Test 4 (06 November 2022) Missed Items

In general, exposure to a teratogen during prenatal development causes the most serious defects when it occurs during the __________ weeks of development. A. 3rd through 8th B. 6th through 12th C. 10th through 18th D. 20th through 32nd

A. 3rd through 8th EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-06 Answer A is correct. The effects of prenatal exposure to a teratogen depend on the type and amount of the teratogen and the organ system but, in general, the most severe defects result when exposure occurs during the embryonic period, which extends from the beginning of the third week to the end of the eighth week.

According to the DSM-5, the median age of onset of specific phobia is between _____ years of age. A. 7 and 11 B. 13 and 16 C. 18 and 22 D. 40 and 45

A. 7 and 11 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-15 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 states that specific phobia usually begins in childhood, with the median age of onset being between 7 and 11 years of age and the mean being about 10 years of age.

The time-series group design is most similar to which of the following single-subject designs? A. AB B. ABAB C. multiple-baseline across behaviors D. multiple-baseline across subjects

A. AB EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research - Single-Subject and Group Designs-05 Answer A is correct. The time-series design is a type of within-subjects design that's essentially a group version of the single-subject AB design. It involves measuring the dependent variable at regular intervals multiple times before and after the independent variable is administered.

__________ interventions are designed to change the individual so he or she can better adapt to the demands of the environment. A. Autoplastic B. Alloplastic C. Emic D. Etic

A. Autoplastic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues - Terms and Concepts-23 Answer A is correct. Autoplastic interventions involve making changes in the individual so he/she can successfully adapt to the environment, while alloplastic interventions involve altering the environment to fit the needs, desires, or other attributes of the individual. Note that interventions that reflect an emic or etic perspective can be either autoplastic or alloplastic - i.e., an intervention that reflects e

Naltrexone is prescribed for a middle-aged patient who has just received a diagnosis of alcohol use disorder. This drug will have which of the following effects? A. It will reduce the patient's craving for alcohol. B. It will reduce the patient's tolerance to alcohol. C. It will make the patient nauseous when he drinks alcohol. D. It will reduce the severity of the patient's withdrawal symptoms.

A. It will reduce the patient's craving for alcohol. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology - Other Psychoactive Drugs-25 Answer A is correct. Naltrexone reduces the rewarding effects of alcohol (e.g., feelings of euphoria) and cravings for alcohol.

The stages of Selye's (1976) general adaptation syndrome are: A. alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. B. arousal, reaction, and resistance. C. alarm reaction, response, and enervation. D. exposure, reaction, and exhaustion.

A. alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-24 Answer A is correct. Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) consists of three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion.

To avoid dealing with their ongoing conflicts and hostility toward each other, the parents of a 10-year-old child blame the child for their problems. A structural family therapist would view this as an example of which of the following? A. detouring B. emotional triangle C. unstable coalition D. stable coalition

A. detouring EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. Detouring occurs when parents avoid dealing with their own conflicts by focusing on their child and either overprotecting the child or blaming the child for their problems.

Hypnopompic hallucinations occur: A. during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. B. during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. C. during sleep and involve seeing oneself from an external perspective. D. during sleep and involve sensing the presence of another person in the room.

A. during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-20 Answer A is correct. People with narcolepsy often experience hypnagogic and/or hypnopompic hallucinations which occur, respectively, during the transition from wakefulness to sleep or from sleep to wakefulness.

When conducting a(n) ___________, an organizational psychologist would assign points to a job's compensable factors. A. job evaluation B. job analysis C. organizational analysis D. needs analysis

A. job evaluation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-02 Answer A is correct. The point system is a commonly used method of job evaluation. It involves determining the monetary value of a job by assigning points to the job's compensable factors (e.g., effort, skill, responsibility, work conditions); summing the points to derive a total score; and using the total score to determine the appropriate compensation for the job.

Evidence for the five-factor model of personality has been provided by research using the __________ method. A. lexical B. statistical C. theoretical D. behavioral

A. lexical EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-03 Answer A is correct. Lexical research is based on the assumption that universally important personality traits are encoded in the language, and it has led to the identification of five basic personality traits. See, e.g., C. Coulacoglou and D. H. Saklofske, Psychometrics and psychological assessment: Principles and applications, London, Elsevier, 2017.

A member of an ethnic minority group rejects the values, beliefs, and cultural practices of both her own minority group and the dominant (majority) group. According to Berry (2003), this person has adopted which of the following acculturation strategies? A. marginalization B. separation C. exclusion D. disjunction

A. marginalization EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues - Terms and Concepts-24 Answer A is correct. J. W. Berry's acculturation model distinguishes between four acculturation strategies based on whether a member of a minority group accepts or rejects his/her own culture and the culture of the dominant (majority) group: integration, assimilation, separation, and marginalization. A person has adopted a marginalization strategy when the person rejects his/her own minority culture and the culture of the dominant group [Conceptual approaches to acculturation, in K. M. Chun, P. Organista, and G. Main (Eds.), Acculturation: Advances in theory, measurement, and applied research (pp. 17-37), Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 2003].

In a positively skewed distribution of scores, the __________ has the lowest value and the __________ has the highest value. A. mode; mean B. mean; mode C. median; mean D. mean; median

A. mode; mean EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores "piled up" in one side of the distribution and a few scores in the tail on the opposite side: In a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution); in a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution) - i.e., the "tail with the few scores tells the tale." In both types of skewed distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean has the highest value, the median has the middle value, and the mode has the lowest value.

With regard to the transtheoretical model, self-reevaluation is most useful for helping clients transition from the: A. precontemplation to the contemplation stage. B. contemplation to the preparation stage. C. preparation to the engagement stage. D. action to the maintenance stage.

B. contemplation to the preparation stage. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-09 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation is useful strategy for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because it helps them transition to the next stage - i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages of change identified by the transtheoretical model.

Research investigating the effectiveness of mindfulness-based therapy (MBT) has generally found that it is: A. more effective for treating psychological disorders than physical/medical conditions. B. more effective for treating physical/medical conditions than psychological disorders. C. equally effective for treating psychological disorders and physical/medical conditions. D. not as effective as a placebo for treating psychological disorders or physical/medical conditions.

A. more effective for treating psychological disorders than physical/medical conditions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-19 Answer A is correct. MBT includes mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR) and mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT). Based on their meta-analysis of research on MBT, B. Khoury and his colleagues conclude that MBT is effective for treating both psychological disorders and physical/medical conditions but is more effective for psychological disorders, especially depression, anxiety, and stress (Mindfulness-based therapy: A comprehensive meta-analysis, Clinical Psychology Review, 33, 763-771, 2013).

When Mrs. Smith reprimands her young son, Sam, for hitting the family dog, the boy stops hitting the dog for a brief period of time. Over time, Mrs. Smith finds that she has to reprimand Sam with increasing frequency to stop his undesirable behavior. Mrs. Smith's reprimands are being controlled by: A. negative reinforcement. B. positive reinforcement. C. negative punishment. D. positive punishment.

A. negative reinforcement. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-07 Answer A is correct. Mrs. Smith's reprimands are increasing in frequency because Sam stops hitting the dog when Mrs. Smith reprimands him - i.e., her reprimands are being negatively reinforced.

A research study found that adult smokers are more likely to successfully quit smoking when they have a negative image of the "typical" smoker. This result is predicted by which of the following? A. prototype/willingness model B. theory of planned behavior C. social judgment theory D. elaboration likelihood model

A. prototype/willingness model EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-05 Answer A is correct. According to the prototype/willingness model (Gibbons & Gerrard, 1995), a person's willingness to engage in a behavior depends on the person's perceived acceptability of the behavior which, in turn, is determined by the person's prototype (social image) of people who engage in the behavior. When the prototype is negative, the person is less willing to engage in the behavior, and vice versa. This question describes the results of a study conducted by M. Gerrary, F. X. Gibbons, D. J. Lane, and M. L. Stock [Smoking cessation: Social comparison level predicts success for adult smokers, Health Psychology, 24(6), 623-629, 2005].

The correct DSM-5 diagnosis for a 12-year-old boy who has two motor tics that began nine months ago is: A. provisional tic disorder. B. persistent tic disorder. C. unspecified tic disorder. D. Tourette's disorder.

