Test 5 Chap 32 and 39

The nurse is teaching the client with a pulmonary disorder about deep breathing. The client asks, "Why is it important to start by breathing through my nose, then exhaling through my mouth?" Which appropriate response would the nurse give this client?

"Breathing through your nose first will warm, filter, and humidify the air you are breathing." Nasal breathing allows the air to be warmed, filtered, and humidified. Nose breathing does not encourage the client to sit up straight. The purpose of nasal breathing is not to prevent germs from entering the stomach or to discourage snoring.

The nurse and client are looking at a client's heel pressure injury. The client asks, "Why is there a small part of this wound that is dry and brown?" What is the nurse's appropriate response?

"Necrotic tissue is devitalized tissue that must be removed to promote healing." The tissue the client is inquiring about is not normal. Dry brown or black tissue is necrotic. Slough is dead moist, stringy dead tissue on the wound surface that is yellow, tan, gray, or green. Undermining is tissue erosion from underneath intact skin at the wound edge.

A client who had a knee replacement asks the nurse, "Why do I need this little bulb coming out of my knee?" What is the appropriate nursing response?

"The drain allows removal of blood and drainage from the surgical wound, which enables healing and protects the skin around the wound." The bulb-like drain allows removal of blood and drainage from the surgical wound. All the statements are factual and true; however, the name of the drain, how it works, when it will be removed, and measurement of the exudate are drain management skills and knowledge. Only, "the drain allows removal of blood and drainage from the surgical wound, which enables healing and protects the skin around the wound" answers the clients question about why the drain is present.

The registered nurse (RN) observes the licensed practical nurse (LPN) preforming this action when applying a topical gel to a client's surgical wound during a dressing change. What instructions should the RN provide the LPN regarding this action?

"To best avoid further traumatizing the wound bed, apply the gel with a sterile cotton tip applicator." The nurse should apply any topical medications, foams, gels, and/or gauze to the wound as prescribed; ensuring that the product stays confined to the wound and does not impact on intact surrounding tissue/skin. Applying the medicated gel with an applicator allows for better control over the application, thus minimizing any additional trauma to wound. The procedure should be preformed using sterile technique, but clean technique can be used when proving care to chronic or pressure injury wounds. To manage contamination risk, cleansing of a wound should be done from top to center to outside.

The nurse is teaching a client about healing of a minor surgical wound by first intention. What teaching will the nurse include?

"Very little scar tissue will form." Very little scar tissue is expected to form in a minor surgical wound. Second-intention healing involves a complex reparative process in which the margins of the wound are not in direct contact. Third-intention healing takes place when the wound edges are intentionally left widely separated and later brought together for closure.

The pediatric nurse is caring for four clients. Which client will receive the greatest benefit from the use of an oxygen analyzer to assure that the client is receiving the prescribed amount of oxygen?

3-year old in croup tent An oxygen analyzer is used most commonly when caring for newborns in isolettes, children in croup tents, and clients who are mechanically ventilated. Other answers are incorrect.

A nurse is evaluating a client's laboratory data. Which laboratory findings should the nurse recognize as increasing a client's risk for pressure injury development?

Albumin 2.8 mg/dL (28.0 g/L) An albumin level of less than 3.2 mg/dL increases the risk of the client developing a pressure injury. This indicates that the client is nutritionally deficient. The hemoglobin A1C level of 5% is a normal value. The BUN level is within normal limits. The white blood cell count is also a normal value.

The nurse has removed the sutures and is now planning to apply wound closure strips. What should the nurse do before applying the strips?

Apply a skin protectant to the skin around the incision. Before applying the wound closure strips, the nurse should apply a skin protectant to the skin surrounding the incision site. The skin barrier will help the closure strips adhere to the skin and helps prevent skin irritation and excoriation from tape, adhesives, and wound drainage. The skin protectant should not be placed on the incision itself. Nothing should be placed over the incision site itself before the closure strips are applied.

The nurse has received an order to apply a saline-moistened dressing to a client's wound. Which action should the nurse perform?

Apply dry gauze pads over the wet gauze and place the abdominal pad over the gauzes. Dry gauze is applied over wet gauze and then covered with an ABD pad. The wound should be cleaned, if needed, using sterile forceps. Irrigation may be used as ordered or required. The wound should be cleaned from the top to the bottom and from the center to the outside. The fine-mesh gauze should be placed into the basin and the ordered solution poured over the mesh to saturate it. The wound should be packed gently and loosely.

A client is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath, cyanosis and an oxygen saturation of 82% (0.82) on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Apply oxygen as prescribed The nurse should first apply oxygen, which will help to improve oxygen saturation and health status. The client may not require intubation, once oxygen is provided. Although the client may require education on incentive spirometry, the immediate priority intervention is to stabilize the client's oxygen saturation. Similarly, raising the head of the bed may help with the client's comfort but may not have sufficient effect on oxygen saturation.

A nurse is admitting a client to a long-term care facility. What should the nurse plan to use to assess the client for risk of pressure injury development?

