Test 2 pt.2

Consumers within market segments should be more similar to one another on key consumption-related characteristics than they should be with consumers in other segments. This requirement for effectively segmenting markets is referred to as homogeneous within, heterogeneous between. T or F

True

Firms are engaging in brand extension strategies when they launch new products bearing the firm's family brand into the same product line as its existing products. T or F

False Brand extension occurs when firms launch new products

Distributors' brands are owned, supported, and promoted by the manufacturer. T or F

False Distributors' brands are owned and marketed by middlemen.

Jill is a very deliberate buyer. She is very risk averse and is always careful to ensure that she makes the best decision possible for her precious dollars. Jill prefers to buy known brands because it makes it easier to compare prices. T or F

False branding tends to make direct price comparisons harder since individual brands can be differentiated from one another in terms of benefits, features, services, promotional associations, etc

Tara Foods of Georgia produces a wide range of peanut butters and food extracts, but does not sell any of its output under its own brand name. Tara Foods evidently produces private label brands. T or F

True

The brand names Acura, Quick Metal, Duracell, and Compaq were developed by a technique with which words and part-words (called morphemes) were combined and tested to create the names. T or F

True

To reverse a downward trend in sales, Mazda introduced its MPV minivan. Mazda positioned its van as a cross between a standard minivan and a sport utility vehicle. Mazda knew that it needed to use a market segmentation strategy to correctly target the MPV. The first thing Mazda had to do when it segmented the automobile-buyer market was to identify the current and potential needs of the market (assuming that a benefit segmentation base was desirable). T or F

True

When marketers select key elements of the physical, enhanced, and affective brand levels to emphasize in their promotions, they are attempting to structure the "position" of the brand in consumer's minds. T or F

True

Purchases for ____________are unplanned. Decisions to buy the product type and brand are made on the spur of the moment as consumers are ostensibly shopping for other products. a. Shopping b. Staple c. Impulse d. Variety-seeking e. Low involvement

c. Impulse

Modern branding, as we commonly know it today, actually began with Henry Ford and his Model T. T or F

False

The distinct lettering that identifies a brand is generally referred to as the brand mark, T or F

False

The presence of a known brand on a product helps the consumer in a number of ways, including providing immediate knowledge of the price charged for the brand. T or F

False False. Branding does not provide immediate knowledge of prices. Prices are set by resellers using a number of criteria. Branding can, however, suggest a probable price range to be expected.

The totality of synaptic associations in a consumer's mind that hold all the feelings, images, sensations, experiences, and other content representing a brand is called brand position. T or F

False False. The totality of association in the consumer's mind for a brand is called the brand schema and it is responsible for determining the brand's image and position in the consumer's mind.

Normally geographic roll-out for a new product begins in geographic areas distant from the product's original test market locations in case further test marketing may be required for fine-tuning the marketing mix as commercialization progresses. T or F

False Feedback: False. Roll-out normally occurs first in those areas closest to the test locations to reduce costs and provide added incremental testing.

Retailers such as Kroger market their own private label brands primarily to encourage consumers to comparison shop. T or F

False Private label brands typically provide added value to customers and generate substantial revenue for retailers.

When Excedrin introduced its new Excedrin Migraine into its product line of pain relievers, it was introducing a flanker brand. T or F

False Rationale: False. It was introducing a line extension.

Consider the overall market for beverages in the US. This market consists of both alcoholic and non-alcoholic drinks. Within the alcoholic portion of the market there is a large number of different types of alcoholic drinks, including wines, beers, hard liquors, etc. In addition, each of these later alcoholic lines of beverages can be further subdivided. For example, beers can be, as a minimum, divided into ales and lagers, with many subcategories within these broader groups. If one is seeking to enter the beer brewing business and is conducting an MOA, they might define the entire beer market as a niche. T or F

False Rationale: False. The entire beer market would be the mass market or total product market.

When marketers segment consumer markets into heavy, light, and moderate users of products they are employing a usage occasion segmentation scheme. T or F

False Rationale: False. Usage rate is the correct segmentation scheme.

Mass marketing (as contrasted with market segmentation) is most likely to be a viable strategy when the market contains a large number of competitors, all of whom target one or more specific market segments within the overall product/market. T or F

False Rationale: False: Mass marketing is not a viable strategy in this situation.

The makers of Rollerblade ran a series of ads with the headline "What's in a name? Everything." Based solely on the headline, the ad probably was attempting to rejuvenate sales for the declining brand. T or F

False The ad was intended to remind consumers that the Rollerblade brand is trademarked and should not be confused with other brands of inline skate.

Ads and packaging for Vaseline always present the brand as Vaseline brand petroleum jelly because the producer does not want consumers to forget that Vaseline is a petroleum jelly. T or F

False The producer is linking the brand with the name of the product category in an attempt to forestall the Vaseline brand from becoming declared as generic.

When automotive dealers emphasize the quality of their friendly and expert service at dealerships, comfortable and clean waiting rooms at service facilities, liberal financing options, and no pressure sales, they are attempting to influence customers' perceptions of the core values level of brand. T or F

False. Marketers are attempting to structure perceptions of the enhanced brand.

A major advantage of using family branding is that it makes it less expensive to introduce new, related products. T or F

True

A major potential drawback to the co-branding strategy is the risk of damaging a brand name if the cooperative endeavor fails. T or F

True

Consider the overall market for beverages in the US. This market consists of both alcoholic and non-alcoholic drinks. Within the alcoholic portion of the market there is a large number of different types of alcoholic drinks, including wines, beers, hard liquors, etc. In addition, each of these later alcoholic lines of beverages can be further subdivided. For example, beers can be, as a minimum, divided into ales and lagers, with many subcategories within these broader groups. If one is seeking to enter the beer brewing business and is conducting an MOA, they might define the category of ales to be a macro-segment. T or F

True

For an invention to become an innovation requires that the invention be capable of offering better solutions to recognized consumer problems. T or F

True

In the arena of new product development, the number of "inventions" exceeds the number of "innovations." T or F

True

Keurig is famous for its state-of-the-art coffee maker, but the company also makes other small appliances, such as an ice cream maker. Each product bears the Keurig name and carries on the Keurig reputation for high quality. Keurig uses "family" branding. T or F

True

Lucas is marketing manager for Monster, a producer of energy drinks. A primary market segment targeted by Monster is the fitness market. Lucas estimates that the size of this market exceeds $6.3 billion per year. In addition, Lucas estimates that Monster can garner 12% of this market, or $.756 billion. The upper estimate of $6.3 billion is the market potential for all energy drinks. T or F