A. provisional tic disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-04 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 includes three tic disorders: Tourette's disorder, persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder, and provisional tic disorder. The diagnosis of provisional tic disorder requires one or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for less than one year and began before the individual's 18th birthday.

According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, forgetting is caused by inadequate: A. retrieval cues. B. elaborative rehearsal. C. attention to details while encoding new information. D. organization of new information.

A. retrieval cues. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-12 Answer A is correct. According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of encoding new information are the same as the conditions at the time of information retrieval - e.g., when the person learns and retrieves information in the same environment or while in the same mood. When this occurs, conditions at the time of recall act as retrieval cues.

Areas of the cerebral cortex involved in the planning and execution of movement send excitatory signals to the: A. striatum. B. reticular formation. C. arcuate fasciculus. D. cingulate gyrus.

A. striatum. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-03 Answer A is correct. The striatum consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen. Knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that the basal ganglia facilitate voluntary movement would have allowed you to identify the striatum as the correct answer to this question.

Consensual observer drift __________ a measure's inter-rater reliability. A. tends to artificially increase B. tends to artificially decrease C. either artificially increases or decreases D. neither artificially increases nor decreases

A. tends to artificially increase EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-03 Answer A is correct. Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more raters communicate with each other while they're assigning ratings. It causes increased consistency (but often decreased accuracy) of their ratings and overestimates a measure's actual inter-rater reliability.

Seller et al.'s (1998) multidimensional model of racial identity predicts that racial salience is affected by: A. the current situation and racial centrality. B. the current situation and racial regard. C. self-appraisal and racial centrality. D. self-appraisal and racial regard.

A. the current situation and racial centrality. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues - Identity Development Models-124 Answer A is correct. The multidimensional model of racial identity proposes that there are four dimensions of African American identity: salience, centrality, regard, and ideology. Racial salience is affected by the nature of the person's current situation and the centrality of race for the person (i.e., the degree to which race defines the person's identity). For example, being the only African American student in a college classroom is more likely to increase the salience of race for the student when race is central to the student's identity than when it is not central.

According to the stress buffering hypothesis, stressful life events are less likely to lead to depression or other negative outcomes for people who feel they have adequate social support than for people who feel they don't have adequate social support. In this situation, social support is a(n) _________ variable. A. mediator B. moderator C. extraneous D. independent

B. moderator EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-02 Answer B is correct. A moderator variable affects the direction and/or strength of the relationship between two variables. In the situation described in this question, perceived social support moderates (affects) the likelihood that stressful life events will lead to depression and other negative outcomes.

McGuire's (1973) attitude inoculation hypothesis proposes that people are less likely to be induced by a persuasive message to change their attitudes when: A. they've heard a weak argument against their current attitude and refutations of that argument before being exposed to the persuasive message. B. they've heard arguments that support their own attitudes multiple times before being exposed to the persuasive message. C. the persuasive message is delivered by a low-credible communicator and there's a large discrepancy between their attitudes and the attitude advocated by the communicator. D. the persuasive message is delivered by a low-credible communicator and there's a moderate discrepancy between their attitudes and the attitude advocated by the communicator.

A. they've heard a weak argument against their current attitude and refutations of that argument before being exposed to the persuasive message. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Persuasion-09 Answer A is correct. McGuire's attitude inoculation hypothesis proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to "immunize" people against attempts to change their attitudes by providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments before they're exposed to a persuasive message.

When measuring the relationship between two variables, a restriction in range of scores on the variables will most likely produce a correlation coefficient that: A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables. B. overestimates the actual relationship between the variables. C. either under- or overestimates the actual relationship between the variables. D. neither under- nor overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.

A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Correlation and Regression-07 Answer A is correct. To determine the true relationship between variables, scores on both variables must be unrestricted in terms of range. When the range is restricted (e.g., when only low scorers are included in sample), the resulting correlation coefficient will underestimate their actual relationship.

An Impairment Index score of _____ or above on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery (HRNB) is usually indicative of brain damage. A. 0 to .5 B. .4 to .5 C. 1.0 D. 6.0 to 7.0

B. .4 to .5 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Clinical Tests-09 Answer B is correct. The Halstead-Reitan Impairment Index indicates the proportion of subtests that show evidence of brain damage and ranges from 0 to 1.0. The recommended cutoff score for brain damage depends on the individual's IQ: For those with an IQ of 100 or higher, the cutoff score is .4; for those with an IQ less than 100, the cutoff is .5. See, e.g., A. M. Horton, The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: Past, present, and future, A. M. Horton and D. Wedding (Eds.), The neuropsychology handbook (3rd ed., pp. 251-278), New York, Springer Publishing Company, 2008.

According to the DSM-5, _____ of women experience a major depressive episode during pregnancy or during the weeks or months after delivery and, of these episodes, about _____ begin before delivery. A. 3 to 6%; 25% B. 3 to 6%; 50% C. 8 to 12%; 25% D. 8 to 12%; 50%

B. 3 to 6%; 50% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-09 Answer B is correct. Estimates of postpartum depression (major depressive disorder with peripartum onset in the DSM-5) vary somewhat. However, this question is asking specifically about estimates provided in the DSM-5, which states that "between 3% and 6% of women will experience the onset of a major depressive episode during pregnancy or in the weeks or months following delivery ... [with 50% of episodes beginning] prior to delivery" (American Psychiatric Association, 2013, p. 186).

About _____ of patients with Parkinson's disease experience depression, which ____________________. A. 50%; always has an onset after the emergence of motor symptoms B. 50%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients C. 85%; always has an onset after the emergence of motor symptoms D. 85%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients

B. 50%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. About 50% of patients with Parkinson's disease experience depression at some time during the course of the disease, with depressive symptoms preceding motor symptoms for some patients. See, e.g., M. J. Mentis and D. Delalot, Depression in Parkinson's disease, in K. E. Anderson, W. J. Weiner, and A. E. Lang (Eds.), Advances in neurology, volume 96: Behavioral neurology of movement disorders (2nd ed., pp. 26-41), Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkens, 2005.

For most children, stranger anxiety begins at about _______ months of age. A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 15

B. 8 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development - Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer B is correct. The onset of stranger anxiety differs for different children and, as a result, the reported age of onset varies somewhat in the literature. However, most authors report the onset as being between 7 and 9 months or 8 and 10 months.

Which of the following describes ethical requirements regarding a psychologist's use of deception in a research study? A. Psychologists may use deception in the "most unusual circumstances" and when participants are not deceived about anything that would otherwise cause them to refuse to participate. B. Psychologists may use deception when it's justified by the study's prospective value and participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time. C. Psychologists may use deception when alternative procedures are unavailable and participants are debriefed about the true purpose of the study immediately after their participation. D. Psychologists may use deception in the "most unusual circumstances" and when participants are debriefed about the true purpose of the study immediately after their participation.

B. Psychologists may use deception when it's justified by the study's prospective value and participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-21 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and Standards III.23, III.24, and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07 states that psychologists should not use deception unless it's justified by the prospective value of the study, alternative procedures are unavailable, participants are debriefed about the true nature of the study as early as is feasible (which may or may not be immediately after participation), and participants are allowed to withdraw their data from the study.

The concordance rate for schizophrenia for monozygotic (identical) twins is: A. 90%. B. 78%. C. 48%. D. 26%.

C. 48%. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer C is correct. In his frequently cited review of the research, I. Gottesman reports a concordance rate for schizophrenia of 48% for monozygotic twins (Schizophrenia genesis, New York, W. H. Freeman & Co., 1991).

An advantage of conducting a single one-way ANOVA rather than separate t-tests when a study includes one independent variable with three or more levels is that the ANOVA: A. provides information on both main and interaction effects. B. controls the experimentwise error rate. C. reduces the effects of measurement error. D. controls the effects of an extraneous variable.

B. controls the experimentwise error rate. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer B is correct. The experimentwise error rate is the probability of making a Type I error when multiple statistical comparisons are made within a single research study. If an independent variable has three or more levels, several t-tests would have to be conducted because the t-test compares only two means at a time, and this would increase the experimentwise error rate. When using the one-way ANOVA, all possible comparisons between means are made in a way that maintains the experimentwise error rate at the alpha level set by the researcher.

