greater the criterion deficiency, the less criterion relevance. Criterion contamination (Response 1) occurs when knowledge of predictor scores (e.g., performance on a pre-employment examination) affects criterions scores that are subjectively rated (e.g., work performance on a scale of 1 to 10). Criterion-related validity (Response 4) is the degree of correlation between the predictor and criterion

1.) The Taylor-Russell tables are used to evaluate incremental validity, the benefit of using a test for improving selection decisions. The key variables that the tables take into account include base rate, selection ratio and: a. Construct validity b. Criterion-related validity c. Test-retest reliability d. Internal consistency reliability

a. Criterion-related validity a. There are 3 key variables that affect incremental validity: base rate, selection ratio, and criterion related validity. Base rate is the rate of successful hiring without using a test. A moderate base rate optimizes incremental validity. Selection ratio is the ratio of number of openings to number of applicants, and a low selection ratio optimizes incremental validity. The criterion-related validity of the test is t he correlation between scores on the test and scores on some outcome measure of performance or productivity. The higher the criterion-related validity, the better the incremental validity. While construct validity, test-retest reliability, and internal consistency reliability might all be important, it is specifically criterion-related that directly influences incremental validity

1.) Elizabeth Kubler- Ross described a sequence of stages people typically go through when confronted with a life-threatening illness. The first stage involves: a. Anger b. Disbelief c. Bargaining d. Superficial acceptance

a. Disbelief a. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross' five stages are: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. These stages may be remembered by the acronym "DABDA." The first stage of denial involves disbelief

1.) During an intake evaluation, a client informs you that she has had sexual relations with her previous therapist. You happen to know this therapist personally. You should: a. Discuss this with the therapist without revealing the client's name b. Recommend that your client file an ethics complaint c. Discuss available options with your client d. Consider the diagnostic implications of her behavior

a. Discuss available options with your client a. In this scenario, you may have narrowed down your choice to Responses 2 & 3. Discussing available options, which would probably include the option of filing an ethics charge, would be better than a direct recommendation that the person file the complaint (Response 2). Discussing the sexual misconduct directly with the therapist (Response 1) would be a breach of confidentiality. Considering the diagnostic implications (Response 4) insufficiently addresses the ethical issues here

1.) The therapist ingredient that contributes the most to successful therapy outcome is: a. Experience b. Personal therapy c. Empathy d. Gender

a. Empathy c. Of all the therapist ingredients that contribute to success, empathy has been found to be among the most powerful. Experience (Response 1) does not seem to have too much bearing on outcome, and when you think about doing it, doing therapy for 10 or 20 years doesn't necessarily make one "good at it."

1.) In conducting group therapy, the therapist: a. Is responsible for ensuring confidentiality among group members b. Plays no role in ensuring confidentiality, as clearly this is not possible to enforce c. Emphasizes the importance of confidentiality initially and periodically during the course of treatment, but keeps in mind that patients are actually on an honor system d. Holds privilege for group members

a. Emphasizes the importance of confidentiality initially and periodically during the course of treatment, but keeps in mind that patients are actually on an honor system a. Confidentiality is a sticky issue in groups, in that there is no way to actually enforce it or guarantee it to any member. The therapist is responsible for emphasizing the importance of confidentiality at the outset, and periodically reminding patients about it

1.) A therapist advertises that the first therapy session is free. Such practice is: a. Ethically dubious b. Unethical c. Ethical, provided there is no coercion or undue influence d. Illegal and unethical

a. Ethical, provided there is no coercion or undue influence a. Psychologists are allowed to advertise and offer the first session (consultation) for free, provided that there is no coercion or undue influence to get the client to continue

1.) African American families characteristically: a. Are matriarchal b. Evidence role flexibility c. Are small and isolated d. Have as many economic opportunities as their Caucasian counterparts

a. Evidence role flexibility a. African American families frequently demonstrate role flexibility. Families tend to be egalitarian and rely on extended family for support. It is a myth that African American families tend to be matriarchal (Response 1)

1.) A child is diagnosed with Type I Diabetes. As an adolescent, he is most likely to: a. Exhibit increased self-reliance and compliance with the prescribed diabetic regimen b. Exhibit increased self-reliance and decreased compliance with the prescribed diabetic regimen c. Show increased concern about issues of mortality d. Rely increasingly on his parents for support and guidance

a. Exhibit increased self-reliance and decreased compliance with the prescribed diabetic regimen a. Adolescents have gained more of the skills and maturity necessary for increased self-reliance in their medical regime, and also usually experience a strong drive to be as independent as possible. Similarly, just as adolescents tend to be decreasingly compliant in generally, they become decreasingly compliant with their diabetic regime. Although we often think adolescents as somewhat morose and brooding on issues such as mortality (Response 3), research suggests that it is during middle age that people become more concerned with mortality

1.) A treatment of choice for OCD involves: a. Systematic desensitization b. Exposure with response prevention c. Aversive counterconditioning d. Supportive psychotherapy

a. Exposure with response prevention a. An evidence-based treatment for OCD with strong research support is exposure with response prevention (Response 2). Cognitive therapy also has strong research support for OCD. Systematic desensitization (Response 1) involves exposing individuals to fear-evoking images and thoughts while pairing the exposure with relaxation. While systematic desensitization is still used in the treatment of specific phobias, it is not recommended as the first line of t treatment when a client is willing to try in vivo exposure. Aversive counterconditioning (Response 3) although somewhat controversial, may be used to treat maladaptive behaviors such as excessive drinking or smoking. Antabuse is an example of aversion therapy. Supportive psychotherapy (Response 4) may be useful as an adjunct for patients with chronic mental illness (e.g., Schizophrenia) or for patients experiencing life transitions (e.g., a divorce, major medical illness, death of a family member, etc.)

1.) From an operant learning perspective, it is best to manage children's tantrums through: a. Positive punishment b. Negative reinforcement c. Extinction d. Shaping

a. Extinction c. Children often continue to tantrum because the attention they garner acts as reinforcement for them. A typical behavioral recommendation therefore is extinction, withholding the attention or other reinforcement. After extinction begins, an extinction burst (or response burst) typically occurs, during which the tantrums first intensity. Over time, however, the behavior decreases. Negative reinforcement (Response 2), by virtue of being reinforcement, increases the likelihood of a behavior. Positive punishment (Response 1), which involves some form of pain or aversive stimulus (e.g., hitting a child), is generally discouraged in parenting. Shaping (Response 4) would be appropriate for helping develop a new and desired behavior; in this example, an undesirable behavior is the focus of treatment

1.) Group polarization occurs when: a. A non-cohesive group splits into factions b. Majority members ally against minority members c. Group members make more extreme decisions than they would have individually d. A new member enters who unbalances the homeostasis

a. Group members make more extreme decisions than they would have individually a. Response 3 describes group polarization, also known as response polarization. The other responses are distracters

1.) You are seeing a women and her young son in family therapy. Your patient complains that her son suffers from repeated unexplained rashes, and notes that she has taken him to multiple doctors with no results. A collateral interview with her ex-husband who has joint physical custody reveals that when the boy is with him, he never suffers from rashes. This is a possible example of: a. Illness anxiety disorder b. Factitious disorder imposed on another c. Secondary gain d. Munchausen syndrome

a. Factitious disorder imposed on another a. This scenario represents a possible case of factitious disorder imposed on another (Response 2), previously called factitious disorder by proxy. The major feature of this disorder is the deliberate feigning of medical symptoms or induction or injury or disease in a dependent under the care of the individual with the disorder (the mother, in this case). The goal is to assume the sick role, or in the case of factitious disorder imposed on another, to have the dependent person assume the sick role. Secondary gain (Response 3) is an external motivator such as financial compensation or avoiding/missing work. In contrast to malingering, a diagnosis of factitious disorder can only be made in the absence of secondary gain. Munchausen syndrome (Response 4) now called factitious disorder, includes symptoms that are predominatly physical. Factitious disorder can include seeking of multiple invasive procedures and operations sometimes with serious risk to life. Illness Anxiety disorder (response 1) involves a preoccupation with having or developing a serious illness. Somatic symptoms are mild or not present, and there is significant anxiety about health

1.) In conducting an ABAB design, the researcher would be concerned with: a. History and maturation b. Regression and diffusion c. Failure of IV to return to baseline d. Failure of DV to return to baseline

a. Failure of DV to return to baseline An ABAB design is a type of single subject design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention phase (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented again and the person is repeatedly measured (B). ABAB designs offer good control over history and maturation (Response 1). Regression and diffusion (Response 2) are not of concern here. A key problem with an ABAB design is the possibility that the outcome measure may fail to return to baseline once the person has been exposed to the first part of treatment.

1.) According to the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding "fee splitting" between a psychologist and other professionals? a. Fee splitting is always unethical b. Fee splitting is permissible if it is based on services provided c. Fee splitting is permissible if it is air and non-exploitative d. Fee splitting between psychologists based on referrals is unethical, but fee splitting with other professionals based on referrals may be acceptable

a. Fee splitting is permissible if it is based on services provided a. The APA Ethics Code explicitly prohibits fee splitting between professionals when it is based on referrals, e.g., a referral source receives 5% of a patient's on-going fees (Response 4). The Ethics Code does not prohibit it in all circumstances (Response 1), however, specifically allowing it when it is based "on services provided." For example, a psychologists and a psychological assistant may engage in fee splitting based on provision of supervision, office space, etc. There is no explicit provision that fee splitting be "fair and non-exploitative" (Repsone 3), although that certainly is the spirit of the code

1.) To optimize the teaching of inner city children by inner city teachers you should: a. Offer training on the impact of socioeconomics on learning b. Allow teachers flexibility in designing the curriculum c. Focus on increasing teacher's expectancies of children's performance d. Focus on giving teachers a realistic sense of likely performance

a. Focus on increasing teacher's expectancies of children's performance c. When teachers have a high expectation of students' performance, student performance is maximized. Mote that you might have guessed this question correctly by applying your knowledge of self-fulfilling prophecies

1.) Autism Spectrum Disorder is diagnosed about: a. Equally in males and females b. Two times more often in females c. Two times more often in males d. Four times more often in males

a. Four times more often in males b. According to the DSM-5, ASD is diagnosed 4 times more often in males than females. Disorders that are about equally common in males and females include schizophrenia and Bipolar I disorder (Response 1). The rate of major depressive disorder is 1.5 to 3 times higher in females than males, beginning in early adolescence (Response 2). According to the DSM-5, ADHD is more common in males than females with a ration of about 2:1 (Response 3)

1.) A 5-year-old boy strongly desires to be a girl. He exhibits a strong preference for dressing in girls' clothing, role-playing as female, playing with girls, and playing with stereotypically female toys (e.g., dolls). His presentation is most consistent with: a. Normal childhood exploration b. A paraphilic disorder c. Gender identity disorder d. Gender dysphoria

a. Gender dysphoria b. The boy's presentation is consistent with the DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria (Response 4), which was called gender identity disorder in the DSM-IV (Ruling out response 3). While it is common for young children to take on opposite sex role in play and even dress up in clothing of the opposite sex, the boy's stated desire to be a girl along with his strong preferences for female clothing, playmates, and stereotypically female toys are characteristic of gender dysphoria. A paraphilic disorder (e.g., pedophilic disorder, exhibitionistic disorder) involves intense and persistent sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors that involve nonhuman objects, the suffering or humiliation of oneself or one's partner, or children or other non-consenting persons, causing distress, impairment, or harm (Ruling out Response 2)