True

Positive brand equity allows firms to launch new products more easily. T or F

True

When new products are being introduced, marketers must structure or influence consumers' basic knowledge or understanding of the benefits delivered by the brand. Marketing managers therefore are focusing on structuring aspects of the core values of the physical brand. T or F

True

A product's core benefits and physical characteristics comprise the ______________ level of product. a. Basic b. Augmented c. Enhanced d. Extended e. Fundamental

a. Basic

In-store stimuli such as end-of-aisle displays, shelf coupons, or free samples are often enough to stimulate purchases of ____________ goods. a. Convenience b. Shopping c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

a. Convenience

Products purchased as 'routine decisions' are generally: a. Convenience b. Shopping c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

a. Convenience

________________ are purchased with little effort and include most products purchased in grocery stores, convenience stores, hardware stores, drug stores. a. Convenience goods b. Shopping c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

a. Convenience goods

Standard test markets are most likely to be conducted for which type of new product innovation? a. Discontinuous innovations. b. Dynamically continuous innovations. c. Continuous innovations. d. All of the above are equally likely candidates for conducting a test market.

a. Discontinuous innovations

When first introduced, products such as VCRs, PCs, automobiles, aircraft, and electricity were ____________. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

a. Discontinuous innovations

____________ are new products that require customers to learn new things, acquire new experiences, and adapt their current consumption behaviors before they can be properly used. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

a. Discontinuous innovations

____________ are usually based on new technologies, provide dramatically different solutions to existing consumption-related problems, and require that consumers learn new ways of solving old problems. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

a. Discontinuous innovations

In which of the adopter categories will opinion leaders most likely be found? a. Early adopters b. Innovators c. Laggards d. Early majority e. Late majority

a. Early adopters

Developing an NPD protocol is a major component of which stage in the NPD process? a. Go-to-market strategy b. Idea development c. Screening and evaluation d. Business analysis e. Commercialization

a. Go-to-market strategy

Jennifer is marketing manager for a major consumer goods firm. She is interested in determining if market opportunity exists for the sales of a new brand of organic, gluten free line of ready-made dinners. Jennifer knows that the market for ready-made dinners is very large and heterogeneous and wants to more precisely pinpoint those customers within this market that are most likely to respond favorably to the new brand. Apparently, Jennifer is interested in: a. How to best segment the ready-made dinner market b. Determining the best position for her brand c. Determining the range of subcultural groups that exists in the ready-made meal market d. How to best promote her new brand e. All of the above

a. How to best segment the ready-made dinner market

__________ refers to an overall process whereby inventions are transformed into commercial products that can be sold profitably. a. Innovation b. NPD c. Production d. Market development e. Diversification

a. Innovation

When a trucking company buys more trucks to haul goods for its customers or an airline company buys more jet-liners to ferry people from place to place they are purchasing ___________ . a. Installations. b. Operating supply. c. Component part. d. Fabricating material. e. Accessory equipment.

a. Installations.

The adopter categories called innovators and early adopters are targeted primarily during which stage of the PLC? a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline e. All of the above.

a. Introduction

___________ means creating something that is new or unique. a. Invention b. NPD c. Production d. Market development e. Innovation

a. Invention

The gasoline-electric vehicle marketed by Honda apparently is viewed negatively by many Texans because it doesn't fit their expectations of power and performance. Apparently, the new Honda may be slow to diffuse in the market because: a. It lacks value compatibility. b. Lacks relative advantage. c. Is difficult to sample on a 'trial' basis. d. Is too complex of a vehicle to operate. e. Lacks aesthetic appeal.

a. It lacks value compatibility.

When Excedrin introduced its new Excedrin Migraine into its product line of pain relievers, it was introducing a: a. Line extension. b. Flanker brand. c. Brand extension. d. Brand License. e. Category extension.

a. Line extension.

Which of the following is not a metric for gauging overall NPD performance in the firm? a. Market share obtained for a specific new product. b. Percentage of the firm's new product successes, failures, and kills. c. Average time to market for NPD projects (idea to launch. d. Percentage of the firm's NPD projects that are on-time and on-budget; e. Percent of NPD projects meeting objectives.

a. Market share obtained for a specific new product.

With respect to the diffusion of innovations, the combined categories Early Majority and Late Majority are said to comprise the _____________ for a given product. a. Mass market b. Target market c. Primary market d. Center market.

a. Mass market

From a consumer's point of view, branding: a. Means getting comparable quality with each purchase. b. Increases price competition. c. Substantially reduces a seller's promotional costs. d. Makes it easier for a consumer to compare prices for different brands. e. Makes it difficult for the seller to introduce new products to a company's line.

a. Means getting comparable quality with each purchase.

Which of the following in least important for firms seeking to manage their services brands? a. Monitoring and responding to changes made by direct competitors b. Find and promote a tangible object that represents the service image the firm wishes to project, such as Prudential's "rock" that signals strength and stability c. Identifying and promoting key factors that are important for solidifying brand image d. Ensuring that these key factors are consistently performed and emphasized with each service encounter e. Having control programs in place to monitor service delivery and brand image

a. Monitoring and responding to changes made by direct competitors

The preferred approach to organizing for NPD is: a. New product development teams. b. Sequential product development. c. Linear product development. d. Progressive product development. e. Dynamic product development.

a. New product development teams.

Most new product failures resulting from overestimating demand probably can be traced to ____________ . a. Poorly conducted marketing research or no research. b. Poor management of the new product introduction. c. A critical change in the economy during the product's introduction. d. Competitive actions intended to damage sales of the new product.

a. Poorly conducted marketing research or no research.

With respect to product mix terminology, a firm's closely related product items in terms of characteristics and function are referred to as: a. Product lines b. Product portfolios c. Product line width d. Flanker brands e. Item extensions.

a. Product lines

All of the products offered for sale by a firm characterize its: a. Product mix. b. Product line. c. Product item set. d. Brand set e. Product portfolio.

a. Product mix.

______________ undergo extensive additional processing during their conversation into other products. The only initial processing received is to preserve them during storage while awaiting shipping to production facilities or to make the product easier and/or less expensive to ship. a. Raw materials b. Operating supplies c. Component parts d. Fabricating materials e. Accessory equipment

a. Raw materials

Consumers usually actively seek information about alternative brands before making decisions for ____________ products. Generally, more time is spent comparing alternatives for this type of good than for any other. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

a. Shopping

_______ generally include clothing, jewelry, automobiles, electronics, homes, major appliances, small appliances, recreational equipment, and gifts. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Durable d. Convenience e. B2C

a. Shopping

_____________ are those for which consumers compare alternative brands against one another or compare the same brands across multiple retail settings prior to making a purchase decision. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

a. Shopping

Management is in the _____________ stage of the new-product development process when it estimates market demand and prepares cost estimates for the new product. a. Strategic business analysis b. Environmental audit c. Idea screening d. Test market e. Prototype development

a. Strategic business analysis

Alpha tests during NPD normally use: a. The firm's own employees. b. Actual consumers during focus groups. c. Actual consumers during in-home use. d. Members of the NPD team only.

a. The firm's own employees.