Holland (1985) used which of the following terms to describe the extent to which a person's personality is clearly defined with regard to the six personality types. A. congruence B. differentiation C. integration D. satisfactoriness

B. differentiation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Career Choice and Development-13 Answer B is correct. Holland proposed that a personality/work environment match is most predictive of job outcomes when the person's score profile on the Self-Directed Search has a high degree of differentiation - that is, when the person scores high on one personality type and low on the other five types.

Piaget's stage theory of cognitive development views development as being: A. continuous and active. B. discontinuous and active. C. continuous and passive. D. discontinuous and passive.

B. discontinuous and active. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-181 Answer B is correct. Piaget's theory proposes discontinuous stages of cognitive development that are characterized by qualitatively different cognitive processes. His theory also proposes that development is an active process in which children interact with the world to construct their own knowledge.

Practitioners of motivational interviewing use evocative questions to: A. clarify therapy goals. B. elicit change talk. C. identify the client's style of life. D. foster self-efficacy.

B. elicit change talk. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-08 Answer B is correct. Even if you're not familiar with evocative questions, you would have been able to identify answer B as the correct answer as long as you know that practitioners of motivational interviewing use a variety of techniques to elicit and reinforce a client's "change talk" (statements that move the client toward making positive changes in his/her behavior). Evocative questions are open-ended questions that are designed to elicit change talk - e.g., reasons for changing ("What are some of the advantages of making this change?") and ability to change ("What makes you think you can change if you decide to change?").

According to Alfred Adler, a mistaken (unhealthy) style of life is characterized by: A. a lack of self-awareness. B. excessive self-interest. C. inadequate individuation. D. an external locus of control.

B. excessive self-interest. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-02 Answer B is correct. Knowing that social interest is a key concept in Adler's personality theory would have helped you identify excessive self-interest (the opposite of social interest) as the correct answer to this question.

A decrease in the effectiveness of punishment over time is often due to: A. satiation. B. habituation. C. response generalization. D. stimulus generalization.

B. habituation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-10 Answer B is correct. Habituation is one of the reasons why punishment does not usually have good long-term effects - i.e., over time, punishment tends to become less effective because the person habituates (becomes accustomed) to it. Satiation (answer A) is associated with reinforcement, which may lose its reinforcing effects (especially when it's provided on a continuous schedule) because the person becomes satiated.

Data on the rates of alcohol use disorder among first-generation immigrants in the United States indicate that the rate is highest for: A. individuals who emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 10 years. B. individuals who emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 20 years. C. individuals who emigrated as adolescents or adults and have been in the United States for 10 years. D. individuals who emigrated as adolescents or adults and have been in the United States for 25 years.

B. individuals who emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 20 years. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-25 Answer B is correct. Data from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions indicate that the prevalence of alcohol use disorder is highest among native-born Americans, slightly lower among second-generation immigrants, and markedly lower among first-generation immigrants. In addition, among first-generation immigrants, individuals who emigrated to the United States as children have higher rates than those who emigrated as adolescents or adults and, the greater the number of years in the United States, the higher the rate of alcohol use disorder [C. P. Salas-Wright et al., Substance use disorders among first- and second-generation immigrant adults in the United States: Evidence of an immigrant paradox?, Journal of Studies on Alcohol and Drugs, 75(6), 958-967, 2014].

In terms of age, Freud's latency stage corresponds to Erikson's ________ stage. A. initiative versus guilt B. industry versus inferiority C. identity versus role confusion D. autonomy versus shame and doubt

B. industry versus inferiority EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development - Temperament and Personality-15 Answer B is correct. Freud's latency stage and Erikson's industry versus inferiority stage both occur when children are between the ages of six and 11.

Research has shown that drugs that block protein synthesis while acquiring new information interfere with the formation of: A. short-term and long-term memories. B. long-term memories but not short-term memories. C. remote long-term memories but not recent long-term memories. D. long-term procedural memories but not long-term declarative memories.

B. long-term memories but not short-term memories. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Memory and Sleep-16 Answer B is correct. The studies have confirmed that the formation of long-term memories (but not short-term memories) depends on structural changes that strengthen synapses and that these structural changes depend on protein synthesis. Consequently, administration of a drug that blocks protein synthesis during learning affects long-term memory but not short-term memory. See, e.g., M. K. Campbell, S. O. Farrell, and O. M. McDougal, Biochemistry (9th ed.), Boston, Cengage Learning, 2016.

An organizational psychologist is hired by a company to determine if the performance of many of its recently hired employees can be improved by providing them with training. To do so, the psychologist will conduct a: A. performance appraisal. B. needs analysis. C. task analysis. D. job evaluation.

B. needs analysis. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-10 Answer B is correct. A needs analysis is also known as a needs assessment and is conducted to identify training needs. An initial step in a needs analysis is determining if employee performance problems can be resolved with training.

Mildred Parten (1932) categorized children's play as being: A. physical or social. B. nonsocial or social. C. physical, emotional, or cognitive. D. constructive, expressive, or dramatic.

B. nonsocial or social. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development - Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. M. B. Parten distinguished between nonsocial and social play, with each type including three subtypes: Nonsocial play includes unoccupied play, solitary play, and onlooker play, while social play includes parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play [Social participation among pre-school children, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 27(3), 243-269, 1932].

Research has found that homosexual men are more likely than heterosexual men to have a later birth order and one or more: A. older sisters. B. older brothers. C. younger sisters. D. younger brothers.

B. older brothers. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-177 Answer B is correct. R. Blanchard and A. F. Bogaert found that the likelihood that a boy would be gay increases for each older brother born to the same mother, and this is referred to as the fraternal birth order effect [Homosexuality in men and number of older brothers, American Journal of Psychiatry, 153, 27-31, 1996]. Their findings were subsequently confirmed by a number of other studies, and a biological explanation for the effects of older brothers on sexual orientation has been proposed.

Of the following, which is least likely to be the optimal intervention when a child's target behavior is harmful to him/herself or others? A. response cost B. operant extinction C. overcorrection D. differential reinforcement

B. operant extinction EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.

Subjects in Schachter and Singer's (1962) "epinephrine studies" were injected with epinephrine, which produces mild physiological arousal. Some subjects were told what effect the drug would have, while others were either given false information or no information about the drug's effects. Each subject was then placed in a waiting room with a confederate who acted in an angry manner. As predicted by __________, only subjects given false or no information reported feeling angry. A. cognitive dissonance theory B. self-perception theory C. the elaboration likelihood model D. social judgment theory

B. self-perception theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-07 Answer B is correct. Subjects in the false and no information groups had no explanation for their physiological arousal and, as predicted by self-perception theory, they looked to their circumstances to find an explanation.

The initial stage in Troiden's (1989) homosexual identity development model is: A. conformity. B. sensitization. C. confusion. D. dissonance.

B. sensitization. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues - Identity Development Models-28 Answer B is correct. In order, the four stages of Troiden's homosexual identity development model are sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and commitment [R. R. Troiden, Homosexual identity development, Journal of Adolescent Health Care, 9(2), 105-113, 1989].

Drugs that increase which of the following are often used to treat premature ejaculation? A. GABA B. serotonin C. dopamine D. epinephrine

B. serotonin EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-21 Answer B is correct. SSRIs (e.g., paroxetine, dapoxetine, sertraline) and antidepressants that have similar effects as SSRIs have been found to be safe and effective treatments for premature ejaculation.

An organizational psychologist is hired by a large software company to develop a new selection test for hiring entry level software developers. To do so, she obtains a sample of 30 software developers who were recently hired by the company using its existing selection procedure and uses their responses to the proposed selection test items to determine which items to include in its final version. When she administers the final version of the test to this sample and correlates their test scores with scores on a measure of job performance, she obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .45. When the psychologist cross-validates the test on another sample of 40 recently hired software developers, the validity coefficient for this sample will most likely be: A. .45. B. smaller than .45. C. larger than .45. D. either smaller or larger than .45.

B. smaller than .45. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity - Content and Construct Validity-08 Answer B is correct. When a test is cross-validated on another sample, the criterion-related validity coefficient usually "shrinks" (is smaller) because the unique characteristics of the original sample affected which items were included in the test and the second sample will not have all of the same characteristics. In other words, the test was "custom-made" for the original sample and, as a result, the initial criterion-related validity coefficient overestimates the test's validity for other samples.

