UNIT 4 HOMEWORK

Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation? a.) Clonal proliferation b.) Secretion of granzymes and perforin c.) CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells d.) Production of IL-2 and gamma-interferon receptors

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells

Which of the following is not a proposed explanation for the development of autoimmunity? a.) Cytopathic effects generated by a pathogen could encourage host antigen-presenting cells to process and present self-antigens to T cells. b.) Genetics c.) If a pathogen has antigens that resemble host factors, it could trigger the production of antibodies that cross-react with host tissues. d.) Certain pathogens may release superantigens that inappropriately activate certain T cells against self-factors. e.) Certain antigens in a person's diet could trigger the production of antibodies that cross-react with host tissues.

Certain antigens in a person's diet could trigger the production of antibodies that cross-react with host tissues.

Which of the following describes the classical pathway of complement activation? a.) Complement proteins activate when triggered by macrophages or neutrophils. b.) Complement proteins activate by coming into contact with certain blood-clotting proteins. c.) Complement proteins activate when mannose-binding lectin binds to the pathogen. d.) Complement proteins activate by directly interacting with the pathogen. e.) Complement proteins activate when antibodies bind to a pathogen.

Complement proteins activate when antibodies bind to a pathogen.

Antipyretics such as ibuprofen and acetaminophen work in which of the following manners? a.) Increase production of eicosanoids b.) Increase production of kinins c.) Prevent release of histamines d.) Decrease production of prostaglandins

Decrease production of prostaglandins

The hygiene hypothesis proposes which of the following? a.) Newborns and young children should be exposed to as many disease-causing microorganisms as possible to train their immune system to attack pathogens. b.) Decreasing diversity of our normal flora from increased antibiotic usage and changes in diet and lifestyle may lead to increased allergies and autoimmune disorders. c.) Reducing the number of resident flora on our skin through degermination techniques decreases the likelihood of infection. d.) Decreased handwashing in clinical settings may help to combat the rise in exogenous, antimicrobial-resistant bacterial infections.

Decreasing diversity of our normal flora from increased antibiotic usage and changes in diet and lifestyle may lead to increased allergies and autoimmune disorders.

Which of the following statements concerning desensitization therapy is true? a.) Desensitization therapy is most effective for food allergies. b.) Desensitization therapy provokes a TH2 cell response. c.) Desensitization therapy encourages plasma cells to produce IgG antibodies against the allergen. d.) Desensitization therapy involves exposing patients to decreasing concentrations of an allergen over time (beginning with a concentrated dose of the allergen) in hopes of decreasing the allergic response.

Desensitization therapy encourages plasma cells to produce IgG antibodies against the allergen.

When does MHC-II loading occur? a.) During phagocytosis of an invading pathogen b.) After passing through the endoplasmic reticulum c.) During viral infection d.) During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens

During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens

Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to lead to graft-versus-host disease? a.) A baboon heart is transplanted into a human with hypoplastic left heart syndrome. b.) A bone marrow is transplanted from an older, unaffected sibling to a younger sibling affected with severe combined immunodeficiency. c.) Skin is moved from the patient's hip to a deep burn site on the patient's face. d.) A kidney is transplanted from an identical twin to a twin sibling suffering from end-stage renal disease.

A bone marrow is transplanted from an older, unaffected sibling to a younger sibling affected with severe combined immunodeficiency.

Which of the following scenarios would result in long-term immunity? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) A healthy individual receiving an MMR vaccination b.) A newborn receiving protective IgA anti-pertussis antibodies through her mother's breastmilk c.) An otherwise healthy individual developing antibodies against Epstein-Barr virus following a case of mononucleosis d.) Administration of an anti-tetanospasmin antitoxin after stepping on a rusted nail

A healthy individual receiving an MMR vaccination An otherwise healthy individual developing antibodies against Epstein-Barr virus following a case of mononucleosis

Which branch of the immune system produces antibodies? a.) Innate cellular response b.) Innate molecular response c.) Adaptive cellular response d.) Adaptive humoral response

Adaptive humoral response

Choose the false statement about immune responses. a.) Adaptive immunity is specific to a particular antigen, while innate immunity is not. b.) Adaptive immune responses are always the same, regardless of the threat encountered, while innate immune responses are not. c.) Adaptive immunity takes longer to respond than innate immunity. d.) Adaptive immunity has a memory component, while innate immunity does not.

Adaptive immune responses are always the same, regardless of the threat encountered, while innate immune responses are not.

When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells? a.) After proliferation into a clonal population b.) Before autostimulation c.) Immediately after the binding of the CD4 receptor d.) After B cell activation

After proliferation into a clonal population

Which of the following scenarios is most concerning for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn? a.) An Rh+ mother carrying an Rh- fetus b.) An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh- fetus c.) An Rh+ mother carrying an Rh+ fetus d.) An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh+ fetus

An Rh- mother pregnant with an Rh+ fetus

What is the primary benefit of vaccination? a.) Vaccines provide antibodies against the pathogen that persist forever in the body. b.) An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen. c.) Unvaccinated persons can never mount an immune response to a pathogen. d.) Vaccinated persons get used to the symptoms of a disease.

An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen.

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible? a.) Antibodies are produced by plasma cells. b.) Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites. c.) Antibodies can inactivate toxins. d.) Antibodies can recognize bacteria as well as viruses.

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days? a.) Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second. b.) T cells can also produce antibodies. c.) Each plasma cell can proliferate into more plasma cells. d.) Memory B cells can also produce antibodies.

Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.

Which of the following statements is/are ways in which fever is protective? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Fever decreases production of leukocytes. b.) Fever enhances antiviral properties of interferon. c.) Fever limits the growth of heat-sensitive pathogens. d.) Fever increases phagocytic efficiency.