1.) The term professional psychologist is used to describe someone who: a. Does psychotherapy b. Has a doctorate in psychology from a regionally accredited school c. Has a doctorate in psychology and is licensed in that state d. Is license-eligible

a. Has a doctorate in psychology from a regionally accredited school a. The term professional psychologist describes a person with a doctorate in psychology from a regionally accredited school. One does not need to be licensed in order to be designated as a professional psychologist. For example, a person may call herself a Social Psychologist or Developmental Psychologist without having a license. Many academicians are designated as psychologists and never get licensed. One my not call oneself a "clinical psychologist" without a license

1.) According to Kohlber's stages of gender identify, a child who identifies a boy with long hair as a girl, even though she seems him as a boy when his hair is short, is in what stage a. Gender labeling b. Gender stability c. Gender consistency d. Gender confusion

a. Gender labeling a. Kohlberg outlined three stages of the development of gender identity in children. In the 1st stage, gender labeling (Response 1, the correct answer), children identify others as male or female based on physical appearances such as clothing or hair style and do not recognize that gender is stable over time. Thus, as physical characteristics change (e.g., hair length), gender changes. In the 2nd stage, gender stability (Response 2), children recognize that gender is stable over time (e.g., boys will grow up to be daddies), however, there is still some confusion as to whether superficial appearance serves as a way of identifying gender. Finally, in the 3rd stage, gender consistency (Response 3), children fully understand the nature of gender as permanent across time and situation. Gender confusion (Response 4) is a non-clinical term that refers to confusion about whether one is truly male or female

1.) A culturally encapsulated therapist: a. Is mindful and sensitive to race/culture b. Has advantages their patients do not have, based on race c. Generalizes based on race/culture d. Typically treats patients who share the same cultural background with the therapist.

a. Generalizes based on race/culture a. A culturally encapsulated therapist is someone who tends to make inappropriate generalizations about a particular group of clients based on race or culture (Response 3). More specifically, the therapist makes narrow assumptions about reality, is insensitive to cultural variations among individuals, disregards evidence disconfirming the superiority of the dominant culture, resorts to technique-oriented strategies and short-term solutions, and judges others according to t he encapsulated therapist's self-reference criteria. This is contrasted with culturally competent therapists (Response 1), who are aware of their own cultural values as well as the culture of their patients, and work to acquire the skills and knowledge to provide appropriate and effective treatment. White privilege (Response 2) describes the social advantages, frequently unacknowledged, that white people have over other racial groups

1.) Compared to subjects who are not hypnotized, subjects in a hypnotic state: a. Generally have enhanced memory recollection b. Generally produce fewer false memories and more true memories c. Generally produce more false memories with a high degree of confidence d. Show equivalent rates of memory distortion and confabulation

a. Generally produce more false memories with a high degree of confidence a. Hypnosis appears to have no ability to enhance accurate memory recollection (Response 1), but contributes to memory distortions in a variety of ways. Hypnotized subjects tend to produce more false memories (ruling out Response 2 and 4), are more likely to confabulate (i.e., fill in memory gaps with made-up information), and t end to report their inaccurate memories with a high degree of confidence

1.) The correlation between IQ scores and academic performance is: a. Greater in elementary and high school, and smaller in college and graduate school b. Smaller in elementary and high school and greater in college and graduate school c. Relatively stable across different levels of schooling d. Close to 0.0

a. Greater in elementary and high school, and smaller in college and graduate school a. If you did not know the answer to this question, you could have always guessed it right by applying the concept of restriction of range (which crops up frequently in one form or another on the exam). Correlation (along with reliability and validity) is always lower when the range is restricted for one or both variables. In this question, elementary and high schools include just about everyone, but college and graduate school restrict the range to include only the brighter students; so we would expect higher correlations between elementary and high school students on any variable than we would between college and graduate students on the same variable

1.) Which of the following has significally affected the use of selection tests in industry? a. Larry P. Versus Riles (1979) b. Debra Versus Turlington (1981) c. Griggs versus Duke Power (1971) d. Hobson Versus Hansen (1967)

a. Griggs versus Duke Power (1971) c. The use of selection tests in industry has been influenced by the case of Griggs versus the Duke Power Company, in which it was ruled that certain tests, such as the Wonderlic, were unfair to use in making decisions about hiring and promotion. Broad, general testing was faulted, and testing was required to measure the specific skills required by a particular job. In Larry P vs. Riles (Response 1), the court ruled that intelligence testing unfairly discriminated against minority students, resulting in too many being labeled as needing special education. As a result, intelligence testing along can no longer be used in assigning minority students to special education services

1.) The best strategy for decreasing tension between opposing factions is to: a. Provide lectures and discussions about the need for cooperation b. Have both factions participate in a social function together c. Have both factions work together to achieve a goal neither can accomplish alone d. Give both factions sufficient space

a. Have both factions work together to achieve a goal neither can accomplish alone c. This question is based on Sherif's findings in the Robber's Cave study. The only approach that was found to be successful in decreasing intergroup hostility (i.e., hostility between two opposing factions) was the introduction of a superordinate goal, a goal that could only be achieved with the cooperation of both factions After being released from the hospital, a child is returned to her regular

1.) A doctoral student gets business cards and includes on his cards that he is a Ph.D. candidate and that he accepts patients on a sliding scale. According to the APA Ethics Code: a. He can advertise his fee schedule, but listing his candidate status is unethical b. His can list both his fee schedule and his candidate status c. It is unethical to list either his feed schedule or his candidate status d. He can mention his candidate status, but it is unethical to advertise his fee schedule

a. He can advertise his fee schedule, but listing his candidate status is unethical a. According to the APA Ethics Code, Section 5.01, which covers advertising and public statements, psychologists should avoid making false or deceptive public statements. In this case, advertising one's doctoral status would be considered confusing to the lay public, as they would see the degree and may not know that 'candidate' designates a student. Listing the fee schedule is considered ethical. Therefore, he can advertise his fee schedule but not his candidate status (Response 1)

1.) According to Fiedler's LPC theory: a. High LPCs do best in moderately favorable situations while low LPCs do best in either highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations b. Low LPCs do best in moderately favorable situations while high LPCs do best in either highly favorably or highly unfavorable situations c. High LPCs do best in highly favorable situations, while low LPCs do best in unfavorable situations d. High LPCs are better at increasing satisfaction, while low LPCs are better at increasing productivity.

a. High LPCs do best in moderately favorable situations while low LPCs do best in either highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations a. This is another one of those things you just need to know. Fiedler's LPC theory states that high LPCs do best in moderately favorable situations, while low LPCs do best at the extremes (either highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations). This is a curvilinear relationship. An "LPC" or "least preferred coworker" means the worker with whom the leader works least well. If the leader nevertheless rates these coworkers highly, the leader is considered to be a "high LPC" leader and to be relationship-oriented

1.) A dog has learned to jump when he hears a clap because the experimented had repeatedly clapped right before giving the dog an electric shock. The experimenter now says "bad dog" right before clapping. Eventually, the dog will jump whenever he hears the experimenter yell "bad dog." This experiment is a paradigm of: a. High-order conditioning b. Stimulus generalization c. Unethical treatment of animals in research d. Pseudoconditioning

a. High-order conditioning a. Higher order conditioning involves pairing the conditioned stimulus (CS) with another neutral stimulus that is typically unrelated (e.g., pairing the clap with saying bad dog). At this level, it is also referred to as second-order conditioning. Stimulus generalization (Response 2) involves generalizing from the conditioned stimulus (CS) to another similar neutral stimuli (e.g., generalizing from a clap to other loud noises). In stimulus generalization, the response to the similar stimulus is not intentionally trained, as it was in this scenario. Pseudoconditioning (Response 4) occurs when a response is elicited to a neutral stimulus that has not been paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). It may be the result of inadvertent pairings (e.g., the dog jumping when the experimented walks into the room). The unethical treatment of animals (Response 3) may or may not be occurring in this example, but this question is not addressing the issue of ethics.

1.) Which of the following is most correlated with "successful aging?" a. Higher socioeconomic status b. More familial support c. Higher level of activity d. Religious faith

a. Higher level of activity a. Successful aging is most associated with a high activity level.

1.) A man is undergoing a test of his blood cortisol levels. One reason for this may be: a. He is a baseball player being tested for recent steroid use b. His stress level is being monitored c. His kidney functionating is being monitored d. He is undergoing a test for illicit drug use

a. His stress level is being monitored a. Cortisol testing measures the level of corticosteroids in the blood, saliva, or urine. Blood cortisol tests are used to monitor stress levels (Response 2), as well as to test adrenal function in suspected cases of Cushing's or Addison's diseases. Cortisol would not be monitored in a test for anabolic steroids (as distinguished from corticosteroids). Anabolic steroids are artificial forms of testosterone which are tested for using urinalysis (Ruling out Response 1). Drug tests are usually performed by checking for traces of specific illicit substances such as opiates, amphetamines, or marijuana (Ruling out response 4). Blood cortisol levels does not reflect level of kidney functioning (ruling out Response 3)

1.) Researchers have found that individuals with Type ! personality have a higher incidence of cardiovascular disease than persons with Type B personality. Of the characteristics of the Typa A personality, the one that is most predictive of heart disease is: a. Hostility b. Impatience c. Perfectionism d. Competitiveness

a. Hostility a. In the 1950's Friedman and Rosenham's large scale Framingham studies found that individuals with Type A personalities (stressed, hard-driving, impatient, competitive) were more likely to suffer from heart disease than their more laid back Type B personality counterparts. Subsequent research has suggested that of the various characteristics of individuals with Type A personality, it is level of hostility and conflicts about expressing anger that are most predictive of cardiovascular disease

1.) Self-instruction is most useful for individuals with: a. Depression b. Phobias c. Hyperactivity d. Borderline personality disorder

a. Hyperactivity a. Self-instructional therapy, developed by Meichenbaum, is an evidenced based cognitive-behavioral treatment. The emphasis is on teaching the individual a variety of self-statements that can be used by the individual to either control his or her behavior or perform certain tasks. The theoretical basis was derived from Lev Vygotsky's and Alekansndr Luria's work in the late 1950s on the functional relationship between language and behavior. This approach has been widely implemented and is especially useful with hyperactive and impulsive individuals.