Components of a program logic model ordinarily include all of the following except: A. resources. B. solutions. C. activities. D. outputs.

B. solutions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-74 Answer B is correct. A program logic model is a visual representation of a program's components and is used to assist with the development, implementation, and evaluation of the program. Although the components may vary, resources, activities, and outputs are common components. Solutions is not identified in the literature as a component of logic models.

Beginning in early adolescence, the rate of major depressive disorder for females is about ________ times the rate for boys. A. .75 to 1.5 B. 1.0 to 2.0 C. 1.5 to 3.0 D. 2.5 to 4.5

C. 1.5 to 3.0 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-10 Answer C is correct. Prior to adolescence, the rates of major depressive disorder are about equal for males and females but, starting in early adolescence, the rate for females increases, with adolescent and adult females having a rate of 1.5 to 3.0 times the rate for males.

A test's __________ refers to its ability to correctly identify individuals who are true negatives. A. sensitivity B. specificity C. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value

B. specificity EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity - Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. Determining a test's sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value are one way of evaluating its validity. A test's specificity refers to its ability to accurately identify people who do not have disorder or other attribute the test was designed to identify. It's calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.

Dr. Hedges has been seeing Betty in therapy for three months to help her deal with the sudden death of her mother. She's made progress toward achieving her therapy goals, and they've started talking about terminating therapy. During her current session, Betty tells Dr. Hedges that her best friend is going through a divorce and she'd like to refer her to Dr. Hedges for therapy. Dr. Hedges should: A. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy until Betty's therapy has ended. B. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy and offer to give her friend referrals to other mental health professionals. C. agree to see Betty's friend in therapy only if he has experience working with clients who are going through a divorce. D. agree to see Betty's friend in therapy only if he discusses the potential problems with Betty and her friend that could arise because he's seeing them both in therapy.

B. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy and offer to give her friend referrals to other mental health professionals. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-05 Answer B is correct. Seeing the best friend of a client in therapy would constitute an unacceptable multiple relationship as defined in Standard 3.05 of the APA's Ethics Code and Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics because of the potential adverse effects of doing so. For example, Betty might disclose information about her friend to Dr. Hedges that her friend doesn't want Dr. Hedges to know.

When a predictor has low to moderate criterion-related validity, it can improve decision-making accuracy as long as: A. the base rate is high and the selection ratio is moderate. B. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low. C. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high. D. the base rate is low and the selection ratio is moderate.

B. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Employee Selection - Evaluation of Techniques-08 Answer B is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables provide an estimate of the increase in decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) that can be expected when a new predictor is used, and the estimate is based on the predictor's criterion-related validity, the base rate, and the selection ratio. The tables indicate that, even when a predictor's validity coefficient is low to moderate, it can improve decision-making accuracy as long as the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.

As described by Irvin Yalom (1985), the third formative stage of group psychotherapy is characterized by: A. advice seeking and giving. B. the development of cohesiveness. C. hostility toward the therapist. D. escalating conflict and competition.

B. the development of cohesiveness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-14 Answer B is correct. According to Yalom, the formative stage of group therapy consists of three phases: (1) orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, and dependency; (2) conflict, dominance, and rebellion; and (3) development of cohesiveness.

A friend of yours says she's noticed that she's most attracted to people who start out "not being too crazy" about her but like her a lot after they get to know her. Your friend's comment is most consistent with which of the following? A. the law of attraction B. the gain-loss effect C. the mere exposure effect D. the sleeper effect

B. the gain-loss effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-13 Answer B is correct. Research on the gain-loss effect (Aronson & Linder, 1965) has found that we're more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds after they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

Practitioners of acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) would most likely agree that: A. the presence of chronic psychological pain is indicative of pathology. B. the presence of psychological pain is universal and normal. C. psychological pain is caused by irresponsibility in fulfilling one's needs. D. psychological pain is the result of unconscious and unresolved conflicts.

B. the presence of psychological pain is universal and normal. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-17 Answer B is correct. ACT is based on the assumptions "that psychological pain is both universal and normal and is part of what makes us human ... [and] that psychological problems are maintained by excessive avoidance of painful experiences (thoughts, feelings, memories, etc.)" [J. Boorman, E. Morris, and J. Oliver, Acceptance and commitment therapy, in C. Feltham, T. Hanley, and L. A. Winter (Eds.), The SAGE handbook of counseling and psychotherapy (pp. 218-223), London, SAGE Publications Ltd., 2017].

A problem with the forced distribution method of performance assessment is that: A. the scoring and interpretation of the performance categories are complicated and time-consuming. B. the prespecified performance categories may not match the actual performance of employees. C. it provides information on extreme (rather than typical) job-related behaviors. D. it's very susceptible to central tendency, leniency, and strictness rater biases.

B. the prespecified performance categories may not match the actual performance of employees. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer B is correct. The forced distribution method requires the rater to assign a certain percent of employees to prespecified performance categories for each performance dimension. It helps alleviate rater biases, but it provides inaccurate information when the performance of the employees does not match those categories.

The item discrimination index (D) ranges from: A. 0 to +1.0. B. 0 to 50. C. -1.00 to +1.00. D. -50 to +50.

C. -1.00 to +1.00. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-01 Answer C is correct. The value of D ranges from -1.0 to +1.0. When D is +1.0, this indicates that all examinees in the high-scoring group answered the item correctly and all examinees in the low-scoring group answered it incorrectly. Conversely, when D is -1.0, this indicates that all examinees in the low-scoring group answered the item correctly and all examinees in the high-scoring group answered it incorrectly.

The left hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere for language for about _____% of right-handed people and _____% of left-handed people. A. 99%; 90% B. 99%; 35% C. 95%; 70% D. 95%; 25%

C. 95%; 70% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer C is correct. Reported estimates for left-hemisphere dominance for language for right- and left-handed people vary, but most authorities cite percentages in the 90's for right-handed people and between 50 and 70% for left-handed people. See, e.g., J. E. Mendoza and A. L. Foundas, Clinical neuroanatomy: A neurobehavioral approach, New York, Springer Science+Business Media, Inc., 2008.

_________ facilitates movement by stimulating the muscles to contract. A. Norepinephrine B. Glutamate C. Acetylcholine D. GABA

C. Acetylcholine EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-11 Answer C is correct. Acetylcholine (ACh) is present in all motor neurons, causes muscles to contract, and is involved in the production of muscle movements.

A supervisor tells you that the low job motivation of one of her newly hired supervisees is affecting his job performance, and she asks your advice about the best management style when working with him. As an advocate of ______________, you question the supervisor about some of the characteristics of the supervisee and his job tasks and, based on her answers, recommend that she adopt a supportive style with this supervisee. A. Fiedler's contingency theory B. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga's (1975) leader-member exchange theory C. House's path-goal theory D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago's leadership model

C. House's path-goal theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Leadership-19 Answer C is correct. According to House's (1971) path-goal theory, an effective leader adopts the style (directive, achievement-oriented, supportive, or participative) that best fits certain characteristics of the employee and the employee's tasks.

Which of the following statements best describes a psychologist's ethical requirements with regard to obtaining informed consents for research? A. Informed consents are always necessary except when the research requires the use of deception. B. Informed consents are not necessary as long as potential participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time. C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices. D. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research.

C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-20 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.05 of the APA's Ethics Code and Standard I.20 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. It accurately describes one of the exceptions to obtaining an informed consent listed in Standard 8.05. In contrast, answer A is not correct because informed consents are not required in several circumstances besides when deception is used, and answer B is not correct because allowing participants to withdraw from a study at any time is required but does not preclude getting informed consents. Finally, answer D is not the best answer because it's only partially true: Standard 8.05 states that it's not necessary to obtain informed consents when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research but only when "disclosure of responses would not place participants at risk of criminal or civil liability

Which of the following best describes implied consent? A. It refers to a person's informed consent when it is not written or documented. B. It applies only when a person is believed to be a danger to self or others. C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person. D. It applies only when a person lacks the capacity to give informed consent.