Fever enhances antiviral properties of interferon. Fever limits the growth of heat-sensitive pathogens. Fever increases phagocytic efficiency.

What is an antigen? a.) A cell that organizes the cellular and humoral branches of adaptive immunity b.) A molecule made by plasma cells c.) A cell that remains in the lymphatic tissues to rapidly recognize pathogens in a subsequent exposure d.) Any molecule that, when presented in the right context, will stimulate an immune response

Any molecule that, when presented in the right context, will stimulate an immune response

Which of the following statements best describes the hygiene hypothesis as it relates to allergies? a.) The decreased incidence of hypersensitivities seen in developed countries is attributable to the decreased number of microbial infections. b.) As a result of increased handwashing and improved universal healthcare precautions, the incidence of allergies and autoimmune disorders has decreased in developed countries. c.) As a result of poorer, unsanitary living conditions, the number of allergies and autoimmune disorders has increased in developed countries. d.) As a result of increased antibiotic usage and cleaner foods and beverages, our normal gut microbiota has shifted, resulting in increased hypersensitivities in developed countries.

As a result of increased antibiotic usage and cleaner foods and beverages, our normal gut microbiota has shifted, resulting in increased hypersensitivities in developed countries.

Which type of vaccine could possibly cause a person to develop the disease? a.) Toxoid vaccine and inactivated killed vaccine b.) Inactivated killed vaccine c.) Toxoid vaccine d.) Attenuated live vaccine

Attenuated live vaccine

Which type of cell directly binds an antigen, rather than requiring an antigen-presenting cell to first process the antigen? a.) T cytotoxic cells b.) T helper cells c.) B cells d.) Dendritic cells

B cells

TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate a.) B cells. b.) cytotoxic T-cells. c.) natural killer cells. d.) macrophages.

B cells.

Which of the following statements regarding B lymphocytes is/are true? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) B lymphocytes are found in high concentration at various sites throughout the body, including the lymphatic system and the bloodstream. b.) B lymphocytes are both produced and mature in the bone marrow. c.) Once activated, B lymphocytes have the ability to produce antibodies. d.) B lymphocytes carry out cell-mediated immunity.

B lymphocytes are both produced and mature in the bone marrow. Once activated, B lymphocytes have the ability to produce antibodies.

A patient with the antigens A and RH+ would not be able to receive blood from which of the following? a.) A+ b.) O- c.) A- d.) O+ e.) B+

B+

What is the function of the CD8 receptor? a.) Bind to MHC b.) molecules c.) Produce IL-2 d.) Produce gamma interferon e.) Activate cytokines

Bind to MHC

What is the function of boosters? a.) Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity. b.) Boosters are vaccines containing no pathogenic portions of the pathogen. c.) Boosters help to kill the pathogens used in inactivated killed vaccines. d.) Boosters are the highly antigenic portions of the conjugated vaccines.

Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity.

Which of the following does not describe adaptive immunity? a.) evolved more recently b.) generalized responses that don't vary based on the pathogen being fought c.) only in vertebrate animals d.) matures over time e.) recognizes pathogens it previously fought, allowing for quicker and more aggressive defense mobilization upon later exposures to the same agent

generalized responses that don't vary based on the pathogen being fought

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune type IV hypersensitivity? a.) Guillain-Barré syndrome, Hashimoto thyroiditis, multiple sclerosis, and celiac disease b.) multiple sclerosis c.) Hashimoto thyroiditis d.) graft-versus-host disease e.) celiac disease

graft-versus-host disease

In a recombinant vector vaccine, genetic material from a pathogen is placed into a ________ and introduced to human cells. a.) pathogenic virus or bacteria b.) human B or T cell c.) harmless virus or bacteria d.) human dendritic cell e.) plasmid vector

harmless virus or bacteria

The influenza vaccine is an example of a(n) a.) toxoid vaccine. b.) inactivated killed vaccine. c.) conjugated vaccine. d.) DNA vaccine.

inactivated killed vaccine.

Which of the following allergies and treatments is mismatched? a.) insect bite/sting allergy: continued preemptive treatment with an injected antibody preparation that ties up the patient's IgE antibodies b.) atopic dermatitis: usually treated topically with ointments that may contain steroid anti-inflammatory drugs c.) allergic asthma: inhaled drugs that open up the bronchi d.) food allergy: managed on a contact basis using antihistamines like Benadryl e.) anaphylaxis: epinephrine may be administered and emergency medical care must be sought

insect bite/sting allergy: continued preemptive treatment with an injected antibody preparation that ties up the patient's IgE antibodies

Antigen processing and presentation a.) is the way foreign cells engulf macrophages. b.) is only accomplished by bacterial cells. c.) is a way for a cell to give information about its activities. d.) is a way for viruses to infect cells.

is a way for a cell to give information about its activities.

Chronic inflammation a.) works to protect host tissues until all pathogens have been eradicated. b.) can take years to go away but will go away eventually. c.) is not useful or protective and promotes atherosclerosis, cancers, and neurodegenerative disorders. d.) can lead to muscle aches and fatigue as the body struggles to heal itself. e.) is only of concern if the chronic inflammation is occurring in or next to the brain.

is not useful or protective and promotes atherosclerosis, cancers, and neurodegenerative disorders.

The cellular branch of adaptive immunity a.) is based on the activity of both T and B cells. b.) is based on antibody production. c.) is organized by T cytotoxic cells and carried out by T helper cells. d.) does not involve a memory function. e.) is organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells.

is organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells.