1.) Single subject designs involve an approach that can be described as: a. Ipsative b. Idiographic c. Normative d. Nomothetic

a. Idiographic a. Idiographic is the term used to describe single subject approaches while nomothetic (Response 4) describes group approaches. Normative data (Response 3) refer to data that can be compared both within and across subjects. Ipsative data (Response 1), results from a forced-choice format. It can only describe relative strengths or interests within a subject and cannot be used for comparisons across subjects

1.) Which of the following terms refers to a disease of unknown origin? a. Iatrogenic b. Idiopathic c. Idiosyncratic d. Nocebic

a. Idiopathic a. When the cause of a disease is unknown, it is referred to as idiopathic. Latrogenic (Response 1) is a very important medical term that refers to illness or complications, especially infections that are caused in the course of receiving medical treatment (e.g., a patient contracts TB while in the hospital). Idiosyncratic (Response 3) is a non-technical term for unusual, eccentric, or unique responses. A Nocebo (Response 4) is something that should be ineffective but which causes symptoms of ill health; a nocebo is the opposite of a placebo. A nocebo effect is an ill effect caused by the suggestion or belief that something is harmful (e.g., expectation of unpleasant side effects leading to experiencing them despite receiving a sugar pill)

1.) Which of the following scenarios will tend to increase the standard error of the mean? a. Increasing the SD of the population and decreasing sample size b. Decreasing the SD of the population and increasing sample size c. Increasing both the SD of the population and sample size d. Decreasing both the SD of the population and sample size

a. Increasing the SD of the population and decreasing sample size a. The standard error of the mean has a direct relationship with the SD of the population and an indirect relationship with sample size. The standard error of the mean increases when the SD of the population is increased and sample size is reduced

1.) In attempting to reduce the incidence of HIV, it should be kept in mind that: a. Knowledge of facts changes behavior b. It is harder to change the behavior or a large group than a small group c. Informal norms can play a critical role in behavior d. Negative reinforcement is the underlying principle in the acquisition of HIV

a. Informal norms can play a critical role in behavior c. You might have been able to answer this question correctly just be relying on your own experience and common sense. Individual behavior is highly influenced by the informal norms of the group. For example, a teenager is profoundly influenced by the norms of his/her circle of friends. Research has shown that, unfortunately, increasing a person's factual knowledge is not a potent motivator for change (Response 1). It may be true that it is harder to change the behavior of a large group than a small group, but this face is not highly relevant to stopping the spread of HIV. Response 4 doesn't really make much sense

1.) A person earns "idiosyncrasy credits" by: a. Being "likeably eccentric." b. Initially conforming to group norms c. Reciprocally tolerating idiosyncrasy in colleagues d. Voicing his or her opinion in a consistent, logical manner

a. Initially conforming to group norms a. Idiosyncrasy credits refer to a group's tolerance of an individual's disregard for group norms. They can be earned by initially conforming to the group norms (Response 2). Response 4 refers to the manner in which a minority group member can behave in order to maximize the chances of his or her opinion being accepted by the majority

1.) According to the Tenets of Alcoholics Anonymous, addiction: a. Is an overlearned habit b. Is a disease c. Is merely societal mislabeling d. Results from inadequate self-worth

a. Is a disease a. Alcoholics Anonymous adheres to a disease model of addiction. By contrast, Marlatt's approach to managing addiction, which is cognitive behavioral (skills for relapse prevention are taught), views addiction primarily as an overlearned habit (Response 1). The concept of mislabeling (Response 3) is associated with Thomas Szasz, whose somewhat controversial book "The Myth of Mental Illness," argues that psychiatric diagnoses are labels devoid of significance. While many alcoholics have low self-esteem, it is not believed that low self-esteem causes addiction (Response 4)

1.) A psychologist works in a small town, where she is the only psychologist. Her ex-boyfriend requests treatment from her, for a recently developed specific phobia. She has not been intimate with him for over 10 years. If she consents to treat him, she: a. Is acting ethically b. Is acting unethically c. May be acting unethically, depending on the circumstances d. The issue is not covered in the ethical principles

a. Is acting unethically a. The Ethics Code clearly states that psychologists never accept former sexual partners as therapy patients

1.) A lecturer who is a psychologist is asked by a member of the audience for a referral for an alcohol treatment center. The lecturer offers the referral. The person later files ethics charges against the psychologist because the alcohol program was mediocre. The psychologist: a. Is guilty of an ethics violation b. May be guilty of an ethics violation c. Is not guilty of an ethics violation d. Is not guilty of an ethics violation only if he made clear initially that the referral was solely informational

a. Is not guilty of an ethics violation a. A lecturer who only gives information to an audience member about a program is not responsible for the actual program or outcome

1.) Research has found that when it comes to the disruptive effects of noise in the workplace a. It is not the noise itself, but whether people think they can turn off the source of the noise b. Intermittent noise is less disruptive than continuous noise c. Noise it especially disruptive with simple, repetitive tasks d. Noise has been found to have little impact in the workplace

a. It is not the noise itself, but whether people think they can turn off the source of the noise a. The research on noise in the workplace has found that it is not the noise itself, but rather the perception of control that is important. People who perceive that they have control are not bothered by noise. It has also been found that continuous noise in the workplace is less disruptive than intermittent noise (Response 2), and that noise is generally less disruptive with simple, repetitive tasks (Response 3)

1.) In comparing job enrichment to job enlargement a. Both would likely satisfy motivator needs b. Job enrichment involves more responsibility while job enlargement increases variety c. Job enrichment increases variety of tasks, while job enlargement increases decision-making d. Both are thought to impact satisfaction and performance

a. Job enrichment involves more responsibility while job enlargement increases variety a. Job enlargement simply involves increasing the variety of tasks, but not responsibility or degree of challenge. Research has found that job enlargement increases satisfaction but does not improve performance. In contrast, job enrichment involves increasing employees' responsibility and involvement. It has been found to increase both satisfaction and performance.

1.) In Brown vs. Board of Education (1954) the Supreme court ruled that racial segregation of children in public schools was a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment. Testimony was presented based on innovative psychological tests using dolls to identify harm inflicted on the plaintiff children due to segregation. Who conducted these tests? a. Thurgood Marshall b. John Davis c. Kenneth Clark d. Linda Brown

a. Kenneth Clark c. In Brown vs. Board of Education, the NAACPP took up the case on behalf of Linda Brown (Response 4), a black girl attending 5th grade in the public schools in Topeka, Kansas, who was denied admission into a white elementary school. Thurgood Marshall was the NAACP counsel (Response 1), and John Davis (Response 2) argued on behalf of the defendant school officials. It was professor Kenneth Clark of the City College of New York who created and performed innovative psychological tests using dolls

1.) Radiation treatment for children with tumors in the cerebellum (cerebellar astrocytomas) may result in: a. Learning problems b. Impaired visuospatial abilities c. Memory problems d. Apraxias

a. Learning problems a. Among childhood brain tumors, 15-25% are cerebellar astrocytomas, which can be either benign or malignant. Chemotherapy is usually the preferred mode of treatment to avoid the problematic side effects of radiation. In young children, radiation can cause learning problems as well as reduction in growth. Other common side effects of radiation treatment for cerebellar astrocytomas include fatigue, skin rashes, and decreases appetite.

1.) Damage to the temporal lobe is most likely to affect which type of memory function? a. Short term explicit memory b. Long term explicit memory c. Short term implicit memory d. Long term implicit memory

a. Long term explicit memory a. It is always difficult to make generalizations about complex functions like memory, but temporal lobe damage (and brain damage in general) does not typically result in damage to implicit memory (Responses 3 & 4). Implicit memory refers to memories that don't require conscious recollection, like driving a car or playing the piano. Explicit memory involves the conscious recollection of facts and autobiographical events. Temporal lobe damage generally results in problems forming long-term memories. The individual with damage can remember things for a short period of time (Response 1) but cannot hold onto the information or consolidate it into long-term memory. Left temporal lobe lesions result in impaired memory for verbal material, while right temporal lobe lesions result in impaired recall of non-verbal material such as music and drawings.

1.) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is most commonly used in treating: a. Major depressive disorder, severe, with psychotic features b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Schizophrenia d. A paraphilic disorder

a. Major depressive disorder, severe, with psychotic features a. Electroconvulsive therapy is one of the most studied and most effective treatments for selected severe mental illness such as major depression with psychotic features. While it has also been shown to be an effective form of treatment for schizophrenia accompanied by catatonia, extreme depression, mania, or other affective components, it is used much less frequently in the treatment of schizophrenia

1.) As a psychologist, you begin a sexual relationship with one of your former clients. This behavior: a. Is unethical and illegal b. Is unethical c. Is ethical d. May be ethical

a. May be ethical b. The Ethics code states that it may be ethical to engage in sexual intimacies with a former therapy patient provided that at least two years have passed since the end of therapy and the psychologist can demonstrate that there has been no exploitation in light of seven factors (e.g., nature and duration of therapy, patient's current mental status, etc.)

1.) A child was classically conditioned to be afraid of a white rat. The child now seems to be fearful of white rabbits as well. This is an example of: a. Response generalization b. Mediated generalization c. Avoidance behavior d. Skinnerian conditioning

a. Mediated generalization a. Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization. In this example, the white rat is a conditioned stimulus. The child has generalized the response of fear to other similar stimuli such as write rabbits. What has changed? Was it the stimulus or response? The response of fear has remained the same, but there has been generalization from the stimulus that elicits fear. Thus, the phenomenon occurring here is stimulus generalization. Keep in mind that many phobias (e.g., agoraphobia) involve stimulus generalization. Response generalization (Response 1) actually falls into the domain of operant conditioning. Response generalization involves the person or animal displaying responses similar to those that have been reinforced. For example, a dog is reinforced by his owner when he rolls on his back in a rather cute way. The dog then displays other 'cute' behavior in an attempt to get more reinforcement. Avoidance behavior (Response 3) is an operant conditioning paradigm in which a person learns that emitting certain behaviors can prevent negative consequences from occurring. For example, you pay your bills on time to avoid paying late fees and penalities. Skinnerian conditioning (Response 4), or operant conditioning, is not relevant here because we are not looking at the contingencies of the behavior (i.e., reward and punishment)

1.) Research on crowding has shown that: a. Crowding tends to increase arousal for negative emotions but decrease arousal for positive emotions b. Men are more affected by crowding t han women c. The effects of crowding are independent of other variable such as noise and temperature d. The effects of crowding are not mediated by cultural variables

a. Men are more affected by crowding than women a. Men are generally more affected by crowding than women. Crowding tends to heighten overall arousal for both positive and negative emotions (Response 1). Variables such as noise and temperature do influence the effects of crowding (Response 3). Cultural variables also significantly influence crowding effects (Response 4), in that culture helps determine the amount of personal space with which an individual feels comfortable

1.) Individuals with antisocial personality disorder are most influenced by: a. Physical punishment b. Embarrassment c. Money d. Medications

a. Money a. It has been found that money is one of the things that most influences a person with antisocial personality disorder. Physical punishment (Response 1) and embarrassment (Response 2) have little impact

1.) Diseases that are X-Linked are: a. More common in men than women b. More common in women than men c. About equally prevalent in men and women d. More common in adults than children

a. More common in men than women a. Diseases that are X-linked (such as color blindness) are much, much more common in males than females. If a mother is a carrier and the father is not color blind, each son has a 50% change of being color blind. The daughters in this scenario can only be carriers and will not be color blind

1.) Which of the following statements best summarizes the attitude of the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) toward multiple relationships? a. It is unethical to enter into a multiple relationship that can be avoided b. Multiple relationships that cannot be avoided may be ethically permissible if they do not impair the psychologist's functioning or rick harm or exploitation c. Multiple relationships that do not impair the psychologist's functioning or risk harm or exploitation are not unethical d. Multiple relationships are not inherently unethical unless they violate other ethical standards against risking harm or exploitation to clients

a. Multiple relationships that do not impair the psychologist's functioning or risk harm or exploitation are not unethical a. The 2002 Ethics Code states that "multiple relationships that would not reasonably be expected to cause impairment or risk exploitation or harm are not unethical." There is no stipulation that multiple relationship should generally be avoided (Response 1 & 2). The ethical standard on multiple relationships specifies the conditions for acceptable multiple relationships and does not refer to other standards (Response 4)

1.) Response cost is an example of a. Negative reinforcement b. Negative punishment c. Positive punishment d. Operant extinction

a. Negative punishment a. Response cost occurs when someone loses something (e.g., a token, privileges) for misbehavior. Since response cost involves taking something away, it is considered "negative." Since it is designed to decrease an unacceptable behavior, it is "punishment." Keep in mind that negative reinforcement (Response 1) involves removing something aversive to increase, not decrease behavior. Positive punishment (Response 3) involves applying something aversive (e.g., a slap, a shock) to decrease behavior. Operant extinction (Response 4) involves withholding reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior

1.) A mother continuously nags her sons to take out the trash until he finally does. This is an example of: a. Positive reinforcement b. Positive punishment c. Negative reinforcement d. Negative punishment

a. Negative reinforcement a. Because the mother nags the child in an attempt to increase the child's behavior (or taking out the garbage), we are looking at a paradigm of reinforcement. Once the child takes out the garbage, it is assumed the mother stops nagging. Because the mother removes an aversive stimulus (nagging), we are looking at negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement involves the removal of an aversive stimulus of nagging (negative) in an attempt to increase behavior (reinforcement). Negative reinforcement is a form of relief; in t his case, the boy is relieved of his mother's nagging

1.) The thalamus is best described as: a. The master endocrine gland b. The seat of consciousness c. The relay station for all senses except olfaction d. The house of the somatosensory cortex

a. The relay station for all senses except olfaction a. An all-time favorite on the licensing exam, the thalamus integrates and processes all sensory information except for olfaction (i.e., smell). The pituitary is considered the master endocrine gland (Response 1), as it releases hormones that activates other endocrine glands. The parietal lobes house the somatosensory cortex (Response 4). There is no one brain structure considered to be the seat of consciousness (Response 2)

1.) A student acts in a disruptive manner and only stops when the teacher yells at her. The teacher's behavior of yelling is under control of: a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment

a. Negative reinforcement a. This question may be a bit tricky because it sounds like it's focusing on the student's behavior, but it's actually asking about the teacher's behavior. The target behavior here is the teacher's yelling. One must always look at whether something is added (positive) or removed (negative) after the target behavior is emitted. In this case, something is removed; the child stops the disruptive behavior. To clarify whether reinforcement or punishment is occurring, we need to know whether the teacher's behavior will increase or continue over time (reinforcement) or will decrease over time (punishment). As any teacher will tell you, if yelling works to reduce disruptive behavior, the teacher is going to yell more. Whenever the teacher yells, an aversive stimulus is removed (i.e., disruptive behavior stops). So what we have here is negative reinforcement. The student's behavior, incidentally, is under the control of positive punishment. When the student behaves in a disruptive manner, the teacher yells. Yelling is the addition of an aversive stimulus (positive), and it serves to decrease the disruptive behavior over time (punishment)

1.) In comparing minorities and non-minorities in terms of therapy: a. No differences have been found between minorities and non-minorities b. No differences have been found in terms of outcome, however, minorities are more likely to prematurely terminate c. It's best to match the patient with a therapist of the same ethnicity d. Minorities prefer a more directive stance than non-minorities

a. No differences have been found in terms of outcome, however, minorities are more likely to prematurely terminate a. Research has found that minorities prematurely terminate more often than non-minorities; however, if minorities stay in treatment, they seem to do as well as non-minorities. There is no clear research support for matching the ethnicity of therapists with that of their patients (Response 3). Different minority groups demonstrate different preferences for degree of directiveness (Response 4)

1.) According to the DSM-5, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) usually begins in adolescence or early adulthood, and is overall slightly more common in females than males. Which of the following statements best describes the incidence of OCD in children? a. OCD occurs more commonly in males b. OCD occurs more commonly in females c. OCD is about equally common in males and females d. There has not been sufficient research to date to ascertain the incidence of OCD in children

a. OCD occurs more commonly in males a. Males have an earlier age of onset of OCD than females, with nearly 25% of males having an onset before age 10. As a result, males are more commonly affected in childhood.

1.) Vision is to hearing as: a. Temporal lobe is to occipital lobe b. Occipital lobe is to parietal lobe c. Parietal lobe is to occipital lobe d. Occipital lobe is to temporal lobe

a. Occipital lobe is to temporal lobe b. The lobes responsible for vision are the occipital lobes. The temporal lobes contain the primary auditory cortex. The parietal lobes process somatosensory information (e.g., touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception)

1.) When should management reward group performance rather than individual performance? a. To reduce social loafing b. On a task that is high in interdependence c. On a task that is low in interdependence d. On a task that is conjunctive

a. On a task that is high in interdependence a. In an interdependent task, group members need to work together in order to succeed, therefore rewarding group performance is most sensible. In a task that is low in interdependence (Response 3), individual performance is more important; therefore individual rewards would be more useful. Social loafing (Response 1) occurs when people in a group work less hard than they would if they were being evaluated individually. The solution to social loafing is to make individuals more accountable for t heir contributions. On a conjunctive task (Response 4), the groups overall functioning is affected by the least effective member (e.g., the one who makes the most errors). Group rewards would be inappropriate here as well.

1.) On the way to class, you are attacked in the parking lot. You are most likely to get help if: a. One person witnesses the event b. Three people witness the event c. Ten people witness the event d. You are alone

a. One person witnesses the event a. In general, the fewer the number of bystanders, the more likely it is that a victim will get help. Other factors that influence the willingness of bystanders to help is whether they themselves have been victims of a violent crime and whether they have training in the first aid or other helping skills. "Bystander apathy" refers to the failure of bystanders to give assistance. The term is frequently associated with the 1964 murder of Kitty Genovese in New York City, when thirty-eight people witnessed her stabbing without ever calling the police

1.) Data from a study in which there are three levels of the independent variable and one continuous dependent variable should be analyzed using which of the following statistical methods? a. One-way anova b. Factorial anova c. Chi square d. Manova

a. One-way anova a. To select the appropriate test of difference the first step is to get clarification on the independent and dependent variables. In this scenario, there is only one independent variable (IV), and the IV has three levels (e.g., treatment is the IV with three different types of treatment being compared), and there is only one dependent variable (DV) or outcome variable that is continuous; in other words, the DV is scored numerically (e.g., Beck depression Scores). Manova (Response 4) is used when there are multiple DV. Chi square (Response 3) is used when the DV is nominal or categorical. The one-way anova (Response 1, correct response) is used when there is one IV (regardless of the number of levels) and one DV. By extension, the two-way anova is used where there are two IV's (regardless of the number of levels) and one DV; the three way anova is used when there are three IVs and one DV. The factorial anova (Response 2) is used when there is more than one IV (e.g., two IVs, three IVs, etc) and one DV.

1.) A child refers to a neighbor's dog by the same name she refers to her family dog (e.g., "Scottie"). This behavior is an example of: a. Underextension b. Overextension c. Holophrasic speech d. Telegraphic speech

a. Overextension a. Early speech (about 18 months of age) is characterized by both underextension and overextension of word meanings. Overextension (Response 2) occurs when a word is used too broadly. In this example, the child calls the neighbor's dog by the same name as her own. Underextension (Response 1) occurs when a word is used too narrowly. For example, only one's own dog is referred to as "doggie," even though it is the appropriate word for all dogs. Holophrasic speech (Response 3) which occurs between 12 and 18 months of age, makes use of a single word to express a complex idea. For example, "us" means "pick me up." Telegraphic speech (Response 4), which occurs between 18 and 24 months of age, is a form of two word, noun-verb sentences. For example, "give candy," means "Id like you to give me some candy."

1.) An individual presents to a hospital emergency room complaining of sudden onset of chest pains. If a medical diagnosis is ruled out, the most likely mental disorder is: a. Psychological factors affecting other medical conditions b. Somatic symptom disorder, with predominant pain c. Conversion disorder d. Panic disorder

a. Panic disorder b. The symptoms of a panic attack can mimic those of a heart attack, and may include chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, and fear of dying. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks. The diagnosis of psychological factors affecting other medical conditions (Response 1) requires that a medical symptom or condition is present (e.g., diabetes) and that psychological or behavioral factors adversely affect the medical condition. Somatic symptom disorder, with predominant pain (Response 2) is characterized by one or more somatic symptoms that predominantly involve pain, that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life. Additionally, the individual evidences excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms, such as persistent thoughts about the seriousness of one's symptoms, persistent high levels of anxiety about health or symptoms, or excessive time and energy devoted to symptoms or health concerns. Conversion disorder (Response 3) involves one or more symptoms or deficits affecting voluntary motor or sensory function. The symptoms, which are not intentionally produced, are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions

1.) A boy begins to display some fear of his father. Assuming there is no external basis for this fear (e.g., abuse), the boy is most likely in which of the following psychosexual stages? a. Anal b. Genital c. Phallic d. Latency

a. Phallic c. According to Freud, it is during the phallic stage (from about 3 to about 6 years old) that children become sexually attracted to the parent of the opposite sex and consequently fear punishment from the parent of the same sex (e.g., castration anxiety in boys). The anal stage (Response 1) occurs from 1 to 3 years and involves conflicts around toilet training and retention versus expulsion. During latency (Response 4), which occurs from about 6 to 12 years of age, sexual feelings are more or less quiescent (i.e., latent) and so too would be the consequent fears of retribution. The genital stage (Response 2) occurs in adulthood and is characterized by 'mature' sex.

1.) Withdrawal from which substance is most likely to cause hallucinations? a. LSD b. Amphetamines c. Heroin d. Phenobarbital

a. Phenobarbital b. The substances whose withdrawal syndromes involve hallucinations are alcohol, and the category of sedatives, hypnotics, and anxiolytics. Withdrawal from these substances can potentially be fatal. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate, which is a type of hypnotic. Very commonly used in the 1950s, barbiturates are rarely prescribed as hypnotics now. They still have a prominent place in the treatment of seizures. There is no characteristic withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens (Response 1). Withdrawal from amphetamines (Response 2) is characterized by dysphoria, fatigue, unpleasant dreams, increased appetite, and psychomotor agitation or retardation. Opioid withdrawal (Response 3) is known for flu-like symptoms.

