Unit 6 Sherpath (Chapter 40, 41, 42, 44)

The nurse is advising a patient who is 30 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she can take NSAIDs during her normal, low-risk pregnancy. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "NSAIDs are fine to take for mild discomfort during pregnancy" B. "NSAIDs are contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy." C. "NSAIDs are fine when taken at a lower, less frequent dosage during pregnancy." D. "NSAIDs are not contraindicated during pregnancy, but dose adjustments need to be made."

B. "NSAIDs are contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy."

A patient is prescribed enteric-coated aspirin for joint pain management. What does the nurse tell the patient while administering enteric-coated aspirin? A. "You should chew the tablet properly." B. "You should swallow the tablet with water." C. "You should crush the tablet and mix with food." D. "You should dissolve the tablet in water and then ingest."

B. "You should swallow the tablet with water."

At which time does the nurse tell the patient to take isoniazid in regard to food? A. Immediately prior to eating B. 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating C. Immediately after eating D. 1 hour after eating only

B. 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating

What dose of salicylate can cause severe toxicity in a patient? A. 100 to 250 mg/kg B. 300 to 500 mg/kg C. 150 to 300 mg/kg D. Lower than 100 mg/kg

B. 300 to 500 mg/kg

The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child who has a fever. After checking the laboratory reports, the nurse finds that the child has influenza B. Which medications should the nurse expect to be included in the care plan? A. Aspirin B. Acetaminophen C. Aspirin and ibuprofen D. Aspirin combination drug

B. Acetaminophen

When teaching a patient about taking ketoconazole, what should the nurse tell the patient not to consume? A. Soda B. Alcohol C. Fruit juices D. Food within 2 hours

B. Alcohol

A 50-year old patient with a history of asthma and consuming 1-2 alcoholic drinks a day is being started on isoniazid therapy for active TB. What education regarding isoniazid therapy should the nurse include when discharging the patient? A. Avoid supplements containing vitamin B12. B. Avoid drinking alcohol. C. Take the medication with food. D. Low blood sugar is a side effect.

B. Avoid drinking alcohol.

When teaching a patient about antifungal medications, which teaching point should the nurse include? A. It may take multiple regimens to cure the infection. B. Discontinuing the drug abruptly can cause a relapse. C. The patient should only have to take one dose of the medication. D. If the patient misses a dose of the medication, the patient can just continue the medication without taking that dose.

B. Discontinuing the drug abruptly can cause a relapse.

A patient has been advised by his health care provider to take an OTC (over-the-counter) anti-inflammatory drug for a swollen and sprained ankle. The patient's health history includes medication sensitivities and GI ulcers. What would be the most appropriate drug for this patient to take? A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Prednisone D. Acetaminophen

B. Ibuprofen

Isoniazid is metabolized by which organ? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Stomach

B. Liver

A patient has had a previous surgery to treat gastric perforation. What does the nurse know regarding NSAID administration for this patient? A. NSAIDs are appropriate for this patient. B. NSAIDs are contraindicated for this patient. C. NSAIDs are safe in low doses for this patient. D. NSAIDs are contraindicated for the first 6 months post-surgery for this patient.

B. NSAIDs are contraindicated for this patient.

What patient medical history would be contraindicated with the use of NSAID drugs? A. Anxiety B. Peptic ulcers C. Breast cancer D. Type II diabetes

B. Peptic ulcers

During the assessment of a pregnant patient, a nurse finds that the patient has active genital herpes lesions. What is the best strategy to prevent the spread of infection to the newborn? A. Administering folic acid supplements to the patient B. Performing a cesarean section for the patient during labor C. Delivering the child during the eighth month of pregnancy D. Administering intravenous antiviral medications to the patient

B. Performing a cesarean section for the patient during labor

Acyclovir is in which class of antivirals? A. Topical antivirals B. Purine nucleosides C. Non-classified antivirals D.Neuraminidase inhibitors

B. Purine nucleosides

A nurse would encourage a patient to participate in which kind of testing to evaluate the effectiveness of an antitubercular drug regimen? A. Lung function testing B. Sputum testing C. Liver tests D. Kidney tests

B. Sputum testing

A patient being treated for TB asks to have a medication change to cycloserine because a family member read about the drug online. How should the nurse respond? A. "Cycloserine is not as effective and can be more toxic." B. "Cycloserine is more effective and less toxic." C. "Cycloserine has more side effects than other medications." D. "Cycloserine has less side effects than other medications."

