Test Bank Ch 2
44. Drugs, after undergoing phase I drug metabolism, are more likely to be distributed to fat tissue.
False
43. A prodrug is an inactive drug compound that becomes transformed into an active drug compound.
True
45. If a drug is a weak base that is excreted via the kidneys, then acidifying the urine will enhance its excretion.
True
46. The route of administration of a drug affects both the onset and duration of response.
True
16. Which of the following is true regarding basic principles of drug distribution in the bloodstream? a. All drugs in the blood are either bound to plasma proteins or free. b. Only the drug that is bound to plasma proteins can exert the pharmacologic effect. c. Only the drug that is bound to plasma proteins can pass across cell membranes. d. The free drug is a reservoir for the drug.
a. All drugs in the blood are either bound to plasma proteins or free.
40. Application of a transdermal patch is an example of parenteral administration because the drug is delivered in a manner that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract. a. Both parts of the statements are true. b. Both parts of the statements are false. c. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false. d. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
a. Both parts of the statements are true.
22. Enterohepatic circulation of a drug involves the secretion of a metabolized drug into the intestine. If enterohepatic circulation is blocked, the level of the drug in the serum will fall. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
a. Both statements are true.
27. Which of the following reactions is considered to be in the category of phase II drug metabolism? a. Conjugation b. Reduction c. Hydrolysis d. Oxidation
a. Conjugation
17. The movement of a drug from one site in the body to other sites is called: a. Distribution b. Disruption c. Dispersion d. Active transport
a. Distribution
38. What type of administration involves the injection of solutions into the spinal subarachnoid space? a. Intrathecal route b. Intraperitoneal route c. Intravenous route d. Intradermal route
a. Intrathecal route
36. Which of the following routes of drug administration produces the most rapid drug response? a. Intravenous b. Intramuscular c. Subcutaneous d. Intradermal
a. Intravenous
7. When different drugs compete for the same receptor sites, the drug with the stronger affinity for the receptor will bind to: a. More receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity b. Fewer receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity c. All of the available receptors d. None of the available receptors
a. More receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity
10. Which of the following is not a subject of pharmacokinetics? a. Physiologic action of drugs b. Metabolism of drugs c. Elimination of drugs d. Absorption of drugs
a. Physiologic action of drugs
20. One dose of a drug is administered that has a half-life of 8 hours. Assuming first-order kinetics, how much time is needed for this drug to be over 96% eliminated from the body? a. 8 hours b. 40 hours c. 60 hours d. 120 hours
b. 40 hours
19. If one dose of a drug is administered and the drug's half-life in the body is 3 hours, what percentage of the drug would be left after four half-lives? a. 50% b. 6.25% c. 2% d. Insufficient information to determine
b. 6.25%
28. If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics: a. Elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased. b. A constant amount is eliminated per unit time. c. The drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body. d. The elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
b. A constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
12. Which of the following choices is the process by which a substance is transported against a concentration gradient? a. Passive transfer b. Active transport c. Facilitated diffusion d. Filtration
b. Active transport
8. When a drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect, it is called a(n): a. Agonist b. Competitive antagonist c. Competitive agonist d. Physiologic agonist
b. Competitive antagonist
21. The half-life of a drug is most related to its: a. Onset b. Duration c. Safety d. Time to peak concentration
b. Duration
37. What route is used to administer the tuberculosis skin test? a. Intramuscular b. Intradermal c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous
b. Intradermal
25. The metabolite formed during metabolism (biotransformation) is usually __________ polar and __________ lipid soluble than its parent compound. a. More, more b. More, less c. Less, more d. Less, less
b. More, less
32. An enteral route of administration would be: a. Intravenous b. Oral c. Sublingual d. Transdermal
b. Oral
11. Which of the following statements is true concerning passage across body membranes? a. The membrane lipids make the membrane relatively permeable to ions and polar molecules. b. The lipid molecules orient themselves so that they form a fluid bimolecular leaflet structure with the hydrophobic ends of the molecules shielded from the surrounding aqueous environment. c. Membrane carbohydrates make up the structural components of the membrane and help move the molecules across the membrane during the transport process. d. Both a and b are true. e. Both b and c are true.
b. The lipid molecules orient themselves so that they form a fluid bimolecular leaflet structure with the hydrophobic ends of the molecules shielded from the surrounding aqueous environment.