1.) Alternative work schedules (e.g., flextime, 4-day workweek): a. Positively affect performance and morale about equally b. Positively affect performance more than morale c. Positively affect morale more than performance d. Have relatively little impact on morale and performance

a. Positively affect morale more than performance a. Alternative work schedules have been found to have little impact on performance, but do have a significant impact on improving morale

1.) An example of paradoxical intention is: a. Sharing your angry feelings with a client to get him or her to express the same b. Prescribing the symptom c. Getting the client to exaggerate his or her worst fears d. Getting a client with agoraphobia to go to a shopping mall

a. Prescribing the symptom a. Paradoxical intention involves having clients do the opposite of what they might expect. An example of this would be prescribing the symptom. For example, a couple whose primary complaint is that they argue too much may be given the homework of arguing two hours a day for the next week. Encouraging a person with agoraphobia to go to a shopping mall (Response 4) is an example of exposure

1.) Wernicke's is to Broca's as a. Expression is to reception b. Reception is to expression c. Agnosia is to aphasia d. Alexia is to agraphia

a. Reception is to expression a. Wernicke's areas is involved in receptive speech, while Broca's is involved in expressive speech. Agnosia (Response 3) is a failure to recognize sensory stimuli. Aphasia (Response 3) involves a problem with speech. Wernicke's and Broca's are both considered aphasias. Alexia (Response 4) is an acquired reading disorder, while agraphia (Response 4) is an acquired inability to write

1.) An attractive 40-year-old man selects as his partner a fairly unattractive 20-year-old woman. What could explain this man's choice? a. Matching theory b. Similarity hypothesis c. Long-distance relationship d. Reciprocity hypothesis

a. Reciprocity hypothesis b. The most likely explanation here is the reciprocity hypothesis, which states that people tend to like others who like them. The matching hypothesis (Response 1) proposes that people of approximately equal physical attractiveness are likely to select each other. The similarity hypothesis (Response 2) posits that people similar to each other (e.g., similar in age, race, or religion) tend to form intimate relationships. Long distance relationship (Response 3) is not a factor here

1.) In her third session, a client tells you that she is also seeing a sex therapist. Recently, this sex therapist had the client take off her top and then massaged the client's breasts in a demonstration of sensate focus technique. The best course of action would be: a. Recommend she terminate therapy and file an ethics charge b. Discuss your ethical concerns with the therapist c. Explore the impact this is having on her, and based on her reactions (e.g., her feelings about whether it's therapeutic or not) decide on your course of action d. Discuss her dynamics

a. Recommend she terminate therapy and file an ethics charge a. The behavior of the sex therapist is unethical. This is a clear case of a therapist exploiting the client in the guise of doing therapy. Of the responses here, the best one would be to recommend that your client terminate therapy and file an ethics charge. Response 3 may look like a possible alternative; however, even if your patient somehow feels it is therapeutic, the therapist's actions are clearly an abuse of power, are exploitative, and are not part of any reputable treatment protocol. Discussing your concerns with the therapist (Response 2) could constitute a breach of confidentiality. Discussing the patient's dynamics (Response 4) does not sufficiently address the legal and ethical concerns

1.) A psychological intern leaves a case conference confused because the clinical director, the intern's supervisor, and another staff psychologist all disagree about how she should handle a case. The intern decides to follow the suggestion of the staff psychologist because they share the same theoretical orientation. Her decision is based on what type of power? a. Legitimate b. Expert c. Referent d. Coercive

a. Referent a. There are five types of power that have been identified by psychologists: referent, legitimate, coercive, reward, and expert. In this example, the intern appears to like and identify with the staff psychologist whom she considers a role model. Her decision is therefore based on referent power. Her decision would be based on legitimate power (Response 1) if she followed the clinic director, since the director is at the hop of the clinic's hierarchy. Following her supervisor's instruction might be an example of coercive power (Response 4) if the decision were due to the intern's fear of a bad evaluation. Finally, although expert power (Response 2) might apply to this situation, it is not as good a response as referent power because the issues of liking and identification have been explicitly stated

1.) You are a psychologist who has been licensed for 10 years, and are employed in a hospital setting. The hospital's associate director has just received his doctoral degree in psychology, and requests that you provide him with supervision for some of his post-doctoral hours required for licensure. You should: a. Consent to supervise him if he has no involvement with or responsibility for evaluating your performance b. Consent to supervise him if he has no involvement with or responsibility for evaluating your performance, and you do not interact with him in any other capacity c. Refuse to supervise him because this arrangement would conflict with organizational structure and hierarchy d. Refuse to supervise him because of the inherent conflict and potential problems that could arise

a. Refuse to supervise him because of the inherent conflict and potential problems that could arise a. According to the Ethics Code a psychologist should refrain from entering into a professional relationship (e.g., providing supervision) if the relationship might impair. The psychologist's objectivity, or harm or exploit the other party. Additionally, a psychologist should not take on professional obligations when the pre-existing relationship would create a risk of harm. Based on these provisions, it is clear that the psychologist should refuse the associate director's request, regardless of whether the associate director evaluates the psychologist's performance or interacts with the psychologist in any other capacity (Responses 1 & 2). Potential conflict with the organization's structure and hierarchy should not be the guiding factor in this decision (Response 3).

1.) The hardest behaviors to extinguish are those that are: a. Reinforced on a consistent basis b. Reinforced on a time-contingent basis c. Reinforced on a variable basis d. Reinforced every other time the behavior is emitted

a. Reinforced on a variable basis a. The hardest behaviors to extinguish are those that are reinforced on an intermittent rather than continuous schedule of reinforcement. Of the intermittent schedules, the variable ratio is the most resistant to extinction, or hardest to extinguish. Assuming reinforcement occurred with every behavior, consistent reinforcement (Response 1) would be the easiest to extinguish. Time-contingent reinforcement (Response 2) typically implies a fixed interval schedule. Reinforcement every other time a behavior is emitted (Response 4) indicates a fixed ration schedule

1.) You have seen a family in treatment. The mother's lawyer contacts you at a later date, with a signed request for release of treatment information to be used in a custody battle. Based on your experienced with the father, you know he has abused his children. Your best course of action would be to: a. Release only the information that is necessary for the custody battle b. Seek a release from the father, but if he refuses, release the information anyway since the children have been abused c. Agree to release the information if you can evaluate the mother and children d. Release the information only if the father consents as well

a. Release the information only if the father consents as well b. According to the Ethics Code, when multiple people have been in treatment, they all need to consent before confidential information may be released. In this scenario, consent from both the husband and wife is required. The abuse issue here is a red herring. When you became aware of the abuse, you would have been mandated to make a report to child protective services. You would not be allowed to release any information to the attorney unless you had consent of the father

1.) The defense mechanism that is thought to underlie all others is: a. Repression b. Denial c. Projection d. Reaction formation

a. Repression a. This is one of those concepts that you just need to know. Repression, or making the conscious unconscious, is a fundamental aspect of all the defense mechanisms. All defense mechanisms have the purpose of keeping certain mental contents out of conscious awareness. Denial (Response 2) is the most primitive and refers to a straightforward refusal to accept the existence of the mental content. Projection (Response 3) involves attributing one's own impulses to someone else, as in paranoia. Reaction formation (Response 4) involves transforming an urger into its opposite, such as crusading against pornography when one is attracted to it

1.) According to Sue and Sue's racial/cultural identity development model, the culturally different person is most likely to be critical of dominant culture during the stage of: a. Resistance and immersion b. Dissonance c. Conformity d. Introspection

a. Resistance and immersion According to Sue and Sue's model of racial/cultural identity development, in the first stage, conformity, the minority person unequivocally prefers the dominant culture's values over his/her own (Response 3). During the 2nd stage, dissonance, the minority person becomes increasingly aware that not all values of dominant culture are beneficial, and certain aspects of minority culture begin to have appeal (Response 2). During the 3rd stage, resistance and immersion, t he tides turn and the minority person tends to endorse minority held views, and reject the dominant values of society and culture (Response 1). The 4th stage of introspection involves a deeper analysis of attitude and feelings (Response 4). During the final stage of integrative awareness, the person can appreciate the unique aspects of his/her own culture as well as those of the dominant culture

1.) A person believes that Friday the 13th is an unlucky day because she got very sick once on Friday the 13th. The best explanation for this phenomenon is: a. Irrational beliefs b. Respondent conditioning c. Instrumental conditioning d. A psychotic process

a. Respondent conditioning a. Although this is rather irrational thinking (Response 1), what would best explain this phenomenon would be pairing Friday the 13th (an initially neutral stimulus) with an aversive unconditioned stimulus (getting sick). This is a classical conditioning phenomenon, also called respondent conditioning. Instrumental conditioning (Response 3) is another name for operant conditioning

1.) While playing baseball, you are struck in the head by a fly ball. You are unable to remember the plays leading up to the time you were struck. Most likely you are suffering from: a. Proactive inhibition b. Retroactive inhibition c. Anterograde amnesia d. Retrograde amnesia

a. Retrograde amnesia b. For the EPPP, it is important to be very clear about the difference between the two kinds of amnesia. Retrograde amnesia is loss of memory for events occurring before the trauma (retro=backward); anterograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events occurring after the trauma (don't think about the prefix 'ante' because it gets very confusing). Note that amnesia refers to memory loss, and inhibition (responses 1 & 2) refers to interference in learning

1.) The most accurate statement regarding the relationship between mental illness and socioeconomic status (SES) is: a. SES And mental illness are positively correlated b. SES And mental illness are negatively correlated c. Low SES has been shown to cause poorer mental health d. More rigorous studies have demonstrated that the supposed correlation between mental illness and SES was an artifact of poor research design

a. SES And mental illness are negatively correlated a. Not surprisingly, SES iss negatively correlated with mental illness. In other words, higher SES is associated with less mental illness, and lower SES is associated with higher levels of mental illness. It has not been proved that low SES causes poor mental health (Response 3), though some do contend this. Others contend the reverse: poor mental health causes "downward drift"

1.) On the MMPI-2, which validity scale(s) also serve as a moderator variable? a. Scale L b. Scale F c. Scale K d. Scales VRIN and TRIN

a. Scale K a. On the MMPI-2, the K scale measures guardedness or defensiveness. The K scale also serves as a moderator variable. Scores on the K scale are used to adjust for defensiveness, by adding points to a number of the clinical scales based on the K scale score. The L scale measures a naïve attempt to present favorably (Response 1). The F scale measures infrequently endorsed items, and can be used to assess overall distress and pathology, attempts to fake bad, or random responding (Response 2). VRIN and TRIN specifically measure response inconsistency or random responding (Response 4)

1.) Dopamine is implicated as a causative agent which of the following? a. Major Depressive Disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Generalized Anxiety Disorder d. Substance Use Disorder

a. Schizophrenia a. The 'dopamine hypothesis' posits that an excess of dopamine results in schizophrenia. The neurotransmitters implicated in depression (Response 1) are norepinephrine and serotonin. Low levels of GABA are linked with anxiety (Response 3) and epilepsy. Some drugs, such as cocaine or meth, cause the release of abnormally large amounts of natural neurotransmitters (mainly dopamine). Thus, excess dopamine can result from substance use disorders, but dopamine does not cause substance use disorders (Ruling out Response 4)

1.) The presence of bizarre delusions may suggest: a. Schizophrenia b. Schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder c. Schizophrenia or delusional disorder d. Schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or delusional disorder

a. Schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or delusional disorder b. Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that are unchangeable. While non-bizarre delusions involve situations that are plausible (e.g., the belief that one's spouse is unfaithful), bizarre delusions are clearly implausible (e.g., the person believes t hat aliens have removed his or her internal organs). According to the DSM-5, bizarre delusions may be found in schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or delusional disorder (Response 4). This is a change from the DSM-IV, in which bizarre delusions automatically qualified the individual for either schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, but ruled out a diagnosis of delusional disorder (which required that delusions were non-bizarre).

1.) Since you put in a tremendous amount of work, you decide to publish your dissertation as a journal article. You remember that your chairperson was a significant source of both moral and practical support, helping you with the data analysis, the literature review, and the summary of results. According to the Ethics Code, your chair should receive: a. First authorship b. Second authorship c. A footnote d. An acknowledgment

a. Second authorship a. Keep in mind when a dissertation is later published as a research article, the graduate student should almost always get first authorship (Response 1). The question here addresses how the chairperson should be recognized, and given the significant of the contributions, the chair warrants a second authorship. Minor contributions should be acknowledged in a footnote or introductory statement (Response 3 and 4).

