Unit 2 Anatomy

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The sternal angle is at the same level as rib number A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 5.

Excessive dorsiflexion of the ankle can overstretch tibiofibular ligaments, resulting in a special type of injury known as a(n) ________ ankle sprain.

: syndesmosis

The three extrinsic muscles of the tongue are ________.

== genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus

11) Which letter indicates the palatine bone that forms part of the hard palate? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

16) On which of these bones would the mental foramen be found? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

4) Which letter indicates the bone of the skull that has supraorbital foramen (notch)? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

8) Which letter indicates the coronal suture? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Epicranial aponeurosis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Serratus anterior. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Sternocleidomastoid. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a ligament that connects bone to bone and is external to the joint capsule? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates an articulation, that in addition to the pubic symphysis, becomes slightly amphiarthrotic during pregnancy? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

By palpation, one locates the temporomandibular joint A) directly anterior to the external auditory opening. B) by feeling the pulse of the facial artery. C) directly posterior to the last upper molars (wisdom teeth). D) by feeling the pulse of the superficial temporal artery.

A. directly anterior to the external auditory opening

Depression defined by the inguinal ligament, sartorius, and adductor longus muscles A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox

A. femoral triangle

A muscle inserting on the pisiform bone of the wrist is A) the flexor carpi ulnaris. B) a lumbrical. C) the extensor digitorum. D) the pronator teres.

A. flexor carpi ulnaris

Paralysis of which muscle(s) would make a person unable to flex the leg at the knee? A) gastrocnemius and hamstrings B) gluteal muscles C) peroneus D) soleus

A. gastrocnemius and hamstrings

A muscle that inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur is the A) iliopsoas. B) adductor magnus. C) vastus intermedius. D) semitendinosus.

A. iliopsoas

The linea semilunaris on the abdomen A) is the lateral groove made by each rectus abdominis muscle in lean people. B) is a crescent spot where appendicitis pain is usually located. C) represents the tendinous insertions of the subdivided rectus abdominis muscle. D) is the edge of the external oblique muscle seen in coughing or straining individuals.

A. is the lateral groove made by each rectus abdominis muscle in lean people

Which of the following statements about the pubic tubercle is false? A) It bears most of the body's weight in the seated position. B) It defines the inferior limit of the inguinal ligament. C) It is located just lateral to the pubic symphysis. D) It serves as an insertion point of the external obliques.

A. it bears most of the body's weight in the seated position

The lacrimal fossa is felt on the ________ surface of the eye socket. A) medial B) lateral marginal C) superior D) inferior

A. medial

The biceps brachii has this fascicle arrangement, which maximizes the range of motion possible. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

A. parallel

The long axes of the fascicles run parallel to the long axis of the muscle is a description of this type of fascicle arrangement. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

A. parallel

This arrangement of fascicles tends to provide the greatest range of motion (shortening distance), though not the greatest power. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

A. parallel

A prime mover for flexion of the arm at the shoulder is the A) pectoralis major. B) deltoid. C) latissimus dorsi. D) coracobrachialis.

A. pectoralis major

The extensor muscles of the upper limb lie almost exclusively in the ________ region of that limb. A) posterior B) anterior C) medial D) lateral

A. posterior

The popliteal fossa is located A) posterior to the knee. B) anterior to the knee. C) in the groin. D) in the groove between the big toe and the second metatarsal.

A. posterior to the knee

The inguinal ligament can be located by drawing an imaginary line between two palpable bony surface landmarks: the anterior superior iliac spine and the A) pubic tubercle. B) superficial inguinal ring. C) pubic symphysis. D) posterior superior iliac spine.

A. pubic tubercle

A muscle that attaches to the skeleton at the pubic crest and the xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs 5-7 is the A) rectus abdominis. B) external oblique. C) transversus abdominis. D) internal intercostal.

A. rectus abdominis

The prime mover for trunk flexion when doing a sit-up is the A) rectus abdominis. B) erector spinae. C) splenius capitis. D) splenius cervicis.

A. rectus abdominis

A prime mover for leg extension at the knee is the A) rectus femoris. B) sartorius. C) semimembranosus. D) biceps femoris.

A. rectus femoris

Which muscle inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? A) subscapularis B) supraspinatus C) biceps brachii D) deltoid

A. subscapularis

Which of the following structures forms the roof of the anterior triangle of the neck? A) the inferior margin of the mandible B) the clavicle C) the sternocleidomastoid muscle D) the midline of the neck

A. the inferior margin of the mandible

The best site to listen to lung sounds is A) the triangle of auscultation. B) the anterior triangle. C) the posterior triangle. D) over the xiphoid process.

A. the triangle of auscultation

14) Which letter indicates the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

3) Which letter indicates the facial bone that has as inferior orbital fissure? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

6) Which letter indicates the mastoid process of the temporal bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Deltoid. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Linea alba. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Temporalis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter identifies the anterior superior iliac spine? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a cartilaginous, amphiarthrotic, symphysis type of joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a depression that is the site where a femoral ligament attaches to the acetabulum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a synovial, diarthrotic, hinge type of joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the bony landmark of the humerus that articulates with the head of the radius? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the joint/articular cavity that contains a small amount of synovial fluid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. This muscle is the A) platysma. B) buccinator. C) zygomaticus. D) masseter.

B. Buccinator

The thenar eminence is located at the A) base of the little finger. B) base of the thumb. C) tips of the fingers. D) bulges formed by the gluteal muscles (commonly known as the "cheeks").

B. base of the thumb

Besides the coracobrachialis, what other muscle originates on the coracoid process of the scapula? A) triceps brachii (part of it) B) biceps brachii (part of it) C) subscapularis D) infraspinatus

B. biceps brachii (part of it)

A muscle with fascicles that insert into the tendon from both sidesis categorized as A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular.

B. bipennate

In this arrangement of fascicles, the fascicles insert into only one side of the tendon. A) multipennate B) bipennate C) unipennate D) parallel

B. bipennate

The rectus femoris demonstrates this type of muscle fascicle arrangement. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

B. bipennate

A prime mover for flexing the forearm at the elbow is the A) triceps brachii. B) brachialis. C) brachioradialis. D) anconeus. Answer: B

B. brachialis

Which blood vessel lies deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A) axillary artery B) common carotid artery C) subclavian artery D) thoracoacromial trunk

B. common carotid artery

This structure is located between the laryngeal prominence and the jugular notch of the manubrium. A) anterior triangle B) cricoid cartilage C) epiglottis D) infrahyoid muscles

B. cricoid cartilage

Based on their embryonic origin, which set of muscles is most closely related? A) chewing muscles—tongue muscles B) extrinsic eye muscles—pharyngeal constrictors C) suprahyoid muscles—infrahyoid muscles D) trapezius—erector spinae

B. extrinsic eye muscles- pharyngeal constrictors

The muscle used to depress the tongue is the A) genioglossus. B) hyoglossus. C) styloglossus. D) digastric.

B. hyoglossus

Groove running from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the pubic tubercle A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox

B. inguinal ligament

Which set correctly matches the function of the designated muscle compartment? A) anterior thigh—thigh extension B) lateral leg—foot eversion C) medial thigh—thigh abduction D) posterior leg—dorsiflexion

B. lateral leg- foot eversion

Which set does not correctly match the function and innervation of the designated muscle compartment? A) anterior thigh—thigh flexion—femoral nerve B) lateral leg—foot inversion—deep fibular nerve C) medial thigh—thigh adduction—obturator nerve D) posterior leg—plantar flexion—tibial nerve

B. lateral leg- foot inversion-deep fibular nerve

The jugular notch is a notch in the A) clavicle. B) manubrium. C) common carotid artery. D) hyoid bone.

B. manubrium

The main "swallowing" muscles are the A) esophageal muscles. B) pharyngeal constrictors. C) buccinators. D) masseters.

B. pharyngeal constrictors

Intramuscular injections in adults are frequently given in this region to avoid the sciatic nerve. A) posterior triangle B) ventral gluteal site C) gluteal fold D) posterior median fossa E) cubital fossa

B. ventral gluteal site

Which letter indicates an articulating surface that is comprised of hyaline cartilage? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the distal articulation between the radius and ulna? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the fossa where the ulna articulates with the humerus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the greater trochanter of the femur? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter on the diagram indicates a modified hinge joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

A deltoid injection is given A) above the acromion. B) lateral to the clavicle. C) 5 cm below the greater tubercle of the humerus. D) 2 inches above the most lateral bony landmark on the superior surface of the shoulder.

C. 5 cm below the greater tubercle of the humerus

The spine of which vertebra is most prominent in the posterior midline of the neck? A) C1 B) C2 C) C7 D) T2

C. C7

When the diaphragm contracts, it A) opens a hole in its center through which air flows. B) aids in expiration. C) becomes flatter. D) becomes more dome-shaped.