A patient that experiences a tuberculin skin test reaction is experiencing which class of hypersensitivity reactions? a.) type I b.) type II c.) type III d.) type IV e.) type V

type IV

Which of the following hypersensitivities are T cell-mediated responses against self-antigens or otherwise harmless antigens? a.) type I hypersensitivities b.) type III hypersensitivities c.) type IV hypersensitivities d.) type II hypersensitivities e.) type I hypersensitivities and type II hypersensitivities

type IV hypersensitivities

Which cell type is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation, is the first leukocyte recruited from the bloodstream to injured tissues, and releases potent antimicrobial peptides? a.) dendritic cells b.) neutrophils c.) eosinophils d.) monocytes e.) basophils

neutrophils

Although antivenom can save lives, it can also cause what type of reaction in certain patients? a.) nonautoimmune type III hypersensitivity b.) type I hypersensitivity c.) type IV hypersensitivity d.) autoimmune type III hypersensitivity e.) type II hypersensitivity

nonautoimmune type III hypersensitivity

Which of the following is an outcome of complement activation? a.) cytolysis b.) opsonization, cytolysis, and inflammation c.) opsonization and cytolysis d.) cytolysis and inflammation e.) opsonization

opsonization, cytolysis, and inflammation

All the following apply to B cells except a.) reside in the lymphoid tissue. b.) play a critical role in both the cellular and humoral responses. c.) coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies. d.) originate in the bone marrow. e.) mature in the bone marrow.

play a critical role in both the cellular and humoral responses.

The general goal of first-line defenses is to a.) prevent pathogen entry. b.) weaken pathogens. c.) tag intruders with a signaling molecule to identify them as foreign. d.) destroy pathogens. e.) isolate pathogens.

prevent pathogen entry.

Which of the following is not a main goal of inflammation? a.) deliver oxygen and nutrients b.) produce localized heat and swelling in an effort to denature key bacterial proteins c.) recruit immune defenses to the injured tissue d.) transport chemical factors essential for tissue recovery e.) limit the spread of infectious agents

produce localized heat and swelling in an effort to denature key bacterial proteins

The aspect of the immune response that vaccines are based on is a.) inflammation and fever. b.) stimulation of cellular, as opposed to humoral, immunity. c.) production of memory cells and high antibody titers from pathogen exposure. d.) stimulation of phagocytosis. e.) protection of the normal microbiota.

production of memory cells and high antibody titers from pathogen exposure.

In contrast to a primary immune response, immunological memory a.) generates antibodies with enhanced affinity for its antigen. b.) generates higher antibody titers. c.) provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses. d.) provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses including generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen. e.) provides a rapid reactivation of humoral responses only by generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen.

provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses including generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen.

Which of the following features are shared between both innate and adaptive immunity? a.) respond immediately and remember antigens b.) recognize diverse pathogens, eliminate identified invaders, and discriminate between self and foreign antigens c.) recognize diverse pathogens and eliminate identified invaders d.) respond immediately, remember antigens, and exist in all eukaryotic organisms e.) discriminate between self and foreign antigens

recognize diverse pathogens, eliminate identified invaders, and discriminate between self and foreign antigens

Antimicrobial peptides can do all of the following except a.) disrupt plasma membrane and/or cell wall. b.) stimulate leukocytes. c.) target intracellular components. d.) regulate body temperature. e.) insert themselves into target cell membranes.

regulate body temperature.

What is the role of memory cells? a.) suppress the cellular response once the infection has passed b.) circulate in the body at elevated levels to maintain an active attack against any possible pathogen c.) provide immune protection specifically for central nervous system d.) remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen e.) prevent an immune response against members of the normal microbiota

remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen

What are cytokines? a.) organic chemicals which stimulate fever via an increase in metabolism b.) carbohydrates which reduce inflammation in the body c.) signaling proteins that help cells communicate with each other, initiating and coordinating immune actions d.) alert hormones that trigger the body to prepare for injury by shrinking capillaries and increasing platelet production e.) enzymes that promote the replication and gathering of leukocytes

signaling proteins that help cells communicate with each other, initiating and coordinating immune actions

Allografts are a.) similar to the host, but not genetically identical. b.) interspecies transplants. c.) transplants that are made in an immune-privileged site in the body are the least likely to be rejected. d.) transplants from self, like a self-skin graft from one part of the body to another location. e.) transplanted tissue from an identical twin.

similar to the host, but not genetically identical.

Adjuvants appear to work by a.) stimulating cytokine release. b.) stimulating isotype-switching in B cells and cytokine release. c.) stimulating cytokine release and encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells. d.) encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells. e.) stimulating isotype-switching in B cells.

stimulating cytokine release and encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells.

Which of the following as an example of an autoimmune disorder? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Your patient is born with X-linked agammaglobulinemia. b.) Following an untreated case of strep throat, your patient develops rheumatic heart disease. c.) After infection with Zika Virus, your patient develops Guillain-Barré syndrome. d.) Your juvenile patient develops Type I diabetes mellitus.

Following an untreated case of strep throat, your patient develops rheumatic heart disease. After infection with Zika Virus, your patient develops Guillain-Barré syndrome. Your juvenile patient develops Type I diabetes mellitus.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding T cytotoxic cell antigen elimination? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Following apoptosis by cytotoxic T cells, macrophages and natural killer cells clear the dead cells. b.) Released interferons by cancer cells or infected cells increases production of MHC II, increasing the likelihood that cytotoxic T cells will "seek and destroy" these cells. c.) Once the threat has been detected by the T cell receptor, the cytotoxic T cell releases perforins that form pores in the target cell and granzymes, which enter through pores to trigger apoptosis. d.) Interferons released by infected or cancer cells attract and activate cytotoxic T cells, while cytokines released by the cytotoxic T cells attract natural killer cells and macrophages.