Braden scale The Braden scale is an assessment tool used to assess the client's risk for pressure injury development. The Glasgow scale is used to assess a client's neurologic status quickly. This is typically used in emergency departments and critical care units. The FLACC scale is used to evaluate pain in clients. The Morse scale is used to assess the client's risk for falls.

A nurse is reading a journal article about pollutants and their effect on an individual's respiratory function. Which problem would the nurse most likely identify as an effect of exposure to automobile pollutants?

Bronchitis Bronchitis refers to a condition in which the airways become inflamed, commonly due to respiratory irritants such as air pollution and high humidity. Exposure to such irritants leads to the release of inflammatory mediators, which in turn, lead to inflammation and narrowing of the airways and increased mucus production. Atelectasis refers to the partial or complete collapse of the small air sacs in the lungs, common after surgery or with obstruction or compression of the airways or lungs. Bronchiectasis results from chronic inflammation or infection causing an excess accumulation of mucus. Croup is an infection of the airways, most commonly viral in origin.

A nurse is providing home care instructions for a client who is being discharged to his home with a tracheostomy in place. Which statement accurately describes a guideline for care that should be included in the teaching plan?

Clean, rather than sterile, technique can be used in the home setting. Clean, rather than sterile technique, can be used in the home setting. The client and home caregiver should be instructed on how to perform tracheostomy care. Sterile saline can be made by mixing 1 teaspoon of table salt in 1 quart of water and boiling for 15 minutes. There is no need for the client to avoid humid locations.

When the nurse observes a newborn infant demonstrating an irregular abdominal breathing pattern, with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute with occasional pauses in breathing of 5-second duration. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Continue to assess the infant. Infants breathe rapidly at 30 to 60 breaths/minute and may have occasional pauses of several seconds between breaths.

The nurse is caring for a client who had abdominal surgery 12 hours ago and notes a small amount of sanguineous drainage on the abdominal surgical dressing. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

Document the findings. The nurse should document the findings and continue to monitor the dressing. Because it is a small amount of drainage, there is no need to contact the health care provider or the wound care nurse. The nurse should not change the surgical dressing. Most often, the surgeon will change the first dressing in 24 to 48 hours. For this reason, the wound care nurse does not need to be notified.

Which dietary guideline would be appropriate for the older adult homebound client with advanced respiratory disease who informs the nurse that she has no energy to eat?

Eat smaller meals that are high in protein. The client should consume a diet in which the body can produce plasma proteins. The client should have sufficient caloric and protein intake for respiratory muscle strength.

The nurse is helping a confused client with a large leg wound order dinner. Which food item is most appropriate for the nurse to select to promote wound healing?

Fish To promote wound healing, the nurse should ensure that the client's diet is high in protein, vitamin A, and vitamin C. The fish is high in protein and is therefore the most appropriate choice to promote wound healing. Pasta salad has a high carbohydrate amount with no protein. Banana has a high amount of vitamin C but no protein. Green beans have some protein but not as much as fish.

A nurse is collecting a wound culture from a client from two different sites. Which actions should the nurse take while performing this procedure? Select all that apply.

Insert a swab into the wound. Press and rotate the swab several times over the wound surfaces. Place the swab in the culture tube when done. The nurse should carefully insert the swab into the wound and then press and rotate the swab several times over the wound surfaces. After collecting the specimen, the nurse should place the swab back in the culture tube. The nurse should be careful to keep the swab and the inside of the culture tube sterile at all times. This means that the nurse should avoid touching the swab to intact skin at the wound edges or to the outside of the tube, as this would contaminate both the swab with organisms not in the wound and the areas that the swab touches with organisms found in the wound. A different swab, not the same, should be used for each wound site to prevent cross-contamination.

A health care provider orders the collection of a sputum specimen from a client with a suspected bacterial infection. Which action best ensures a usable specimen?

Instruct the client to inhale deeply and then cough. The client should be instructed to inhale deeply and cough; if this results in sputum, it should be collected in the container. The client should be placed in a semi-Fowler's position and instructed to clear the nose and throat and rinse the throat with water.

The nurse is caring for a client with diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile. Which is the priority nursing assessment for this client?

Monitor intake and output. A client with diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile is at risk for dehydration. As such, the priority assessments should include intake and output, skin turgor, condition of mucous membranes, and vital signs. Assessing the coccyx area for blanching should be done with shift assessments; however, circulating fluid volume takes priority. Monitoring for nausea and assessing the client's mentation is not directly related to the effects of the infectious diarrhea.

A nurse caring for a client who has a surgical wound after a caesarean birth notes dehiscence of the wound, what is the main priority of nursing care?

Notify the surgeon, apply a sterile saline-moistened dressing to the open areas, and support the wound during coughing or abdominal movement With dehiscence, there is an unintentional separation of wound edges, especially in a surgical wound. Dehiscence is not a medical emergency. However, the nurse will notify the surgeon and protect the open wound areas with a sterile saline-moistened dressing. Also, the nurse will implement preventative measures such as splinting the wound with a pillow during movement to prevent further dehiscence or evisceration. Approximating the wound edges and applying wound closure tapes may cause the client undue pain and trap bacteria in the wound. Irrigating the open wound may cause unwanted bacteria from the surrounding area to wash into the wound.