1.) According to Yalom, in which stage of group therapy do members become hostile? a. First stage b. Second stage c. Third stage d. In any stage if the leader fails to provide a holding environment

a. Second stage a. According to Yalom, the first stage (Response 1) is characterized by hesitant participation, a search for meaning, and dependency. The second stage includes conflicts, efforts at dominance, and rebellion against the leader. The third stage (Response 3) is marked by the development of cohesiveness. Response 4, a holding environment, is a psychoanalytic concept that is not discussed by Yalom

1.) The feature of speech that would normally be remembered best by a listener is: a. Semantic b. Syntactic c. Phonemic d. Acoustic

a. Semantic a. Semantic refers to meaning. What we usually remember most is the meaning of what someone has told us. Syntactic (Response 2) refers to grammatical order. Phonemes (Response 3) are the smallest units of sound in a language. Acoustic (Response 4) refers to sound. Acoustic qualities would include pitch, tone, and volume

1.) Neurotransmitter imbalances have been identified in people with eating disorders. Most notably, persons with eating disorders frequently have a deficiency of: a. Acetylcholine b. GABA c. Dopamine d. Serotonin

a. Serotonin b. Serotonin and norepinephrine are significantly involved in regulation of appetite, as well as mood and sleep. Persons with eating disorders as well as depressive disorders commonly have low levels of these neurotransmitters. This may also partly explain the link that frequently exists between eating disorders and depressive illness. Acetylcholine deficiencies are a hallmark of Alzheimer's disease (Response 1). Low levels of GABA have been found in persons with anxiety disorders (Response 2). A decrease in dopamine is common in Parkinson's disease (Response 3)

1.) The neurotransmitter involved with sleep and mood is: a. RAS b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin

a. Serotonin b. Serotonin is involved with both sleep and mood. Although the RAS or Reticular Activating System (Response 1) is involved in sleep, it is not a neurotransmitter but rather a diffuse set of cells in the medulla, pons, hypothalamus, and thalamus. Acetylcholine (Response 2) is involved in voluntary movement and memory. Dopamine (Response 3) is involved in Schizophrenia

1.) The most frequently filed ethics charges relate to: a. Breach of confidentiality b. Sexual misconduct c. Practicing outside of one's area of competence d. Insensitivity to cultural issues

a. Sexual misconduct a. Of all ethics charges filed against psychologists, sexual misconduct is the most frequent one

1.) A 72-year-old woman takes the WAIS-IV. She scores highest on block design and matric reasoning and lowest on vocabulary and information. Which of the following statements regarding her performance would be most accurate? a. She shows the classic aging profile with crystallized intelligence declining more than fluid intelligence b. She shows the classic aging profile with fluid intelligence declining more than crystallized intelligence c. She does not show the classic aging profile because her subtests measuring crystallized intelligence do not show more impairment than her subtests measuring fluid intelligence d. She does not show the classic aging profile because her subtests measuring fluid intelligence do not show more impairment than her subtests measuring crystallized intelligence

a. She does not show the classic aging profile because her subtests measuring fluid intelligence do not show more impairment than her subtests measuring crystallized intelligence b. This is a very tricky question because, in addition to requiring you to have a clear understanding about the "classic aging profile," it uses convoluted wording and double negatives. The classic aging profile involves maintained or enhanced crystallized intelligence with diminished fluid intelligence. Crystallized intelligence refers to knowledge gained through experience, and is reflected in the verbal comprehension subtests of vocabulary, information, and similarities. Fluid intelligence refers to the organization of information and novel problem-solving, and is reflected in the perceptual reasoning index on the WAIS-IV, including subtests of block design, matrix reasoning, and visual puzzles. In this example, the women is scoring better on tests of fluid intelligence than on tests of crystallized intelligence, i.e., the opposite of the classic profile (eliminating Responses 1 and 2). Put differently, tests of fluid intelligence are not showing more impairment than tests of crystallized intelligence (Response 4). Response 3 describes the classic aging profile incorrectly.

1.) Whose theory would most likely explain "behavioral contrast?" a. Beck b. Pavlov c. Skinner d. Watson

a. Skinner c. The term behavioral contrast applies to the situation in which two behaviors are initially reinforced at equal levels and then one behavior stops being reinforced. What typically occurs is that the behavior is no longer being reinforced decreases in frequency, while the behavior that continues to be reinforced increases in frequency. This concept is all about reinforcement, and of the theorists listed only Skinner theorizes about reinforcement. Pavlov and Watson (Responses 2 & 4), while both behaviorists, studied classical conditioning (pairing) rather than operant conditioning (reinforcement). Beck (Response 1) is a cognitive behaviorists

1.) You are most likely to remember the answer to these questions if immediately after you take them and review the rationale you: a. Go over t hem again b. Relax c. Sleep d. Make flash cards

a. Sleep c. The interference theory of memory proposes that we remember best when we minimize interference immediately after we learn something, or in this case, if we sleep

1.) The Neo-Freudians emphasize a. Underlying unconscious conflicts b. Ego defensive and conflict-free functioning c. Social Interactions d. Beliefs

a. Social Interactions c. The focus of the neo-Freudians is on how social and cultural factors influence and shape personality. Classical analysts focus intensely on underlying unconscious conflicts (Response 1). The ego analysts focus on ego defensive and conflict-free functioning (Response 2), and the cognitive behaviorists focus on beliefs (Response 4)

1.) A high school principal has a history of experiencing panic attacks more often than not when he presents to parents at school. Prior to each parent presentation he worries for several days about the upcoming event. The principal's most likely diagnosis is: a. Panic disorder b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Social anxiety disorder d. Specific phobia

a. Social anxiety disorder c. Social anxiety disorder involves fear of one or more social situations in which the person is exposed to potential scrutiny by others. Some individuals with social anxiety disorder (as described in this scenario) experience panic attacks in the feared social situation. The principal's presentation is consistent with a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder, performance only (Response 3). Panic Disorder (Response 1) is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which is not the case here. Generalized anxiety disorder (Response 2) is diagnosed when there is excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months. The principal's worries are limited to speaking in public, and only occur prior to speaking events. Individuals with specific phobias (Response 4) may also experience panic attacks in response to the feared stimuli. Since the principal's fear is limited to social situations, specific phobia (e.g., fear of snakes, fear of flying) is not diagnosed.

1.) A psychology intern worries that she behaved inappropriately at a clinic staff meeting. She closely observes the behavior of the post-doctoral fellows and decides she has acted appropriately. Her behavior could best be explained by: a. The self-serving bias b. Observational learning c. Social comparison theory d. The fundamental attribution error

a. Social comparison theory c. Social comparison theory suggests that when standards are ambiguous and subjective (e.g., professionalism"), we compare ourselves to others (usually but not always those slightly above us), which is what the intern did in this example. Self-serving bias (Response 1) refers to people's tendency to make dispositional attributions for their success and situational attributions for their failure. The fundamental attribution error (Response 4) refers to people's tendency to make dispositional attributions about other's behavior. Observational learning (response 2) comes from Bandura's Social Learning Theory and is not pertinent here because the intern is observing in order to judge her own behavior, not observing as a method of learning

1.) In regard to testimonials, the APA Ethics Code stipulates that: a. Testimonials may neither be solicited nor used b. Testimonials may be used, but not solicited c. Testimonials may be used and solicited as long as they are not solicited from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence d. Testimonials may not be solicited, however they may be used as long as they are not from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence

a. Testimonials may be used and solicited as long as they are not solicited from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence a. The APA Ethics Code states that it is permissible to solicit and use testimonials as long as they are not solicited from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence (e.g., a former patient with dependent personality disorder)

1.) Raven's Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best tests of: a. Spearman's "g" factor b. Crystallized intelligence c. Visuo-spatial abilities d. Non-verbal memory

a. Spearman's "g" factor a. Raven's Progressive Matrices consists of a series of abstract patterns with one piece missing. The test requires the person to pick out the missing piece using a multiple choice format. Raven's Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best non-verbal tests of intelligence. Spearman argued that intelligence is based on one factor, general intelligence, or "g" and proposed that intelligence tests should measure intelligence without becoming clouded by specific abilities. Raven's progressive matrices accomplishes this task. Crystallized intelligence referes to knowledge gained through experience (e.g., fund of knowledge), and as Raven's Progressive Matrices is a novel task, it does not measure crystallized intelligence (Response 2). Raven's Progressive Matrices does involve some visuo-spatial skills, however, this is not what it is best known for (Response 3). Raven's Progressive Matrices does not measure memory functioning at all (Response 4)

1.) The standard errors of the mean, measurement, and estimate express error in terms of: a. Standard deviation b. Sampling error c. Systematic error d. The testing situation

a. Standard deviation a. All the standard error formulas express error in terms of standard deviation units. Sampling error (Response 2) applies to the standard error of the mean only. Systematic Error (Response 3) does not apply to any of the standard error formulas. The testing situation (Response 4) is a source of error taken into account in the standard error of measurement only

1.) Parkinson's disease is due to loss of cells in the: a. Substantia nigra b. Basal Ganglia c. Caudate nucleus d. Hippocampus

a. Substantia nigra a. The basal ganglia (Response 2) includes, among other structures, the substantia nigra and caudate nucleus. Thus, although Parkinson's disease is a result of damage to the basal ganglia, it is more specific and accurate to state that it results from a loss of cells in the substantia nigra (Response 1) as well as a decrease in dopamine. Characteristics of Parkinson's disease are resting tremors, akinesia (difficulty initiating movement), and shuffling gait. Huntington's disease result from degeneration of the caudate nucleus (Response 3). The hippocampus (Response 4) is a limbic structure involved in memory and emotion. Damage to the hippocampus can result in problems with consolidation of memory.

1.) The circadian clock is located in the hypothalamus and is responsible for sleep-wake patterns. The circadian clock is the: a. Pineal gland b. Suprachiasmatic nucleus c. Substantia nigra d. Reticular activating system (RAS)

a. Suprachiasmatic nucleus a. It is the cluster of nerves called the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) that functions as the circadian clock. Sleep-wake patterns run on 24-hour cycles with two natural daily peak times for sleeping, at mid-day and at night. The SCN signals the pineal gland to produce melatonin, which in turn causes a drop in body temperature and sleepiness (Response 1). The substantia nigra, specifically loss of cells in this area, has been implicated in Parkinson's disease (Response 3). While the reticular activating system (RAS) filters incoming sensory information, mediates alertness, and is involved in the sleep-wake cycle (Response 4), it consists of a set of cells in the brain stem, and not the hypothalamus

1.) After being released from the hospital, a child is returned to her regular classroom, and a supportive counseling program is set up. This is an example of: a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Community-based intervention

a. Tertiary prevention a. A supportive program set up after an individual is released from the hospital would be tertiary prevention, which aims to prevent relapse and keep a person functioning at the highest level possible. Other example of tertiary prevention would include any day treatment programs for people with Schizophrenia, or AA for alcoholics

1.) In the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), the relationships between the standards and general principles is: a. The first are aspirational, the second enforceable b. The first are enforceable, the second aspirational c. Both are enforceable d. Both are aspirational, while laws are enforceable

a. The first are enforceable, the second aspirational a. In the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), there are 5 general principles, which are considered aspirational, and 10 standards, which are considered to be the enforceable aspect of the Ethics Code

1.) As you start to take this practice test you say to yourself, "My heart is racing. I must be very nervous." This kind of thinking supports: a. The Cannon-Bard theory b. The James-Lange Theory c. Schacter's Two Factor Theory d. General Adaptation Syndrome

a. The James-Lange Theory a. According to the James-Lange theory, emotions result from perceiving bodily reactions or responses. In this case, you perceived your bodily reaction (heart racing) and concluded you must be anxious. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that emotions and bodily reactions occur simultaneously. When an event is perceived (e.g., taking the exam), messages are sent at the same time to the hypothalamus, which arouses the body, and to the limbic system, which causes the subjective experience of anxiety (Response 1). Schacter's Two-Factor Theory proposes that emotion results from both internal information (hypothalamus and limbic system) and external information (the context). According to this theory you would be experiencing physiological arousal (racing heart), and would then look to the environment (the licensing exam) to help you label the emotion as anxiety, rather than, for example excitement (Response 3). Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome is a model or response to severe stress consisting of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