Following apoptosis by cytotoxic T cells, macrophages and natural killer cells clear the dead cells. Once the threat has been detected by the T cell receptor, the cytotoxic T cell releases perforins that form pores in the target cell and granzymes, which enter through pores to trigger apoptosis. Interferons released by infected or cancer cells attract and activate cytotoxic T cells, while cytokines released by the cytotoxic T cells attract natural killer cells and macrophages.

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of gene shuffling? a.) Gene shuffling generates an enormous repertoire of antigen receptors during lymphocyte development. b.) Gene shuffling allows for propagation of a specific lymphocyte whose receptor corresponds to the invading antigen. c.) Gene shuffling eliminates lymphocyte clones that respond to autoantigens. d.) Gene shuffling allows an individual to switch from producing IgM antibody to IgG antibody.

Gene shuffling generates an enormous repertoire of antigen receptors during lymphocyte development.

Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction? a.) eczema b.) food allergy c.) Goodpasture syndrome d.) allergy-based asthma e.) seasonal allergies

Goodpasture syndrome

Which of the following statements accurately describes the way(s) in which granulocytes and agranulocytes differ? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Granulocytes consist of neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils, whereas agranulocytes consist of lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and monocytes. b.) Granulocytes mediate acquired immunity, and agranulocytes are involved in the innate immune response. c.) Granulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible with light microscopy, whereas agranulocytes do not have granules in their cytoplasm. d.) Granulocytes typically have un-lobed nuclei, whereas agranulocytes typically have nuclei with a lobed appearance.

Granulocytes consist of neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils, whereas agranulocytes consist of lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and monocytes. Granulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible with light microscopy, whereas agranulocytes do not have granules in their cytoplasm.

Which molecule triggers apoptosis? a.) MHC b.) Gamma-interferon c.) Perforin d.) IL-2 e.) Granzyme

Granzyme

Which of the following acts as a proinflammatory factor? a.) Epinephrine b.) Antihistamine c.) Histamine d.) Histidine

Histamine

________ reactions are inappropriate responses against a threat that lead to immune-based pathologies such as allergy and autoimmunity. a.) Sensitivity b.) Aversion c.) Hypersensitivity d.) Endopathic e.) Autopathic

Hypersensitivity

Place the stages of adaptive immunity in order from first to last. I. Antigen elimination and memory II. Lymphocyte activation III. Antigen presentation IV. Lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation

III, II, IV, I Antigen presentation Lymphocyte activation Lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation Antigen elimination and memory

The branches of adaptive immunity are a.) the antigen response and the memory response. b.) the cellular response and the humoral response. c.) the humoral response and the memory response. d.) the cellular response, the humoral response, and the memory response. e.) the cellular response and the memory response.

the cellular response and the humoral response.

Choose the false statement. a.) During sensitization, allergens trigger IgE production. b.) Degranulation occurs when allergens bind IgE that is on the surface of mast cells or basophils. c.) IgG binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils. d.) In desensitization immune therapy, TH1 cells encourage specific B cells to make IgG against the allergen.

IgG binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils.

What is graft-versus-host disease? a.) Immune system cells of the host attack the newly transplanted bone marrow and reject it. b.) It occurs when tissue from an isograft is rejected. c.) It occurs when tissue from a xenograft is rejected. d.) It occurs when tissue from an allograft is rejected. e.) Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.

Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the alternative complement cascade? a.) The alternative complement cascade is triggered by antibodies bound to an invading agent. b.) The alternative complement pathway is activated when host mannose-binding lectin associates with certain sugars on a microbe's surface. c.) The alternative complement system was the first complement cascade discovered. d.) In the alternative complement cascade, complement proteins directly interact with the invading agent.

In the alternative complement cascade, complement proteins directly interact with the invading agent.

Which of the following statements accurately describes innate immunity? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Innate immunity is only found in vertebrates. b.) Innate immunity has the capacity to distinguish foreign versus self. c.) Innate immunity remembers specific antigens and amplifies response upon later exposure. d.) Innate immunity has an immediate response to antigens.

Innate immunity has the capacity to distinguish foreign versus self. Innate immunity has an immediate response to antigens.

Which of the following mechanisms occurs in a patient suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus? a.) Insoluble antigen-antibody complexes form and deposit in tissues, attracting complement, which in turn activates inflammation cascades and recruits inflammation-promoting leukocytes. b.) Complement is recruited by antigen-antibody complexes and ultimately lyses host cells. c.) Cytotoxic T cells lyse target host cells after activation by TH1 helper cells. d.) IgE antibodies with antigen bound will trigger degranulation of mast cells.

Insoluble antigen-antibody complexes form and deposit in tissues, attracting complement, which in turn activates inflammation cascades and recruits inflammation-promoting leukocytes.

What is the difference between an intolerance and an allergy? a.) Intolerances tend to have a delayed onset of symptoms, while allergic reactions occur rapidly. b.) Intolerances occur due to a patient's exposure to the environment, while allergic reactions are genetically determined. c.) Intolerances have mild symptoms, while allergic reactions can be life threatening. d.) Intolerances can change over a patient's lifetime, but allergic reactions do not change throughout a patient's life. e.) Intolerances produce symptoms that last several days, while patients having an allergic reaction recover in less than 24 hours.

Intolerances tend to have a delayed onset of symptoms, while allergic reactions occur rapidly.