C. becomes flatter

In addition to the Pectoralis major, another muscle that displays this pattern of fascicle arrangement is Latissimus dorsi. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

C. convergent

This arrangement of muscle fascicles tends to be triangular in shape. The Pectoralis major is an example of a muscle with this type of muscle fascicle arrangement. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

C. convergent

A muscle that originates on both the spine of the scapula and the clavicle is the A) pectoralis major. B) trapezius. C) deltoid. D) subclavius.

C. deltoid

The fascicles of the biceps brachii muscle have this type of arrangement. A) bipennate B) convergent C) fusiform D) multipennate

C. fusiform

Ischial tuberosities lie just above the medial aspect of this landmark. A) posterior triangle B) ventral gluteal site C) gluteal fold D) posterior median fossa E) cubital fossa

C. gluteal fold

In the ventral gluteal site, an injection is made into the A) gluteal prominence. B) gluteus maximus. C) gluteus medius. D) gluteus minimus.

C. gluteus medius

When the adductor muscles of the thigh adduct the thigh at the hip, what muscle or muscles act as antagonists to this movement? A) pectineus B) triceps surae C) gluteus minimus and medius D) gluteus maximus

C. gluteus minimus and medius

Which of the following statements concerning surface anatomy is false? A) It studies internal organs as they relate to surface landmarks. B) It serves as a basis for a standard physical examination. C) It is best studied in cadavers. D) It is used to take pulses, insert tubes, make surgical incisions, and perform other clinical procedures.

C. it is best studied in cadavers

The midclavicular line is almost exactly the same as a A) vertical line in the median plane. B) line dropped straight inferiorly from the posterior axillary fold. C) line extending straight superiorly from the mid-inguinal point. D) horizontal line between the two clavicles.

C. line extending straight superiorly from the mid-inguinal point

Marks the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox

C. linea semilunaris

A muscle that inserts on the lateral surface of the ramus of the mandible but not on the coronoid process is the A) lateral pterygoid. B) digastric. C) masseter. D) temporalis.

C. masseter

Marks the medial boundary of the biceps brachii A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) median bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line

C. median bicipital furrow

Which forearm muscle is absent in about 30% of individuals? A) extensor pollicis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) palmaris longus D) pronator quadratus

C. palmaris longus

This muscle inserts into an aponeurosis on the anterior of the hand. A) flexor digitorum superficialis B) palmar interossei C) palmaris longus D) pronator quadratus

C. palmaris quadratus

A dimple located two to three finger widths lateral from the midline of the back at the level of the hips is a landmark for the A) ischial tuberosities. B) anterior inferior iliac spine. C) sacroiliac joint. D) transverse processes of the L4 vertebra.

C. sacroiliac joint

A muscle that originates on the lateral surfaces of the superior eight ribs is the A) rectus abdominis. B) subclavius. C) serratus anterior. D) subscapularis

C. serratus anterior

Which of the following structures does not lie within the anterior triangle of the neck? A) submandibular gland B) infrahyoid muscles C) subclavian artery D) suprahyoid muscles

C. subclavian artery

The biceps brachii operates in a ________-class lever system. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

C. third

Shin splints result from damage to which muscle or muscle group? A) soleus B) hamstrings C) tibialis anterior D) adductors of the thigh

C. tibialis anterior

A prime mover of foot inversion is the A) flexor accessorius. B) abductor hallucis. C) tibialis posterior. D) soleus.

C. tibialis posterior

The external urethral sphincter A) is part of the pelvic diaphragm. B) is part of the uterus. C) touches the deep transverse perineal muscle. D) is smooth muscle that involuntarily inhibits urination when we are frightened.

C. touches the deep transverse perineal muscle

The medial border of the triangle of auscultation is formed by the A) medial border of the scapula. B) spinous process of the seventh thoracic vertebra. C) trapezius. D) seventh rib.

C. trapezius

9) Which letter indicates the coronoid process of the mandible? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Internal oblique. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Orbicularis oris. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Pectoralis minor. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a pad of a fibrocartilage known as the pubic symphysis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a synovial, diarthrotic, saddle type of joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the bony landmark of the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the fibrous layer of the articular capsule of this synovial joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the gluteal tuberosity of the femur? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the proximal articulation between the tibia and fibula and is a diarthrotic plane joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which vertebra lies at the intersection of the supracristal lines and is used as the site to insert a needle to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A) C7 B) T12 C) L1 D) L4

D. L4

The superior lateral border of the popliteal fossa is formed by the A) knee joint. B) condyles of the femur. C) sciatic nerve. D) biceps femoris.

D. biceps femoris

A triangular depression on the anterior surface of the elbow A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line

D. cubital fossa

Site of intravenous catheter insertion and blood draws A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line

D. cubital fossa

The triangular fossa whose base is formed by a horizontal line between the humeral epicondyles is the A) anatomical snuff box. B) anterior triangle. C) posterior triangle. D) cubital fossa.

D. cubital fossa

Which of the following structures does not lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? A) accessory nerve B) cervical plexus C) trunks of the brachial plexus D) external carotid artery

D. external carotid artery

Inability to raise the eyebrow could be associated with damage to the A) mastoid process. B) orbicularis oculi. C) temporalis muscle. D) frontal belly of the epicranius muscle.

D. frontal belly of the epicranius muscle

With a flexed thigh, which landmark can be palpated along the superior medial aspect of the gluteal fold? A) greater sciatic notch B) greater trochanter C) ischial spine D) ischial tuberosities

D. ischial tuberosities

The agonist for jaw closure is the A) digastric (posterior head). B) digastric (anterior head). C) medial pterygoid. D) masseter.

D. masseter

Prominent process posterior to each ear A) anatomical snuffbox B) gluteal fold C) posterior median furrow D) mastoid E) popliteal fossa

D. mastoid

The phrenic nerve can be located by this surface landmark. A) along the midclavicular line B) anterior triangle C) fifth intercostal space, one hand width lateral to the sternum D) posterior triangle

D. posterior triangle

The main function of the flexor retinaculum in the wrist is to A) reduce friction. B) hold blood vessels. C) bind the radius, ulna, and carpals together. D) prevent the flexor tendons from moving anteriorly when all fingers are flexed.

D. prevent the flexor tendons froms moving anteriorly when all fingers are flexed.

A synergist muscle can do all of the following except A) add extra force to a movement. B) hold a bone in place to create a stable base for the prime mover. C) prevent inappropriate extra movements that might otherwise be produced. D) reverse a particular movement caused by the prime mover.

D. reverse a particular movement caused by the prime mover.

The midclavicular line A) runs horizontally across the chest. B) runs inferomedially through the naval. C) runs lateral to the nipple. D) runs medial to the nipple.

D. runs medial to the nipple

This muscle inserts into the central tendon of the perineum. A) bulbospongiosus B) coccygeus C) levator ani D) superficial transverse perineal

D. superficial transverse perineal

The line on the back drawn between the iliac crests is called the A) linea alba. B) linea semilunaris. C) posterior median furrow. D) supracristal line.

D. supracristal line

A prime mover for lateral rotation at the shoulder is the A) pectoralis major. B) supraspinatus. C) teres major. D) teres minor.

D. teres minor

If an intramuscular gluteal injection is not situated properly, all of the following structures could be damaged except A) the sciatic nerve. B) gluteal blood vessels. C) the vastus lateralis. D) the gluteal nerves.

D. the vastus lateralis

A muscle with fascicles that insert into only one side of the tendon is categorized as A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular.

D. unipennate

The Extensor digitorum longus demonstrates this type of fascicle arrangement. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

D. unipennate

To avoid damaging important structures in the lower limbs of infants, intramuscular injections are administered into the A) gluteus maximus. B) gluteus medius. C) gluteus minimus. D) vastus lateralis.

D. vastus lateralis

Palpation of this landmark may help diagnose a fracture of the scaphoid or radius. A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox

E. anatomical snuffbox

A person who states that they are "double-jointed" is capable of joint hyperextension and has more phalangeal joints than the average person. T/F

FALSE

Femoral and inguinal hernias both occur below the inguinal ligament. T/F

FALSE

Hyaline cartilage forms many menisci, such as are found in the temporomandibular joint and the knee joint. T/F

FALSE

In anatomical position, the pronator teres, the brachioradialis, and the extensor carpi radialis all lie on the anterior surface of the forearm. T/F

FALSE

Intramuscular injections in the deltoid should be given about 1 inch superior to the greater tubercle. T/F

FALSE

One type of cartilage, fibrocartilage, characterizes all cartilaginous joints. T/F

FALSE

Scoliosis is an accentuated lumbar curvature of the spine. T/F

FALSE

Synarthroses are freely movable joints. TRUE/FALSE

FALSE

Synovial fluid is slippery because of glycoproteins that are secreted by fibroblasts located within the articular cartilage. T/F

FALSE

The atlantoaxial joint is a saddle joint. T/F

FALSE

The cervical and thoracic curves are primary curves. T/F

FALSE

The common origin for many of the extensor muscles of the forearm is the medial epicondyle of the humerus. T/F

FALSE

The external carotid arteries and the carotid pulse can be palpated just posterior to the sternocleidomastoid. T/F

FALSE

The femoral triangle is formed by the inguinal ligament, sartorius, and gracilis muscles. T/F

FALSE

The first 10 pairs of ribs are true ribs. T/F

FALSE

The greater and lesser tubercles are sites of muscle attachment on the proximal lateral aspect of the femur. T/F

FALSE

The head of a rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra. T/F

FALSE

The pelvic diaphragm consists of the levator ani, coccygeus, and transverse perineal muscles. T/F

FALSE

The proximal end of the fibula is the lateral malleolus. T/F

FALSE

The pubic symphysis is a pad of hyaline cartilage between the two pubic bones. T/F

FALSE

The sternoclavicular joint (SC) is a modified hinge joint. T/F

FALSE

The subscapular fossa lies inferior to the spine and faces posteriorly. T/F

FALSE

The superior and inferior nasal conchae are part of the ethmoid bone. T/F

FALSE

The triangle of auscultation in the back is bordered by the latissimus dorsi, teres major, and medial border of the scapula. T/F

FALSE

Third-class lever systems, like most skeletal muscles, enable great strength but sacrifice speed and distance of movement. T/F

FALSE

1) Describe the joint-associated problems that can occur as normal changes to the articular cartilage as an individual ages.