When a nurse observes that an older client's skin is dry and shiny and his nails are thickened, the nurse determines that the client is most likely experiencing

Poor tissue perfusion Chronically poor perfusion may result in hair loss in the affected area, discolored skin, thickened nails, and shiny, dry skin indicative of inadequate tissue nutrition.

During a skin assessment, the nurse recognizes the first indication that a pressure injury may be developing when the skin is which color during the application of light pressure?

Red Nonblanching erythema is one of the earliest signs of impending skin breakdown. Blue-greyish color is pallor. Yellow is jaundice and related to liver issues. White skin is associated with no blood supply.

The nurse schedules a pulmonary function test to measure the amount of air left in a client's lungs at maximal expiration. What test does the nurse order?

Residual Volume (RV) During a pulmonary function test the amount of air left in the lungs at the end of maximal expiration is called residual volume. Tidal volume refers to the total amount of air inhaled and exhaled with one breath. Total lung capacity is the amount of air contained within the lungs at maximum inspiration. Forced expiratory volume measures the amount of air exhaled in the first second after a full inspiration; it can also be measured at 2 or 3 seconds.

The nurse is caring for a client with shortness of breath who is receiving oxygen at 4 L/minute. Which assessment finding will demonstrate that oxygen therapy is effective?

SpO2 96% An SpO2 at or above between 95% and 100% is normal, reflecting that oxygen therapy is being effective. Clubbing, respirations greater than 26 breaths/min, and a heart rate greater than 100 beats/min may indicate that more oxygen is needed.

A client's pressure injury is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. How would the nurse document this pressure injury?

Stage II A stage II pressure injury involves partial thickness loss of dermis and presents as a shallow, open ulcer. A stage II injury could present as a blister, abrasion, or shallow crater. A stage I pressure injury is a defined area of intact skin with nonblanchable redness of a localized area, usually over a bony prominence. Darkly pigmented skin may not have visible blanching; its color may differ from the surrounding skin. The area may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue. A stage III injury presents with full-thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle is not exposed. Slough that may be present does not obscure the depth of tissue loss. Injuries at this stage may include undermining and tunneling. Stage IV injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present on some part of the wound bed and often include undermining and tunneling.

A nurse takes a client's pulse oximetry reading and finds that it is normal. What does this finding indicate?

The client's available hemoglobin is adequately saturated with oxygen. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive technique that measures the arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation (SaO2 or SpO2) of arterial blood. This test measures only the percentage of oxygen carried by the available hemoglobin. Thus, even a client with a low hemoglobin level could appear to have a normal SpO2 because most of that hemoglobin is saturated. However, the client may not have enough oxygen to meet body needs. A normal pulse oximetry reading does not necessarily indicate a normal RBC count or heart rate.

The nurse is auscultating the lungs of a client and detects normal vesicular breath sounds. What is a characteristic of vesicular breath sounds?

They are low-pitched, soft sounds heard over peripheral lung fields. Normal breath sounds include vesicular (low-pitched, soft sounds heard over peripheral lung fields), bronchial (loud, high-pitched sounds heard primarily over the trachea and larynx), and bronchovesicular (medium-pitched blowing sounds heard over the major bronchi) sounds. Crackles are soft, high-pitched discontinuous (intermittent) popping sounds.

After insertion of a chest tube, fluctuations in the water-seal chamber that correspond with inspiration and expiration are an expected and normal finding.

True After insertion of a chest tube, fluctuations in the water-seal chamber that correspond with inspiration and expiration are an expected and normal finding. A nurse caring for a client with a chest tube should monitor the patient's respiratory status and vital signs, check the dressing, and maintain the patency and integrity of the drainage system.

During data collection, the nurse auscultates low-pitched, soft sounds over the lungs' peripheral fields. Which appropriate terminology would the nurse use to describe these lung sounds when documenting?

Vesicular Vesicular breath sounds are normal and described as low-pitched, soft sounds over the lungs' peripheral fields. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds heard on inspiration. Medium-pitched blowing sounds heard over the major bronchi describe bronchovesicular breath sounds. Bronchial breath sounds are loud, high-pitched sounds heard over the trachea and larynx.

A nurse is volunteering at a day camp. A child is stung by a bee and develops wheezing in the upper airways. The child is experiencing:

a bronchospasm. When allergic responses take place in the lungs, breathing difficulties are far more severe. Small airways become edematous, mucus production increases, and inflammatory chemical mediators cause bronchospasm.

A nursing student is providing a complete bed bath to a 60-year-old diabetic client. The student is conducting an assessment during the bath. The student observes a red, raised rash under the client's breasts. This manifestation is most consistent with:

a rash related to a yeast infection. Diaphoresis or inadequate drying after hygiene, especially in skin folds, can increase moisture and encourage the growth of yeast. In addition, the client's history of diabetes will increase the risk for the development of a yeast infection. The rash resulting from an allergic reaction would not likely be limited to the region beneath the breast. Immobility will not directly result in a rash.