What type of antigen typically binds to MHC I to present an MCH I-antigen complex? a.) Exogenous antigen b.) Extracellular antigen c.) Phagocytized bacterial proteins d.) Intracellular antigen

Intracellular antigen

Which of the following measures can be used to diagnose allergies? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Large wheal and flare lesion following a skin prick test b.) A decreased heart rate of less than 50 beats per minute c.) An elevated blood pressure reading of greater than 170 mm Hg (systolic)/100 mm Hg (diastolic) d.) Elevated IgE titers within the patient's serum to a specific allergen

Large wheal and flare lesion following a skin prick test Elevated IgE titers within the patient's serum to a specific allergen

Which of the following is part of the second line of defense? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Leukocytes b.) Molecular factors such as chemokines c.) Chemical barriers such as lysozyme d.) Physical barriers such as skin

Leukocytes Molecular factors such as chemokines

Why are leukocytes so central to second-line molecular defenses? a.) Leukocytes respond to the production of second-line molecular defenses. b.) Leukocytes have nothing to do with second-line molecular defenses. c.) Leukocytes produce second-line molecular defenses. d.) Leukocytes trigger other cells of the immune system to produce second-line molecular defenses. e.) Leukocytes remove second-line molecular defenses to inhibit damage to healthy tissues in the surrounding area.

Leukocytes produce second-line molecular defenses.

Based on the animation, T cells recognized the antigen displayed by what protein of the B cell? a.) BCR b.) MHC c.) Antigen d.) TCR e.) CD4

MHC

What is the role of MHC I in the immune response? a.) MHC I presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells. b.) MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells. c.) MHC I is found only on antigen-presenting cells. d.) MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells. e.) MHC I is found only on antigen-presenting cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.

MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.

Which statement is not true about MHC II? a.) When bound to antigen, MHC II serves a key role in activation of the appropriate T cells. b.) MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells. c.) MHC II is present only on antigen-presenting cells. d.) MHC II interacts with the CD4 receptor on T helper cells. e.) MHC II primarily displays extracellular antigens which have been phagocytized.

MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells.

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell? a.) IL-2 receptors b.) CD8 receptors c.) IL-1 receptors d.) MHC proteins

MHC proteins

Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins? a.) Virus infected epithelial cells b.) Healthy epithelial cells c.) Tumor cells d.) Macrophages

Macrophages

When a person has previously been vaccinated against a viral pathogen, which cells are activated if that same pathogen re-enters the host's cells months or years later? a.) Helper T cells b.) Bacterial pathogens c.) Memory cytotoxic T cells d.) Memory B cells

Memory cytotoxic T cells

Which of the following statements concerning natural killer cells is true? a.) Natural killer cells are created as monocytes cross from the circulatory system into tissues. b.) Natural killer cells are classified as granulocytes. c.) Natural killer cells are part of the adaptive immune system. d.) Natural killer cells provide protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumors.

Natural killer cells provide protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumors.

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens? a.) Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus. b.) Antigens are required for cell-to-cell attachment. c.) All cells of the body can engulf invading cells. d.) Antigens are infectious and can spread to normal cells.

Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus.

Where are MHC molecules located on a cell? a.) Inside the cell cytoplasm b.) They are not associated with any one location on the cell c.) In the nucleus d.) On the surface of the cell

On the surface of the cell

Antibodies are secreted from which type of cell? a.) T cytotoxic cells b.) Dendritic cells c.) Plasma cells d.) T helper cells

Plasma cells

What is produced by the process of clonal expansion? a.) Memory B cells b.) Plasma cells and memory B cells c.) Plasma cells, T cells, and memory B cells d.) Plasma cells

Plasma cells and memory B cells

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity? a.) Plasma cells produce antibodies. b.) Plasma cells are phagocytes. c.) Plasma cells engulf viruses. d.) Plasma cells activate the complement system. e.) Plasma cells neutralize toxins.

Plasma cells produce antibodies.

Herd immunity describes a.) the temporary immunity an infant receives from its mother during gestation and from breastfeeding. b.) the protection conferred to non-immunized people when a sizable portion of the rest of the population is immunized. c.) the social phenomenon of vaccine refusal reinforced by internet memes and social media d.) the process of immunizing animals so that people do not acquire zoonotic diseases. e.) the process of spacing out vaccinations in infants to just one per doctor's visit.

the protection conferred to non-immunized people when a sizable portion of the rest of the population is immunized.

A drawback of all inactivated vaccines is that a.) they may mutate to a more virulent form. b.) they are likely to cause disease in immunocompromised hosts. c.) they are quickly cleared from the body, limiting antigen exposure. d.) they may cause secondary transmission from the immunized person to another host. e.) they require complex genetic engineering techniques to produce.

they are quickly cleared from the body, limiting antigen exposure.

Which of the following are primary lymphoid tissues? a.) thymus and lymph nodes b.) spleen and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue c.) bone marrow and mucosa-associated lymphatic lymphoid tissue d.) lymph nodes and spleen e.) thymus and bone marrow

thymus and bone marrow

Conjugate vaccines which link the target antigen to a more immunogenic antigen are usually for a.) vaccines against viral envelopes. b.) vaccines against viral nucleic acid. c.) vaccines against Gram-negative endotoxin. d.) vaccines against bacterial exotoxins. e.) vaccines against bacterial polysaccharide antigens

vaccines against bacterial polysaccharide antigens.

The Hepatitis B vaccine is which type of vaccine? a.) Toxoid vaccine b.) Subunit vaccine c.) Inactivated killed vaccine d.) DNA vaccine

Subunit vaccine

While hiking, you sprain your ankle. Which of the following signs and symptoms of inflammation should you observe? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Vasoconstriction b.) Swelling c.) Fever d.) Pain

Swelling Pain

Choose the false statement. a.) T cytotoxic cells directly combat antigens. b.) Antibodies activate classical complement cascades. c.) T helper cells directly combat antigens. d.) B cells usually require T cells for full activation.