___________ is a more structured form of brainstorming session in which the characteristics and functions of a specific product (e.g. a screw driver) are presented to the group and the task is to brainstorm ways to improve on those characteristics and functions. a. Problem analysis. b. Attribute listing. c. Functional analysis. d. Structural analysis.

b. Attribute listing.

One of the most important technological advances in services delivery (services distribution) is: a. The internet and apps that allow firms to directly interface with customers b. Databases containing extensive information that can be "mined" to better understand customers' services needs c. Sophisticated statistical programs that can search for clusters of potential customers in geographic markets d. Extensive and rapid supply chains that ensure service providers have better tools and materials to improve the quality of services delivery. e. All of a, b, c above.

a. The internet and apps that allow firms to directly interface with customers

Probably the single-most important factor for speeding the new product adoption and diffusion process and assuring the product's success is: a. The product's relative value compared to existing products b. Assuring the new product's design is simplified to its most fundamental nature i.e., the product is not overly complex to understand and use. c. The new product's marketing program is well-designed with all elements of the marketing mix working together to present a unified message to buyers. d. The product's launch is timed to coincide with rising economic trends.

a. The product's relative value compared to existing products

The first four steps in the new product development process are particularly critical because: a. These steps deal with ideas or 'concepts on paper' and are the least expensive. b. These steps provide the best information for projecting whether the product will succeed or fail. c. These steps include actually developing the physical product so that we can see how it will really function before committing to commercialization. d. These steps are mandated by federal law. We must be able to demonstrate that for all new products introduced that these steps were adequately performed. e. None of the above is true of the first four steps.

a. These steps deal with ideas or 'concepts on paper' and are the least expensive.

P&G has decided to add a line of life insurance instruments targeted to consumers of its existing brands. This decision will result in P&G increasing the ________ of its product mix. a. Width b. Depth d. Length e. Scope f. All of the above.

a. Width

Frito Lay test marketed a new flavored potato chip fundamentally identical to Procter & Gamble's Pringles line of chips. Sales were disappointing as revenues were not even high enough to cover the product's costs. Frito Lay decided not to commercialize the product primarily because the were afraid the product would be a(n) _______________ ? a. Relative failure. b. Absolute failure. c. Miserable performer. d. Marginal failure. e. Market failure.

b. Absolute failure.

Corrs the soft drink violated ___________ when it named its soft drink and used a logo font very similar to that of Coors beer. a. Brand patent law and regulations b. Brand trademark law and regulations c. Brand prototype law and regulations d. Brand service mark law and regulation e. Brand logotype law and regulations

b. Brand trademark law and regulations

When microwave ovens were introduced in the early 1960s, they were slow to be adopted. Although the ovens scored very high on relative advantage, they were deemed to be inconsistent with the wife's role in the kitchen and perceptions on how food should be prepared. Which of the following factors that influence how rapidly new products diffuse was most likely the culprit?' a. Relative advantage b. Compatibility c. Trialability d. Communicability e. Complexity.

b. Compatibility

When expanding the firm's product mix by adding new product lines the least risky approach is to ensure that these new lines are ___________ existing lines in the mix. a. Inconsistent with b. Consistent with c. Differentiated from d. Of higher quality than e. Priced lower than.

b. Consistent with

In 1990, Coors launched Coors Rocky Mountain Spring Water, attempting to leverage its images of beer brewed with Rocky Mountain spring water. The product failed because: a. It lacked any significant incremental advantage or value compared to other existing spring waters. b. Consumers simply did not want the product. Coors means beer, not water. c. The timing was wrong. It was introduced in the winter. Insufficient funds were channeled into the promotion program. d. Coors' existing distribution network was hesitant to stock the product.

b. Consumers simply did not want the product. Coors means beer, not water.

For ______________ products, consumers engage in no to little information search and rarely actively compare brands. They will readily purchase substitute brands if their preferred brand is unavailable. a. Shopping b. Convenience c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

b. Convenience

From a customer-oriented perspective, the ideal basis for segmenting a market is with: a. Product usage rates b. Customer's desired benefits or needs c. Customer demographics d. Where customers live e. When customers tend to use a product.

b. Customer's desired benefits or needs

When P&G adds a new laundry detergent (a flanker brand) to its existing line of detergents it has changed the ___________ of its product mix. a. Width b. Depth c. Breadth d. Scope e. All of the above.

b. Depth

Once new product ideas are screened to weed out poor promising ideas, the next step is to: a. Take the idea into the business analysis phase b. Develop the ideas into workable 'product concepts' for possible testing with consumers c. Build a prototype of the product for further testing d. Test market the ideas e. None of the above.

b. Develop the ideas into workable 'product concepts' for possible testing with consumers

Today's smart phones are highly evolved extensions of the older communications and computer technologies. The core function and benefit of smart phones is still that they permit people to communicate with other people. Smart phones when initially introduced as a product category were ___________. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

b. Dynamically continuous innovations

____________ generally arises when two or more product ideas are combined in such a way that customers face some re-learning with respect to the new product's functions and usage. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

b. Dynamically continuous innovations

____________ innovations are significant improvements on their parent innovations, but not nearly as disruptive in terms of the amount of re-learning involved to adopt the innovation for personal use. Examples include notebook computers, DVRs, commercial and military jet aircraft, and digital photography. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

b. Dynamically continuous innovations

Controlled test markets are most likely to be conducted for which type of new product innovation? a. Discontinuous innovations. b. Dynamically continuous innovations. c. Continuous innovations. d. All of the above are equally likely candidates for conducting a test market.

b. Dynamically continuous innovations.

Because many consumers see no differences between products at the basic level, proper management of the ___________ level of product allows the firm to differentiate its product from those of competitors. a. Core product b. Enhanced product c. Intangible product d. Physical product e. Total Product

b. Enhanced product

The 'level of product' that most closely represents the 'extra utility' provided by services such as credit, warrantees, delivery, post-sale service, etc. is called the: a. Core product b. Enhanced product c. Intangible product d. Actual or tangible product e. Total Product

b. Enhanced product

Like many characters created for commercials, the Chihuahua in the Taco Bell commercials has appeared on T-shirts, caps, cups, and posters--some licensed, many not. Soon some other commercials will capture the attention of the American consumer, and some other character(s) will appear on T-shirts, caps, cups, and posters. These commercial-derived products are examples of: a. Product positioning. b. Fads. c. Fashions. d. Postponed obsolescence. e. Forecasted trends.

b. Fads.