Which client(s) is considered at risk for skin alterations? Select all that apply.

an adolescent with multiple body piercings a client receiving radiation therapy a client with diabetes Body piercings, radiation therapy, and diabetes place clients at risk for skin alterations. Having a sexual relationship with multiple gay male partners would also place a client at risk for HIV and skin alterations, but this client is in a monogamous relationship. Cardiac monitoring does not place a client at risk for skin alterations.

A client recovering from abdominal surgery sneezes and then screams, "My insides are hanging out!" What is the initial nursing intervention?

applying sterile dressings with normal saline over the protruding organs and tissue The nurse will immediately apply sterile dressing moistened with normal saline over the protruding organs and tissue and call out for someone to contact the surgeon. While waiting for the surgeon, the nurse will continue to assess the area of evisceration and monitor the client's status.

A client has developed blisters around the tape securing a dressing. What nursing action would be appropriate to prevent further damage to the tissues?

applying the dressing with a binder Bandages, binders, and stretch nets also can be used to hold gauze dressings in place and will prevent further damage to the tissues.

The nurse is informed while receiving a nursing report that the client has been hypoxic during the evening shift. Which assessment finding is consistent with hypoxia?

confusion Anxiety, restlessness, confusion, or drowsiness are common signs of hypoxia. Hyperactivity is not associated with hypoxia. Other common symptoms of hypoxia are dyspnea, elevated blood pressure with small pulse pressure, increased respiratory and pulse rates, pallor, and cyanosis.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed humidified oxygen at 6 L/minute. Which type of liquid will the nurse gather to set up the humidifier?

distilled water Distilled water is used when humidification is desired. Other answers are incorrect.

The nurse is preparing to apply a roller bandage to the stump of a client who had a below-the-knee amputation. What is the nurse's first action?

elevating and supporting the stump The nurse will first elevate and support the stump, then begin the process of bandaging. The bandage will be applied distally to proximally with equal tension at each turn; the nurse will monitor throughout the application to keep the bandage free from gaps between turns.

The nurse is preparing to apply a roller bandage to a client with a sprained knee. Which technique does the nurse plan to use?

figure-of-eight turn A figure-of-eight turn is used for joints like the elbows and knees. The other answers are incorrect.

A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit. The client has a wound on the ankle that is covered in eschar and slough. The primary care provider has ordered debridement in the surgical department for the following morning. Which type of debridement does the nurse understand has been ordered on this client?

mechanical debridement Mechanical debridement involves physical removal of necrotic tissue, such as surgical debridement. Biosurgical debridement utilizes fly larvae to clear the wound of necrotic tissue. This is accomplished through an enzyme the larvae release. Autolytic debridement involves using the client's own body to break down the necrotic tissue. Enzymatic debridement involves the use of synthetic enzymes that break down necrotic tissue when applied to the wound bed.

Which is a sign of dyspnea specific to infants?

nasal flaring In the infant, flaring of the nostrils and retractions of the ribs during inspiration are notable signs of air hunger and extraordinary work of breathing.

The nurse is caring for a bedridden client who is at risk for the development of pressure injuries. In which position can the nurse place the client to relieve pressure on the trochanter area?

oblique The oblique position, an alternative to the side-lying position, results in significantly less pressure on the trochanter area. The nurse should not position the head of the bed above 30° unless medically contraindicated, and alternate right side, back, left side, and prone positions (when tolerated) using appropriate equipment to minimize friction and shearing.

While examining a client, the nurse palpates the client's chest and back. What would the nurse expect to identify with this technique?

pattern of thoracic expansion The nurse can assess patterns of thoracic expansion through palpation. Fluid-filled and consolidated portions of lungs can be assessed through percussion, not through palpation. Presence of pleural rub can be assessed through auscultation.

Which activity should the nurse implement to decrease shearing force on a client's stage II pressure injury?

preventing the client from sliding in bed Shearing force occurs when tissue layers move on one another, causing vessels to stretch as they pass through the subcutaneous tissue.

What structural changes to the respiratory system should a nurse observe when caring for older adults?

respiratory muscles become weaker One of the structural changes affecting the respiratory system that a nurse should observe in an older adult is respiratory muscles becoming weaker. The nurse should also observe other structural changes: the chest wall becomes stiffer as a result of calcification of the intercostals cartilage, kyphoscoliosis, and arthritic changes to costovertebral joints; the ribs and vertebrae lose calcium; the lungs become smaller and less elastic; alveoli enlarge; and alveolar walls become thinner. Diminished coughing and gag reflexes, increased use of accessory muscles for breathing, and increased mouth breathing and snoring are functional changes to the respiratory system in older adults.

A nurse is treating a client who has a wound with full-thickness tissue loss and edges that do not readily approximate. The nurse knows that the open wound will gradually fill with granulation tissue. Which type of wound healing is this?

secondary intention Healing by secondary intention occurs in wounds with edges that do not readily approximate. The wound gradually fills with granulation tissue, and eventually epithelial cells migrate across the granulation base. Wounds with minimal tissue loss, such as clean surgical incisions and shallow sutured wounds, heal by primary intention. The edges of the wound are approximated and the risk of infection is lower when a wound heals in this manner. Maturation is the final stage of full-thickness wound healing. Tertiary intention occurs when there is a delay between injury and wound closure. The delay may occur when a deep wound is not sutured immediately or is left open until no sign of infection is evident.