A. "Cycloserine is not as effective and can be more toxic."

A patient is prescribed celecoxib for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which instruction does the nurse give to the patient for safe administration of the drug? A. "Take the drug after a meal." B. "Take the drug with caffeine." C. "Avoid taking the drug with fluid." D. "Take the drug on an empty stomach."

A. "Take the drug after a meal."

A patient calls his health care provider inquiring about adding ibuprofen to his current medications for a few days due to a muscle strain. The patient is currently on lithium. What is the best response the health care provider can give this patient regarding a possible interaction between the patient's lithium and ibuprofen? A. "Taking ibuprofen with lithium can increase the risk of lithium toxicity." B. "The dose of lithium may need to be increased while you are taking ibuprofen." C. "Ibuprofen and lithium are comparable medications; taking both is safe." D. "Taking ibuprofen and lithium may cause severe GI upset. This can be prevented by not taking the two medications at the same time."

A. "Taking ibuprofen with lithium can increase the risk of lithium toxicity."

A nurse is completing the admission assessment for a patient being treated with active tuberculosis. The patient states that he lives with his wife and son. Which patient teaching statement is appropriate? A. "Your wife and son will need to have a purified protein delivery (PPD) test and may require prophylactic treatment." B. "Encourage your wife and son to stay inside and not leave the house for 3 days." C. "If your wife or son start to have symptoms, you can share your medication with them." D. "Your wife and son should eat a healthy diet to prevent coming down with symptoms of TB."

A. "Your wife and son will need to have a purified protein delivery (PPD) test and may require prophylactic treatment."

The nurse is administering acyclovir to a patient with normal renal function. How long will it take for half the drug to be absorbed? A. 2-3 hours B. 6-8 hours C. 12-14 hours D. 1-2 days

A. 2-3 hours

The nurse is preparing to administer PO acyclovir to a patient. What is the half-life of the medication, assuming the patient has normal renal function? A. 2.5-3 hours B. 6-8.5 hours C. 12-14 hours D. 1-2 days

A. 2.5-3 hours

The nurse is assessing a geriatric patient who has high blood pressure and prediabetes and was prescribed propranolol 10 mg. Which treatment can be given to the patient to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease? A. 81 mg of aspirin B. 10 units of insulin C. 50 mg of ketorolac D. 20 mg of propranolol

A. 81 mg of aspirin

Which patient should receive prophylactic tubercular therapy? A. A child whose sister has been recently diagnosed with active TB. B. A woman who works in a hospital and has a negative TB test. C. A man who is HIV positive with a negative TB test. D. A man on a liver transplant list with a negative TB test.

A. A child whose sister has been recently diagnosed with active TB.

How can the nurse determine whether a patient will tolerate an amphotericin B infusion? A. Administer a test dose B. Desensitize the patient C. Administer it with corticosteroids D. Administer it with an antihistamine

A. Administer a test dose

A patient who has been prescribed acyclovir comes to the clinic complaining of dizziness when changing positions. What is the nurse's best action? A. Advise the patient to change positions slowly. B. Advise the patient not to stand for 1 hour after taking the medication. C. Advise the patient to sit in a chair for 30 minutes after administration. D. Advise the patient to remain lying down for 1 hour after taking the medication.

A. Advise the patient to change positions slowly.

Which are therapeutic uses of ibuprofen? Select all that apply. A. Analgesia B. Anesthesia C. Fever reduction D. Cough suppression D. Inflammation reduction E. Treatment of dysmenorrhea

A. Analgesia C. Fever reduction D. Inflammation reduction E. Treatment of dysmenorrhea

A patient receiving isoniazid is discussing a beach trip that is planned later in the month. What teaching does the nurse need to do with the patient prior to discharge? A. Apply sunscreen. B. Avoid use of sunscreen. C. Salt water may cause a skin sensitivity. D. Sand may cause a skin sensitivity.