Osteoarthritis to some degree, will typically affect most individuals as they grow older. Damage done to joints when an individual is young can cause problems as a person ages. Metalloproteinase enzymes released during joint damage may break down the matrix of the articular cartilage. As time goes by, recurring microdamage diminishes the thickness of the articular cartilage and ultimately results in chronic inflammation and diminished mobility at the joint(s). Regular exercise and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can minimize inflammation, alleviating some of the symptoms of osteoarthritis.

What bony structure articulates with the inferior apex of the sacrum?

THE COCCYX

If a vertebra has a spinous process that is rather slender and points inferiorly, it is most likely what type of vertebra?

THORACIC

A lever system operating at a mechanical advantage can move a large load a short distance with a small amount of effort. T/F

TRUE

A tendon sheath is an elongated membranous sac filled with synovial fluid that wraps around a tendon. T/F

TRUE

Arthroplasty is the process of replacing a diseased joint with an artificial joint. T/F

TRUE

As one ages, the upper-lower (UL) body ratio changes from about 1.7:1 at birth to 1:1 at puberty.

TRUE

In lean, muscular individuals, the linea semilunaris marks the lateral borders of the rectus abdominis. T/F

TRUE

In the proximal row of carpals, there are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, and pisiform, from lateral to medial. T/F

TRUE

Intracapsular ligaments, such as the cruciate ligaments, are covered with a synovial T/F

TRUE

Kyphosis is an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine. T/F

TRUE

Muscles arise from the mesoderm in the embryo. T/F

TRUE

Muscles of the pharyngeal arch muscle group include muscles of facial expression and chewing muscles. T/F

TRUE

One could characterize a bursa as a sac of synovial fluid. T/F

TRUE

Osteoporosis of the spine often leads to kyphosis, often called the "dowager's hump" in elderly individuals. T/F

TRUE

Placing fingers directly anterior to the external acoustic meatus enables palpation of the head of the mandible at the tempomandibular joint. T/F

TRUE

The apex of the patella points distally. T/F

TRUE

The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. T/F

TRUE

The bony framework of the face consists of 14 facial bones. T/F

TRUE

The calcaneal tuberosity is the region of the foot that makes contact with the ground while walking. T/F

TRUE

The dimple indicating the posterior superior iliac spine is a landmark for the sacroiliac joint. T/F

TRUE

The elbow has dislocated if the olecranon is not in a horizontal line with the epicondyles of the humerus. T/F

TRUE

The erector spinae are the prime movers of back extension and consist of three columns of paired muscles. T/F

TRUE

The hamstrings consist of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. T/F

TRUE

The head of the radius is felt by pressing into the dimple on the posterior lateral surface of the elbow while extending and rotating the forearm. T/F

TRUE

The interosseous membrane is a type of syndesmosis. T/F

TRUE

The ischium forms the posteroinferior region of the pelvic girdle. T/F

TRUE

The metacarpus is the palm of the hand. T/F

TRUE

The posterior inferior iliac spine is superior to the ischial spine. T/F

TRUE

The respiratory diaphragm is the prime mover in inspiration. T/F

TRUE

The superior orbital fissure is part of the sphenoid bone. T/F

TRUE

The supracristal line is used to determine the location of a lumbar puncture. T/F

TRUE

The teeth fit into the sockets of both the mandible and the maxilla. T/F

TRUE

The two heads of the gastrocnemius form the inferior borders of the popliteal fossa T/F

TRUE

The vomer is an unpaired bone located superior to the palate. T/F

TRUE

Typical synovial joints are supplied by blood vessels and nerve fibers. T/F

TRUE

You can locate the iliac crests by resting your hands on your hips. T/F

TRUE

The transverse costal facet articulates with this bony landmark on a rib.

TUBERCLE

39) A condyle is a bone marking that is A) a sharp, slender, pointed projection. B) a long, narrow ridge of bone. C) a large opening through a bone. D) a large projection for bone to bone articulation.

a large projection for bone to bone articulation

Based on the definition of luxation, a subluxation must be A) a mild case of Lyme disease. B) rheumatoid arthritis on one side of the body only. C) reduction of a joint. D) a partially dislocated joint.

a partially dislocated joint

The lateral movement of the arms away from the body is called A) abduction. B) adduction. C) flexion. D) extension.

abduction

Gliding movements occur between all these joints except A) adjacent carpals. B) adjacent phalanges. C) articular processes of vertebrae. D) temporomandibular joints.

adjacent phalanges

This joint is structurally reinforced by talofibular and tibiofibular ligaments.

ankle joint

Which of these joints allows for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

ankle joint

The collagen-rich ________ limits expansion of the nucleus pulposus when the spine is compressed. A) annulus fibrosus B) costal cartilage C) lateral masses D) ligamentum flavum

annulus fibrosus

Muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement act as ________.

antagonists

51) The largest fontanelle, forming the largest soft spot on a baby's head, is the A) anterior. B) posterior. C) mastoid. D) sphenoidal.

This is the largest fontanelle of the skull.

anterior fontanelle

The lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid are in the ________ and ________ cranial fossae, respectively. A) anterior; posterior B) anterior; middle C) middle; posterior D) posterior; middle

anterior: middle

48) For each vertebrae, the laminae A) are major components of the vertebral arches. B) are where the ribs attach. C) lie ventral to the vertebral foramen. D) occur in two pairs, so there are four of them.

are major components of the vertebral arches

Capsular ligaments A) are covered by synovial membrane. B) are located outside the joint capsule. C) are thickened parts of the joint capsule itself. D) separate the synovial cavity into compartments.

are thickened parts of the joint capsule itsel

An example of a pivot joint is the A) atlantoaxial joint B) distal tibiofibular joint. C) sagittal suture. D) suture.

atlantoaxial joint

49) Which bone articulates with the dens? A) atlas B) axis C) occipital D) temporal

atlas

62) The vertebra that lacks a body and helps allow one to nod the head is the A) axis. B) atlas. C) vertebra prominens. D) coccyx.

atlas

The glenohumeral joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.

ball-and-socket

36) The jugular foramen is located A) anterior to the foramen lacerum. B) between the temporal and occipital bones. C) posterior to the occipital condyles. D) within the greater wing of the sphenoid.

between the temporal and occipital bone

The three hamstrings are ________.

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus

The thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs at the A) body and transverse processes. B) spinous processes. C) inferior and superior articular facets. D) head and articular tubercle.

body and transverse processes

Which of these is not characteristic of a synchondrosis? A) absence of a joint cavity B) bone ends attached by collagen C) composed of hyaline cartilage D) not highly movable

bone ends attached by collagen

As an essential stage in the locking mechanism of the knee, A) both cruciate and collateral ligaments tighten. B) the popliteal muscle contracts. C) the fibula is pulled out of the way. D) the femur rotates laterally on the tibial condyles.

both cruciate and collateral ligaments tighten

Another name for the pharyngeal arch muscles is ________.

branchiomeric muscles

By hyperextending a thigh at the hip joint, you could A) hit your chin with your knee. B) perform the same movement as circumduction. C) squeeze both thighs together. D) bring your knee and leg to a position posterior to the thorax.

bring your knee and leg to a position posterior to the thorax

Student's elbow is an example of A) tendonitis. B) bursitis. C) osteoarthritis. D) gout.

bursitis

41) Which of the bones listed below is the "heel" bone? A) hamate B) talus C) calcaneus D) cuboid

calcaneus

An example of a saddle-shaped synovial joint is the A) radioulnar joint B) temporomandibular joint. C) carpometacarpal of digit 1. D) glenohumeral joint.

carpometacarpal of digit 1

The occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones and parts of the temporal bone form from what type of embryonic tissue?

cartilage

54) Which type of movement is not possible between the lumbar vertebrae? A) flexion B) extension C) lateral flexion D) circumduction

circumduction

All of the following can be performed at the wrist except A) flexion and extension of the hand. B) circumduction of the hand. C) rotation of the hand. D) abduction and adduction of the hand.