1.) In order to increase studying behavior, you set up a deal with yourself in which you allow yourself to engage in one hour of your favorite activity following a good study session. Underlying your thinking is an understand of: a. Generalized conditioned reinforcers b. The Premack Principle c. Chaining d. Response Generalization

a. The Premack Principle a. The Premack Principle involves using a high frequency behavior (in this case, a favorite activity) to reinforce a low frequency behavior (in this case, studying). Generalized conditioned reinforcers (Response 1) are a special case of secondary reinforcers that acquire their reinforcing value because they can be exchanged for other reinforcers. Generalized conditioned reinforcers include money and tokens. Chaining (Response 3) is thought to underlie the acquisition of complex behavior (e.g., driving a car), in which each response serves both as reinforcement for the previous response and as a discriminative stimulus for the next response. Response generalization (Response 4) refers to giving similar but not identical responses to those that have previously been reinforced

1.) The belief that the nature of thought is influenced by the thinker's native language is basic to: a. The James-Lange Theory b. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis c. The Law of Effect d. The Law of Parsimony

a. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis a. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis states that the language people use actually shapes how they think (e.g., English-speakers think about snow differently from Alaska natives since they have fewer words for it). James and Lange (Response 1) developed a theory about emotion, specifically that people infer their emotions from observing their behavior. According to Thorndike's Law of Effect (Response 3), people repeat behaviors that are followed by pleasant consequences. Developed by William of Ockham in the 14th century, the Law of Parsimony (Response 4) also known as Occam's razor, suggests that the best explanation for a phenomenon is the one that is simplest and requires the fewest assumptions

1.) A high percentage of children with ADHD are responsive to psychostimulants. When a clinician is uncertain as to whether a child's diagnosis is ADHD, the reason the child should not be give a trial of psychostimulants for purposes of differential diagnosis is because: a. The child who does not have ADHD would likely experience some negative side effects of the medication (e.g., increased heart rate) b. The child who does not have ADHD would likely experience a bit of a high c. The child who does not have ADHD would likely have an increased attention span and improved task performance d. The child who does not have ADHD would likely exhibit restlessness and distractibility

a. The child who does not have ADHD would likely have an increased attention span and improved task performance a. Even children with ADHD, when given psychostimulants, have improved attention span and concentration. Therefore, response to such medications would not be useful for differentiating childen with ADHD from non-ADHD children

1.) The person who holds privilege in court-ordered treatment is: a. The client b. The psychologist c. The court d. The judge

a. The client a. This question is a bit tricky. It requires that you know the difference between evaluations or assessments for the court, as opposed to court-ordered therapy. When a therapist performs evaluations on behest of the court, the client has no privilege and must be informced of the lack of confidentiality at the onset. By contrast, in court- ordered therapy (e.g., for spousal abuse), the client is the holder of the privilege and is typically entitled to complete confidentiality. Note that responses 3 and 4 are virtually identical, indicating that neither is likely to be the correct answer (i.e., they can't both be right)

1.) When the IQs of adoptive children are correlated with the IQs of the biological mothers and adoptive mothers: a. The correlation with biological mothers is stronger b. The correlation with adoptive mothers is stronger c. The correlations do not differ from zero d. The correlations with both adoptive and biological mothers are strongest when using a sample of brighter than average adoptees

a. The correlation with biological mothers is stronger a. Research has shown the correlations of IQ are highest with biological parents as opposed to adoptive parents. Note that response 4 describes a restriction of range. Correlations are always weaker when ranges are restricted

1.) In comparing the relationship between satisfaction and performance, and satisfaction and length of employment: a. Both correlations are weak and positive b. Both correlations are moderate and positive c. The first correlation is weak and positive, the second moderate and negative d. The first correlation is weak and positive, the second moderate and positive

a. The first correlation is weak and positive, the second moderate and positive b. Keep in mind that there is a weak positive correlation (about .15) between satisfaction and performance, and a moderate negative correlation between satisfaction and turnover. Because the second part of the question is asking about the correlation between satisfaction and length of employment (the reverse of turnover) this correlation would be moderate, but positive

1.) You and a colleague both applied for a position and were turned down. You attribute your colleague's failure to his lack of enthusiasm during the interview. This can best be explained by: a. The self-serving bias b. The fundamental attribution error c. Weiner's theory d. Self-perception theory

a. The fundamental attribution error a. In this question an attribution is made about a colleague's failure. Accodring to the fundamental attribution bias, people explain the failures of others by attributing the failure to internal causes. The self-serving bias (Response 1) relates to the different attributions people make when they themselves succeed or fail. People typically attribute their own success to internal factors but attribute their own failures to external factors. Weiner's theory (Response 3) addresses the stability and instability of internal and external factors. Self-perception theory (Response 4) focuses on people's tendencies to look outside of the self when they don't know the cause of their own behavior

1.) When working with a client diagnosed HIV+, one should consider: a. One's personal safety and issues of risk b. The individual's health status and common sequelae of the disorder c. Notifying partners of the infected individual d. The need or priority for individual treatment over group treatment

a. The individual's health status and common sequelae of the disorder a. Important issues related to individuals diagnosed with HIV+ include the individual's current health status as well as an understanding of common sequelae of the disorder. In most states psychologists are not allowed to inform partners of the infected individual (Response 3). Also, group treatment, such as support groups, can be very beneficial to HIV+ individuals (Response 4). One's own safety (Response 1) should not be an issue at all, given what is known about how the virus is transmitted

1.) You are treating a child who is suicidal and needs hospitalization. At a minimum, you should obtain consent from: a. Both parents b. One parent c. The legal guardian d. The child

a. The legal guardian a. Consent for the treatment of a minor must always be secured from whoever is the minor's legal guardian. The child (Response 4) should provide assent

1.) Semantic memory involves a. The transfer from sensory memory to short term memory b. The transfer from short term memory to long term memory c. The meaning of the words d. The pronunciation of the words

a. The meaning of the words c. Semantic memory is memory that has to do with the meaning of words

1.) The time required to complete a mechanical test was recorded. About 25% of the people took the maximum allowed amount of time. What would be the best measure of central tendency? a. The mean b. The median c. The mode d. The mean, median, and mode would be equally good measures

a. The median a. In general, the mean is the best measure of central tendency, however, the median is better when there are some very extreme scores, or a substantial percentage of maximum scores. In this example, a relatively large percentage of people (25%) received the highest possible score, and so t he median should be used. Average housing prices are typically reported in terms of the median, because there are some extreme values (e.g., 10,000,000 homes).

1.) The disadvantage of being in group therapy concurrent with individual therapy is that: a. The patient is less likely to reveal in the group b. The patient is more likely to receive favoritism by the therapist, and thereby alienate group members c. The patient is more likely to be overwhelmed and possibly decompensate d. The patient is more likely to experience multiple transferences in the group situation

a. The patient is less likely to reveal in the group a. One disadvantage of being in both individual and group therapy is the tendency to reveal less in the group and save self-disclosure for what is seen as a less risky situation, namely individual therapy

1.) A murderer is found not guilty by reason in insanity. This means: a. The person was insane at the time of the murder b. The person has a history of insanity that predisposed him to this behavior c. The person is unable to defend himself during the court proceedings d. The person should be on medication

a. The person was insane at the time of the murder a. When someone is found not guilty by reason of insanity, the conclusion is that the person is not guilty because he was insane at the time the murder was committed. The inability to defend oneself in court proceedings (Response 3) is referred to as incompetency to stand trial

1.) When deception is used in research: a. The researcher must inform subjects of the purpose of the study afterwards b. The researcher must obtain consent from subjects if they are at high risk c. It isn't possible to get consent beforehand, but subjects must be debriefed afterwards d. Consent isn't required if subjects are at minimal risk

a. The researcher must inform subjects of the purpose of the study afterwards a. When deception is used in research, the deception must be explained to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the research. Keep in mind that even if deception is involved, consent from subjects must be obtained before they participate in the research

1.) Partial complex seizures typically originate in: a. The frontal lobes b. The brain stem c. The temporal lobes d. The limbic system

a. The temporal lobes a. The temporal lobes are most commonly the originating site of complex partial seizures. Keep in mind, though, that such seizures can originate in any cortical region. Complex partial seizures are frequently preceded by an aura, and usually include purposeless behavior, lip smacking, unintelligible speech, and impaired consciousness. The frontal lobes (Response 1) are critical to personality, emotionality, inhibition, planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The brain stem (Response 2) includes the pons, medulla, and reticular activating system (RAS). The limbic system (Response 4) is an interconnected group of organs and structures (e.g., amygdala, hippocampus) involved in memory and emotion

1.) The Zeigarnik effect refers to: a. The tendency of people to rely on the judgments of others when analyzing ambiguous stimuli b. The improvement in memory that occurs when imagery and visualization are used c. The tendency to remember uncompleted tasks better than completed ones d. The increase in obedience that occurs when the person in authority is significantly taller than the subordinate

a. The tendency to remember uncompleted tasks better than completed ones a. The Zeigarnik effect refers to the phenomenon that people are more likely to remember uncompleted tasks than completed tasks. For example, examinees are more likely to remember test items of which they were uncertain (i.e. the task feels uncompleted)

1.) If using a selection test results in 40% of the African American Applicants being hired and 45% of the white applicants being hired, you can conclude: a. Adverse impact has occurred b. Adverse impact has occurred and the test has differential validity c. The test is unfair d. The test may or may not have differential validity

a. The test may or may not have differential validity b. Adverse impact has occurred when the percentage of minorities hired is less than 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities hired. The easiest way to calculate this is to multiple the hiring rate for non minorities by .8. In this case, the percentage of the non-minorities hired it 45%. The 45% is multiplied by .8 and results in 36%. Adverse impact has not occurred since the selection of African American applicants is 40%, which exceeds the minimum requirement of 36%. Responses 1 and 2 are therefore ruled out. We do not have information about unfairness, which occurs when predictor scores (tests) are different, but criterion scores (performance outcome) are similar. Thus Response 3 is eliminated. WE also have no information on differential validity, which is defined as different criterion-related validity coefficients for different ethnic groups. Only Response 4 is correct

1.) You have been treating a couple in therapy for the past 2 years. The couple has recently decided to divorce. According to research in this area, what is the most likely outcome? a. The woman will adapt better to the divorce than the man b. The man will adapt better to the divorce than the woman c. Both the man and the woman will adapt poorly d. Both the man and the woman will adapt well

a. The woman will adapt better to the divorce than the man a. The studies on the effects of divorce have shown that women find divorce less emotionally problematic than men. For example, suicide rates are up to six times higher in men who are separated or divorced compared with men who are in a relationship

1.) After conducting a two-way ANOVA, you determine significant differences have been found. You are most likely to conclude: a. There are main effects and there may or may not be interaction effects b. There are interaction effects and there may or may not be main effects c. There can be any combination of main effects and interactions d. There are probably neither main effects nor interaction effects because the results may be due to chance

a. There can be any combination of main effects and interactions a. When you conduct a two-way ANOVA, you calculate three F ratios, and therefore there are three possibilities for significance. There are two possible main effects (for Variable A and Variable B), and a possible interaction effect. The important point is that when you get significance in a two-way ANOVA. It can be any combination of main effects and interactions. For example, it's possible that there would be only one main effect. It's equally possible that there would be a significant interaction effect and no main effects, or even that there would be two significant main effects and a significant interaction. Note that one of the advantages of a two-way ANOVA over two separate one-way ANOVAs is the possibility of detecting the interaction effect.