The nurse is caring for a client with a sacral wound. Upon assessment, the wound is noted to have slough and a bad odor, and it extends into the muscle. How will the nurse categorize this pressure injury?

stage IV Stage IV pressure injuries are characterized as exposing muscle and bone and may have slough and a foul odor. Stage I pressure injuries are characterized by intact but reddened skin that is unblanchable. Stage II involves blistering or a skin tear. Stage III involves a shallow skin crater that extends to the subcutaneous tissue; it may have serous or purulent drainage.

The nurse educator is presenting a lecture on the respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Which response given by the nursing staff would indicate to the educator that they have an understanding of cardiac output?

"If the client's stroke volume is 50 mL and heart rate is 50 beats per minute, then the cardiac output is 2.5 L/minute." The following formula is used to determine cardiac output: Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume x Heart Rate. A client with a stroke volume of 50 mL and heart rate of 50 beats per minute has a cardiac output of 2.5 L/minute. If stroke volume is 70 and heart rate is 70 beats per minute, then the cardiac output is 4.9 L/minute. If stroke volume is 80 and heart rate is 80 beats per minute, then the cardiac output is 6.4 L/minute. If stroke volume is 60 and heart rate is 60 beats per minute, then the cardiac output is 3.6 L/minute. If stroke volume is 80 and heart rate is 80 beats per minute, then the cardiac output is 6.4 L/minute.

The nurse observes the presence of intestinal contents protruding from the client's surgical wound after colon resection. What action will the nurse take?

Apply saline solution-moistened gauze over the protruding area. The first thing the nurse will do is cover the protruding intestine with a saline solution-moistened gauze. The nurse will then notify the health care provider of wound evisceration. If the protruding intestine is left open to the air, it may cause drying of the fragile tissue and necrosis to the area. The nurse should not pack anything into the wound since foreign body retention may cause complications at a later time if the gauze is not recovered. The occurrence of wound evisceration is not an expected finding and may be serious depending upon whether the protruding area is viable.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a compromised cardiopulmonary system and needs to assess the client's tissue oxygenation. The nurse would use which appropriate method to assess this client's oxygenation?

Arterial blood gas Arterial blood gases include the levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate, and pH. Blood gases determine the adequacy of alveolar gas exchange and the ability of the lungs and kidneys to maintain the acid-base balance of body fluids.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. The client suddenly becomes cyanotic with a pulse oximetry reading of 91%. What is the next most appropriate action the nurse should take?

Assess oxygen tubing connection If the client suddenly becomes cyanotic, the nurse should assess the oxygen tubing to make sure it is still connected. Assessing lung sounds, repositioning the client, and elevating the head of the bed will not correct the problem if the tubing is disconnected.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure injury on the left great toe. The client is scheduled for debridement the next morning. Based on the red-yellow-black (RYB) Wound Classification System, which classification should the nurse document?

Black classification A wound that requires debridement would be classified in the black category. The red classification would indicate dressing changes for treatment. The yellow classification would indicate cleansing of the wound related to the drainage or slough in the wound. Unstageable is not a classification in the RYB Wound Classification System.

A nurse is conducting a physical assessment of a client who is being treated for pleural effusion at a health care facility. The nurse needs the client to exhale additional air, which will allow the nurse to check the quality of the client's oxygenation. What instruction should the nurse give the client?

Contract the abdominal muscles. The nurse should instruct the client to contract the abdominal muscles to exhale additional air. A person can forcibly exhale additional air by contracting abdominal muscles such as the rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, and external and internal obliques. The client elevates the ribs and sternum and expands the thoracic cavity during inspiration. The client relaxes the respiratory muscles during normal expiration.

A nurse is providing wound care for a client who has a pressure injury on the right buttock. Place in order the nursing interventions the nurse should perform during this dressing change. Use all options.

Give pain medication. Use nonsterile gloves. Remove old dressing. Apply sterile gloves. Cleanse the wound with normal saline. Apply wound covering. The correct order for this dressing change is giving pain medication, applying nonsterile gloves to remove old dressing, removing old dressing, applying sterile gloves, cleansing the wound with normal saline, and applying a wound covering.

A nursing instructor is teaching a class on the mechanics of respiration and the process of ventilation. The instructor determines that the education was successful when the students identify which activity as occurring during inspiration?

Intercostal muscles contract. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract. Their contraction enlarges the thorax volume and decreases intrathoracic pressure. The expanding chest wall pulls the lungs outward. As the lungs expand, pressure drops within the airways. During exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, causing the thorax to return to its smaller resting size. During exhalation, the pressure in the chest increases, allowing air to flow out of the lungs.

Which teaching about the oxygen analyzer is important for the nurse to provide to a client using oxygen?