A. Apply sunscreen.

A patient has a headache (rating 3 out of 10 on the pain scale) and a fever (38.2 Celsius). What would be the preferred NSAID that would help the patient alleviate the headache and reduce the fever? A. Aspirin B. Oxycodone C. Gabapentin D. Acetaminophen E.Acetaminophen/hydrocodone

A. Aspirin

Which nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) is prescribed for the patient with myocardial infarction? A. Aspirin B. Celecoxib C. Prednisone D. Dexamethasone

A. Aspirin

Which nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) may cause Reye's syndrome in children with viral illnesses or fever? A. Aspirin B. Piroxicam C. Meloxicam D. Nabumetone

A. Aspirin

Which instruction or warning would a nurse teach a patient who is taking rifampin? A. Body fluids will turn orange. B. Body fluids will turn pink. C. Avoid eating carrots. D. Avoid eating spinach.

A. Body fluids will turn orange.

The nurse is reviewing a patient's home medication list. The nurse notes that the provider has prescribed amphotericin B. Which home medication would have potential for interaction? A. Digoxin B. Acyclovir C. Amoxicillin D. Fluconazole

A. Digoxin

A patient has a follow-up appointment and is required to bring in a sputum specimen. The patient states, "I coughed this sputum up last night and saved it." What does the nurse need to do with the specimen? A. Discard the specimen. B. Send it to the laboratory. C. Place it in the freezer. D. Place it in the refrigerator.

A. Discard the specimen.

Aspirin, like other NSAIDs, is non-selective and inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2. What are possible adverse effects of this process? Select all that apply. A. GI ulcers B. GI bleeding C. Liver damage D. Peripheral edema E. Renal impairment F. Heart palpitations

A. GI ulcers B. GI bleeding E. Renal impairment

Which examination should the patient receive while receiving streptomycin for TB? A. Hearing screen B. Electrocardiogram (ECG) C. Dental examination D. Echocardiography

A. Hearing screen

A patient with Type 1 diabetes has been prescribed ibuprofen to treat a muscle sprain. The nurse should prioritize monitoring for which of the following? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Increased swelling D. Decreased range of motion

A. Hypoglycemia

How does isoniazid act on tubercle bacteria? A. Inhibits cell wall synthesis B. Inhibits bacterial deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication C. Engulfs and destroys bacteria D. Enhances action of pyridoxine

A. Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Which drug was the first oral drug preparation effective in treating tubercle bacillus? A. Isoniazid (INH) B. Rifampin C. Kanamycin D. Pyridoxine

A. Isoniazid (INH)

A patient has been admitted to the nursing unit. He states that he has chronic back pain that he takes NSAIDs for daily. As the nurse obtains a health history from the patient, which of these conditions would cause the nurse concern? A. Kidney failure B. Vascular disease C. Chronic liver failure D. High blood pressure

A. Kidney failure

The nurse is administering zidovudine to a patient by mouth. Through which organ is this medication metabolized? A. Liver B. GI tract C. Kidneys D. Pancreas

A. Liver

Which disease in the patient's health history is a contraindication to prophylactic treatment for tuberculosis? A. Liver disease B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Gallstones

A. Liver disease

Which laboratory tests would the nurse draw prior to initiating antitubercular medications? Select all that apply. A. Liver enzymes B. Complete blood count (CBC) C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D. Serum creatinine E. C-reactive protein (CRP)

A. Liver enzymes C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D. Serum creatinine

What priority teaching needs to done with a patient who states he has not taken isoniazid treatment for the past two days because he has been feeling better? A. Medication compliance B. Signs and symptoms of reactions C. Timing of administration D. Exercise regimen during treatment

A. Medication compliance

Which antifungal drug is applied topically for the treatment of candidal diaper rash? A. Nystatin B. Terbinafine C. Caspofungin D. Voriconazole

A. Nystatin

A nurse is providing education to a parent whose 5-year-old child is recovering from flu-like symptoms. The parents ask about giving aspirin to help alleviate some of the discomfort. What is the best response by the nurse? A. "Aspirin is an appropriate drug choice for the alleviation of flu-like symptoms." B. "Aspirin should be avoided due to the risk of Reye's syndrome in young children." C. "Aspirin should be avoided due to the possibility of GI upset in pediatric patients." D. "Aspirin is an appropriate choice, but dosage adjustments need to be made for pediatric patients."

B. "Aspirin should be avoided due to the risk of Reye's syndrome in young children."

A nurse is doing discharge teaching with a patient receiving isoniazid and rifampin for a TB diagnosis, and the patient asks why two medications have to be taken. How does the nurse respond to this patient? A. "It is the health care provider's preference regarding how many medications are prescribed." B. "Combinations decrease resistance and treatment time." C. "Combinations decrease resistance, but increase treatment time." D. "Combination increase resistance, but decrease treatment time."