C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-209 Answer C is correct. Informed consent is inferred from the circumstances or actions of a person. For example, a patient's implied consent for treatment is assumed in emergency situations when the patient is incapacitated and unable to provide informed consent, and a student's implied consent to participate in a class is assumed when the student registers for and attends the class. Answer D is not the best answer because implied consent does not refer only to consent in the circumstance described in that answer.

Which of the following includes subtests that evaluate attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning? A. PPVT B. KABC-2 C. Leiter-3 D. Raven's SPM

C. Leiter-3 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer C is correct. The Leiter-3 is a nonverbal measure of fluid intelligence and includes subtests that measure attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning.

Mindfulness based cognitive therapy (MBCT) is based on the assumption that people with a history of depression can avoid having another depressive episode by: A. challenging core beliefs related to depression. B. avoiding situations that trigger depression. C. adopting a decentered position at the first sign of depression. D. engaging in distracting and pleasurable activities.

C. adopting a decentered position at the first sign of depression. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-18 Answer C is correct. MBCT teaches clients with a history of depression to avoid depressive episodes by decentering at the first sign of depressive symptoms. This involves disengaging from and accepting negative thoughts and feelings associated with depression rather than avoiding or fighting them and recognizing that they're just thoughts and feelings, not reality.

The studies have not provided entirely consistent results, but they have generally found that which of the following Big Five personality traits increase with increasing age during adulthood? A. conscientiousness and neuroticism B. neuroticism and extraversion C. agreeableness and conscientiousness D. agreeableness and openness to experience

C. agreeableness and conscientiousness EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development - Temperament and Personality-17 Answer C is correct. McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, "from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease" [R. R. McCrae, P. T. Costa, F. Ostendorf, A. Angleitner, M. Hrebickova, M. D. Avia, et al., Nature over nurture: Temperament, personality, and life span development, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 78, 173-186, 2000].

Control, commitment, and challenge have been identified as the "3 C's" of: A. self-efficacy. B. organization-based self-esteem. C. survivor syndrome. D. hardiness.

D. hardiness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer D is correct. As described by Kobasa (1982), hardy individuals have a sense of control over their own lives, a sense of commitment to family and work, and a tendency to view new experiences as challenges rather than threats

Gorchoff, John, and Helson (2008) studied the marital satisfaction of women over an 18-year period and found that women reported: A. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a decrease in the quality of the time they spent with their husbands. B. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a combination of the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands and the decreased quality of that time. C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands. D. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands.

C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer C is correct. S. M. Gorchoff, O. P. John, and R. Helson found that the "empty nest" was associated with an increase in marital satisfaction for the women in their study and that the increase was due primarily to an increase in the quality (but not the quantity) of the time they spent with their husbands [Contextualizing change in marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study, Psychological Science, 19(11), 1194-1200, 2008].

Which of the following is least likely to be exhibited by a patient with neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection or other subcortical neurocognitive disorder? A. forgetfulness B. apathy C. aphasia D. psychomotor retardation

C. aphasia EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-28 Answer C is correct. Aphasia is a common symptom of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease and other cortical neurocognitive disorders. The symptoms listed in the other answers are characteristic of subcortical neurocognitive disorders.

Following a stroke that caused left-sided hemiplegia, a woman insists that her left arm is not her own arm but belongs to someone else. This woman is exhibiting which of the following? A. anomia B. akinesia C. asomatognosia D. anosognosia

C. asomatognosia EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Cerebral Cortex-05 Answer C is correct. Asomatognosia is usually caused by damage to certain areas of the right parietal lobe and is characterized by a lack of recognition or awareness of part of one's own body. It often involves the left hemiplegic arm and is accompanied by anosognosia (answer D), which is a lack of awareness or denial of one's illness.

To determine which combination of health-related predictors (e.g., exercise, diet, stress) best predicts which combination of health-related outcomes (e.g., physical fitness, emotional adjustment, quality of life), you would use which of the following? A. multiple regression B. logistic regression C. canonical correlation D. discriminant function analysis

C. canonical correlation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Correlation and Regression-09 Answer C is correct. Canonical correlation is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on two or more criteria.

The standard error of measurement is used to: A. estimate the degree to which variability in test scores is due to true score variability. B. estimate the degree to which variability in test scores is due to random error. C. construct a confidence interval around an examinee's obtained score. D. construct a confidence interval around an examinee's predicted score.

C. construct a confidence interval around an examinee's obtained score. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-04 Answer C is correct. The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an obtained score and indicates the range within which an examinee's true score is likely to fall given his/her obtained score. The standard error of estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted score (answer D) - i.e., a criterion score that's predicted from an obtained predictor score.

Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe produces deficits in: A. the comprehension and production of language. B. the comprehension but not the production of language. C. declarative memory. D. procedural memory.

C. declarative memory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Cerebral Cortex-09 Answer C is correct. The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, parahippocampal cortex, perirhinal cortex, and entorhinal cortex and is important for the formation of long-term declarative (semantic and episodic) memories.

With regard to systems theory, positive feedback is: A. equality based. B. inequality based. C. deviation amplifying. D. deviation counteracting.

C. deviation amplifying. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-10 Answer C is correct. Positive feedback amplifies deviation from the status quo and promotes change, while negative feedback counteracts (attenuates) deviation and maintains the status quo.

Sonia was in therapy with Dr. Benedict for three weeks when Dr. Benedict told her that he thinks she would benefit from a psychological evaluation to help determine why she is suddenly having so much trouble performing her job as a software developer. Dr. Benedict refers Sonia to Dr. Sholen who has extensive experience in psychological testing. At the end of her second session with Dr. Sholen, Sonia says she'd like to continue seeing her for therapy in addition to seeing Dr. Benedict. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Sholen should: A. recommend that Sonia discuss this with Dr. Benedict. B. tell Sonia that she'll have to discuss this with Dr. Benedict. C. discuss this further with Sonia to determine the best course of action. D. tell Sonia that she cannot accept her as a therapy client.

C. discuss this further with Sonia to determine the best course of action. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-25 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.04 of the APA's Ethics Code and Standard II.1, II.18, and III.32 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.04 requires psychologists to "carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client's/patient's welfare" when deciding whether to provide services to individuals who are receiving mental health services from another professional. Dr. Sholen would want to obtain more information from Sonia (e.g., why she wants to see both therapists) before choosing a course of action.

Implosive therapy combines: A. in vivo exposure and reciprocal inhibition. B. in vivo exposure and cognitive restructuring. C. exposure in imagination and psychodynamic techniques. D. exposure in imagination and stimulus generalization.

C. exposure in imagination and psychodynamic techniques. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-03 Answer C is correct. When using implosive therapy, the client imagines the feared object or situation and the therapist embellishes the imagined scene with psychodynamic themes (e.g., aggression, guilt, or sexuality).

Which of the following is least susceptible to satiation? A. primary reinforcers B. secondary reinforcers C. generalized reinforcers D. positive reinforcers

C. generalized reinforcers EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-05 Answer C is correct. Generalized reinforcers (e.g., money, tokens) are also known as generalized secondary reinforcers and generalized conditioned reinforcers. They're less susceptible than primary and secondary reinforcers to satiation because they can be exchanged for a variety of back-up (primary) reinforcers.

A researcher would use the split-plot ANOVA to analyze the data she collected in her research study when: A. she wants to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable. B. she wants to assess the effects of one independent variable on three dependent variables that are all measured on an interval or ratio scale. C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable. D. her study included an extraneous variable that was treated like an independent variable.

C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-12 Answer C is correct. Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also known as the mixed ANOVA may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: It is used when data are collected from a study that used a mixed design - i.e., that had at least one between-subjects variable and one within-subjects variable.

Which of the following attributes the tendency to overestimate the extent to which members of certain minority groups engage in criminal behavior to the fact that minority group status and criminal behavior are distinctive and relatively rare phenomena? A. base rate fallacy B. false consensus effect C. illusory correlation D. confirmation bias

C. illusory correlation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Cognition - Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-02 Answer C is correct. An illusory correlation occurs when people overestimate the correlation between two variables that are unrelated or only slightly related. One explanation for the illusory correlation is that people tend to pay more attention to rare or distinctive information (Hamilton & Gifford, 1976).

Dr. Brand is using the broad version of Fairburn's (2008) enhanced cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT-E) to treat a client who has received the diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Consequently, therapy will address all of the following obstacles to change except: A. clinical perfectionism. B. low self-esteem. C. interoceptive avoidance. D. interpersonal difficulties.