It determines whether the client is getting enough oxygen. The oxygen analyzer measures the percentage of delivered oxygen to determine whether the client is receiving the prescribed amount. The flowmeter is a gauge used to regulate the amount of oxygen that a client receives. The provider prescribes concentration. The humidifier produces small water droplets that are delivered during oxygen administration to decrease dry mucous membranes.

A client with a diagnosis of advanced Alzheimer disease is unable to follow directions required to use an inhaled bronchodilator. Which medication delivery system is most appropriate for this client?

Nebulizer Inhalers differ in the amount of dexterity required in order to deliver an accurate dose, but each requires some degree of coordinated activity and the ability to follow directions on the part of the client. For a client with decreased cognition, a nebulizer may be more appropriate because the client passively inhales the entire dose. A dry powder inhaler is initiated by inhalation and requires an ability to follow directions and keep the mouth around the port. If the client cannot follow directions then only the nebulizer is appropriate.

A nurse is caring for a client with quadriplegia. Which intervention by the nurse will prevent a heel or ankle pressure injury for the client?

Placing the client in a side-lying position with a pillow between the mattress and the lower leg, and a pillow between the lower legs Pressure injuries are caused by unrelieved compression of the skin that results in damage to underlying tissues. Pressure points in bed vary depending on the size and shape of client and the position. Pressure points while sitting in a chair or wheelchair also vary depending of the style, shape, and construction of the chair or wheelchair, the clients position in the chair, and the size and shape of the client. Any boney prominence or areas under a large amount of pressure against a hard or semihard surface can create a pressure injury. To protect clients at risk for pressure injury, the nurse implements a 2-hour turn schedule, uses a pressure redistribution support surface, keeps pressure points from pressing on the bed or chair by using positioning devices or pillows, keeps boney prominences from rubbing on each other, minimizes exposure of skin to incontinence, perspiration, or wound drainage, and provides adequate calories and nutrients. A pillow placed between the lower legs in side-lying position will prevent ankle to ankle pressure, but not ankle to mattress pressure. Placing a pillow under the knees while positioned supine will increase pressure on the heels. While using a wheelchair, it is best to have the client wear well-fitted shoes and position the feet on the footplate and remove the heel rest or heel loop.

Which diagnostic procedure measures lung size and airway patency, producing graphic representations of lung volumes and flows?

Pulmonary function tests Pulmonary function testing is used to measure lung size and airway patency. Chest x-rays are used to detect pathologic lung changes. Bronchoscopy allows the visualization of the airways directly. Skin tests are used to detect allergies.

The nurse working in the intensive care unit is preparing to admit a client from the emergency department who had a stroke located in the medulla. What equipment should the nurse have present in the room upon the client's arrival into the unit? Select all that apply.

Pulse oximeter Ventilator The medulla houses the respiratory center, which regulates respirations. If damaged, the client will need monitoring of oxygenation (pulse oximeter) and a mechanism for breathing, getting oxygen, and clearing secretions from the airway (endotracheal tube). There is no indication that the client's lungs have collapsed, so a chest drainage system is not needed. A communication board would be used if the client could not be understood. It is important to record temperature, but the most important items are pulse oximeter and endotracheal tube.

A nurse is removing the staples from a client's surgical incision, as ordered. After removing the first few staples, the nurse notes that the edges of the wound pull apart as each staple is removed. What is the nurse's best action?

Stop removing staples and inform the surgeon If there are signs of dehiscence, the nurse should stop removing staples and inform the surgeon. The surgeon may or may not order further staple removal. An occlusive dressing or ABD pad will not adequately prevent further dehiscence.

A nursing instructor is teaching a student nurse about the layers of the skin. Which layer should the student nurse understand is a potential source of energy in an undernourished client?

Subcutaneous tissue The subcutaneous tissue is the skin layer that is responsible for storing fat for energy. The epidermis is the outer layer that protects the body with a waterproof layer of cells. The dermis contains the nerves, hair follicles, blood vessels, and glands. The muscle layer moves the skeleton.

When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse would perform which recommended action?

Suction the tracheostomy tube using sterile technique. Sterile technique is required when suctioning a tracheostomy in order to prevent introduction of microorganisms into the respiratory tract. The area around a new tracheostomy may need to be assessed and cleaned every 1 to 2 hours. Gauze dressings that are not filled with cotton must be used to prevent aspiration of lint or cotton fibers into the trachea.

What intervention should the nurse teach the client to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples?

To splint the area when engaging in activity To support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort, the nurse should teach the client to splint the area when engaging in activities such as changing positions, coughing, or ambulating. Teaching the client to ambulate using a cane or walker may be necessary but is not done to support the underlying tissues or to decrease discomfort. It is done to ensure the client can use the ambulatory devices correctly. There is no indication that the client needs to stay in bed; in fact, ambulation should be encouraged. Teaching the client to turn the head away while coughing is done to aid in prevention of infection.

A client with anorexia nervosa has developed a pressure injury on the sacrum. Which laboratory result would indicate the client is at nutritional risk?