B. "Combinations decrease resistance and treatment time."

What direction should the nurse give Mrs. Treacher regarding ibuprofen use and her upcoming cataract surgery? CASE STUDY: Mrs. Treacher, a 65-year-old female, is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and begins taking ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily. She reports decreased pain and stiffness and increased joint mobility several months after beginning therapy. She is considered low-risk for cardiovascular events. At a follow-up visit, Mrs. Treacher is experiencing a flare-up of symptoms and her health care provider orders a glucocorticoid medication. Mrs. Treacher tells the nurse that she is planning to have cataract surgery in a few months. A. To continue taking the ibuprofen as directed B. To withhold the ibuprofen the day prior to surgery C. To take a second-generation NSAID until after the surgery D. To stop taking ibuprofen 7 to 10 days prior to the procedure

B. To withhold the ibuprofen the day prior to surgery

When treating a patient with antiviral medication, the nurse must monitor for signs of adverse effects. Which assessments should the nurse obtain to monitor whether the patient is having an adverse reaction to the medication? Select all that apply. A. ALT, AST B. Urinary output C. Amylase, lipase D. Serum creatinine E. Serum electrolytes F. Blood urea nitrogen

B. Urinary output D. Serum creatinine F. Blood urea nitrogen

A patient is prescribed rifampin for the treatment of tuberculosis. While checking the patient's history, the nurse finds that the patient is on oral contraceptive therapy. What advice on the safe use of rifampin does the nurse give to the patient? A. Take a lower dose of rifampin. B. Use other forms of birth control. C. Take an initial half-dose of rifampin. D. Use a double dose of the oral contraceptive.

B. Use other forms of birth control.

A nurse is providing education regarding ibuprofen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I will avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication." B. "I will report any ringing in my ears to my health care provider." C. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption." D. "I will check with my health care provider before taking other over-the-counter medications with ibuprofen."

C. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption."

A nurse is informing a patient that aspirin may be helpful for back pain. The patient wants to know how soon the aspirin will start to work and how long it will work to relieve the pain. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "It will begin to work after 1 hour and will relieve the pain for 2-4 hours." B. "It will begin to work after 1-2 hours and will relieve the pain for 2-4 hours." C. "It will begin to work after 20 minutes and will relieve the pain for 4-6 hours." D. "It will begin to work after 20 minutes and will relieve the pain for 8-10 hours."

C. "It will begin to work after 20 minutes and will relieve the pain for 4-6 hours."

What is the half-life for isoniazid? A. 3-5 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1-4 hours D. 6-10 hours

C. 1-4 hours

What is the total time of treatment for tuberculosis (TB) multidrug therapy? A. 2-3 months B. 4-5 months C. 6-9 months D. 12-15 months

C. 6-9 months

A nurse educating parents of a pediatric patient should inform the parents that which symptoms are indicative of Reye's syndrome? Select all that apply. A. Rash and fever B. Seizures and rash C. Delirium and coma D. Hematuria and fever E. Vomiting and lethargy G. Headache and lethargy

C. Delirium and coma E. Vomiting and lethargy

The nurse is reviewing provider orders for a newly admitted patient. Which lab value would alert the nurse that administration of an antifungal would be contraindicated? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Elevated creatinine and BUN C. Elevated liver enzyme values D. Increased amylase and lipase

C. Elevated liver enzyme values

Where is zidovudine completely absorbed? A. Lungs B. Mouth C. GI tract D. Lymphatic system

C. GI tract

Which statements are true regarding the peak concentration times of oral and IM isoniazid? A. IM peak concentration time is faster than oral. B. Oral peak concentration time is faster than IM. C. IM and oral peak concentration time are the same. D. IM peak concentration time is slower than oral.

C. IM and oral peak concentration time are the same.

A patient states that she has added a daily aspirin to her medications. Upon checking the patient's blood pressure, the nurse notes that it is elevated. The patient states that she has not changed her daily dose of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor and antihypertensive drug. What may be causing the patient's elevated blood pressure? A. The patient is anxious about visiting the clinic. B. Oral aspirin increases the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors. C. Oral aspirin decreases the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors. D. Oral aspirin does not affect ACE inhibitors; further evaluation needs to be done by the nurse.