1.) Studies of children identified as aggressive support which of the following conclusions? a. Aggression in early childhood is unreleated to aggression in middle childhood b. Childhood aggression rarely persists into adolescence c. Childhood aggression persists only if the children are abused d. There is a moderate tendency for the children to remain aggressive

a. There is a moderate tendency for the children to remain aggressive b. If you were not familiar with this research, the best approach would be to combine conservatism with common sense. It seems unlikely that childhood aggression would be totally unrelated to adult aggression (Response 1) or rarely persist into adolescence (Response 2)

1.) For each A score, the variability of B scores is equal to the total variability of B scores. You can conclude that: a. An error has been made; this is quite unlikely to occur b. There is a moderate positive correlation between A and B c. There is a moderate negative correlation between A and B d. There is no correlation between A and B

a. There is no correlation between A and B b. In this correlation, for any A value, you end up with all possible B values (i.e., total variability of B scores). The graph would look like one giant scatterplot, with dots all over the place. Knowing A tells you nothing about what B could be, since B could be anything. In other words, there is no ability whatsoever to use A to predict B. Thus, the correlation is 0.0. If A and B were correlated, the graph would show dots clustered close to a regression line. The values of B would be limited by the value of A, and it would be possible to predict B if A were known

1.) According to the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), test data such as raw and scaled scores, may be released: a. To whomever the patient requests, with an appropriate release b. To the patient, if the patient insists c. Only to professionals qualified to understand the data d. Only when there is a court order that overrides the ethical standard not to release raw data

a. To whomever the patient requests, with an appropriate release a. According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, test data should be released to the client, or to anyone designated by the client on an appropriate release (ruling out Responses 2 and 3). The psychologists may refuse to release the data only if he or she believes that doing so would cause "substantial harm, or the misuse or misinterpretation of test data." There is no absolute prohibition against the release of raw data (Response 4)

1.) A Jungain would consider that part of the personal and collective unconscious that is projected out to be: a. A defense b. Transference c. A symptom d. Discomfort with the shadow aspect of personality

a. Transference a. Jungains view transference as a projection of the personal and collective unconscious. For example, one may initially experience one's therapist as a "godlike" figure (or achetype). Projection is not seen as a defense (Response 1), a symptom (Response 3), or reflecting discomfort with one's shadow (Response 4)

1.) Which of the following theories would see job enrichment as a valuable intervention? a. Reinforcement theory b. Expectancy theory c. Two factor theory d. Equity theory

a. Two factor theory c. Job enrichment involves expanding jobs to give employees a greater role in planning and performing their work, thus providing an opportunity to build motivators or satisfiers into job content. It involves increasing employees' autonomy, authority, and freedom, and encouraging employees to take on challenging tasks. It is partially based on Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, which predicts t hat increasing employees' responsibilities ( a motivator) will result in increased satisfaction and performance. Vroom's Expectancy Theory (Response 2) asserts that people behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy that certain rewards will follow. The reinforcement model (Response 1) is not a theory but a set of principles that predicts that people do more of things that have rewarding outcomes, avoid things that have punishing outcomes, and stop doing things that are neither rewarding nor punishing. Finally, Equity Theory (Response 4) looks at the ratio of self inputs/ self outcomes versus others' inputs/others' outcomes, and is based on Social Comparison Theory

1.) In order to extinguish a classically conditioned response, one should omit the: a. Conditioned stimulus b. Unconditioned stimulus c. Conditioned response d. Unconditioned response

a. Unconditioned stimulus a. Classically conditioned responses are based on pairing initially neutral stimuli with unconditioned stimuli, until the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a conditioned response. To extinguish this conditioned response, one would simply continue to present the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus until the pairing is slowly erased

1.) Selling questions from the EPPP is: a. Unethical but legal b. Illegal but ethical c. Ethical and legal d. Unethical and illegal

a. Unethical and illegal b. Selling questions from the EPPP is both illegal and unethical. For example, it is illegal and unethical for an organization to steal items by having licenses deliberately memorize items and then recall the items immediately after the exam. Note that this behavior is different from examinees remembering a few items here and there, as well as remembering some of the general content areas asked about

1.) A patient you have been seeing for three months is switching insurance companies. She asks you if you'd be willing to diagnose her as if this were a new condition. If you comply with this request, you are acting: a. Illegally b. Ethically but illegally c. Unethically and illegally d. Ethically and legally

a. Unethically and illegally a. Providing inaccurate information to the insurance company would constitute insurance fraud. It is both illegal and unethical

1.) A physician refers a patient to a psychologist who specializes in the treatment of pain. The patient has back pain secondary to a serious accident at work six months ago, in which he ruptured several disks. The psychologist should: a. Use hypnotherapy b. Conduct progressive muscle relaxation c. Use psychodynamic treatment d. Conduct an assessment for malingering

a. Use hypnotherapy a. Of the choices given hypnotherapy is the only acceptable response. Hypnotherapy is one treatment approach that is used for treating chronic pain. Chronic pain is also commonly treated with cognitive-behavioral interventions (e.g., activity-rest scheduling). Progressive muscle relaxation (Response 2) could negatively affect the patient's pain in that it involves first tensing, then relaxing each muscle group. Psychodynamic interventions (Response 3) would not be appropriate, since the man's back pain is related to a physical injury caused by an accident. Assessment for malingering (Response 4) is not indicated, as there is no suggestion of malingering.

1.) The halo effect can be controlled by all of the following except: a. Training the raters b. Utilizing forced choice c. Utilizing relative methods d. Utilizing BARS

a. Utilizing relative methods c. The halo effect is the tendency to be influenced by only one attribute when giving an overall rating of an individual. Halo effects can be positive, such as giving a positive overall rating because an individual is attractive, or negative, such as giving a negative overall rating because the individual dresses poorly. The following methods can help control for the halo effect: training the raters (Response 1); a forced response format in which the rater is forced to choose between two equally desirable or undesirable attributes (Response 2); and BARS, the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (Response 4), in which performance is based on critical incidents. Relative methods (Response 3), which involve comparing employees with one another, do not control for halo effects

1.) A behavior is reinforced on average every third time it occurs. The schedule of reinforcement being used is: a. Fixed interval b. Variable interval c. Fixed ratio d. Variable ratio

a. Variable ratio b. This is a difficult question that requires careful reading. In a variable ration schedule, behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses. Slot machines are an example of a variable ration schedule. The key words 'on average' should tip you off that it is a variable schedule, because the number of responses that are required for reinforcement keep changing. In a fixed ration schedule (Response 3), reinforcement would come after exactly the same number of responses each time, and there would be no need for an 'average.' What's also tricky is t hat the word 'time' is used. Some people will assume that this is an interval schedule, since interval schedules are based on elapsed time. However, the use of 'time' here implies the number of times the behavior is emitted (ration), and not elapsed time (interval)

1.) The right hemisphere plays an important role in: a. Language expression and reception b. Logical analytic functions c. Abstract thinking d. Visuospatial organization

a. Visuospatial organization b. The right hemisphere is involved with perceptual, visuospatial, artistic, musical, and intuitive activities. The left hemisphere is involved with language (Response 1), as well as with being rational, analytical, logical (Response 2), and abstract (Response 3)

1.) In which of the following circumstances would it be problematic to use a chi square a. When looking for differences between groups b. When the data are ordinal c. When repeated observations are made d. When there is more than one independent variable

a. When repeated observations are made a. Chi square is a non-parametric test of differences (Response 1), used when data are nominal, or categorical. Although there are specific non-parametric tests for ordinal data. (e.g., Mann-Whitney), the chi square can accommodate ordinal data (Response 2). When there is more than one independent variable, the multiple sample chi square is run (Response 4). One of the main assumptions of the chi square is independence of observations, thus, a chi square cannot be run when repeated observations are made (e.g., data are collected pre and post)

1.) Increasing test length a. Will affect only reliability b. Will affect reliability more than validity c. Will have an equal effect on reliability and validity d. Will affect neither reliability, nor validity

a. Will affect reliability more than validity a. Increasing test length will have a direct impact on reliability since it is one of the key factors that affect reliability. Everything else being equal, the more items a test has, the more reliable the test is. Since reliability, in turn, puts a ceiling on validity, increasing test length will also affect validity. However, the effect on validity will be less direct. Overall, reliability will be more affected than validity

1.) You are on an admissions committee and your husband applies to that program. You should: a. Proceed with caution b. Withdraw temporarily from the committee c. Withdraw permanently from the committee d. Seek consultation

a. Withdraw temporarily from the committee a. If you are on an admissions committee and your husband (or for that matter anyone you know) applies to the program, you should temporarily withdraw from the committee

1.) Which of the following statements best summarizes the "Self-in-Relation" theory of the Stone Center at Wellesley college? a. Men and women develop a sense of self through relationship with others b. Women develop a sense of self through relationships with others c. Women have greater autonomy needs than men d. Women's sense of self is more strongly affected by their relationships with women (e.g., mothers, sisters) than with men (e.g., fathers, brothers)

a. Women develop a sense of self through relationships with others a. According to the "Self-in Relation" theory, women develop their sense of self through relationships with others. This theory is in opposition to male-oriented theories that emphasize autonomy and separation as pathways of development. This theory does not concern itself with men's development (Response 1). Response 3 is the opposite of "Self-in-Relation theory" which downplays autonomy needs for women. Response 4 simply does not related to this theory at all.

1.) A Structural Family Therapist would be most likely to: a. Work on boundary issues b. Work on differentiation issues c. Prescribe the symptom d. Be concerned with double binds

a. Work on boundary issues a. Structural Family Therapists follow the work of Minuchin. The key aspect of this treatment is focusing on the family's hierarchy and working on problematic boundary issues. Differentiation issues (Response 2) are addressed by Bowenian family systems therapists. Prescribing the symptom (Response 3) is more typical of a Strategic Therapist (e.g., Haley). Concern for double binds (Response 4) would likely be the focus of a Communication Family Therapist such as Satir, Jackson, and Bateson. These therapists are sometimes known as the Mental Research Institute (MRI) group

1.) In an attempt to minimize discrimination against disadvantaged persons, employment testing has frequently included: a. Multiple-aptitude batteries b. Work sample tests c. Biodata d. Norm-referenced testing

a. Work sample tests a. To minimize discrimination, employment testing has moved from standardized tests in the direction of work sample tests. Work sample tests are excellent and fair predictors of work performance. Testing in general, such as multiple aptitude batteries (Response 1) and norm-referenced testing (Response 4), tend to unfairly discriminate against disadvantaged individuals. Although biodata (Response 3) are generally good predictors of performance, work samples are even better

1.) A family you are treating mentions the 5-year-old daughter has headaches. You notice that there are some bruises on her forehead as well as on her arms, and have some concern about possible child abuse. You wish to contact the child's physician. In order to do so: a. You should get written consent from the parents b. You should get verbal consent from the parents c. You do not need to get consent from the parents d. You need consent from the parents and child

a. You should get written consent from the parents a. In general, the law mandates that you breach confidentiality to report suspected abuse to child protective services. Such reports are breaches of confidentiality because they are typically made without parental consent. In this situation, in order to discuss your concerns re: abuse with the physician, you would need consent from the parents. Ideally consent should be written (Response 1), although verbal consent (Response 2) would be acceptable