Total lymphocyte count of 1,000/mm3 The following laboratory criteria indicate that a client is nutritionally at risk for development of a pressure injury: albumin level <3.2 mg/dL (normal, 3.4-5.4 mg/dL), prealbumin <15 mg/dL (normal 19-38 mg/dL), body weight decrease of 5% over 30 days or 10% over 180 days. Additional laboratory tests to consider in clients at risk for or presenting with pressure injuries include: total lymphocyte count <1,000/mm3 (normal, 1,500- 4,000/mm3), hemoglobin A1C >6.5% (normal <6%), glucose >126 mg/dL (fasting normal glucose <110 mg/dL).

A nurse is evaluating a client who was admitted with partial-thickness or second-degree burns. Which describes this type of burn?

Usually moist with blisters, which may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown Second-degree burns are moderate to deep partial-thickness burns that may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown. They are usually moist with blisters. First-degree burns are superficial and may be pinkish or red with no blistering. Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns and may vary from brown or black to cherry-red or pearly-white; bullae may be present; can appear dry and leathery.

During data collection, the nurse auscultates low-pitched, soft sounds over the lungs' peripheral fields. Which appropriate terminology would the nurse use to describe these lung sounds when documenting?

Vesicular Vesicular breath sounds are normal and described as low-pitched, soft sounds over the lungs' peripheral fields. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds heard on inspiration. Medium-pitched blowing sounds heard over the major bronchi describe bronchovesicular breath sounds. Bronchial breath sounds are loud, high-pitched sounds heard over the trachea and larynx.

A nurse assessing a client's respiratory status gets a weak signal from the pulse oximeter. The client's other vital signs are within reference ranges. What is the nurse's best action?

Warm the client's hands and try again. Finding an absent or weak signal, the nurse should check vital signs and client condition. If satisfactory, warming the extremity may facilitate a stronger reading. This should be attempted prior to resorting to using the client's earlobe. Bright light can interfere with the operation of light sensors and cause an unreliable report. A blood pressure cuff will compromise venous blood flow to the site leading to inaccurate readings.

Which guideline describes the proper method for measuring the appropriate length to use when inserting a nasopharyngeal airway?

When holding the airway on the side of the client's face, it should reach from the tragus of the ear to the tip of the nostril. The nasopharyngeal airway length is measured by holding the airway on the side of the client's face. The airway should reach from the tragus of the ear to the tip of the nostril. The diameter should be slightly smaller than the diameter of the nostril. For an oropharyngeal airway, when holding the airway on the side of the client's face, it should reach from the opening of the mouth to the back angle of the jaw.

The nurse is assessing the wounds of clients. Which clients would the nurse place at risk for delayed wound healing? Select all that apply.

an older adult who is confined to bed a client with a peripheral vascular disorder a client who is obese a client who is taking corticosteroid drugs There are several clients that would be at risk for delayed wound healing. The older adult who is bedridden would be at risk. Older adults are at a greater risk for pressure injury formation because the aging skin is more susceptible to injury. Chronic and debilitating diseases, more common in this age group, may adversely affect circulation and oxygenation of dermal structures. Other problems, such as malnutrition and immobility, compound the risk of pressure injury development in older adults. A client with a peripheral vascular disorder would also be at risk due to issues with the peripheral circulation to the wound. An obese client would be at risk. The obese client may be malnourished or, simply because of the obesity, the client could be at risk. A client who is taking corticosteroid drugs would also be at risk. Corticosteroid drugs interfere with the immune system of the client. A client who eats a diet high in vitamins A and C would not be at risk for delayed wound healing. A 10-year old client with a surgical incision would not be at risk for delayed wound healing.

A client 57 years of age is recovering in a hospital following a bilateral mastectomy and breast reconstruction 2 days earlier. Since her surgery, the client has been unwilling to mobilize despite the nurse's education on the benefits of early mobilization following surgery. The nurse would recognize that the client's prolonged immobility creates a risk for:

atelectasis. Prolonged bed rest can result in the incomplete lung expansion and collapse of alveoli that characterize atelectasis. Immobility is not commonly implicated in cases of pneumothorax or hemothorax. A pneumothorax is a collapsed lung. Hemothorax is a collection of blood in the space between the chest wall and the lung. Tachypnea, if present, would likely be a sign of atelectasis rather than an independent finding.

A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic wound on the left buttock. The wound is 8.3 × 6.4 cm. Which action should the nurse use during wound care?

cleanse with a new gauze for each stroke When cleansing a wound, the nurse should use a new gauze or swab on each downward stroke of the cleansing agent. The wound should be cleaned from the inner to the outer portions of the wound. This keeps the wound from being contaminated with bacteria from outside the wound. The wound should be cleansed at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) beyond the end of the new dressing. Also, the wound should be cleansed in full or half circles, beginning in the center and working toward the outside.

A client has edema of the feet and ankles, along with crackles in the lower lobes and a frothy, productive cough. The client is suffering from:

congestive heart failure. A client who has edema and a cough that is productive with frothy sputum is manifesting heart failure.