T helper cells directly combat antigens.

An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as a.) T-independent antigens. b.) T-dependent antigens. c.) antibodies. d.) BCR.

T-independent antigens.

Which T cell class is incorrectly matched with its description? a.) TH2: stimulate B cells to make antibodies b.) TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening c.) TH: identified by the CD4 proteins on the cell surface d.) Treg: ensures that immune responses subside once a threat subsides e.) TH1: stimulate TC cells

TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening

Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell? a.) IL-2 Receptors b.) CD4 c.) TCR d.) IL-1 Receptors

TCR

Natural killer cells are activated by a.) TH2 cells. b.) TH1 cells. c.) bacterial cells. d.) antigen-presenting cells.

TH1 cells.

Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies? a.) The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria. b.) The antibodies may stick to multiple bacteria, causing agglutination. c.) The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host. d.) The antibodies may coat the surface of the bacteria (opsonization), allowing for it to be tagged for phagocytosis. Submit

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.

Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens? a.) The endoplasmic reticulum b.) The Golgi apparatus c.) The phagosome d.) The mitochondria e.) The nucleus

The endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is an example of a mechanical barrier? a.) The mucociliary escalator sweeps mucus away from the lungs and toward the mouth. b.) Epithelial cells block pathogen entry into the skin. c.) Lysozyme found in breast milk breaks down bacterial cell walls. d.) Antimicrobial peptides made by leukocytes are used to destroy pathogens throughout the body.

The mucociliary escalator sweeps mucus away from the lungs and toward the mouth.

What is apoptosis? a.) The proliferation of cytotoxic T-cells. b.) The process of programmed cell death. c.) A protein molecule that forms a pore in the membranes of infected cells. d.) The receptor on a cytotoxic T-cell that recognizes MHC molecules.

The process of programmed cell death.

Which statement provides the best explanation of the need for self-tolerance screening of lymphocytes? a.) The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a highly-controlled process, so the generation of receptors which can bind to the body's own tissues is a rare occurrence due to a genetic mutation. b.) The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a random process that could produce receptors which will bind to the body's own tissues. c.) Self-tolerance involves "self" lymphocytes which bind to and form a protective layer over all body tissues. d.) It is necessary to have some lymphocytes with receptors that are self-tolerant to respond to intracellular infections by viruses. e.) Lymphocytes which would attack the body's own tissues are never generated.

The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a random process that could produce receptors which will bind to the body's own tissues.

Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection? a.) The production of identical T cells producing the same antibody b.) The production of different antigens by the same B cell c.) The production of identical B cells producing different antibodies d.) The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody

The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody

Which of the following statements concerning the secondary response is true? a.) The secondary response results in production of antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen. b.) The secondary immune response is stronger than the primary immune response due to the increased production of IgM antibody from plasma cells. c.) In order to stimulate an immune reaction, the secondary immune response requires a higher concentration of antigen than the primary immune response. d.) The secondary immune response is slower than the primary immune response.

The secondary response results in production of antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.

What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine? a.) They contain the DNA from a pathogenic virus. b.) These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein. c.) They contain only the non-pathogenic elements of a pathogen, not the entire cell.

These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein.

What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins? a.) They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long. b.) They are derived from bacteria. c.) They are small fragments of nucleic acids, 8-10 nucleotides in length. d.) They are large proteins from the host.

They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.

Which of the following statements about type III hypersensitivities is false? a.) Insoluble complexes are deposited in tissues. b.) Massive inflammation is triggered by the antibody aggregates activating complement cascades. c.) Antibodies involved in type III reactions can be made as part of an autoimmune response or formed as a normal response to foreign antigens. d.) Relatively large antigen-antibody aggregates form. e.) They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets.

They develop when IgD or IgE antibodies bind to insoluble targets.

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured? a.) They engulf virally infected cells. b.) They spread viruses to other cells. c.) They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells? a.) They are destroyed via apoptosis. b.) They can differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells. c.) They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells. d.) They can mature and attack infected cells. e.) Each activated cytotoxic T-cell proliferates, forming a clone of cells specific to the same antigen.They are infected by viruses.

They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells.

What is edema? a.) the hardening of infected lymph nodes b.) irregular heart palpitations c.) the spreading of a pathogen from the circulatory system to the lymphatic system d.) tissue swelling e.) when a capillary bursts and is releasing fluid under the skin

tissue swelling

The amount of antibody present in the blood is termed the antibody ________. a.) effector b.) affinity c.) specificity d.) isotype e.) titer

titer

Allergies are classified as: a.) Type I hypersensitivities b.) Type III hypersensitivities c.) Type II hypersensitivities d.) Type IV hypersensitivities

Type I hypersensitivities

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions involves production of antibodies? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Type IV hypersensitivity b.) Type III hypersensitivity c.) Type I hypersensitivity d.) Type II hypersensitivity

Type III hypersensitivity Type I hypersensitivity Type II hypersensitivity

Which of the following hypersensitivity classes is properly listed with its description? a.) Type III, immune complex b.) Type I, delayed hypersensitivity c.) Type II, allergies d.) Type IV, cytotoxic

Type III, immune complex

Which of the following statements regarding type IV hypersensitivities is true? a.) Type IV hypersensitivities are antibody-mediated. b.) Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered. c.) Type IV hypersensitivities consist of only nonautoimmune hypersensitivities, as autoimmune hypersensitivities are exclusively classified as type III hypersensitivities. d.) An example of a nonautoimmune type IV hypersensitivity is serum sickness.

Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed and typically manifest slowly over 12--72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.

Why are type IV hypersensitivities called delayed hypersensitivity reactions? a.) Type IV reactions affect nerve cells and cause nerve impulses to slow resulting in visibly slower movements from the patient. b.) Type IV reactions manifest slowly over 12-72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered. c.) Type IV reactions only occur in underdeveloped countries and medical attention often needs to be delayed until the patient can be brought to a hospital. d.) Although type IV reactions can cause skin lesions, watery eyes, and a runny nose, treatment for those symptoms needs to be delayed due to the rapid drop in blood pressure which soon follows and needs to be dealt with first. e.) Drugs to counteract type IV reactions are large and slow to be absorbed by the affected cells causing the patient to tolerate a lengthy symptomatic phase before recovery is complete.

Type IV reactions manifest slowly over 12-72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.

Which of the following statements accurately differentiates the adaptive immune system and the innate immune system? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. a.) Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system has the ability to distinguish self from foreign antigens. b.) Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is characterized by memory and specificity. c.) Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is able to respond immediately to a pathogen. d.) Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system includes both a cellular and humoral response.

Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system is characterized by memory and specificity. Unlike the innate immune system, the adaptive immune system includes both a cellular and humoral response.

What does a vaccine contain? a.) Live active pathogens b.) Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen c.) B cells against a pathogen d.) T cells against a pathogen

Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen

What is the role of B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) in the immune response? a.) to communicate with lymphocytes and other white blood cells b.) to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen c.) to release chemicals which destroy pathogens d.) to combine with haptens so they can stimulate an immune response e.) to release the cytokines needs for immune cell stimulation

to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen

How is the immune system able to recognize a limitless number of different antigens and epitopes? a.) Each lymphocyte is coated with many different receptors, each of which recognizes a different epitope AND the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes. b.) A genetic "memory" of the pathogens your parents encountered (and their parents and so on) is passed on to each generation, increasing the number of possible responses over time. c.) If a lymphocyte encounters an antigen it does not recognize, it immediately switches receptors until it finds one that is a match. d.) While each lymphocyte carries receptors that recognize only one type of epitope, the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes each of which carries unique receptors. e.) Each lymphocyte is coated with many different receptors, each of which recognizes a different epitope.

While each lymphocyte carries receptors that recognize only one type of epitope, the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes each of which carries unique receptors.

In 1984, in one of the most famous cross-species transplantations, a baboon heart was transplanted into an infant (Baby Fae). This surgery is an example of which of the following types of grafts? a.) Xenograft b.) Autograft c.) Isograft d.) Allograft

Xenograft

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a primary immunodeficiency? a.) Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production. b.) An individual is given cyclosporine to prevent host-versus-graft disease during a kidney transplantation. c.) Your patient acquires HIV-AIDS later in life and has a resulting low CD4 T cell count. d.) A patient has an atopic response to penicillin and is given hydrocortisone cream to relieve inflammation.

Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production.

A major factor in the re-emergence of vaccine-preventable diseases in the early 21st century has been a.) a flawed research study incorrectly linking vaccination to autism was published in the late 1990s. b.) concerns about animal rights have led people to avoid pharmaceuticals and other products that might have been tested on animals. c.) microbes can develop resistance to vaccines just as they to do antibiotics. d.) a flawed research study incorrectly linking vaccination to breast cancer was published in the late 1990s. e.) fears of biological weapons after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks turned public sentiment against vaccines.

a flawed research study incorrectly linking vaccination to autism was published in the late 1990s.

A DNA vaccine involves placing genes into a plasmid and introducing the plasmid into human cells. Human cells then transcribe and translate the genes to produce antigen which immunize the recipient. What is the source of the genes being introduced? a.) a member of the patient's microbiome b.) a laboratory animal (such as a mouse) c.) human B or T cells d.) a harmless virus e.) a pathogen

a pathogen

Antibodies do all the following except a.) neutralize antigens to prevent binding to host cells. b.) increase phagocytosis by opsonization. c.) activate killing by T cytotoxic cells. d.) increase phagocytosis by agglutination of antigens. e.) activate the complement cascade.

activate killing by T cytotoxic cells.

Which of the following is not a hallmark sign of primary immunodeficiencies? a.) acute b.) persistent c.) severe d.) recurring e.) uncommon

acute

A vaccine additive which enhances the body's natural immune response is called a(n) a.) adjuvant. b.) toxoid. c.) booster. d.) recombinant. e.) attenuant.

adjuvant.

Which of the following class of hypersensitivity reactions is not associated with autoimmunity? a.) allergies b.) delayed hypersensitivity c.) immune complex d.) cytotoxic e.) autoimmune

allergies

Which of the following are the three phases of inflammation? a.) chemoattractant production, exudate release, and healing b.) cytokine production, vasodilation, and phagocytosis c.) margination, histamine release, and apoptosis d.) vasoactive release, diapedesis, and angiogenesis e.) vascular changes, leukocyte recruitment, and resolution

vascular changes, leukocyte recruitment, and resolution

Which of the following would not cause serum sickness? a.) anti-inflammatory drugs b.) sulfa drugs c.) penicillin d.) antivenom e.) antitoxin

anti-inflammatory drugs

Which of the following are used to treat serum sickness? a.) sulfa drugs b.) anti-inflammatory drugs, antihistamines, and sulfa drugs c.) anti-inflammatory drugs and antihistamines d.) antihistamines e.) anti-inflammatory drugs

anti-inflammatory drugs and antihistamines

A substance that may trigger an immune response, if presented in the right context is termed a(n) a.) effector. b.) antibody. c.) antigen. d.) hapten. e.) cytokine.