'Check sheets' and weighted point evaluation models are most likely to be employed in which stage of the new product development process? a. Idea generation. b. Idea screening. c. Prototype development. d. Test market. e. Commercialization.

b. Idea screening.

Customers in the __________ adopter category, on average, possess higher discretionary incomes, are often higher in social status, and more knowledgeable about new products. These adopters are most willing to take more consumption-related risks. However, this category is less likely to contain opinion leaders that influence others to buy. a. Early adopters b. Innovators c. Laggards d. Early majority e. Late majority

b. Innovators

Consumable production supplies, such items as sandpaper, welding rods, emery cloth, and solvents are considered to be: a. Installations. b. Operating supplies. c. Component parts. d. Fabricating materials. e. Accessory equipment.

b. Operating supplies.

____________ are short-lived items that facilitate routine operations. Consequently, they are repurchased frequently. This category of organizational products includes lubricating oils, light bulbs, many small office supply items, and janitorial supplies. a. Installations. b. Operating supply. c. Component part. d. Fabricating material. e. Accessory equipment.

b. Operating supply.

Probably the single most important invention in history that changed the world forever was the ___________ . a. Micro-processor b. Printing press c. Digital photography d. Cellular phone e. Drug Penicillin.

b. Printing press

Often conducted in a focus group setting, ______________is usually a customer-based process in which consumers are asked to elucidate on issues they have encountered using certain products or brands. a. Attributed listing. b. Problem analysis. c. Functional analysis d. Focused brainstorming.

b. Problem analysis.

A ________ is a concise statement of the proposed new product's characteristics and desired market position. This statement includes identification of the relevant target market; the desired product or brand image; the key functions and benefits the product will provide; and the specific attributes or characteristics that will deliver these functions and benefits. a. Brand position. b. Product concept. c. Value statement. d. Value position.

b. Product concept.

The Clorox Company, a manufacturer of bleach, has added a line of bleach-free disinfectant wipes for cleaning up spills and sticky fingers. With the addition of the Clorox disinfecting wipes, the firm has changed its: a. Market position. b. Product mix width or breadth. c. Market segmentation strategy. d. Product line depth. e. Position in the product life cycle.

b. Product mix width or breadth.

A firm that wants to sustain its revenues should engage in new product development because: a. Federal regulations require that a certain percentage of a company's products must be new b. Products inevitably pass through a life cycle that culminates in the demise of the product c. Consumers do not buy products that are not new and innovative d. New products are always more profitable e. Patent protection lasts for only 17 years and new products must be ready when patents expire.

b. Products inevitably pass through a life cycle that culminates in the demise of the product

Google has in place a set of procedures that generally guide future new product developmental efforts. These procedures summarize the roles of proposed new products in the firm's existing product portfolio; establishes tentative revenue, market share, and profitability goals for the new product; and tentatively sets aside resources that may be needed to produce, promote, and distribute the new offering. These procedures are called the new product development ____________ . a. System b. Protocol c. Prototype d. Process or procedure e. None of the above.

b. Protocol

_____________ is the traditional organization for new product development, is a linear structure in which individual departments work their portion of the project and then hand-off the results to the next department to begin their part. a. New product development teams. b. Sequential product development. c. Linear product development. d. Progressive product development. e. Dynamic product development.

b. Sequential product development.

Consumers are most likely to engage in 'extensive' decision making for ___________ goods. a. Convenience b. Shopping c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

b. Shopping

__________ are regularly purchased and consumed for basic lifestyle maintenance. Consumers typically restock these goods when visiting supermarkets. These goods routinely end up on shopping lists. a. Shopping b. Staple c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

b. Staple

Most new product ideas come from: a. The firm's customers. b. The firm's own employees and supply chain partners. c. Closely monitoring competitors' new product introductions. d. Critical review of the firm's quality assurance programs.

b. The firm's own employees and supply chain partners.

Which of the following is the most common reason why new product innovations fail? a. Failure of marketing research that overestimates demand for the product b. The product possesses insufficient relative advantage for existing products c. Product has design flaws or deficiencies that cannot be overcome d. One or more components of the marketing mix are executed poorly e. One or more competitors aggressively retaliated.

b. The product possesses insufficient relative advantage for existing products

Consumers cannot judge the quality of a service encounter prior to its actual delivery. As a result, consumers often seek out cues in the service-delivery environment in order to predict the level of service they can expect. This reflects which characteristic of services? a. Their perishability b. Their intangibility c. Their inseparability d. Their variability e. Their quality.

b. Their intangibility

Modern branding, as we commonly know it today, actually began: a. With Henry Ford, and the Model T b. With the American west, and ranches' horses and cattle c. With Apple's incredibly effective use of the brand letter "I" d. With President Franklin Roosevelt's branded statement about American having "nothing to fear but fear itself." e. With McDonald's and how it used the "Golden Arches" during the 1960s.

b. With the American west, and ranches' horses and cattle

Consider the overall market for beverages in the US. This market consists of both alcoholic and non-alcoholic drinks. Within the alcoholic portion of the market there are a large range on different types of alcoholic drinks, including wines, beers, hard liquors, etc. In addition, each of these later alcoholic lines of beverages can be further subdivided. For example, beers can be, as a minimum, divided into ales and lagers, with many subcategories within these broader groups. If one is seeking to enter the beer brewing business and is conducting an MOA, within the category of ales exists the subcategory of English ales which might be considered: a. The mass market or total product-market b. A macro-segment c. A micro-segment or niche d. A simple market segment

c. A micro-segment or niche

Alka-Seltzer recently brought back the animated character Speedy Alka-Seltzer as its spokesperson. "Speedy" best illustrates which of the following for the Alka-Seltzer brand? a. The brand mark b. The service mark c. A trade character d. The logo or logotype e. The brand name.

c. A trade character

Beta tests during NPD normally use: a. The firm's own employees. b. Actual consumers in focus groups. c. Actual consumers during normal use. d. Members of the NPD team only.

c. Actual consumers during normal use.

An oil drilling platform maintained by BP in the Gulf of Mexico is best classified as: a. Accessory equipment. b. A component part. c. An installation. d. Operating supply. e. Operating equipment.

c. An installation.

Apple's Newton PDA and McDonalds' Arch Deluxe both were new product failures primary due to: a. They lacked sufficient relative advantage over existing products. b. They were simply products that consumers did not want. c. Bad timing of launch. Both were launched before the market was ready for them. d. The marketing programs for both products were poorly executed.

c. Bad timing of launch. Both were launched before the market was ready for them.