During the physical assessment of a client who has been inactive due to a leg injury, the nurse notes that the client tends to breathe very shallowly. What technique should the nurse teach the client in order to breathe more efficiently?

deep breathing The nurse should teach deep breathing techniques to the client who is recovering from an injury and tends to breathe shallowly in order to help the client breathe more efficiently. Deep breathing is a technique for maximizing ventilation. Taking in a large volume of air fills alveoli to a greater capacity, thus improving gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is a form of controlled ventilation in which the client consciously prolongs the expiration phase of breathing, which helps clients, especially with COPD, to eliminate more than the usual carbon dioxide from the lungs. It is used to increase the volume of air exchanged during inspiration and expiration. Incentive spirometry, a technique for deep breathing using a calibrated device, encourages clients to reach a goal-directed volume of inspired air; however, it is not always recommended for routine prophylactic use in postoperative adult and pediatric clients. Diaphragmatic breathing is breathing that promotes the use of the diaphragm rather than the upper chest muscles. It is used to increase the volume of air exchanged during inspiration and expiration in client with COPD.

An older adult client is visibly pale with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. Upon questioning, the client states to the nurse, "I can't seem to catch my breath." The nurse has responded by repositioning the client and measuring the client's oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry, yielding a reading of 90%. The nurse should interpret this oxygen saturation reading in light of the client's:

hemoglobin level. Pulse oximetry readings are reflective of the number of available oxygen receptors on hemoglobin molecules. Consequently, an acceptable reading in a client with low hemoglobin can be artificially inflated. Age, blood pH, and electrolyte levels do not have a direct bearing on the accuracy and clinical application of pulse oximetry.

To drain the apical sections of the upper lobes of the lungs, the nurse should place the client in which position?

high-Fowler's position Postural drainage makes use of gravity to drain secretions from the lungs from smaller pulmonary branches into larger ones, where they can be removed by coughing. High-Fowler's position is used to drain the apical sections of the upper lobes of the lungs. Placing the client lying on the left side with a pillow under the chest wall helps to drain the right lobe of the lung. Placing the client in a side-lying position, half on the abdomen and half on the side, right and left, helps to drain the posterior sections of the upper lobes of the lungs. Trendelenburg position assists in draining the lower lobes of the lungs.

The nurse is caring for a client with respiratory acidosis. Which arterial blood gas data does the nurse anticipate finding?

pH less than 7.35; HCO3 high; PaCO2 high In respiratory acidosis, anticipated arterial blood gas results are anticipated to reflect pH less than 7.35; HCO3 high; and PaCO2 high. Other answers are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a client with metabolic acidosis whose breathing rate is 28 breaths per minute. Which arterial blood gas data does the nurse anticipate finding?

pH less than 7.35; HCO3 low; PaCO2 low In metabolic acidosis, anticipated arterial blood gas results are anticipated to reflect pH less than 7.35; HCO3 low; and PaCO2 low. Other answers are incorrect.

A nurse is assigned to care for a client admitted to the health care facility with the diagnosis of atelectasis. When interviewing the client, the nurse would anticipate a history of:

pneumonia. Pneumonia, which causes the lungs to swell and stiffen, can lead to atelectasis. Stiffer lungs tend to collapse, and their alveoli also collapse. Consequently, the amount of space available for gas exchange in the lungs decreases. Croup, asthma, and alcohol use do not lead to atelectasis. Croup, which is common young children, is a condition that obstructs upper airways by swelling the throat tissues. Asthma causes the small airways to become inflamed and narrowed. Alcohol use depresses the central respiratory center.

A client returns to the telemetry unit after an operative procedure. Which diagnostic test will the nurse perform to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy ordered for the client?

pulse oximetry Pulse oximetry is useful for monitoring clients receiving oxygen therapy, titrating oxygen therapy, monitoring those at risk for hypoxia, and postoperative clients. Peak expiratory flow rate is used to monitor severe respiratory diseases and the degree of disease control. Spirometry is used in the postoperative period to measure the volume of air in liters exhaled or inhaled. Spirometry also evaluates lung function and airway obstruction but does not specifically monitor the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Thoracentesis is a procedure that allows the physician to aspirate pleural fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

The nurse is preparing a discharge plan for an older adult client who recently underwent a hernia repair. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan to assist with this client's recovery?

refer the client to a local group which provides home-delivered meals Several factors are known to delay healing in older adults related to age-related changes. One of those is inadequate nutrition, which can be related to poor appetite or physical or economic barriers. Referring the client to a local community agency which provides home-delivered meals would be an option to assist with this. It would be unethical for the nurse to try to talk the client into doing something not necessary or wanted. The nurse should function as an advocate, not insist the client follow the nurse's opinion. The nurse should only include neighbors if the client indicates this is desired. Including the neighbors without the consent of the client would be a breach of confidentiality. The nurse may refer the client for visits from a home health nurse who would be the one to conduct a safety inspection.

A nurse suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube should be careful not to occlude the Y-port when inserting the suction catheter because it would cause what condition to occur?

trauma to the tracheal mucosa Occluding the Y-port on the suction tubing is what creates the suction. While suctioning would be difficult but possible, suctioning while advancing the tube would damage the tracheal mucosa and remove excessive amounts of oxygen, not carbon dioxide, from the respiratory tract. Suctioning during insertion of the catheter would not compromise sterility.