antigen.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical barrier? a.) antimicrobial peptides b.) skin c.) urine d.) mucus e.) tears

antimicrobial peptides

What two types of patients help demonstrate that cancer can be considered a failure of the immune system? a.) hepatitis C infected patients and human papilloma viruses infected patients b.) transplant patients and HIV/AIDS patients c.) rheumatoid arthritis patients and multiple sclerosis patients d.) nervous system complication patients and pulmonary system complication patients e.) migraine patients and digestive issue patients

transplant patients and HIV/AIDS patients

The difference between T cell activation by normal antigens and T cell activation by superantigens is that superantigens a.) are not processed and presented by APCs. b.) cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen and suppress cytokine release. c.) cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen. d.) are not processed and presented by APCs and cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen. e.) suppress cytokine release.

are not processed and presented by APCs and cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen.

Live attenuated vaccines a.) stimulate potent immune responses to multiple antigens on the pathogen. b.) are the closest to the actual infectious agent encountered in nature and stimulate potent immune responses to multiple antigens on the pathogen. c.) are the closest to the actual infectious agent encountered in nature. d.) require the use of an adjuvant. e.) are closest to the actual infectious agent encountered in nature and require the use of an adjuvant.

are the closest to the actual infectious agent encountered in nature and stimulate potent immune responses to multiple antigens on the pathogen.

T-independent antigens a.) may be polysaccharides or proteins, and are not able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell. b.) are usually proteins. c.) are able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell. d.) are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell. e.) are usually polysaccharides

are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell.

What are the two categories of second-line defenses? a.) assorted molecular factors and leukocytes b.) platelets and red blood cells c.) mucus and lysozyme d.) red blood cells and antibodies e.) antibodies and platelets

assorted molecular factors and leukocytes

Which is not a step in the process of B cell activation by a T-dependent antigen? a.) binding of the antigen to the B cell receptor b.) processing and displaying the antigen with MHC II on the B cell c.) interaction between co-stimulatory proteins on the B and T cells d.) binding of the antigen to a T helper cell receptor e.) release of cytokines by the T helper cell provide the second activation signal for the B cell

binding of the antigen to a T helper cell receptor

Autoimmune disorders are a.) acute infections that target the immune system. b.) caused by the immune system not being stimulated enough in adolescence and as a result is over reactive and can cross-react with host tissues. c.) short-term mistakes made by the immune system that are quickly recognized and self-limited. d.) chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone. e.) genetic conditions present from birth that continually degrade over time.

chronic conditions that develop from the immune system attacking healthy self-tissues that should normally be left alone.

Which of the following can cause primary immunodeficiencies? a.) medical interventions b.) infectious agents c.) systemic disorders d.) congenital immunodeficiency e.) aging

congenital immunodeficiency

All the following apply to T cells except a.) reside in the lymphoid tissue. b.) mature in the thymus. c.) have the capacity to recognize virtually any type of antigen. d.) originate in the bone marrow. e.) coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies.

coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies.

T helper cells release _____ to activate B cells. a.) cytokines b.) antibodies c.) MHC I d.) MHC II

cytokines

Which cell type works to prevent our immune system from attacking self and from over-reacting to nonthreatening substances, is abundant in tissues next to body openings, and phagocytizes a broad range of antigens? a.) natural killer cells b.) macrophages c.) dendritic cells d.) monocytes e.) lymphocytes

dendritic cells

Which of the following pairs is not an example of a cytokine and its function? a.) chemokines: recruit white blood cells to areas of injury or infection b.) tumor necrosis factors: induce inflammation and kills tumor cells c.) interleukins: regulate inflammation, fever, T cell development, and innate and adaptive immune responses d.) interferons: produced by virus-infected cells to signal neighboring cells to mount antiviral defenses e.) eicosanoids: promote the replication and gathering of leukocytes

eicosanoids: promote the replication and gathering of leukocytes

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation? a.) redness b.) loss of function c.) pain d.) fever e.) swelling

fever

Secondary lymphoid tissues a.) are where formed elements in blood are produced. b.) are monocytes and dendritic cells. c.) are where leukocytes mature. d.) filter lymph and sample surrounding body sites for antigens which are brought into contact with the leukocytes that reside in secondary lymphoid tissues to stimulate an immune response. e.) are neutrophils and eosinophils.

filter lymph and sample surrounding body sites for antigens which are brought into contact with the leukocytes that reside in secondary lymphoid tissues to stimulate an immune response.

Localized anaphylaxis tends to feature isolated symptoms such as a.) anxiety, nausea, or swelling. b.) confusion, hives, or hoarseness. c.) decreased blood pressure, shortness of breath, or abdominal pain. d.) fainting, chest pain, or vomiting. e.) watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.

watery eyes, a runny nose, or a confined rash.

In what situation is hemolytic disease of the newborn a life and death situation? a.) when an RH+ mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH- fetus b.) when an RH+ women and an RH- male have intercourse c.) when an RH- women and an RH+ male have intercourse d.) when an RH- mom is pregnant for the first time with an RH+ fetus e.) when an RH- mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH+ fetus

when an RH- mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH+ fetus

What is the general classification used to categorize leukocytes? a.) It depends on the age of the cell, as all agranulocytes start off as a granulocyte and later change their function and structure over the life of the cell. b.) whether or not the cells contain a nucleus c.) whether the cells originate from primary or secondary lymphoid tissues d.) whether they function as part of the innate or adaptive immune system e.) whether or not leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible when stained and then viewed by light microscopy

whether or not leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible when stained and then viewed by light microscopy