13. Drugs that are weak electrolytes will cross body membranes best when they are (1) nonionized, (2) ionized, (3) polar, (4) nonpolar, (5) lipid soluble, (6) water soluble. a. 1, 3, 5 b. 1, 3, 6 c. 1, 4, 5 d. 1, 4, 6 e. 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 4, 5
1. Parent compounds that exhibit known pharmacologic activity are chemically modified to produce agents of a similar structure with a similar pharmacologic effect called: a. Potency b. Efficacy c. Congeners d. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes
c. Congeners
42. The need for an increasingly larger dose of a drug to obtain the same effects as the original dose is: a. Drug dependency b. Insufficiency c. Drug tolerance d. Craving
c. Drug tolerance
2. In comparing two drugs, the dose-response curve for the drug that is more efficacious would: a. Be closer to the y axis b. Be farther from the y axis c. Have a greater curve height d. Have a higher median effective dose (ED50)
c. Have a greater curve height
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding chemical signaling among cells? a. Acetylcholine is the sole neurotransmitter capable of traveling across the synapse to a receptor. b. Prostaglandin and histamine are examples of chemicals that are released into the systemic circulation. c. Hormones are secreted to produce effects throughout the body. d. Reactions to hormones are usually more rapid than those associated with neurotransmitters.
c. Hormones are secreted to produce effects throughout the body.
24. The __________ is the most common site for biotransformation. a. Kidney b. Blood plasma c. Liver d. Small intestine
c. Liver
35. Which organ is involved in the first-pass effect after oral administration of a drug? a. Kidney b. Lungs c. Liver d. Spleen
c. Liver
34. Advantages of oral administration of a drug include all the following choices except: a. Large surface area for drug absorption b. Many different dose forms that may be administered orally c. More predictable response than intravenous administration d. The simplest way to introduce a drug into the body
c. More predictable response than intravenous administration
31. Which term refers to the time required for a drug to begin to have its effect? a. First pass b. Duration c. Onset d. Efficacy
c. Onset
39. Drug preparations may be administered for local or systemic effects. Which is an example of a dose form used for a local effect? a. Sublingual tablet b. Transdermal patch c. Ophthalmic ointment d. Subcutaneous injection
c. Ophthalmic ointment
33. What of the following choices is considered the safest, least expensive, and most convenient route for administering drugs? a. Inhalation b. Rectal c. Oral d. Subcutaneous
c. Oral
29. Which of the following processes in the kidney can result in retention of a drug in the body? a. Glomerular filtration b. Active tubular secretion c. Passive tubular diffusion d. All of the above
c. Passive tubular diffusion
15. When the acidity of the tissue increases, as in instances of infection, the effect of a local anesthetic decreases; therefore the local anesthetic is a weak acid. a. Both parts of the statement are true. b. Both parts of the statement are false. c. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false. d. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
14. Increasing the pH of a solution will cause: a. A greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the ionized form b. A greater percentage of a weak acid in the solution to be in the un-ionized form c. The hydrogen ion concentration to increase d. A greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the un-ionized form e. No change in the relative ionization of weak acids or weak bases
d. A greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the un-ionized form
4. Which of the following statements is true regarding drug potency and efficacy? a. Drug potency and efficacy have a synergistic relationship, meaning that the whole is greater than the parts. b. Drug potency and efficacy show a positive correlation. c. Drug potency and efficacy show a negative correlation. d. Drug potency and efficacy are unrelated.
d. Drug potency and efficacy are unrelated.
6. Which of the following statements is true concerning the mechanism of action of drugs? a. Drugs are capable of imparting a new function to the organism. b. Drugs either produce the same action as an exogenous agent or block the action of an exogenous agent. c. Drugs either produce the same action as an exogenous agent or block the action of an endogenous agent. d. Drugs either produce the same action as an endogenous agent or block the action of an endogenous agent.
d. Drugs either produce the same action as an endogenous agent or block the action of an endogenous agent.
26. All of the following choices are true with regard to cytochrome P-450 hepatic microsomal enzyme except that they: a. Are located in the endoplasmic reticulum b. Exist as numerous isozymes c. Are involved in the first-pass effect d. Inactivate drugs through conjugation reactions
d. Inactivate drugs through conjugation reactions
9. A noncompetitive antagonist: a. Binds to the same receptor site as the binding site for the agonist b. Causes a shift to the right in the dose-response curve c. Enhances the maximal response of the agonist d. Reduces the maximal response of the agonist
d. Reduces the maximal response of the agonist
23. If redistribution occurs between specific sites and nonspecific sites, a drug's action will be: a. Prolonged b. Extended c. Decreased d. Terminated
d. Terminated
3. Administering a drug of greater potency is better because drugs of greater potency do not require as high a dose. a. Both parts of the statement are true. b. Both parts of the statement are false. c. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false. d. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
d. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
18. The distribution of a drug is determined by: a. Blood flow to the organ b. Presence of certain barriers c. Plasma protein-binding capacity d. Solubility of the drug e. All of the above
e. All of the above
30. Which of the following is true when tubular urine is more acid? a. Weak acids are excreted more rapidly. b. Weak bases are excreted more rapidly. c. Weak acids are excreted more slowly. d. Both a and b are true. e. Both b and c are true.
e. Both b and c are true.
41. A patient's perception that a pill without active ingredients is having a pharmacologic effect is termed: a. Tachyphylaxis b. Hypersensitivity c. Neurosis d. Compliance e. Placebo effect
e. Placebo effect