circumduction of the hand

What is the most common congenital abnormality of the skull?

cleft palate

What is the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome? A) compression of the carpal bones B) fibrosis of the interosseous membrane C) compression of the median nerve D) damage to the radioulnar joint

compression of the median nerve

When examining the clavicle, one would find the ________ tubercle at the acromial end.

conoid

The ________ is the tarsal bone lateral to the navicular.

cuboid

Which of the bones listed below is not found a carpal bone? A) cuboid B) triquetral C) scaphoid D) hamate

cuboid

These three tarsal bones lie just distal to the navicular are the A) cuneiforms. B) cuboids. C) trapezoids. D) naviculars.

cuneiforms

A nasal septum that is markedly off center is a(n) ________.

deviated septum

A pre-adolescent has more joints than an adult because of these immovable cartilaginous joints. A) sutures B) epiphyseal plates C) synovial joints D) gomphoses

epiphyseal plates

57) Which bone listed below has cribriform foramina? A) concha B) ethmoid C) lacrimal D) nasal

ethmoid

Whereas the inferior concha is a projection from the maxilla, the superior and middle nasal conchae are projections of the ________ bone. A) sphenoid B) vomer C) ethmoid D) palatine Answer: C

ethmoid

20) Which of these bones forms part of the interior of the nasal cavity and the orbit for the eye? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

ethmoid bone

24) Which of these bones has both the cribriform plate and the crista galli? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

ethmoid bone

To ________ the foot, move the plantar surface laterally.

evert

What type of excessive motion do anterior ligaments resist? A) abduction B) adduction C) extension D) flexion

extension

An individual with damage to the radial nerve would be unlikely to contract the A) biceps brachii. B) coracobrachialis. C) extensor digitorum. D) pronator teres.

extensor digitorum

The prime mover is also known as the antagonist. T/F

false

The area between the crest of the ilium and the arcuate line is called the A) false pelvis. B) pelvic inlet. C) pelvic outlet. D) true pelvis.

false pelvis

An interosseous membrane is found between the tibia and the ________ in the lower extremity.

fibula

In anatomical position, the ________ is the most lateral bone in the leg.

fibula

The rhomboids are acting as a(n) ________ when they stabilize the scapula, holding it in place as the arm moves.

fixator

28) Which bony landmark below is most similar to a meatus? A) facet B) foramen C) groove D) suture

foramen

The pubic bone is characterized by all of the following except that it A) forms part of the obturator foramen. B) forms part of the acetabulum. C) forms part of the greater sciatic notch. D) fuses with the ischium.

forms part of the greater sciatic notch

The auricular surface of the ilium A) attaches gluteal muscles. B) forms the lateral borders of the false pelvis. C) forms the sacroiliac joint. D) lines the interior of the acetabulum.

forms the sacroiliac joint

The head of the femur has a ________, from which a ligament extends that attaches to the inner surface of the acetabulum.

fovea capitis

Pain associated with the anatomical snuffbox may indicate A) dislocation of the elbow joint. B) dislocation of the shoulder joint. C) fracture of the scaphoid bone. D) inflammation of the carpal tunnel.

fracture of the scaphoid bone

The pelvic inlet (brim) is widest A) from anterior to posterior. B) from side to side. C) obliquely. D) superior to inferior.

from side to side

Perhaps the simplest synovial joint, a(n) ________ joint occurs when two flat surfaces of bones move over each other.

gliding

When you stand on your tiptoes, the lateral and medial bulges seen in your calf are the A) soleus. B) heads of the gastrocnemius. C) hamstrings. D) Achilles tendon.

head of gastrocnemius

Which of these joints is stabilized by an iliofemoral ligament, a pubofemoral ligament, and an ischiofemoral ligament? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

hip joint

Which of these joints utilizes the acetabulum? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

hip joint

38) The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone A) anchors the brain into the anterior cranial fossa. B) attaches neck muscles the skull. C) forms the superior portion of the nasal septum. D) holds the pituitary gland.

holds the pituitary gland

The bone in the upper limb that corresponds to the femur in the lower limb is the A) humerus. B) radius. C) ulna. D) ischium.

humerus

The bone that has a trochlea, a capitulum, and a greater tubercle is the A) tibia. B) femur. C) humerus. D) fibula.

humerus

The coronoid fossa is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

humerus

The deltoid tuberosity is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

humerus

This bone of the axial skeleton does not articulate with any other bone.

hyoid

The psoas major and ________ muscles are the prime movers in thigh flexion.

iliacus

50) When in life does the lumbar curvature of the vertebral column appear? A) in the 2-month embryo B) at the time of birth C) in the toddler (about 1 year old) D) in old age

in the toddler (about 1 year old)

All of the bony landmarks listed below are found within the orbit except the A) superior orbital fissure. B) inferior orbital fissure. C) infraorbital foramen. D) optic canal.

infraorbital foramen

Which of the bony landmarks listed below is not part of the distal end of the humerus? A) capitulum B) trochlea C) intertubercular sulcus D) olecranon fossa

interbercular sulcus

The acromion of the scapula A) articulates with the humerus. B) attaches the biceps muscle of the arm. C) is an extension of the scapular spine. D) lies anterior to the coracoid process.

is an extension of the scapular spine

The ________ spine lies between the greater and lesser sciatic notches.

ischial

When you sit cross-legged for a while on a hard surface, your "rear end" hurts because you have been distributing weight directly over your bony ________ tuberosities.

ischial

All of these bony landmarks contribute to the pelvic inlet (brim) except the A) sacral promontory. B) ischial tuberosities. C) arcuate lines on the ilia. D) pubic crests.

ischial tuberosity

Which of the following statements about the patella is false? A) It is roughly triangular in shape. B) It is a sesamoid bone. C) It acts to protect the knee joint anteriorly. D) It articulates with the femur, tibia, and fibula.

it articulates with the femur, tibia, and fibula

By anatomical definition the leg extends from the A) back (including the pelvis) to the tips of the toes. B) the top of the femur to the ankle. C) acetabulum to the metatarsals. D) knee to the ankle.

knee to ankle

All of these stabilizing structures provide structural support to the hip joint except the A) iliofemoral ligament. B) ischiofemoral ligament. C) pubofemoral ligament. D) ligament of the head of the femur.

ligament of the head of the femur

The seven criteria used in naming muscles are ________.

location, shape, size, direction of fascicles, location of attachments, and number of origins

Synovial joint cavities are the only important exceptions to the rule that cavities in the body are always lined with epithelia. The synovial membrane consists of A) loose connective tissue. B) muscle tissue. C) nervous tissue. D) dense irregular connective tissue

loose connective tissue

61) Swayback, which sometimes occurs in obese individuals, is also called A) lordosis. B) scoliosis. C) kyphosis. D) hunchback.

lordosis

The main function of synovial fluid is A) cooling. B) nourishing bone. C) removing metabolic wastes. D) lubrication.

lubrication

19) Which of these bones together with the maxilla, functions in chewing? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

mandible

21) Which of these bones has a ramus and angle? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

mandible

35) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the calvaria? A) mandible B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal

mandible

The temporalis and ________ muscles are the prime movers of jaw closure as they elevate the mandible.

masseter

58) The largest paranasal sinus is the A) frontal. B) maxillary. C) ethmoid. D) sphenoid.

maxillary

The tallest arch of the foot is the ________ arch. A) medial B) lateral C) transverse D) intermediate

medial

Which border of the scapula is proximal to the vertebral column? A) superior B) inferior C) lateral D) medial

medial

The fibula has all of the following features except the A) head. B) inferior tibiofibular joint (facet). C) medial malleolus. D) lateral malleolus.

medial malleolus

As it runs from the hip to the knee, the femur projects ________ as well as inferiorly. A) medially B) anteriorly C) laterally D) posteriorly

medially

Synovial joints form from ________ tissue that fills the spaces between the cartilaginous bone models in the late embryo.

mesenchymal

The bone of the palm that articulates with the shortest digit is A) metacarpal I. B) metacarpal II. C) metacarpal III. D) metacarpal V.

metacarpal V.