C. interoceptive avoidance. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-19 Answer C is correct. CBT-E was designed for a broad range of eating disorders and can be administered in either a focused or broad format. The broad format addresses three obstacles to change that are external to the core eating disorder - i.e., clinical perfectionism, low self-esteem, and interpersonal difficulties (C. G. Fairburn, Cognitive behavior therapy and eating disorders, New York, Guilford Press, 2008). Interoceptive avoidance refers to avoidance of internal bodily sensations associated with fear and anxiety and is a target of treatment for panic disorder.

A high school senior ignores his own career and college preferences and decides to pursue the career his father wants him to pursue and attend the college his father wants him to attend. For practitioners of Gestalt therapy, this is best explained by which of the following? A. retroflection B. deflection C. introjection D. deindividuation

C. introjection EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-05 Answer C is correct. For Gestalt therapists, introjection is a boundary disturbance that occurs when a person adopts the beliefs, standards, and values of others without question or evaluation - for example, when a son pursues the career his father chose for him.

Herzberg's (1966) two-factor theory predicts that ____________ is the best way to increase employees' job motivation and satisfaction. A. providing positive performance feedback B. assigning specific performance goals C. job enrichment D. job enlargement

C. job enrichment EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Theories of Motivation-21 Answer C is correct. Herzberg's two-factor theory predicts that, to increase job motivation and satisfaction, workers must be given jobs that provide motivator factors - i.e., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement. He used the term "job enrichment" to describe the type of job redesign that involves modifying a job so that it provides motivator factors.

Your new patient says he was referred to you by his physician who could find no medical explanation for his severe headaches and chronic abdominal pain. If the results of your assessment of the patient suggest that he's intentionally producing his symptoms to qualify for Social Security benefits, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is: A. factitious disorder. B. somatic symptom disorder. C. malingering. D. conversion disorder.

C. malingering. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-18 Answer C is correct. As described in the DSM-5, malingering involves "the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological symptoms [that is] motivated by external incentives" (American Psychiatric Association, 2013, p. 726).

Data released by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) indicate that, in 2020, the suicide rate was highest for: A. men 45 to 64 years of age. B. women 45 to 64 years of age. C. men 75 years of age and older. D. women 75 years of age and older.

C. men 75 years of age and older. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-12 Answer C is correct. CDC data for 2000 through 2020 (Garnett, Curtin, & Stone, 2022) indicate that suicide rates have been consistently higher for males than for females. With regard to age, in 2020, the highest rate for males was for those 75 years of age and older (40.5 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people), while the highest rate for females was for those ages 45 to 64 years of age (7.9 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people).

Of the three types of microaggression described by Sue and his colleagues (2007), __________ is most similar to "old-fashioned" racism. A. microinvalidation B. microinsult C. microassault D. microinjustice

C. microassault EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues - Terms and Concepts-25 Answer C is correct. D. W. Sue and his colleagues distinguish between three types of microaggression: microinvalidation, microinsult, and microassault. They state that microassaults are closest to "old-fashioned" racism and consist of "an explicit racial derogation characterized by a verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior, or purposeful discriminatory actions" [Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007].

When administering the Rorschach, the purpose of the inquiry phase is to: A. encourage the client to free associate to the inkblots. B. encourage the client to provide more detail when responding to the inkblots. C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee's responses. D. develop hypotheses about the examinee's responses.

C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee's responses. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-04 Answer C is correct. Administration of the Rorschach ordinarily involves two phases: the free association (response) phase and the inquiry phase. During the inquiry phase, the examiner questions the examinee about what parts of the inkblot determined the examinee's responses to obtain the information needed to code his/her responses.

Research on the synchrony effect has found that: A. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon. B. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning. C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults. D. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning, while the reverse is true for younger adults.

C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer C is correct. The synchrony effect refers to the benefits of matching task demands and the preferred (optimal) time of day, and research has found that the preferred time differs for older and younger adults: Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that involve ignoring distractions or irrelevant information) in the morning, while younger adults often do better on the same tasks in the late afternoon or evening. Apparently, the synchrony effect is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms and peak times of arousal. See, e.g., C. P. May and L. Hasher, Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action, Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379, 1998.

After a mother tells her son to stop teasing his sister, the boy not only teases his sister more often but also starts teasing his sister's best friend. The boy's reaction to his mother's request is best explained by which of the following? A. insufficient deterrence B. deindividuation C. psychological reactance D. normative influence

C. psychological reactance EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Influence - Types of Influence-10 Answer C is correct. Psychological reactance occurs when people feel that pressure to behave in a particular way threatens their personal freedom and they respond in ways to regain that freedom. One response is to do the opposite of what has been requested.

Your new client, 8-year-old Bobbie Beardon, engages in behaviors that meet the diagnostic criteria for oppositional defiant disorder. You're most likely to consider a co-diagnosis of conduct disorder if he also exhibits which of the following? A. emotional dysregulation B. vindictiveness C. repeated acts of aggression D. refusal to comply with rules at home and at school.

C. repeated acts of aggression EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-23 Answer C is correct. Repeated acts of aggression are more characteristic of conduct disorder than oppositional defiant disorder and, of the behaviors listed in the answers, is the only behavior that would suggest the possibility of comorbid conduct disorder. In contrast, emotional dysregulation (which takes the form of an angry and irritable mood), vindictiveness, and refusing to comply with rules are characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder.

The General Occupational Themes scale of the Strong Interest Inventory (SII) provides scores on Holland's six occupational themes, which include all of the following except: A. social B. enterprising C. scientific D. artistic

C. scientific EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer C is correct. Holland's six occupational themes are realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.

The best conclusion about the use of St. John's wort as a treatment for depression is that it: A. is contraindicated because it is more likely to exacerbate than alleviate depressive symptoms. B. is contraindicated for mild to moderate depression because of its potential side effects. C. should not be taken with an SSRI because doing so can cause serotonin syndrome. D. should not be taken with an SSRI because doing so can reduce the effectiveness of the SSRI.

C. should not be taken with an SSRI because doing so can cause serotonin syndrome. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. There is evidence that St. John's wort increases serotonin levels and is effective for reducing mild to moderate depression. However, taking St. John's wort with an SSRI or other drug that elevates serotonin levels can cause serotonin syndrome, which has a number of serious symptoms (e.g., confusion, seizures, loss of consciousness) and can be fatal without treatment.

Practitioners of reality therapy would most likely agree that psychological pain is: A. a treatable medical illness. B. the result of unconscious and unresolved conflicts. C. the result of ineffective attempts to satisfy one's needs. D. an inability to experience the here-and-now in a real and fulfilling way.

C. the result of ineffective attempts to satisfy one's needs. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-06 Answer C is correct. Reality therapy is based on choice theory, which views depression, anxiety, and other psychological symptoms as the result of choices a person makes in an attempt to satisfy his/her innate needs.

After watching a 15-minute infomercial for a diet program that includes packaged meals and motivational CDs, a viewer bought the program because she thought the spokesperson (a well-known TV celebrity) was credible and attractive and watching the infomercial put her in a good mood. According to the elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981): A. the information presented in the infomercial was in the viewer's latitude of acceptance. B. the information presented in the infomercial was in the viewer's latitude of non-commitment. C. the viewer used the peripheral route to process the information presented in the infomercial. D. the viewer used the central route to process the information presented in the infomercial.

C. the viewer used the peripheral route to process the information presented in the infomercial. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-06 Answer C is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, when using the peripheral route, peripheral cues (e.g., the credibility and attractiveness of the person delivering the message) are more influential than the content of the message. In addition, the model predicts that a person is more likely to use the peripheral route when he/she is in a good mood and/or perceives the message to be unimportant.

Lewin (1951) proposed that planned change in organizations involves which of the following? A. entering, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating B. contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing D. entering, acting, and evaluating

C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer C is correct. Lewin's model of planned change describes change as involving three phases: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.