The totality of synaptic associations in a consumer's mind that hold all the feelings, images, sensations, experiences, and other content representing a brand is called: a. Brand Name b. Brand Image c. Brand Schema d. Brand Position e. None of the above.

c. Brand Schema

Dupont's Quallofil is an insulating material used in multiple applications. One natural application is as the insulating material in sleeping bags. Quallofil is considered to be a: a. Raw material. b. Operating supply. c. Component part. d. Fabricating material. e. Accessory equipment.

c. Component part.

______________ have undergone extensive processing. In turn, these products are merged with other products as they are assembled into more complex final products. These products can always be identified as unique components of final products into which they are incorporated. a. Raw materials b. Operating supplies. c. Component parts d. Fabricating materials. e. Accessory equipment.

c. Component parts

When motor oil or anti-freeze is placed in automobile engines when they are manufactured, they are considered to be __________. a. Raw materials. b. Operating supplies. c. Component parts. d. Fabricating materials. e. Accessory equipment.

c. Component parts.

Apple's introduction of the iPhone X can be considered a _____________ . a. Discontinuous innovation b. Dynamically continuous innovation c. Continuous innovation d. Absolute product failure e. All of the above.

c. Continuous innovation

Bush's Baked Beans recently decided to reposition itself to parents as a "vegetable" that kids will eat and love. In terms of NPD, this repositioning attempt is categorized as a(n) _____________. a. Discontinuous innovation b. Dynamically continuous innovation c. Continuous innovation d. Discontinuous technology e. Dynamically continuous technology.

c. Continuous innovation

By far the most common category of new products is the ___________. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

c. Continuous innovations

Clothing manufacturer Van Heusen produces lines of its apparel specifically targeted to consumers who visit its factory outlet stores. These lines are slightly lower in quality and sell at significantly lower price points. In terms of NPD, these additional product lines are categorized as _____________. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Dynamically continuous technologies.

c. Continuous innovations

Line extensions, flanker brands, and brand extensions are classified as: a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

c. Continuous innovations

Most private label products added to retailers' product portfolios are derived from existing brands already produced by other firms. Such "new to the firm" products are examples of __________. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

c. Continuous innovations

The Chevrolet Camaro and Ford Mustang have undergone major redesigns in the last decade to improve sales, profits, market share, and brand image. In terms of NPD, these repositioning attempts are categorized as _____________. a. Discontinuous innovations b. Dynamically continuous innovations c. Continuous innovations d. Discontinuous technologies e. Dynamically continuous technologies.

c. Continuous innovations

Which of the following is not one of the three steps in the market segmentation process described in the text? a. Create market segments using the segmentation "bases" that have been identified. b. Profile customers in market segments. c. Estimate demand in segments that have been identified d. Identify segmentation bases or variables to be used.

c. Estimate demand in segments that have been identified

Campbell's Soup company recently ran a series of ads on TV in which a variety of new recipes for its soups were featured. This strategy generally is employed for products that are at the ______ stages of the PLC. a. Introduction only b. Introduction & growth c. Growth & maturity d. Maturity only. e. Decline only.

c. Growth & maturity

Al works as a cement finisher for a parking lot repaving company. He is suspicious of innovation and innovators. He was one of the very last people in the small Western city in which he lives to buy a microwave oven. When it comes to the adoption of microwave ovens, Al is in the _____ category. a. Early adopters b. Innovators c. Laggards d. Early majority e. Late majority.

c. Laggards

The requirement that a new product (innovation) be reasonably easy to understand and use means that the new product possesses ____________ . a. Relative advantage b. Communicability c. Low complexity d. Adoptability e. Compatibility

c. Low complexity

Ford motor company purchases anti-freeze in bulk from DuPont Corporation. This anti-freeze is placed in the radiators of its new cars prior to their being shipped to the dealers. The anti-freeze is: a. Accessory equipment. b. Operating supply. c. Manufactured or component part. d. Manufactured or fabricating material. e. Raw material.

c. Manufactured or component part.

Which of the following is not a metric used to gauge performance of a specific NPD project i.e., specific new product? a. Time to break-even. b. Profitability (NPV, operating profits) c. Number of retail outlets penetrated. d. Market share obtained. e. Performance to budget.

c. Number of retail outlets penetrated.

Airlines, hotels, theaters, and restaurants reduce prices during slow periods to shift demand away from peak consumption periods where the danger exists that all service requests may not be honored. This pricing strategy is called: a. Peak-demand pricing b. Discount pricing c. Off-peak pricing d. Marginal pricing e. Mark-down pricing.

c. Off-peak pricing

Which of the following best describes the primary distinction between component parts and fabricating materials? a. Parts undergo additional extensive processing as they are combined to make the larger product b. Materials undergo very little added processing as they are combined to make the larger product. The materials are always uniquely identifiable c. Parts undergo little or no additional processing as they are combined into the larger product. The parts are always uniquely identifiable d. The only processing that materials receive is to make them easier to ship, or to preserve them until they can be used. Parts undergo much more extensive processing e. None of the above is correct.

c. Parts undergo little or no additional processing as they are combined into the larger product. The parts are always uniquely identifiable

During which stage of NPD is a demonstrable and reproducible version of the physical product developed? a. Concept testing. b. Strategic business analysis. c. Prototype development. d. Test market. e. Commercialization.

c. Prototype development.

Product use test (user tests) are normally conducted during which stage of NPD? a. Concept testing. b. Strategic business analysis. c. Prototype development. d. Test market. e. Commercialization.

c. Prototype development.

Patricia extensively compared brands and prices for SLR camera equipment prior to finally deciding on the Nikon D300. Pat essentially has treated camera equipment as a ___________ good. a. Convenience b. Low involvement c. Shopping d. Emergency e. Specialty

c. Shopping

"Exclusive distribution" is most associated with the distribution of ____________ goods. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

c. Specialty

Advertising themes for ____________ goods generally focus on status and prestige. Attempts at comparative advertising have little effect on changing consumers' attitudes toward their preferred brand because pre-existing attitudes toward preferred brands are simply too strong. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

c. Specialty

Consumers typically possess very strong brand preferences for ______ goods. When such brand preferences exist, the consumer will accept no substitutes. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

c. Specialty

In-store promotional stimuli, such as displays, shelf coupons, and point-of-purchase promotions are least likely to influence consumers' purchases of _____________ goods. a. Shopping b. Staple c. Specialty d. Variety-seeking e. Impulse

c. Specialty

_____________ goods are distributed on selective or even "exclusive" bases. A limited number of retail outlets, often only one or two, in a geographic area may be employed. Close, cooperative working relationships are developed with retailers in ways that are intended to mutually benefit producers and retailers. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

c. Specialty

Detailed financial projections associated for proposed new products that build on the product's are made during which stage of the new product development process? a. Idea screening. b. Concept testing. c. Strategic business analysis. d. Prototype development. e. Test market.

c. Strategic business analysis.

Mass marketing (as contrasted with market segmentation) is most likely to be a viable strategy when: a. The market contains a large number of competitors, all of whom target one or more specific market segments within the overall product/market. b. The product is in the decline stage of its life cycle and competitors are systematically leaving the market. c. The product is in the introductory stage of the life cycle. Few competitors exist, the product is rather undifferentiated, and consumers' wants & needs are rather basic or simple with respect to the product in question d. The product is highly differentiated, with characteristics and benefits that appeal to a limited number of people in the overall product/market. e. None of the above.

c. The product is in the introductory stage of the life cycle. Few competitors exist, the product is rather undifferentiated, and consumers' wants & needs are rather basic or simple with respect to the product in question

Because services are simultaneously produced and delivered, they cannot be separated from the persons who deliver them. The quality of the service and utility (value) delivered to customers result from the efforts of those who perform the service. This reflects which characteristic of services? a. Their perishability b. Their intangibility c. Their inseparability d. Their variability e. Their quality.

c. Their inseparability

With respect to the PLC, the x-axis most closely represents: a. Sales b. Costs c. Time d. Product Type e. None of the above.

c. Time

Last week Janet purchased her first bottle of Excedrin Migraine. She wanted to see if the product's pain-relieving benefits were any better than those of the brand she currently uses. Janet is most likely in the ___________ stage of the new product adoption process. a. Awareness b. Evaluation c. Trial d. Information e. Adoption

c. Trial

Procter & Gamble produce and market Zest, Safeguard, Camay, and Lava brand bar soaps, among other personal care products. Zest is a refreshing "morning wake-up" soap. Safeguard is positioned as anitbacterial. Camay is a gentle cleansing soap. Lava is for tough cleaning jobs. These different brands illustrate the use of: a. a family branding strategy. b. a market aggregation strategy. c. a multiple-brand strategy. d. mass marketing. e. single-segment marketing.

c. a multiple-brand strategy.

New product development (NPD) is essential because it leads to ___________. a. Sustainable points of differentiation b. Sustainable competitive advantages c. Lower costs and higher profits d. A and b above e. A, b, and c above.

d. A and b above

The failure of 'New Coke' illustrates the danger of ignoring the importance of the _______________ with respect to its contribution to the consumer's overall brand image. a. Core brand b. Functional brand c. Enhanced brand d. Affective brand e. All of the above are equally important.

d. Affective brand

Which of the following is least characteristic of installations? a. Contribute significantly to the scale of operations. b. Tend to be capitalized on balance sheets. c. Tend to be 'expensed' over time. d. Are 'used up' in daily operations. e. Are relatively high cost items.

d. Are 'used up' in daily operations.

Which of the following is the most likely reason the advertiser ran the Rollerblade ad below? a. To differentiate the brand from its competitors. b. The brand is in the decline stage of the PLC and this is an attempt to rejuvenate sales. c. They are probably trying to pave the way to begin licensing the brand. d. Because the brand is in danger of becoming 'generic' and the ad emphasizes the equity associated with brand ownership e. None of the above seems plausible.

d. Because the brand is in danger of becoming 'generic' and the ad emphasizes the equity associated with brand ownership

Being too quick to criticize new product ideas is considered to be one the biggest pitfalls of _______________ . a. Focus groups. b. Problem analysis. c. Attribute listing. d. Brainstorming. e. Test marketing.

d. Brainstorming.

Since consumers are more likely to brand-switch, marketers advertise their brands extensively in mass media. Advertising costs are normally initiated and paid for by the product's manufacturers to create top-of-mind brand awareness via a "pull effect." This description applies primarily to _______________ goods. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Convenience e. B2C

d. Convenience

Products that tend to be purchased on impulse or to seek variety are: a. Accessory equipment b. Specialty goods c. Shopping goods d. Convenience goods e. Impulse goods

d. Convenience goods

The 'staple good' is most closely associated with the _____________ category of products. a. Accessory equipment b. Specialty goods c. Shopping goods d. Convenience goods e. None of the above.

d. Convenience goods

When new products are being introduced, marketers must structure or influence consumers' basic knowledge or understanding of the benefits delivered by the brand. Marketing managers therefore are focusing on structuring aspects of the ___________. a. Extended brand b. Enhanced brand c. Affective brand d. Core values of the physical brand e. None of the above.

d. Core values of the physical brand

In commoditized markets, the likelihood of price and market share wars can be reduced if firms successfully ______________ their brands through their NPD efforts. a. Market b. Advertise c. Position d. Differentiate e. Distribute

d. Differentiate

Consumers are generally more concerned with time and place utility when making purchases for _____________ goods. These purchase conditions make consumers less price sensitive and willing to pay more to obtain the product when and where it is needed. a. Shopping b. Staple c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

d. Emergency

____________ are products which consumers use up and must restock quickly. Alternatively, a unique need might arise that requires immediate satisfaction, such as an umbrella on a rainy day. a. Shopping b. Staple c. Specialty d. Emergency e. Low involvement

d. Emergency

Products such as flour, chemical additives of various types, steel, and aluminum ingots are usually classified as: a. Raw materials. b. Operating supplies. c. Component parts. d. Fabricating materials e. Accessory equipment.

d. Fabricating materials

The classification scheme for consumer products divides these products into three basic categories defined by: a. The types of benefits the product delivers b. The general intensity of distribution for the products c. How the product is used by the consumer d. How much effort is expended in the purchase process e. None of the above.

d. How much effort is expended in the purchase process

Which of the following is an unlikely management strategy to use for a product in the decline stage of its product life cycle? a. Revitalize the product in some way in order to attract new users. b. Prune out unprofitable models and sizes. c. Abandon the product. d. Increase the depth of the product line by adding new line extensions or flanker brands. e. Cut all costs to the bare minimum.

d. Increase the depth of the product line by adding new line extensions or flanker brands.

Which of the following is least associated with the geographic roll-out of new products? a. Distribution of the new product occurs incrementally from one geographic area to the next b. Each incremental step in the roll-out process amounts to an additional test of the new product's viability c. Each incremental step in the roll-out process provides funding to help finance additional roll-out d. Incremental steps in the roll-out process are accompanied with changes in the marketing mix tailored to meet the requirements of each geographic market

d. Incremental steps in the roll-out process are accompanied with changes in the marketing mix tailored to meet the requirements of each geographic market

The term AIO stands for a series of measures designed to assess consumers' ____________. a. Self-concepts b. Brand attitudes c. Demographic traits d. Lifestyles e. Cultural values.

d. Lifestyles

Dial Company introduced liquid soap in 1988. Today competition in the industry is intense. The manufacturers of liquid soap are adopting a defensive positioning strategy and intensive product distribution. Their promotions appeal to brand loyalty. From this information, you know that liquid soap is in the _____ stage of its product life cycle. a. Development. b. Introduction. c. Growth. d. Maturity. e. Decline.

d. Maturity.