C. Oral aspirin decreases the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors.

When providing education to a patient taking aspirin tablets, what should the nurse suggest the patient do in order to reduce GI distress? A. Take the aspirin at bedtime B. Take the aspirin at the same time as any other medications C. Take the aspirin with food, at mealtime, or with plenty of fluids D. Expect GI distress as a common side effect of aspirin that cannot be avoided in most patients

C. Take the aspirin with food, at mealtime, or with plenty of fluids

A patient with gout asks the nurse about the mechanism of action of the antigout drugs. What should the nurse tell the patient? A. "It increases the red blood cells." B. "It decreases the fatty acid level." C. "It increases the blood oxygen level." D. "It decreases the serum uric acid level."

D. "It decreases the serum uric acid level."

What response does the nurse give after the patient receiving multidrug therapy for TB asks about the length of time for treatment? A. "Therapy will have to stop if your liver enzymes get too high." B. "Therapy will end once your symptoms go away and you feel better." C. "Multidrug therapy is 3 medications taken for 2 years." D. "Multidrug therapy is split into two phases, about 9 months total."

D. "Multidrug therapy is split into two phases, about 9 months total."

The nurse is preparing home instructions for a patient who has been diagnosed with a vaginal candidiasis infection. Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching the patient about taking antifungal medications? A. "The infection should clear in 24 hours." B. "You do not need medication to treat this infection." C. "Once medication is started you can resume sexual intercourse." D. "You must abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment is finished and the infection is resolved."

D. "You must abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment is finished and the infection is resolved."

What are the therapeutic effects of aspirin? A. Antianxiety, antipyretic, and analgesic B. Anticonvulsant, anticoagulant, and analgesic C. Antiplatelet, anticoagulant, analgesic, and antipyretic D. Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet

D. Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet

Amphotericin B treats fungal infections through which mechanism of action? A. Destroys fungal cells by interrupting the cell wall B. Increases cell death through the immune process C. Causes cell death by increasing levels of T-lymphocytes D. Binds to the fungal cell membrane and creates channels that increase cell permeability

D. Binds to the fungal cell membrane and creates channels that increase cell permeability

When taking zidovudine, the patient should have which lab value especially monitored? A. AST, ALT B. Serum electrolytes C. Sedimentation rate D. Complete blood count

D. Complete blood count

Aspirin blocks the binding of which enzyme responsible for the synthesis of substances that cause pain and platelet aggregation? A. Peptidase B. Enteropeptidase C. Prostaglandins (PG) D. Cyclooxygenase (COX)

D. Cyclooxygenase (COX)

Which hygiene practice is a priority in teaching a patient with TB? A. Hand washing prior to eating. B. Showering at least once a day. C. Gentle brushing due to tooth sensitivity. D. Discarding tissues and napkins that contain sputum.

D. Discarding tissues and napkins that contain sputum.

How does acyclovir work against the herpes virus? A. Decreasing the viral load in the cells. B. Disrupts viral replication by destroying viral cells. C. Destroys the virus through destruction of the cell wall. D. Interferes with the virus' DNA synthesis and disrupts the replication process.

D. Interferes with the virus' DNA synthesis and disrupts the replication process.

A student nurse is assisting a registered nurse with the admission of Ms. Houghton, and questions the registered nurse regarding the health care provider's order for pyridoxine. How should the registered nurse respond? CASE STUDY: Ms. Houghton, a 55-year-old female, is diagnosed with alcoholism and TB. The health care provider has ordered a treatment plan including isoniazid and rifampin. When communicating with the patient, the nurse learns that Ms. Houghton lives at home with three other family members, one of who is HIV positive. The nurse plans to educate Ms. Houghton at length regarding the drug regimen, and then plans to speak with the family. The nurse is also preparing for the laboratory values and sputum collections necessary before drug therapy begins. A. Pyridoxine is necessary to prevent peripheral neuropathy." B. "Pyridoxine should not be ordered at this time. I will call the health care provider." C. "Pyridoxine is essential to prevent hepatotoxicity." D. "Pyridoxine is necessary to prevent the patient from experiencing delirium tremens (DTs)."

A. Pyridoxine is necessary to prevent peripheral neuropathy."

What possible effect will the nurse anticipate in a patient who has received amphotericin B along with thiazide diuretics? A. Severe hypokalemia B. Additive nephrotoxicity C. Increased adrenal cortex response to corticotrophin D. Prolongation of the QT interval on an electrocardiogram

A. Severe hypokalemia

A child has contracted chickenpox and is treated successfully. Which infection is the child prone to develop as an adult? A. Shingles B. Retinitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Kaposi sarcoma

A. Shingles

What are the common primary tissues that are affected by infection with the Trichophyton spp.? Select all that apply. A. Skin B. Scalp C. Brain D. Lungs E. Blood

A. Skin B. Scalp

A patient is diagnosed with an oral candida infection. Which intervention will the nurse expect to implement? A. Teach the patient how to take nystatin. B. Instruct the patient to brush the teeth and gargle hourly. C. Administer valacyclovir hydrochloride and monitor lips and gums. D. Start an intravenous line so the patient does not have to eat by mouth.

A. Teach the patient how to take nystatin.

A patient with TB is not understanding why pyridoxine is being prescribed in addition to the isoniazid. How should the nurse respond? A. The production of vitamin B6 is blocked, so pyridoxine can prevent peripheral neuropathy. B. The production of vitamin B6 is increased, so pyridoxine can prevent peripheral neuropathy. C. Pyridoxine helps with absorption of the isoniazid. D. Pyridoxine helps with the excretion of the isoniazid.

A. The production of vitamin B6 is blocked, so pyridoxine can prevent peripheral neuropathy.

Which are therapeutic uses of zidovudine? Select all that apply. A. Treating infection with HIV B. Treating infection with herpes C. Preventing influenza transmission D. Treating infection with varicella zoster E. Preventing mother-to-infant HIV transmission

A. Treating infection with HIV E. Preventing mother-to-infant HIV transmission

What teaching point is important for the nurse to share with Mr. Franklin? CASE STUDY DETAILS Mr. Samuel Franklin, a 32-year-old male, is admitted to the hospital with complaints of redness and itching in the genital area. Upon inspection the nurse notices several small blisters in the patient's perineum. The health care provider makes a diagnosis of genital herpes simplex. Mr. Franklin has a history of a kidney transplant and is taking immunosuppressant medications. The patient's vital signs are BP = 110/60 mm Hg, pulse = 72 bpm, and temperature = 100.00° F. Mr. Franklin is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. A. Genital herpes is associated with testicular cancer. B. Genital herpes cannot be spread by sexual intercourse. C. Mr. Franklin may stop taking the medication when herpetic symptoms are decreased. D. Mr. Franklin should use condoms or practice sexual abstinence to avoid spreading herpes.

D. Mr. Franklin should use condoms or practice sexual abstinence to avoid spreading herpes.

Which is the most common organism that causes pulmonary infection characterized by granuloma in the lungs? A. Mycobacterium bovis B. Mycobacterium avium C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

NSAIDs are highly protein-bound and can increase the effects of other protein-bound drugs. What are these other drugs? A. Phenytoin and lisinopril B. Sulfonamides and digoxin C. Digoxin, phenytoin, and warfarin D. Phenytoin, sulfonamides, and warfarin

D. Phenytoin, sulfonamides, and warfarin

The nurse is treating a patient who has been prescribed amphotericin B while in the hospital. Which electrolyte does the nurse need to assess while caring for this patient? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Creatinine D. Potassium

D. Potassium

Which form of the antifungal drug terbinafine is used primarily to treat onychomycoses of the fingernails or toenails? A. Gel B. Spray C. Cream D. TABLETS

D. TABLETS

During a routine physical exam a patient mentions that he has a dental exam soon. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis and takes 5.4 g of aspirin per day. What action by the patient shows that he has been properly educated regarding aspirin? A. The patient stops taking aspirin 5 days prior to his appointment. B. The patient notifies the nurse checking him at the dental office of his daily aspirin intake. C. The patient does not notify the dentist because his daily aspirin intake is not a high dosage. D. The patient calls the dental office before his appointment to tell them about his aspirin dosage.

D. The patient calls the dental office before his appointment to tell them about his aspirin dosage.

The nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who has active herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). What precautions should the nurse suggest to the patient to ensure the newborn's safety? A. To receive a vaccination B. To take antiviral therapy in first trimester C. To increase the intake of iron supplements D. To give birth via cesarean section (C-section)

D. To give birth via cesarean section (C-section

The nurse anticipates an order for vitamin supplementation for a patient who is receiving isoniazid therapy. What vitamin supplement is usually used with isoniazid? A. Folate B. Calcium C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin B 6

D. Vitamin B 6