Which of the following would be the most acceptable way for psychologists to deal with negative reviews of their services posted by former clients on customer websites? A. collecting and posting patient-satisfaction ratings on their professional websites B. responding directly to negative posts on the customer website C. soliciting and posting positive testimonials from current and former clients D. pursuing legal options

CORRECT ANSWER A. collecting and posting patient-satisfaction ratings on their professional websites EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-Professional Issues-27 Answer A is correct. This situation is not directly addressed in the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations but has been addressed elsewhere. For example, J. Chamberlin identifies the action listed in answer A as an acceptable response to negative evaluations and the actions listed in answers B and C as unacceptable (One-star therapy?, Monitor on Psychology, 2014, www.apa.org/monitor/2014/04/therapy.aspx): Responding directly to negative posts on the website would violate HIPAA privacy laws and the ethical requirement to maintain a client's confidentiality, and soliciting testimonials from current clients and others who are vulnerable to undue influence would be an ethical violation. In addition, pursuing legal options may not be feasible or may have consequences that are worse than those caused by the postings. In contrast, establishing a positive online presence (e.g., by posting patient-satisfaction ratings or positive evaluations by colleagues and supervisors) is a useful way to counteract negative postings.

A job applicant's score on a selection test is used to predict what her future score on a measure of job performance will be if she's hired. If the applicant's predicted job performance score is 80 and the measure of job performance has a standard deviation of 7 and standard error of estimate of 3, the 99% confidence interval for the applicant's predicted score of 80 is: A. 73 to 87. B. 66 to 94. C. 74 to 86. D. 71 to 89.

D. 71 to 89. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity - Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer D is correct. The 99% confidence interval for a predicted score is calculated by adding and subtracting three standard errors of estimate to and from the predicted score. In this situation, the applicant's predicted score is 80 and the standard error of estimate is 3, so the 99% confidence interval is 80 minus and plus 9 (three standard errors), which is 71 to 89.

A factor matrix indicates that one of the tests included in the factor analysis has a factor loading of .30 for Factor I. This means that ____ of variability in test scores is explained by Factor I. A. 81% B. 70% C. 30% D. 9%

D. 9% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity - Content and Construct Validity-07 Answer D is correct. A factor loading is the correlation between a test and an identified factor and can be interpreted by squaring it to obtain a measure of shared variability. When a factor loading is .30, this means that 9% (.30 squared) of variability in the test is shared with (explained by) variability in the factor.

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) provides scores on five cognitive factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors? A. Fluid Reasoning B. Knowledge C. Working Memory D. Abstract Reasoning

D. Abstract Reasoning EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer D is correct. The SB5 provides scores on the following five factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory.

The items selected for inclusion in the __________ assess 15 manifest needs that were identified by Henry Murray. A. 16 PF B. MBTI C. NEO-PI-3 D. EPPS

D. EPPS EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-02 Answer D is correct. The items included in the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) assess the 15 needs identified in Murray's theory of needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, affiliation, dominance).

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical requirements regarding the acceptance of contingent fees when acting as an expert witness in a legal case? A. Psychologists may accept contingent fees. B. Psychologists may accept contingent fees as long as doing so is consistent with current standards of practice. C. Psychologists may accept contingent fees only when their testimony as expert witnesses does not violate prohibitions against multiple relationships. D. Psychologists should usually avoid accepting contingent fees.

D. Psychologists should usually avoid accepting contingent fees. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-06 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 3.06 of the APA's Ethics Code, Paragraph 5.02 of the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.06 prohibits psychologists from "taking on a professional role when personal, scientific, professional, legal, financial, or other interests or relationships could reasonably be expected to ... impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness." As noted by C. B. Fisher, this prohibition applies to accepting contingent fees when acting as an expert witness since doing so may "exert pressure on psychologists to intentionally or unintentionally modify their reports or testimony in favor of the retaining party" [Decoding the ethics code: A practical guide for psychologists (4th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2017, p. 149].

For practitioners of interpersonal therapy (IPT), depression is: A. the result of "chronic irresponsibility." B. the result of dysfunctional thinking. C. a learned behavior. D. a medically based condition.

D. a medically based condition. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-07 Answer D is correct. As described by J. C. Markowitz and M. M. Weissman, IPT is based on the assumption that "depression is a medical illness, rather than the patient's fault or personal defect; moreover, it is a treatable condition" [Interpersonal psychotherapy: Principles and applications, World Psychiatry, 3(3), 136-139, 2004].

The central limit theorem predicts that, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores, a sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches the shape of: A. the population distribution as the number of samples increases. B. the population distribution as the sample size increases. C. a normal distribution as the number of samples increases. D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases.

D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-10 Answer D is correct. According to the central limit theorem, the shape of the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches a normal shape as the sample size increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores. (The central limit theorem assumes an infinite number of equal-sized samples, and its prediction about the shape of the sampling distribution is based on the size of the samples.)

When prison inmates and their counselors were asked to explain why the prisoners committed their offenses, most inmates cited situational factors while the counselors cited dispositional factors. This provides support for which of the following? A. self-serving bias B. confirmation bias C. fundamental attribution error D. actor-observer effect

D. actor-observer effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Cognition - Causal Attributions-01 Answer D is correct. This question describes a study conducted by K. Saulnier and D. Perlman (The actor-observer bias is alive and well in prison: A sequel to Wells, Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 7, 559-564, 1981). The results of their study provided support for the actor-observer effect, which predicts that actors tend to attribute their own behaviors to situational factors while observers tend to attribute them to dispositional factors.

Of the antipsychotic drugs, __________ is most likely to be a side effect of clozapine. A. parkinsonian-like symptoms B. tardive dyskinesia C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome D. agranulocytosis

D. agranulocytosis EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology - Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-24 Answer D is correct. Of the antipsychotics, the atypical drug clozapine is most likely to produce agranulocytosis, which is a rare but potentially fatal blood disorder that's characterized by an abnormally low level of white blood cells. Consequently, regular blood monitoring is required for people taking this drug. An advantage of clozapine is that it is less likely than many other antipsychotics to produce the side effects listed in answers A, B, and C. See, e.g., L.A. Labbate, J. F. Rosenbaum, M. Fava, and G. W. Arana, Handbook of psychiatric drug therapy, Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.

According to the theory of planned behavior (Ajzen & Fishbein, 2005), the best predictor of behavior is which of the following? A. self-efficacy B. past behavior C. behavioral willingness D. behavior intention

D. behavior intention EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-04 Answer D is correct. According to the theory of planned behavior, a person's intention to perform a particular behavior is the best predictor of whether or not he or she will engage in the behavior.

As described by Helms (1993), a person in the __________ stage of White identity development is oblivious to racial/cultural issues and has a race- or culture-neutral perspective. A. disintegration B. pre-encounter C. pseudo-independence D. contact

D. contact EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues - Identity Development Models-27 Answer D is correct. Helms's White racial identity development model distinguishes between six stages (statuses). In order, these are contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, people in the initial contact stage have little awareness of racial or cultural issues.

A supervisor's knowledge of how well employees did on the selection measures that were used to hire them affects how the supervisor subsequently rates each employee on measures of job performance. This is an example of which of the following? A. the halo error B. the contrast error C. criterion deficiency D. criterion contamination

D. criterion contamination EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer D is correct. Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance - for example, when a supervisor's performance ratings of employees are biased by the supervisor's knowledge of how well employees did on the predictors that were used to hire them.

As described by Ghahramanlou-Holloway, Neely, and Tucker (2014), a primary goal of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for preventing suicide is to: A. reduce ambivalence about suicide. B. identify and target suicidal "drivers." C. alleviate client distress. D. deactivate the "suicidal mode."

D. deactivate the "suicidal mode." EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-109 Answer D is correct. Ghahramanlou-Holloway et al. note that CBT for preventing suicide is based on Beck's notion of the suicidal mode, which is activated by a combination of cognitive, affective, motivational, and behavioral systems and precedes a suicide attempt. Consequently, the primary goals of therapy are to deactivate the suicidal mode and replace the structure and content of the suicidal mode with a more adaptive mode that promotes the desire to live. [M. Ghahramanlou-Holloway, L. L. Neely, and J. Tucker, A cognitive-behavioral strategy for preventing suicide, Current Psychiatry, 13 (8), 19-28]

Which of the following neuroimaging techniques is used to study abnormalities in the brain's white matter? A. electroencephalography B. computerized axial tomography C. positron emission tomography D. diffusion tensor imaging

D. diffusion tensor imaging EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-63 Answer D is correct. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a special application of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain's white matter, which consists of myelinated axons that connect different areas of the brain. It does this by identifying the rate and direction of the movement of water molecules along the axons.