A chronic disorder of joints in which the articular cartilages degenerate and bony spurs form is A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) osteoarthritis. C) gout. D) Lyme disease.

osteoarthritis

43) Which of the bones listed below does not contribute to the cranial floor? A) occipital B) sphenoid C) frontal D) palatine

palatine

59) Which of the bones listed below is not a facial bone? A) lacrimal B) zygomatic C) parietal D) mandible

parietal

Which cranial bones meet at the lambdoid suture? A) frontal and parietal B) parietal and occipital C) frontal and nasal D) parietal and temporal

parietal and occipital

Biaxial joints cannot A) abduct. B) adduct. C) flex. D) rotate.

rotate

The ________ ligaments run from each lateral surface of the sacrum to the ischial tuberosities to hold the pelvis together.

sacrotuberous

Which of the bones listed below is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) patella B) femur C) sacrum D) navicular

sacrum

The sternoclavicular joint is a(n) ________ joint.

saddle

An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the A) sagittal suture. B) interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna. C) pubic symphysis. D) intervertebral discs.

sagittal suture

The ________ is the longest muscle in the body, spanning two joints.

sartorius

The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and the ________.

scapula

Of the joints listed below, the only joint with a relatively shallow or flat articular surface is the A) ankle joint. B) hip joint. C) shoulder joint. D) elbow joint.

shoulder joint

Which of these joints is one of the most freely moving joints of the body, but requires the stability provided by the rotator cuff muscles to keep it in place? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

shoulder joint

Which of these joints is stabilized by glenohumeral ligaments? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

shoulder joint

52) The bone of the skull that has pterygoid processes, greater wings, and a hypophyseal fossa is the A) ethmoid. B) palatine. C) sphenoid. D) temporal.

sphenoid

60) The sella turcica is a bony landmark of which bone listed below? A) parietal B) frontal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid

sphenoid

22) Which of these bones has pterygoid processes and the optic canal? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

sphenoid bone

25) Which of these bones has "wings" and a body? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

sphenoid bone

The fibula A) articulates with the femur. B) crosses the tibia when the leg is rotated. C) forms the lateral border of the knee joint. D) stabilizes the ankle joint.

stabilizes the ankle joint

By plantar flexing your feet at the ankle joints, you will A) stand on your toes. B) stand back on your heels. C) stand on the medial margins of your feet. D) turn your big toes laterally.

stand on your toes

Trauma at which of these joints is more likely to result in a bone fracture than a dislocation? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

sternoclavicular joint

Which of these joints incorporates two bones, the first costal cartilage, and an articular disc? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

sternoclavicular joint

The ________ muscle is the prime mover of head flexion, as well as rotation.

sternocleidomastoid

The anterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck is formed by the ________ muscle.

sternocleidomastoid

The ________ muscle helps stabilize and depress the pectoral girdle.

subclavius

The ischium has all of these features listed below except the A) ischial tuberosity. B) ischial spine. C) body. D) superior ramus.

superior ramus

This kind of joint is composed of very short connective tissue fibers that are continuous with the periosteum of the flat bone.

suture

When the fibrous tissue of sutures ossifies, the resulting joint is called a A) symphysis. B) synchondrosis. C) syndesmosis. D) synostosis.

synostosis

Expansion of the rib cage during inhalation is possible because the costovertebral joints are A) amphiarthrotic. B) biaxial. C) synchondroses. D) synovial.

synovial

The only category of articulations with a joint cavity is a A) fibrous joint. B) cartilaginous joint. C) synovial joint. D) synostosis.

synovial joint

Articular cartilages are found both in symphyses and in A) sutures. B) synovial joints. C) synchondroses. D) syndesmoses.

synovial joints

The condition in which excessive amounts of synovial fluid effuse into a joint cavity is called A) chondromalacia. B) ankylosing spondylitis. C) arthroplasty. D) synovitis.

synovitis

Which bone is the keystone of the medial arch of the foot? A) calcaneus B) cuboid C) navicular D) talus

talus

Which of the following bones primarily bears the weight of the body? A) talus B) navicular C) cuboid D) cuneiforms

talus

18) Which of these bones has a squamous and petrous region? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

temporal bone

23) Which of these bones has a mastoid process and a styloid process? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

temporal bone

41) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the nasal cavity? A) temporal bone B) ethmoid bone C) inferior nasal concha D) palatine bone

temporal bone

44) The ridge-like bone or bones that separate(s) the posterior from the middle cranial fossa is (are) the A) occipital bone. B) sphenoid bone. C) frontal bone. D) temporal bones.

temporal bones

A condition that commonly leads to neck pain, ear problems, and pain when opening the mouth is A) osteoarthritis. B) temporomandibular disorder. C) sutural disorders. D) gout.

temporomandibular disorder

A(n) ________ is a specialized bursa that wraps around a tendon to reduce friction.

tendon sheath

The ________ and gluteus maximus muscles insert on the iliotibial tract.

tensor fasciae latae

All of these statements regarding the acetabulum are true except A) The acetabulum is where the three pelvic bones intersect. B) The acetabulum participates in the hip joint. C) The acetabulum is cup-shaped. D) The acetabulum articulates with the sacrum.

the acetabulum articulates with the sacrum

What structures are most important in keeping the knee from moving medially to laterally? A) the collateral ligaments B) the menisci C) the patellar ligament D) the oblique popliteal ligaments

the collateral ligaments

The costal margin is formed by what structures? Be specific!

the costal cartilages of ribs 7 through 10

27) The ribs that are attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly are known as A) the true ribs. B) the false ribs. C) the floating ribs. D) vertebrosternal ribs.

the floating ribs

An example of a multiaxial joint is A) the proximal radioulnar joint. B) an intervertebral joint, between the articular processes. C) the hip. D) the pubic symphysis.

the hip

Which of the following statements about the male pelvis is false? A) The bones are heavier and rougher than in the female. B) The male pelvis is narrow and deep. C) The male pubic arch is wider than that of the female. D) The cavity of the true pelvis is smaller in the female.

the male pubic arch is wider than that of the female

30) Which of the bones listed below does not contain air sinuses? A) the frontal bone B) the ethmoid C) the maxilla D) the mandible

the mandible

How is it possible to tell whether an isolated clavicle is the right or left one? A) The medial end is cone-shaped, the lateral end is flat, and the inferior surface is ridged. B) The lateral end is flat, the medial end is cone-shaped, and the superior surface is curved. C) The medial end is S-shaped, the lateral end is straight, and the superior surface is ridged. D) The coronoid process is on the lateral end, the ridge is on the superior surface, and the socket is in the medial end.

the medial end is cone-shaped, the lateral end is flat, and the inferior surface is ridged

26) Which of these bones/bony collections listed below is not part of the axial skeleton? A) the skull B) the sternum C) the pelvis D) the sacrum

the pelvis

In pronation, A) the palm faces anteriorly. B) the radius and ulna are crossed. C) the forearm is laterally rotated. D) the ulna rotates, but the radius does not.

the radius and ulna are crossed

In anatomical position, A) the head of the radius is medial to the ulna. B) the radius is lateral to the ulna. C) the styloid process of the radius is medial to the ulna. D) the ulna is lateral to the radius.

the radius is lateral to the ulna

55) The difference between cranium and skull, if any, is that A) the skull contains the hyoid bone but the cranium does not; otherwise they are the same. B) the skull contains facial bones and cranial bones. C) the cranium does not include the floor of the skull. D) the cranium contains the orbits, but the skull does not.

the skull contains facial bones and cranial bones

32) Which of the bones listed below is not part of the orbit? A) the frontal B) the zygomatic C) the palatine D) the temporal

the temporal

Which structure(s) directly secures the humerus to the glenoid cavity? A) the rotator cuff B) the glenohumeral ligaments C) the coracohumeral ligament D) the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle

the tendon of the biceps brachii muscles

70) The manubrium articulates with all of the bones listed below except A) rib 1. B) rib 2. C) the xiphoid. D) the clavicle.

the xiphoid

Which of these statements about menisci is false? A) They contain fibrocartilage. B) They are found in all synovial joints. C) They can divide the joint cavity. D) They can allow two movements at a single joint.

they are found in all synovial joints

Which of the statements below regarding the metatarsals is false? A) They are numbered 1-5 from lateral to medial, just like the metacarpals. B) They articulate proximally to the cuneiforms and cuboid. C) They contribute to the three arches of the feet. D) They support some of the body's weight.

they are numbered 1-5 from lateral to medial, just like the metacarpals

Most skeletal muscles are ________-class lever systems.

third

The bony landmark which is the attachment point for the patellar ligament is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

tibia

53) The function of the anterior longitudinal ligament on the vertebral bodies is A) to prevent hyperextension of the back. B) to allow for extensive lateral movement and rotation of adjacent vertebrae. C) to protect the spinal nerve cord. D) to hold the vertebral laminae together.

to prevent hyperextension of the back

46) In referring to the alveolar regions of the mandible and maxillae, the alveoli are A) glands (salivary glands). B) tooth sockets. C) lips. D) the palate.

tooth sockets

The clavicle functions to A) transmit compression forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton. B) protect the lungs. C) allow the arm to extend further for reaching. D) provide balance for the scapula on the other side of the body.

transmit compression forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton

47) What does the costal tubercle of a rib articulate with? A) vertebral body of thoracic vertebrae B) transverse process of thoracic vertebrae C) vertebral lamina of thoracic vertebrae D) costal cartilage of thoracic cage

transverse process of thoracic vertebrae

The ________ muscle compresses the abdominal contents.

transversus abdominis

All of these bones are in the proximal row of four carpal bones except the A) scaphoid. B) triquetral. C) pisiform. D) trapezoid.

trapezoid

In the wrist, lateral to the lunate is the scaphoid, and medial to the lunate is the ________.

triquetrum

The large processes on the proximal end of the humerus are called tubercles, but the similar landmarks on the femur are called ________.

trochanters

The foramen ovale is bounded posteriorly by the foramen spinosum and anteriorly by the foramen rotundum. T/F

true

When a prime mover is contracted, the antagonists are stretched, but typically relaxed. T/F

true

The rotator cuff muscles attach to the humerus at the A) deltoid tuberosity. B) epicondyles. C) supracondylar ridges. D) tubercles.

tubercles

42) The external and internal acoustic meatuses are in the ________ and ________ regions of the temporal bone, respectively. A) squamous; mastoid B) tympanic; petrous C) mastoid; petrous D) squamous; sphenoid

tympanic: petrous

At the distal humerus, the trochlea articulates with the ________.

ulna

The bone that has a trochlear notch, an olecranon process, and a coronoid process is the A) tibia. B) radius. C) ulna. D) femur.

ulna

The coronoid process is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

ulna

The coronoid process is part of the A) ulna. B) humerus. C) radius. D) carpal bones.

ulna

The olecranon process is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

ulna

The trochlear notch is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

ulna

Which of these bone combinations represents a pair of pivoting bones? A) tibia and fibula B) ulna and radius C) pisiform and triquetrum D) clavicle and scapula

ulna and radius

A muscle that originates along most of the shaft of the femur is the A) iliopsoas. B) adductor magnus. C) vastus intermedius. D) semitendinosus.

vastus intermedius

Articular discs are found in all of the following joints except the A) sternoclavicular. B) temporomandibular. C) tibiofemoral. D) vertebrocostal.

vertebrocostal

Tendon sheaths A) surround all tendons. B) contain articular cartilages. C) differ from bursae in that they are not lubricating in function. D) wrap the tendons that are crowded in the carpal tunnel.

wrap the tendons that are crowded in the carpal tunnel

34) Which of the bones listed below does not have a zygomatic process? A) frontal B) maxillary C) temporal D) zygomatic

zygomatic

The primary bone underlying the cheek is the A) maxillary. B) temporal. C) frontal. D) zygomatic.

zygomatic

Which of the bones listed below does not articulate with the clavicle? A) scapula B) rib 1 C) manubrium D) 7th vertebra

7th vertebra

In the neck, the hyoid bone can be felt A) between the thyroid cartilage and the tracheal rings. B) at the laryngeal prominence. C) where the anterior surface of the neck changes from a vertical orientation to an almost horizontal orientation. D) at the jugular notch.

C. where the anterior surface of the neck changes from a vertical orientation to an almost horizontal orientation

Describe carpal tunnel syndrome.

Carpal tunnel syndrome results from entrapment and/or compression of nerves passing through the carpal tunnel, on the anterior surface of the wrist. The median nerve is the primary nerve involved. When it is compressed, numbness, tingling, and weakness of the fingers ensues. Carpal tunnel syndrome is among a group of conditions called repetitive stress injuries.

The vertical groove in the center of the back is called the A) supracristal line. B) posterior median furrow. C) linea semilunaris. D) posterior axillary fold.

B. posterior median furrow

Neck region containing portions of the cervical and brachial plexus and the subclavian artery A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line

B. posterior triangle

The sternal angle is used to locate A) the apex of the heart. B) rib 2. C) the cardiac sphincter of the stomach. D) the bifurcation of the trachea.

B. rib 2

The muscle that originates on the anterior superior iliac spine is the A) rectus femoris. B) sartorius. C) pectineus. D) psoas major.

B. sartorius

The lateral border of the femoral triangle is formed by the A) femur. B) sartorius muscle. C) greater saphenous vein. D) rectus femoris muscle.

B. sartorius muscle

The gastrocnemius operates in a ________-class lever system. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

B. second

Which letter indicates the anterior-most boundary of the intertubercular groove? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the iliac crest? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the joint that is made more stable by the glenoid labrum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the weakest region of the femur, which may be fractured in a fall? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Surgery to remove part of the cranium is referred to as ________.

A CRANIOTOMY

A prime mover for extending the arm at the shoulder is the A) latissimus dorsi. B) pectoralis major. C) triceps brachii. D) serratus anterior.

A. latissimus dorsi

Muscles with this type of muscle fascicle arrangement are either fusiform or straplike in appearance. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

A. parallel

The Sartorius muscle, a thin straplike muscle would have muscle fascicles arranged in A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular.

A. parallel

When the forearm is extended, the olecranon process of the ulna lines up horizontally with the lateral epicondyles of the humerus, then A) the elbow joint is dislocated. B) the elbow joint is functioning normally. C) the patient suffers from tennis elbow. D) the radius is likely fractured.

B. the elbow joint is functioning normally

The deepest muscle of the anterior abdominal wall is the A) external oblique. B) transversus abdominis. C) internal oblique. D) rectus abdominis.

B. transversus abdominis

A prime mover for extension of the forearm at the elbow is the A) brachialis. B) triceps brachii. C) biceps brachii. D) anconeus.

B. triceps brachii

Which is not a criterion for naming a muscle? A) action B) color C) location D) shape

B.color

List the bones that articulate at each of the four major sutures of the skull.

Coronal: frontal and parietal bones. Squamous: parietal and temporal bones. Sagittal: between the parietal bones. Lambdoid suture: parietal and occipital bones.

15) Which letter indicates the occipital condyle of the occipital bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

2) Which letter indicates the bone that forms the inferior part of the nasal septum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

1) Which letter indicates a bony projection from the ethmoid bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

10) Which letter indicates the styloid process of the temporal bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

13) Which letter indicates the foramen magnum of the occipital bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Pectoralis major. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Rectus abdominis. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Zygomaticus major and minor. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates a deep hemispherical socket where all three pelvic bones intersect? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

The latissimus dorsi originates primarily on the A) linea alba. B) humerus. C) vertebral column. D) clavicle.

C. vertebral column

A muscle that opens the mouth is the A) orbicularis oculi. B) buccinator. C) orbicularis oris. D) digastric

D. digastric

This vertical line passes 1 cm medial to the nipple. A) femoral triangle B) inguinal ligament C) linea semilunaris D) midclavicular line E) anatomical snuffbox

D. midclavicular line

An important function of the soleus muscle is to A) extend the leg at the knee. B) evert the foot. C) invert the foot. D) plantar flex the foot.

D. plantar flex of the foot

A depression on the posterior of the knee A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) popliteal fossa E) supracristal line

D. popliteal fossa

Vertical groove in the center of the back A) suprachristal line B) linea semilunaris C) medial bicipital furrow D) posterior median furrow E) posterior triangle

D. posterior median furrow

Which bony landmark of the pelvis cannot be palpated? A) ischial tuberosities B) posterior superior iliac spine C) sacroiliac joint D) sacral promontory

D. sacral promontory

The major muscles used in throwing a punch are the A) latissimus dorsi and deltoid. B) teres major and brachialis. C) brachioradialis and biceps brachii. D) serratus anterior and triceps brachii.

D. serratus anterior and triceps brachii

Visceral muscle differs in its embryonic origin from skeletal muscle because it is derived from A) myotomes. B) myotomes and somitomeres. C) somitomeres. D) splanchnic mesoderm.

D. splanchnic mesoderm

12) Which letter indicates the jugular foramen? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

5) Which letter indicates the facial bone that has mental foramina? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

7) Which letter indicates the zygomatic bone? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Aponeurosis of external oblique. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Masseter. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Identify the letter that indicates the Serratus anterior. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates an example of an interphalangeal joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the bone that has tuberosities that are the strongest parts of the hip bones? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the greater tubercle of the humerus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the groove that articulates with the patella? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the knuckle or metacarpophalangeal joint,which is a diarthrotic joint? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Which letter indicates the layer of the articular capsule that is the most highly vascularized? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

An example of a muscle with this type of fascicle arrangement is the orbicularis oris. A) parallel B) bipennate C) convergent D) unipennate E) circular

E. circular

The arrangement of muscle fascicles in a sphincter is A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular.

E. circular

The muscle fascicle arrangement for Orbicularis oris is best characterized as A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular.

E. circular

When muscle fascicles are arranged in concentric rings this arrangement is referred to as A) parallel. B) bipennate. C) convergent. D) unipennate. E) circular.

E. circular

A horizontal line on the back used for locating the fourth lumbar vertebra A) femoral triangle B) posterior triangle C) medial bicipital furrow D) cubital fossa E) supracristal line

E. supracristal line

Amphiarthroses are more movable than diarthroses. T/F

FALSE

The coracoid process of the scapula articulates with the clavicle. T/F

FALSE

The cranial vault forms the superior, inferior, and lateral aspects of the skull. T/F

FALSE

The distal end of the ulna is the olecranon process. T/F

FALSE

The external and internal intercostals are the prime movers of respiration. T/F

FALSE

In both parallel and unipennate muscles, the muscle fibers extend the length of the muscle, from origin to insertion. T/f

False

Contraction of the ________ muscle wrinkles the forehead.

Frontal belly of epicranius

What is the term for a smooth, flat articular surface on vertebrae?

a facet

Synovial fluid is A) identical to blood plasma. B) an extract from the bone marrow. C) a filtrate of the blood, with added glycoproteins. D) fluid from edema.

a filtrate of the blood, with added glycoproteins

A joint between a tooth and its socket is A) a suture. B) a gomphosis. C) an ankylosis. D) a synostosis.

a gomphosis

Name the four longest sutures of the skull.

coronal, sagittal, squamous, and lambdoid

When the forearm is flexed at the elbow, the coronoid process of the ulna fits into the ________ fossa of the humerus.

coronoid

The pelvic girdle consists of the paired ________. Answer: coxal bones

coxal bones

The four suprahyoid muscles are ________.

digastric, stylohyoid, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid

Most fingers and toes have a proximal, a middle, and a ________ phalanx.

distal

An example of a diarthrotic synchondrosis A) is the epiphyseal plate. B) is the intertarsal joint. C) is the knee. D) does not exist.

does not exist

Which of these joints is a hinge joint, primarily involved in articulation with the ulna rather than the radius? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

elbow joint

Which of these joints is stabilized with an annular ligament? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

elbow joint

The ________ is a broad sheet of connective tissue that slides freely over the superior skull.

epicranial aponeurosis

The ________ is composed of the iliocostalis, longissmus, and spinalis.

erector spinae

31) The anterior cranial fossa is formed by the A) frontal bone. B) frontal and temporal bones. C) frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones. D) frontal, sphenoid, and temporal bones.

frontal,ethmoid, and sphenoid bones

The elbow joint serves as a(n) ________ as the biceps brachii muscle flexes the forearm.

fulcrum

At the shoulder joint, the head of the humerus articulates with the scapula at the A) glenoid cavity. B) coracoid process. C) subscapular fossa. D) acromion process.

glenoid cavity

The bony landmark at the lateral angle of the scapula is the A) suprascapular notch. B) glenoid cavity. C) spine. D) acromion.

glenoid cavity

The boundaries of the pelvic outlet include all those listed below except the A) ischial tuberosity. B) sacrum. C) coccyx. D) gluteal tuberosity.

gluteal tuberosity

This is a type of arthritis in which crystals of urate accumulate in the synovial membranes.

gout (gouty arthritis)

Gluteal intramuscular injections must occur superior to the midpoint of a line extending from the posterior superior iliac spine to the ________.

greater trochanter

The largest ball-and-socket joint in the body is the A) hip. B) shoulder. C) knee. D) interphalangeal joint.

hip

Cartilaginous joints A) allow free movement. B) allow movement in only one plane as a hinge. C) are seen in sutural lines. D) include symphyses.

include symphyses

The ischium joins the pubis in the acetabulum and at the A) superior pubic ramus. B) inferior pubic ramus. C) sacroiliac joint. D) pubic symphysis.

inferior pubic ramus

What movement occurs when one moves the foot from the anatomical position to point the toes laterally, with the foot flat on the floor? A) eversion B) lateral rotation C) inversion D) plantar flexion

lateral rotation

In abduction of the fingers, the fifth finger moves medially, and the second finger moves A) anteriorly. B) laterally. C) medially. D) by flexing toward the palm.

laterally

Which of the factors listed below contributes least to hip joint stability? A) muscle tone B) ligaments in the articular capsule C) the deep socket D) ligaments attached to the head of the femur

ligaments attached to the head of the femur

What are the three regions of the sternum, listed from most superior to most inferior?

manubrium, body, xiphoid process

Which of the following statements concerning the fibula is false? A) It helps stabilize the ankle. B) It helps stabilize the knee. C) It is the thinnest of the two leg bones. D) It forms the lateral malleolus.

It helps stabilize the knee

37) Quasimodo, the main character in Victor Hugo's The Hunchback of Notre Dame, suffered from A) rickets. B) scoliosis. C) lordosis. D) kyphosis.

Kyphosis

17) Which of these bones has a foramen that encircles the superior aspect of the spinal cord? A) mandible B) sphenoid bone C) occipital bone D) temporal bone E) ethmoid bone

Occiptial bone

This is the action by which the thumb touches the tips of the other fingers.

Opposition

________ causes the forearm to rotate laterally.

Supination

2) Describe the three types of fibrous joints, including examples of each.

Sutures are located between many of the bones of the skull, with fibers of the joint continuous with the periosteum of the adjacent bones. Syndesmoses are connected by long fibrous ligaments, such as those found at the distal tibiofibular articulation. Considerable motion is possible at these types of joints, even though there is no synovial capsule. Gomphoses are found between the roots of the teeth and the tooth sockets of the mandible and maxilla. The teeth are held in place with numerous, short periodontal ligaments.

The term synovial joint contains the root word ov, referring to ovum, or egg, because the synovial fluid is viscous like the white of the egg. T/F

TRUE

The thumb has no middle phalanx. T/F

TRUE

The tibia articulates distally with the trochlea of the talus. T/F

TRUE

Compare and contrast the function of the muscles contained in the anterior and posterior compartments of the upper and lower limbs. Explain the embryological reason for the differences.

The anterior compartments of the upper limbs contain flexor muscles, whereas the anterior compartments of the lower limbs contain extensor muscles. Similarly, the posterior compartments contain extensor muscles in the upper limbs but flexor muscles in the lower limbs. The reason for these differences in muscle location is that during embryo development, the upper and lower limbs rotate in opposite directions from each other.

What bony structures form the nasal cavity? (Hint: there are seven separate bones, and the number of parts of these bones is greater than the number of bones; name the parts as best you can.)

The cribriform plates and the superior and middle conchae of the ethmoid, the palatine and frontal processes of the maxillae, the horizontal plates and the perpendicular processes of the palatine bones, the nasal bones, and the inferior nasal conchae.

Describe the diaphragm.

The diaphragm is the most important muscle in respiration. It is dome-shaped when in the relaxed condition; in the center is the central tendon. During contraction, it flattens, and inspiration occurs. When it relaxes, expiration occurs. It can also be contracted to produce pressure on the abdominal organs and can aid in evacuating the bladder or large intestine or in giving birth.

Interestingly, some synergists may act by cancelling out some of the actions of a prime mover. T/F

True

The elbow joint is an example of a fulcrum as the biceps brachii flexes the forearm. T/F

True

The posterior triangle of the neck is bordered by the sternocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle. T/F

True

The intercondylar eminence is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

tibia

The medial malleolus is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

tibia

The ________ muscle is the prime mover of dorsiflexion.

tibialis anterior

The deltoid muscle is an example of a(n) ________ fascicle arrangement.

multipennate

An important factor in joint stabilization is ________, which is exerted by muscles even when there is no movement at that joint.

muscle tone

Which tarsal bone lies directly anterior to the talus? A) lateral cuneiform B) navicular C) cuboid D) calcaneus Answer: B

navicular

When an individual "breaks a hip," the most common location of the fracture is the A) acetabulum of the os coxa. B) diaphysis of the femur. C) iliac crest of the os coxa. D) neck of the femur.

neck of femur

A bursa differs from the synovial cavity of a joint in that it A) contains no synovial fluid. B) is not involved in lubrication. C) has no synovial membrane. D) need not be attached to any bone.

need not be attached to any bone

Which of these bones of the appendicular skeleton are unpaired? A) humerus B) clavicle C) os coxae D) None; all appendicular bones are paired.

none: all appendicular bones are paired

Which of the appendicular foramen listed below is "closed up" and has very few vessels or nerves passing through it? A) obturator foramen B) olfactory foramen C) foramen lacerum D) foramen magnum

obturator foramen

33) This bone has nuchal lines, the hypoglossal canal, and condyles. A) mandible B) occipital C) sphenoid D) temporal

occipital

56) Which part of the temporal bone projects medially and contains organs of the inner ear? A) styloid B) petrous C) squamous D) zygomatic

petrous

All of the bones of the digits are collectively known as A) phalanges. B) tarsals. C) carpals. D) metacarpals.

phalanges

The main movements occurring at the ankle joint are A) plantar flexion and dorsiflexion. B) inversion and eversion. C) abduction and adduction. D) supination and pronation.

plantar flexion and dorsiflexion

The supraspinous fossa is in the ________ region of the scapula. A) anterosuperior B) anteroinferior C) posterosuperior D) posteroinferior

posterosuperior

65) Which of the vertebral characteristics described below, would not distinguish a lumbar vertebra from a thoracic vertebra? A) absence of costal facets B) posteromedial facing superior facets C) presence of an inferior vertebral notch D) triangular-shaped vertebral foramen

presence of an inferior vertebral notch

Besides helping to "lock" the knee, the posterior cruciate ligament A) prevents posterior sliding of the tibia when the leg is flexed at the knee. B) holds the patella to the tibia. C) prevents all medial rotation on the femoral condyles. D) breaks more frequently than the anterior cruciate ligament.

prevents posterior sliding of the tibia when the leg is flexed at the knee

A joint capsule (articular capsule) has two layers. The function of the capsule's internal layer is to A) strengthen the joint against tension. B) produce synovial fluid. C) contain all of the nerves and blood vessels of the joint. D) act as a meniscus.

produce synovial fluid

The anatomical neck of the humerus lies A) proximal to the tubercles. B) distal to the tubercles. C) beside the deltoid tuberosity. D) near the radial groove.

proximal to the tubercles

An example of an amphiarthrotic cartilaginous joint is the A) epiphyseal plate. B) pubic symphysis. C) knee joint. D) sternocostal joint.

pubic symphysis

The bone of the forearm that directly and functionally articulates with the carpals is the A) ulna. B) radius. C) humerus. D) lunate.

radius

The styloid process on lateral side of the antebrachium is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

radius

The ulnar notch is found on which of the bones listed below? A) radius B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus

radius

The four muscles of the quadriceps femoris are ________.

rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and the vastus intermedius

Pulling your shoulders back, or squaring them, involves which motion of the scapula? A) abduction B) pronation C) retraction D) opposition

retraction

63) An example of a false rib that is also a floating rib is A) rib 11. B) rib 8. C) rib 1. D) rib 7.

rib 11

64) Which of the bones of the axial skeleton listed below is paired? A) fifth thoracic vertebra B) rib 3 C) the sacrum D) the sphenoid

rib 3

45) Which bones are divided by the sagittal suture? A) occipital and parietal B) frontal and parietal C) temporal and parietal D) right and left parietal bones

right and left parietal bones

Which of the following movements is not possible at the condyloid metacarpophalangeal joints of fingers 2-5? A) flexion B) circumduction C) adduction D) rotation

rotation

Baseball players often damage the ________ cuff at the shoulder region.

rotator

The most anterior ridge of the sacrum is the A) median sacral crest. B) sacral promontory. C) sacral hiatus. D) third dorsal sacral foramen.

sacral promontory

The most freely moving large joint of the body is the ________ joint.

shoulder (glenohumeral)

Which of the response pairs listed below does not correctly pair the joint category with its functional degree of mobility? A) suture: synarthrosis B) symphysis: amphiarthrosis C) synchondrosis: amphiarthrosis D) synovial: diarthrosis

synchondrosis; amphiarthrosis

The term process in anatomical terminology means any prominence on a bone. T/F

TRUE

40) Which of the facial bones listed below is unpaired? A) palatine B) zygomatic C) lacrimal D) vomer

vomer

Briefly describe the landmarks used in making a gluteal intramuscular injection.

A line is drawn from the posterior superior iliac spine to the greater trochanter of the femur. The posterior superior iliac spine is located by a dimple that is two to three finger widths lateral to the midline of the back. The greater trochanter is palpated on the lateral hip just anterior to a hollow about a hand breadth inferior to the iliac crest. The injection should occur 2 inches superior to the midpoint of this line.

A muscle that originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus is the A) flexor carpi radialis. B) short head of the triceps. C) brachioradialis. D) extensor digitorum.

A. Flexor carpi radialis

How do physicians diagnose a "Colles fracture" of the radius (fracture near the distal epiphysis) using surface anatomy? A) They palpate the styloid process of the radius and find that it has moved proximally from its normal position. B) They extend the forearm, place three fingers in the lateral dimple, and ask the patient to rotate the hand as if turning a doorknob. C) They ask the patient to flex the forearm against resistance and then look for any bulges that formed. D) They ask the patient to extend the thumb of the affected hand and to point it posteriorly, and then they look for the formation of a triangle on the back of the hand.

A. They palpate the styloid process of the radius and find that it has moved proximally from its normal position.

Which of the following structures is not used to define the borders of femoral triangle? A) the anterior superior iliac spine B) the sartorius C) the inguinal ligament D) the adductor longus

A. anterior superior iliac spine

Which type of fascicle arrangement shortens the least? A) bipennate B) circular C) fusiform D) parallel

A. bipennate

The lateral border of the cubital fossa is formed by the A) brachioradialis. B) pronator teres. C) tendon of the biceps brachii. D) median nerve.

A. brachioradialis

The most superficial muscle of the anterior abdominal wall is the A) external oblique. B) transversus abdominis. C) internal oblique. D) rectus abdominis.

A. external oblique

The prime movers of jaw closure and biting are the A) temporalis and buccinator muscles. B) masseter and temporalis muscles. C) buccinator and masseter muscles. D) temporalis and lateral pterygoid muscles.

B. masseter and temporalis muscles

Describe the range of movements that can be accomplished by the quadriceps. Describe their common insertion.

Extends leg at the knee, flexes thigh at the hip, stabilizes knee, stabilizes patella. They come together as the quadriceps tendon, named as such because it connects muscle to bone (the patella), then it encloses the patella. Distal to the patella, it is called the patellar ligament, connecting bone to bone (the tibial tuberosity).

29) Which is not a region of the temporal bone? A) hypophyseal B) petrous C) squamous D) tympanic

Hypophyseal

List the 14 bones of the face. Identify which are paired (with the letter P) and which are unpaired (using UP).

Mandible (UP), maxillae (P), zygomatics (P), nasals (P), lacrimals (P), palatines (P), inferior nasal conchae (P), vomer (UP)

What muscles are important in mastication (excluding the muscles of the tongue)?

Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, and buccinator

Regarding the thoracic vertebrae, do the superior articular facets face anteriorly or posteriorly?

POSTERIORLY

Which of these joints would be best described as having a number of bursae, tendon sheaths, an acromion process, and a coracoid process? A) elbow joint B) shoulder joint C) sternoclavicular joint D) hip joint E) ankle joint

SHOULDER JOINT

Fatal whiplash involves what bony structure?

THE DENS

Describe how one could locate the acromion and acromioclavicular joint.

The acromion is located by following the spine of the scapula to its lateral end. Then the clavicle can be palpated anterior and medially. When the arm is thrust anteriorly, movement can be detected at the acromioclavicular joint.

Name the four bones that contain the paranasal sinuses. What lines these sinuses? What is the primary function of the sinuses? Why are they called paranasal sinuses?

The ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary bones contain the sinuses. Mucous membranes line these cavities. They function in lightening the weight of the skull. They are called paranasal sinuses because they are in close proximity to the nasal cavity.

Describe some of the anatomical characteristics of the female pelvis that are adaptations for childbearing.

The female pelvis is typically wider, shallower, and lighter to provide more room in the true pelvis, through which the infant must pass during childbirth. The pubic arch is broader as well, reflecting the wider pelvis. The pelvis itself is tilted forward and has a larger enclosed cavity.

What are the anatomical differences between male and female athletes that result in a greater incidence of knee problems for women?

The femur courses medially along its length toward the knee; because of the wider pelvis in women, this angle is even more pronounced. This results in a greater angle between the femur and the tibia, which is nearly vertical in position and leads to greater instability at the joint.

Describe how the longitudinal ligaments, ligamentum flavum, and intervertebral discs control the flexibility of the vertebral column.

The intervertebral discs are located between adjacent vertebrae, giving the vertebral column the ability to stretch and compress. The annulus fibrosus places limits on these motions. The anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments prevent hyperextension and hyperflexion, respectively. The ligamentum flavum assists in recoil after anterior flexion of the vertebral column.

Compare the structure and function of the two major joint surfaces of the wrist.

The radiocarpal joint is a condyloid joint between the radius and the scaphoid and lunate. This joint allows for movements of flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction. The intercarpal joints between adjacent carpals are planar joints, which allow for gliding movements.

Identify the heads and all the notches of the radius and ulna, and explain how these bones articulate with each other and with the humerus.

The radius has an ulnar notch at its distal end that articulates with the head of the ulna. The proximal end of the ulna has a radial notch that articulates with the head of the radius. The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. The trochlear notch of the ulna articulates with the trochlea of the humerus.

Describe two anatomical characteristics of the glenohumeral joint that contribute to the high degree of mobility at the shoulder.

The scapula and upper limb are attached to the axial skeleton only by the clavicle; the scapula itself does not articulate with the axial skeleton. This allows the scapula to move freely over the thorax. Additionally, the humerus articulates with the essentially flat glenoid cavity, allowing for free rotation of the arm.

Describe the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation, and explain how a clinician can take advantage of this anatomical feature.

The triangle of auscultation is found between the trapezius muscle, the latissimus dorsi muscle, and the medial border of the scapula. When the clinician directs the patient to flex the trunk and fold the upper limbs across the chest, the scapula is moved anteriorly to maximize the area of this triangle. Doing so will expose a region of the rib cage that is not covered by superficial muscles and allows the clinician to better listen to pulmonary sounds.

Describe the functions of the retinacula found at the wrist and ankle.

These keep the tendons of muscles that attach either to the hand or the foot, and if they were not present, these tendons would "bowstring" out. They prevent this action when the hand or foot is hyperextending or flexing.

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Unit 2 Anatomy

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Ch 12 - Data extraction, transformation, and loading

Ch. 15 Quiz

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Bus 301 Mid Term Practice Exam, Chapter 7, Chapter 5, Chapter 6, Chapter 4

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