Which of the following forms of promotion is most closely linked with the ability to solidify brand image for the firm's services? a. Advertising b. Sales promotion c. Public relations d. Personal selling e. Publicity

d. Personal selling

The 'level of product' that is associated with the product's brand name, features, style, inherent quality and reliability, and functionality is called the: a. Core product b. Enhanced product c. Intangible product d. Physical product e. Total Product

d. Physical product

The company that is the first to introduce a new type of product to market often achieves a: a. Market penetration advantage. b. Product development feature. c. Diversification advantage. d. Pioneer advantage. e. Market development benefit.

d. Pioneer advantage.

Buyers can elevate their social status, or social class positions, by purchasing and displaying _____________ goods that "lesser" others can directly or indirectly observe, but probably cannot purchase for themselves. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Positional e. B2C

d. Positional

______________ goods are things or experiences that are valuable largely because other people cannot have or enjoy them. Examples include expensive paintings, sculptures, very expensive fine wines, and extremely expensive stays in luxury hotels. a. Shopping b. Durable c. Specialty d. Positional e. B2C

d. Positional

Sony Corporation conducted a series of consumer use tests in the 1990's in which consumers were given samples of its experimental digital camera. Participants were instructed to use the camera for all their picture-taking for the next 30 days. At the end of that time, participants were asked to a focus group session in which they were encouraged to elaborate on their usage experiences. Sony hoped that ideas for product modifications would emerge from the focus group that could be incorporated into the camera's final design. Sony was most likely employing which new product idea generation technique? a. Brainstorming. b. Attribute listing. c. Depth interviewing. d. Problem analysis. e. Test marketing.

d. Problem analysis.

Which of the following is not one of the things learned from product use tests in the NPD process? a. Consumers' initial sensory reactions to sensations of color, speed, durability, reliability, and functionality of the product. b. Early use experiences that provide information about the basic functionality of the product in use. c. Knowledge of whether the actual benefits delivered by the product match those intended by designers. d. Projections of anticipated sales and fine-tuning costs of production.

d. Projections of anticipated sales and fine-tuning costs of production.

The requirement that a new product (innovation) perform in a superior manner at fulfilling customers' needs (as compared to existing products) means that the new product possesses higher ____________ . a. Incremental value b. Market value c. Profit potential d. Relative value e. Comparative value

d. Relative value

__________ entail the performance of specialized activities by individuals or organizations for purposes of benefiting other entities (usually customers). a. Reward systems b. Customer relations c. Customer incentives d. Services e. Buying behaviors

d. Services

According to the text, what can be said about the general quality of products made in the US today? a. Quality is generally lower for US products now, as compared to products made in the past. b. Product quality continues to decline as a result of firms moving to lower quality materials in an effort to control costs. c. Quality is no longer a major tool for positioning and differentiation. d. The delivery of high quality now is viewed as a necessary condition to effectively compete in industries e. All of a, b, and c are true.

d. The delivery of high quality now is viewed as a necessary condition to effectively compete in industries

Which of the following is not true about using NPD teams? a. The teams are cross-functional with personnel drawn from multiple departments in the firm. b. Suppliers and customers may be team members. c. The use of teams transforms the NPD process into a holistic process. d. The diversity of the NPD team makes is much easier to manage. e. Each team member has an equal stake and remains on the team for the duration of the process.

d. The diversity of the NPD team makes is much easier to manage

The fact that services are performed by individual providers makes the service experience may be different from customer to customer or to the same customer over. This reflects which characteristic of services? a. Their perishability b. Their intangibility c. Their inseparability d. Their variability e. Their quality.

d. Their variability

That aspect of a 'product' that is most responsible for creating 'brand image' is: a. Core product. b. Tangible or physical product. c. Augmented product. d. Total product. e. Customer service.

d. Total product.

Bayer Aspirin promotes its Bayer PM brand as "the only night-time aspirin that relieves pain and gently helps you sleep." Bayer is positioning its brand using: a. Lifestyle b. Income c. Age d. Usage occasion e. Consumption or usage rate.

d. Usage occasion

Consumers are buying _______________ goods when they switch between brands of convenience goods out of boredom or the desire to change. Purchases may have been preplanned in that consumers "knew" they were going to purchase a specific product or brand but changed their minds in-store, deciding to try something different. a. Shopping b. Staple c. Impulse d. Variety-seeking e. Low involvement

d. Variety-seeking

Consumers may switch between different brands of some convenience goods out of boredom, just to change things up. These brand-switching behaviors are known as ______________. Purchases may have been preplanned in that consumers "knew" they were going to purchase a specific product or brand but changed their minds in-store, deciding to try something different. a. Routine decision making b. Inertia decisions c. Impulse decisions d. Variety-seeking decisions e. Complex decisions

d. Variety-seeking decisions

The requirement that market segments be "actionable" means that: a. Firms have the financial resources to target the market segments desired b. Firms' employees possess the necessary skill sets to capture sales in the desired segments c. There exist adequate media channels to communicate with customers in targeted segments d. There exist proper distribution channels to move products into the hands of consumer in targeted segments e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Which of the following are common metrics that gauge overall NPD performance in the firm? a. Percentage of the firm's revenues and profits coming from new products launched. b. Percentage of the firm's new product successes, failures, and kills. c. Average time to market for NPD projects (idea to launch. d. Percentage of the firm's NPD projects that are on-time and on-budget; e. All of the above are NPD metrics.

e. All of the above are NPD metrics.

Which of the following are metrics used to gauge performance of a specific NPD project i.e., specific new product? a. Time to break-even. b. Profitability (NPV, operating profits) c. Market share obtained. d. Performance to budget. e. All of the above are project-specific metrics.

e. All of the above are project-specific metrics

During the introductory stage of a product's life cycle: a. The promotional program is designed to stimulate demand for the product category. b. There is very little direct competition. c. Costs are high. d. The profit curve is negative through most (perhaps all) of this stage. e. All of the above are true.

e. All of the above are true.

Which of the following are true for commercializing new products via geographic roll-out. a. Each step during roll-out provides added funds for financing further roll-out. b. Each step during roll-out amounts to a further test of the new products probably success. c. Each step allows marketing managers to analyze and refine the new products marketing program. d. Each step allows marketers to find ways to cut costs and improve margins. e. All of the above are true.

e. All of the above are true.

Insufficient sales and changing demographics in a brands currently targeted market may a. Miller High Life beer b. Marlboro cigarettes c. Pepsi d. Mercedes e. All of the above were repositioned

e. All of the above were repositioned

There are many products sold that bear the Harley-Davidson brand, however Harley-Davidson does not manufacture these products.Instead, Harley-Davidson allows other manufacturers to use its brand name in return for royalties on the sales of these products.Harley-Davidson is apparently employing a ______________ strategy. a. Multiple branding b. Brand extension c. Family branding d. Co-branding e. Brand Licensing

e. Brand Licensing

Which of the following products is characterized by the requirement for 'intensive distribution.' a. Installations. b. Shopping goods. c. Specialty goods. d. Accessory equipment. e. Convenience goods.

e. Convenience goods.

The classification scheme for new products is based on: a. Degree of effort consumers expend in the buying decision process b. The amount of risk the consumer perceives to be attached to product purchase c. Consumer involvement with the product category d. Uniqueness of the technology upon which the new products are based. e. Degree of consumer learning or 're-learning' required for the new product.

e. Degree of consumer learning or 're-learning' required for the new product.

The _____ of a new product is the process by which an innovation is spread through a social system over time. a. Osmosis b. Diversification c. Differentiation d. Adoption e. Diffusion

e. Diffusion

The rate at which new products are adopted by users throughout a particular market, population, nation, or global region is ____________. a. Osmosis b. Diversification c. Differentiation d. Adoption e. Diffusion

e. Diffusion

You are the brand manager for Tide (P&G brand) and are considering ways to revive lagging sales. Recognizing that your brand and the product category as a whole are 'mature,' you are examining several strategic options. Which of the following is least likely to be a viable alternative to accomplish your sales goals? a. Introduce a 'brand extension' to capitalize on Tide's existing brand equity. b. Introduce a 'quality improvement' (e.g. "new and improved") under the same brand. c. Re-launch Tide using a new positioning strategy i.e. reposition the brand. d. Introduce a "feature improvement" via a change in packaging that adds a 'snap-top' lid. e. Harvest the brand.

e. Harvest the brand.

How might Whirlpool benefit if appliances it manufactured were sold at Sears under the Kenmore brand name? a. It would allow Whirlpool to use its production resources more effectively. b. It would allow Whirlpool to increase plant capacity. c. It would allow Whirlpool to generate additional sales volume. d. It would allow Whirlpool to utilize its working capital more effectively. e. It would allow Whirlpool to do all of the above.

e. It would allow Whirlpool to do all of the above.

Jill is a very deliberate buyer. She is very risk averse and is always careful to ensure that she makes the best decision possible for her precious dollars. Jill prefers to buy known brands because: a. It makes it easier to compare prices b. She knows what to expect in terms of quality and performance c. It saves her time and makes the decision process easier d. All of the above are true e. Only b and c above are true

e. Only b and c above are true

Olivia is current president of the American Marketing Association student chapter at UNT. She is an extremely intelligent and outgoing leader. Other students in the marketing degree program at UNT look to her for advice a range of academic and professional issues. Olivia, apparently, is a(n) ___________. a. Innovator b. Front-runner c. Majority leader d. Trend setter e. Opinion leader

e. Opinion leader

___________ are individuals who have a strong propensity to pass on both positive and negative word-of-mouth communications to other consumers. a. Innovators b. Innovators c. Early majority d. Late majority e. Opinion leaders

e. Opinion leaders

Apple computers have been characterized as "works of art" rather than just computers. Apple's focus on design aesthetics and functionality has proven a key ingredient to Apple's success. Apple is doing a great job of managing the ____________ level of product. a. Augmented b. Core c. Enhanced d. Tangible e. Physical

e. Physical

Colgate produces a wide range of toothpastes, mouthwashes, toothbrushes, and related oral care products. With respect to product mix terminology, each of these categories of products within Colgate's portfolio are considered to be a(n): a. Product mix b. Product item c. Product type d. Consumer non-durable e. Product line

e. Product line

Hismanal is a drug that will eliminate all of your seasonal allergy complaints without making you drowsy. In terms of currently available allergy remedies that do make many people drowsy, Hismanal has greater ______ for allergy sufferers, which should speed its diffusion rate. a. Aesthetics b. Compatibility c. Complexity d. Trialability e. Relative Advantage

e. Relative Advantage

Which of the following is not a component of the services marketing mix? a. Service offering b. Service price c. Service distribution d. Service promotion e. Service quality

e. Service quality

Candice insists on buying only Revlon cosmetics. Rather than purchasing other brands when Revlon is not available, Candice will postpone her purchase or drive substantial distances to find her preferred brand. To Candice, Revlon is what marketers refer to as a (select the best answer): a. Convenience good or product b. Shopping good or product c. Consumer good or product d. Status good or product e. Specialty good or product

e. Specialty good or product

Which of the following is not one of the adopter categories responsible for the spread of innovations (new products)? a. Innovator b. Early adopter c. Early majority d. Late Majority e. Stragglers

e. Stragglers

Ongoing NPD programs in firms are important for all of the following reasons except: a. Firms' older existing products eventually enter decline b. Firms can use NPD efforts to create points of differentiation with their competitors c. Firms can use NPD efforts to create sustainable competitive advantages over other firms. d. Strong NPD programs yielding creative new products increases the firm's ability to compete in global markets. e. Strong NPD programs increases the firm's ability to compete with lower prices in global markets.

e. Strong NPD programs increases the firm's ability to compete with lower prices in global markets.

The 'core values' component of the basic product is most closely associated with: a. The 'extra services' that provide added utility to customers, such as credit and delivery. b. The actual physical product that delivers benefits to the buyer. c. The 'total' product, including the actual physical product and the extra services provided. d. The product's brand name plus the actual physical attributes of the product. e. The fundamental benefits that the product delivers to buyers.

e. The fundamental benefits that the product delivers to buyers.

For which of the following situations is a test market least likely to be needed? a. Consumer acceptance of the new product is uncertain. b. Sales and profit potential are difficult to estimate. c. Costs of developing consumer interest and trial are uncertain. d. A major investment is required in the new product's production and marketing. e. The new product is a line extension in the firm's existing portfolio.

e. The new product is a line extension in the firm's existing portfolio.

The breadth or width of a firm's product mix refers to: a. Sales volume in each product line. b. The assortment of sizes and colors within each product line. c. The market share for each product item in the mix. d. The number of different models available in a given product line. e. The number of product lines carried

e. The number of product lines carried

The level of product that is most closely associated with brand image is: a. Core product b. Enhanced product c. Intangible product d. Physical product e. Total Product

e. Total Product