Research has found that which of the following behaviors of noncustodial fathers has the least impact on the post-divorce outcomes of children? A. payment of child support B. feelings of closeness C. authoritative parenting D. frequency of contact

D. frequency of contact EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-23 Answer D is correct. A meta-analysis of the research by P. R. Amato and J. G. Gilbreth (1999) indicated that frequency of paternal contact with children was least related to child outcomes. In contrast, payment of child support was positively related to children's academic success and negatively related to externalizing problems, while feelings of closeness and authoritative parenting were both positively related to academic success and negatively related to internalizing and externalizing problems (Nonresident fathers and children's well-being: A meta-analysis, Journal of Marriage and the Family, 61, 557-573, 1999).

When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to assess a test's construct validity, a large heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates which of the following? A. adequate convergent validity B. inadequate convergent validity C. adequate divergent validity D. inadequate divergent validity

D. inadequate divergent validity EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity - Content and Construct Validity-06 Answer D is correct. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the test being evaluated and a measure of a different trait (heterotrait) using the same method of measurement (monomethod). For example, if the multitrait-multimethod matrix is being used to assess the construct validity of a self-report measure of assertiveness, a heterotrait-monomethod coefficient might indicate the correlation between the self-report measure of assertiveness and a self-report measure of seriousness. When this coefficient is small, it provides evidence of the test's divergent validity; when it's large, it indicates that the test has inadequate divergent validity. (A measure's construct validity is demonstrated when it has adequate levels of both divergent and convergent validity.)

Howard and his colleagues (1986) have developed a phase model that predicts that client improvement during the first few sessions of therapy is usually due to: A. a placebo effect. B. initial insight into the cause of his/her problems. C. the development of the therapeutic relationship. D. increased feelings of hopefulness.

D. increased feelings of hopefulness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-22 Answer D is correct. According to K. I. Howard and his colleagues, improvement in therapy occurs in three phases - remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and is characterized by an increase in hopefulness and sense of well-being [Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress. American Psychologist, 51(10), 1059-106, 1986].

According to Bowlby (1980), an infant's early relationships with caregivers lead to the development of: A. a categorical self. B. object permanence. C. social models. D. internal working models.

D. internal working models. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development - Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-19 Answer D is correct. Bowlby proposed that an infant's early attachment relationships lead to the development of internal working models that consist of beliefs about the self, others, and the self in relationship to others and that these models affect future relationships.

Dr. Sholen finds that she and her intern do not have time to administer tests to all of the clients who are being referred to Dr. Sholen for psychological assessment. As a result, she decides to hire a graduate student who is working on her master's degree in clinical psychology to administer the MMPI-2 and several similar tests. With regard to ethical requirements, this: A. is clearly unacceptable since the student has not completed the coursework required for a master's degree. B. is acceptable as long as the student has completed coursework in psychological assessment. C. may be acceptable as long as the student administers but does not score or interpret the tests. D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen.

D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 9.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and Standards II.7 and II.56 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.07 states that "psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons, except when such use is conducted for training purposes with appropriate supervision.

The __________ dopamine pathway plays an important role in the rewarding effects of drugs of abuse and drug addiction. A. nigrostriatal B. mesocortical C. tuberoinfundibular D. mesolimbic

D. mesolimbic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-12 Answer D is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain's reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of cocaine, heroin, and other drugs of abuse that increase dopamine levels.

With regard to persuasive messages, the "sleeper effect" occurs when: A. people use the central route when listening to the message. B. people use the peripheral route when listening to the message. C. over time, people tend to revert to their previous attitudes and behaviors. D. over time, people tend to remember the message but forget its source.

D. over time, people tend to remember the message but forget its source. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Persuasion-08 Answer D is correct. High-credible communicators initially have a greater effect than low-credible communicators on attitude change, but this difference fades over time because people tend to remember the persuasive message but forget its source. This is referred to as the sleeper effect.

Which of the following is not a norm-referenced score? A. z-scores B. T-scores C. percentile ranks D. percentage scores

D. percentage scores EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Score Interpretation-12 Answer D is correct. Percentage scores are a type of criterion-referenced score that indicates the percent of test items an examinee answered correctly. All of the other scores listed in the answers are norm-referenced scores that compare an examinee's score to the scores obtained by examinees in the norm (reference) group.

Differential reinforcement combines which of the following? A. negative reinforcement and classical extinction B. negative reinforcement and stimulus control C. positive reinforcement and negative punishment D. positive reinforcement and operant extinction

D. positive reinforcement and operant extinction EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-09 Answer D is correct. Differential reinforcement involves extinguishing (removing all positive reinforcement from) the target behavior while providing positive reinforcement for alternative behaviors.

The APA's (2014) Guidelines for Clinical Supervision in Health Service Psychology identifies which of the following as a supervisor's primary legal and ethical obligation? A. training the supervisee B. acting as gatekeeper to the profession C. protecting the welfare of the supervisee D. protecting the welfare of the supervisee's client

D. protecting the welfare of the supervisee's client EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-Professional Issues-212 Answer D is correct. Paragraph G.2 of the Guidelines for Clinical Supervision in Health Service Psychology states that "supervisors uphold their primary ethical and legal obligation to protect the welfare of the [supervisee's] client/patient" and that "the highest duty of the supervisor is protection of the client/patient" (p. 19). In addition, the introduction to Paragraph F states that "supervisors give precedence to protecting the well-being of clients/patients above the training of the supervisee" (p. 17).

To help ensure that differential selection doesn't threaten the internal validity of a research study, an investigator will: A. include more than one group in the research study. B. use the single- or double-blind technique. C. randomly select participants from the population. D. randomly assign participants to different levels of the independent variable.

D. randomly assign participants to different levels of the independent variable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research - Internal/External Validity-04 Answer D is correct. It should have been easy to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you remembered that the name of this threat is misleading since it is the result of the way subjects are assigned to treatment groups rather than how they are selected from the population. It threatens a study's internal validity when subjects in different groups differ in an important way at the beginning of the study, and the best way to control it is to randomly assign subjects to the treatment groups.

Kirkpatrick (1998) distinguished between four levels of training program evaluation and proposed that which of the following is the most informative level? A. learning B. reaction C. behavior D. results

D. results EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-12 Answer D is correct. Kirkpatrick's evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction, learning, behavior, and results.

Memory impairment associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to damage to which of the following areas of the brain? A. hypothalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus B. hypothalamus and cingulate gyrus C. thalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions - Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-02 Answer D is correct. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to a thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency that's usually caused by the long-term abuse of alcohol. The amnesia associated with this disorder is due to damage to the thalamus and mammillary bodies.

Which aspect of an item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates the probability of choosing the correct answer to the item by guessing alone? A. the position of the curve B. the slope of the curve C. the point at which the curve intercepts the x-axis D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis

D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. The various item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on either one, two, or three parameters, with the three parameters being item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of guessing correctly. The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the y-axis.

Dr. Lansky returned to school when she was 48 years old to obtain a Psy.D. in clinical psychology. She already had a Ph.D. in business administration and, now that she's a licensed psychologist, decides to list both doctoral degrees in her business card and advertisements for her clinical practice. This is: A. acceptable. B. acceptable only if she indicates that her Ph.D. is in business administration. C. unacceptable only if one or both degrees are not from an accredited educational institution.

D. unacceptable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-13 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(c) of the APA's Ethics Code and Standards III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.01(c) states that psychologists can claim as credentials for their health services only degrees that "were earned from a regionally accredited educational institution or ... were the basis for psychology licensure." In other words, the psychologist should not include her Ph.D. in business administration in her business card or advertisements since that degree was not used as a credential for her health services.

__________ processing is concept driven. A. Top-down B. Bottom-up C. Parallel D. Serial

EPPP-P4-PHY-Sensation and Perception-15 Answer A is correct. Top-down processing is concept-driven, while bottom-up processing is data driven. In terms of perception, top-down processing begins with the brain's use of existing knowledge and expectations to interpret incoming sensory information. In contrast, bottom-up processing begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored.