Vet Disease Final

The bacteria causing anaplasmosis in cattle is an example of this type of bacteria, which are carried by insect vectors and act as intracellular parasites... a. Rickettsia b. Mycoplasma spp. c. Gram-positive bacteria

a

Which of the following are responsible for bacterial attachment to host cells? a. Pili b. Flagella

a

You're visiting with a classmate about problems in his flock of ewes back home. He mentions the disease problems occur more frequently in older ewes that have been in the flock for several years, compared to younger animals. The affected animals don't run fevers and it seems like all the problems can be localized in each animal to the limbs. Taking all this into account, the root cause of this disease is most likely a. degenerative b. infectious c. metabolic d. toxic

a

animal health companies are not required to demonstrate which of the following when submitting a vaccine for USDA approval a. effectiveness b. efficacy c. potency d. safety for the vaccinated animal

a

autogenous vaccines a. killed/inactivated vaccines b. live/modified-live vaccines c. both killed and live vaccines

a

during the lecture of the calf scours treatment, Dr. Daly showed a piece of medical equipment he frequently used in practice to help treat cases of calf scours. In human medicince this device is used to: a. administer an enema b. adminster IV fluids c. measure blood glucose d. measure body temp

a

higher cost per dose a. killed/inactivated vaccines b. live/modified-live vaccines c. both killed and live vaccines

a

immunity, as defined in class and LE:11, refers to the resistance of an animal to: a. adverse effects of pathogenic agents b. entry of pathogenic agents c. infection with pathogenic agents

a

in an operation utilizing the sandhill calving system, what is done with pregnant cows that have not yet had calves, as the calving season progresses a. they are moved to a clean patch of pasture every week b. they get turned out onto large expansive pastures and calve on their own c. they stay put in a defined calving pasture until they give birth

a

of the items in the list below, which should you consider first and foremost when making the descision whether a scouring calf should get oral electrolytes vs IV electrolytes a. ability to stand b. age of the calf c. the etiologic cause of the diarrhea d. wateriness of the diarrhea

a

prescription vet drugs can be identified by this specific label statement: a. "Caution: federal laws restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian" b. "Caution: For veterinary use only" c. "Caution: Restricted use drug" d. "Causation: sales of this drug are limited to prescription-only"

a

require adjuvants in their formulation a. killed/inactivated vaccines b. live/modified-live vaccines c. both killed and live vaccines

a

staphylococcus aureus (Staph) a. contagious mastitis pathogen b. enviromental mastitis pathogen

a

the vein most often accessed by vets to obtain a blood sample in a dog is called the_____ vein a. cephalic b. radial c. tail d. ulnar

a

what is the main biosecurity-realted reason newly purchased pregant cows should be isolated form the resident herd until after they have their calf a. for diseases such as persistent infections with BVD virus, the disease status of the fetus cannot be determined by testing the mother b. pregnancy is a stress for the cows, so they would be expected to be shedding more germs from their body until after they have their calves c. so you can keep any equipment needed for calving separated between the new animals and the resident herd

a

which of the following is a factor that is disruptive to the innate immune functions of a feedlot lamb's resp tract a. a ration that includes high levels of corn/concentrate in the fed diet b. microscopic hairliek projections present on the surface of cells lining the upper respiratory tract c. presence of mucus coating the respiratory tract surface d. the anatomical twists and trust that air msut travel through in the nose and sinus

a

which of the following is a practice to be avoided when feeding milk replacer to groups of baby claves, in order to prevent scours a. adding electrolytes and other medications to the milk b. feeding calves at the same time every day c. feeding milk replacer to the calf at 102 F d. keeping the ration of milk replacer powder to water the same from day-to-day

a

which of the following lists are placed in the correct order, from (generally) easiest to kill with disinfectants to hardest to kill with disinfectants a. enveloped viruses - nonenvoped viruses - bacterial spores - prions b. non-enveloped viruses - enveloped viruses - bacterial spores - prions c. prions - bacterial spores - non-enveloped virues - enveloped viruses

a

how much was the diagnostic lab bill for the case discussed last class period

$130

What is the antibiotic cost to treat a calf with a cut on its leg with 20 cc of Procain Penicillin G one?

$3.40

list 3 of the 5 generally disease transmission routes discussed in class

1. aerosol 2. oral 3. direct contact 4. vector 5. fomite

List three factors that comprise the epidemiologic triad

1. agent 2. host 3. environment

list the 3 general methods by which "effective contacts" can be prevented between animals

1. physical separation b. minimize contact time c. minimize dose load

according to the USDA National Ag Statistics Service, 200,000 lambs where born in SD in 2021. This equates to _____ lambs per 100 ewes.

118-144

a newborn calf can absorb antibodies from colostrum un until they're _______ (days/hours) old

3 days

in general, as mentioned in LE10, a sufficient isolation period for new animals coming into a herd is _____ days

30-60

how many vets listing SD addresses are currently licensed to practice vet medicine in the state

464

List one example of a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy disease:

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is mad-cow disease.

which of the following statements most accurately describes how bovine resipratory disease complex (BRDC) begins to develop in individual calves a. stress, cold weather, high bacterial levels in the air, and other factors allow bacteria normally present in the upper respiratory tract to reach the lower lungs b. unifected calves catch BRDC bacteria from other calves at salebarns or on trucks c. uninfected cavles pcik up BRDC bacteria from enviromental reservoirs where infected calves were previously present

a

which of these two choices would be expected to have the higher concentration of immunoglobuilins a. 1 dose of colostrum replacer b. 1 dose of colostrum supplement c. 1 dose of milk replacer

a

Define zoonosis

a disease that is transmittable from animals to humans

A fly feeds on manure containing Salmonella, then flies over and deposits the germs on the rim of a calf's water bucket. The germ then enters the calf when it drinks water. The fly is best characterized as a: a. biological vector b. mechanical vector

b

Animals that serve as reservoir hosts of disease agents are usually a. clinically affected with the disease b. not clinically affected with the disease

b

Clostridium perfringens alpha toxin is an: a. endotoxin b. exotoxin

b

Endotoxins originate from which type of bacteria? a. Gram-positive bacteria b. Gram-negative bacteria

b

Klebseilla Spp a. contagious mastitis pathogen b. enviromental mastitis pathogen

b

Match the worm species with the animal species for which it causes the most profound problems: Haemonchus a. horses b. sheep c. cattle

b

The iceberg concept of disease helps us better understand the importance of _______ animals during an outbreak a. clinically affected b. subclinical

b

The type of bacteria with the most extensive peptidoglycan layer is... a. Gram-negative bacteria b. Gram-positive bacteria

b

Which of the following is not a component of a valid vet client patient relationship a. the vet is available for follow up in case of an adverse event b. the vet has personally visited the animals in question within the past 6 weeks c. the vet is responsible for the medical decision about the animals

b

Which of the following is true about worms and protozoa? a. Infestations/infections with these agents result in a very robust, effective immune response in the host. b. they usually are very species-specific (e.g., cattle worms don't affect horses and vice-versa). c. Both the above are true d. Neither of the above are true

b

Which type of virus is more prone to "mistakes" when it reproduces, resulting in more of a chance that different strains of the virus will evolve? a. DNA viruses b. RNA viruses

b

an advantage of polymerase chain reaction testing a ability to make accurate distinciton sbetween live organisms and dead organisms b. high sensitivity to detect low numbers of organisms c. it's a procedure that helps you uncover unknown or unexptected agents d. low cost

b

better at inducing cell-mediated immunity a. killed/inactivated vaccines b. live/modified-live vaccines c. both killed and live vaccines

b

for which of the following are vaccines not widely available a. equine influenza b. highly pahtogenic avian influenza c. human seasonal infuenza d. swine influenza

b

intranasal vaccines a. killed/inactivated vaccines b. live/modified-live vaccines c. both killed and live vaccines

b

makes a calf "honk" a. aspiration pneumonia b. diptheria c. emphysema d. interstitial pneumonia e. pleuritis

b

today (October 6, 2022) you open up the fridge in your dairy barn to get some stored colostrum for a newborn calf. all the packages have been accurately labeled with the date the colostrum was collected. of the following choices, which package is the oldest one you could use a. labeled october 5, 2022 b. labeled stepember 29, 2022 c. labeled stepember 6, 2022 d.labled october 6, 2022

b

washing, with the use of detergents, is of particular importacen to the lceaning and disinfection process becuse they break down ________, which contain(s) and protect(s) bacterial pathogens form many disinfections and harsh envriomental conditions a. bedding b. biosilms c. manure

b

T/F Infectivity of a disease agent refers to how "nasty" it is the the body once it's inside the animal, while virulence of an agent refers to how readily it can enter the body in the first place

F

T/F Viruses can gain nutrients either from inside a host or from outside in their environment

F

T/F for johne's disease biocontainment on a farm, practices should primarily focus on preventing fecal-oral transmission between young calves

F

T/F mixing up disinfectant solution at a higher concentration that outlined on the label will increase the effectiveness of the disinfectant

F

A calf that habitually drinks its milk too fast may get a case of this a. aspiration pneumonia b. diptheria c. emphysema d. interstitial pneumonia e. pleuritis

a

A fly feeds on manure containing Salmonella, then flies over and deposits the germs on the rim of a calf's water bucket. The germ then enters the calf when it drinks water. the bucket is best characterized as a a. fomite b. mechincal vector

a

Bacteria that live at the expense of a host, yet possibly could live on their own without the host, is termed a(n): a. Facultative parasite b. Obligate parasite c. Commensal

a

In an example given in class, a research study showed that show calves that had shown clinical recovery from a ringworm infection (defined as hair growing back in the lesion) still harbored infective fungus that could infect other animals. This makes them: a. convalsecent carriers b. incubatory carriers

a

Match the worm species with the animal species for which it causes the most profound problems: large strongyles a. horses b. sheep c. cattle

a

Streptococcus agalactiae (Strep ag) a. contagious mastitis pathogen b. enviromental mastitis pathogen

a

which of the folloiwng cases is likely caused by excessive exposure ot endotoxins in vaccines a. a calf that becomes incoordinated and collaspses on the ground just minutes after vaccination with a 7-way/Histophilus vaccine b. a dairy cow that becomes lethargic and develops a fever 24 hours after vaccination with a scours vaccine and a lepto-vibrio vaccine c. a horse that becomes lethargic, sweats and goes off feed several hours after a flu vaccination d. a pig that develops a large swelling on the neck a day or two after vaccination with circovirus vaccine

b

which of the following is a corrected statement regarding immune response in a pregnant animal a. immune function is enhanced in preg animals b. immune function is mildly compromised in preg animals c. immune function is severely comprised in preg animals

b

which of the following statements are correct regarding vaccinating young animals a. antibodies that the calf received from colostruma re only active in the calf's gut, so they do not interfere with the calf's immune response to a vaccine b. evidence suggests clostridial toxoids are effective in calves 3 weeks old or younger c. killed vaccines are more likely that intranasal/MLV vaccines to work in a young calf d. young animals are born with mature, fully functional immune system that can respond effectively to vaccines

b

which of the following statements are corrected regarding vaccine boosters a. the initial vaccine and the booster vaccine are different products from each other b. the interval between the initial vaccine and the booster is necessary in order for poorly-performing lymphocytes to be culled form the animal's system c. the interval between the initial vaccine and the booster is the same regardless of the vaccine used d. they're more likely necessary with MLV vaccines compared to killed vaccines

b

which of the following statements regarding detection of animals affected by BRDC are correct? a. slaughter checks indicate that caretakers typically "pull" (treat) more cattle than those that truly have lung problems, therefore treating more animals that they need to b. slaughter checks indicate that caretakers typically pull fewer cattle thatn those that truly have lung problems, therefore treatign fewer animals than would benefit from treatment c. BRDC can be ruled out in sick calves that do not have a fever

b

which of these two titers results for a serum neutralization test represents the higher of antibodies present a. 1:64 b. 1:128

b

which one of the BRDC agents in the list below is capable of causing disease in cattle outside the respiratory tract a. bovine respiraotyr syncytial virus (BRSV) b. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) virus c. mannheimia hemolytical d. parainfluenza-3 virus

b

which one of the BRDC agents in the list below is capable of lying latent in an infected animal, only to reactivate during stress to cause disease once again a. bovine respiraotyr syncytial virus (BRSV) b. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) virus c. mannheimia hemolytical d. parainfluenza-3 virus

b

A disease enhanced by the bacteria's ability to produce leukotoxin: a. Salmonellosis in many species b. Cryptosporidiosis in calves c. Infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye) in cattle

c

As used in this course to discuss disease agent transmission, the term "shedding" means a. the animal's ridding itself of the infective germ b. the normal turnover of the haircoat of the animal c. the release of infective agent from the body of an infected agent

c

Compared to normal body temperatures in people, normal body temperatures in animals are generally: a. lower than those in people b. the same as those in people c. higher than those in people

c

Match the worm species with the animal species for which it causes the most profound problems: ostertagia a. horses b. sheep c. cattle

c

Small, rice-like structures appearing around the rectum of a dog are an indication the dog has: a. Ringworm b. Hookworms c. Tapeworms d. Whipworms

c

Which choice below describes a disease that has an excessively fast onset? a. acute b. chronic active c. peracute d. cubacute

c

Which of the following does not describe a method viruses use to damage host cells? a. Lysis of host cells b. Transformation into another type of cell (e.g., neoplasia) c. Toxin production

c

Which of the following is an example of an animal's signalment a. dehydration, fever, diarrhea b. dog got into mouse poison yesterday c. middle aged neutered male boston terrier d. pregnant cow, current on vaccinations, on a hay-only diet

c

You have a group of lambs experiencing pneumonia and some have even died. Which of the following lists would you definitely want your vet to include in the samples sent to the diagnostic lab, in order to help you determine the cause of the pneumonia a. blood, brain, spinal cord b. feces, SI, LI c. nasal swabs, lung, lymph nodes form the chest

c

areas of "bubble wrap" in the lung tissue a. aspiration pneumonia b. diptheria c. emphysema d. interstitial pneumonia e. pleuritis

c

bacterial culture results have come back on a cow you identified with mastitis. the lab results indicat ethat this case is caused by E. coli bacteria. If you fin dmore cows infected with this bacteria, which of the following prevention strategies would be msot useful in decreasing the number of future cases a. confirming that milking equipment settings are corect b. examining the effectiveness of dry cow terapy c. increasing the frequency of scraping/cleaning manure in the cow's housing area c. making sure pre-milking teat dipping is occuring appropriately

c

in an animals, this anti-inflammatory should be used for short durations, at the lowest effective dose - in order to prevent unwanted immunosuppresion a. acetamiophen b. asprin c. dexamethason d. flunixix

c

in refence to biosecurity in swine "downtime" is: a. commonly 30-60 days in length b. teh length of time new gilt smust be isolated before they enter the facility c. the length of time since a perosn has been in contact with other pigs or swine farms

c

require a slighter withdrawl after their use in food animals a. killed/inactivated vaccines b. live/modified-live vaccines c. both killed and live vaccines

c

the most commonly-noted clinical sign in poultry flocks affected by highly pathogenic avian influenza is a. coughing b. fever c. increased mortality d. sneezing

c

which of the following is an example of something that could provide passive immunity to an animal a. feedback b. previous exposure to an infectious disease c. tetanus antitoxin d. vaccination

c

which of the following statements are correct regarding boot baths, as they are currently used in most livestock facilities a. the msot important aspect affecting their effectivness is the choice of disinfectant b. most livestock pathogens on inaminate objects are instanly killed by disinfectants, so the time on the boots spend in the bath is not important c. unless organic matter is removed from the boots before using hte boot bath, they will be ineffective

c

Excessive release of endotoxins in the body leading to septic shock can result from: a. Overwhelming infection with bacteria that contain endotoxins b. Successful antibiotic treatment of an infection caused by bacteria containing endotoxins c. Successful immune response by an animal that kills bacteria containing endotoxins d. All of the above

d

PrPSc , the type of prion found in diseased animals has a different structure than PrPC , the prion found in normal tissue. This confers PrPSc with some unusual physical characteristics, including: a. Ability to survive inactivation by disinfectants b. Ability to survive the high temperature of autoclaving c. Ability to survive the high temperatures of the rendering process d. All of the above e. a and b only

d

Two different farrow-to-finish farms you consult with have very different prevalence estimates of lameness in their pigs. Which of the questions below is of special importance for you to ask each farm's manager, as you work to compare lameness prevalence most accurately between these farms? a. the number of animals culled due to lameness b. the speed of onset of the lameness c. the type of flooring in each farm's facilities d. which pigs in each farm are being considered "at risk" for lameness.

d

Which of the following bacterial genera does not contain a cell wall? a. Mannheimia spp. b. Staphylococcus spp. c. Bibersteinia spp. d. Mycoplasma spp.

d

Which of the following could be used in cattle in a "natural" or "never ever" program a. coccidiostats such as Deccoz b. growth implants such as Ralgro c. ionophores such as rumensin d. vaccines

d

as applied to dairy production, the term "stomatic cells" refers to a. bacterial cells in the milk b. epithelial cells from the udder flaking off into the milk c. milk-producing cells in mammary tissue d. white blood cells in the milkd

d

clostridum perfringes bacteria that cause disease in cavles are "typed" as A, B, C, D, and E. this typing is based on: a. the age of the calf they affect b. the severity of disease they cause c. the species of the animals they affect d. the toxin they produce

d

inflammaiton of the connective tissue between lung lobules a. aspiration pneumonia b. diptheria c. emphysema d. interstitial pneumonia e. pleuritis

d

what do all 3 of these serology methods (ELISA, Serum Neutralizaiton, and Agar Gel Ummunodiffusion) have in common a. they all measure antibody response to active infections and not to vaccinations b. they all report results as titers (1:128) c. they all utilize live virus/bacteria in their methods d. they all utlize the interaction between antibodies and antigens in a lab setting to visualize antibody levels

d

which of the following calf socurs pathogens has the longest incubation period a. clostridum perfringes type c b. coronavirus c. cryptosporidium parvum d. eimeria bovis (coccidia)

d

which of the following is a "best practice" when using and handling animal vaccines? a. making sure multiple-dose syringe barrels are cleaned with hot soapy water between uses b. mixing up all needed MLV vaccine vials well ahead of time so the diluent can adequately react with the freeze-dried vaccine c. promptly refrigerating mixed but unused MLV vaccine for future use d. throwing out any bottles of killed vaccine that become frozen, regardless of their expiration date

d

which of the following is not a feature that makes skin an effective barrier to the entry of infectious agents into animals a. a resident flora (bacterial population_ that competes with pathogens b. continual desquamation (flaking off) of the outer layer of cells c. dryness d. moisture

d

you are in charge of a pen of calves that arrived at your feedyard two weeks ago, and your're starting to see some problems. A variety of clinical signs are present in the claves in this pen. Which one of the clinical signs in the list below would you cause you to specifically identify pneumonia as a cause of illness in an individual calf you examine a. blowing a snotty discharge out of her nose b. coughing one time, after she's stirred up c. registering a high body temp d. using her abdominal muscles to breathe

d

inflammation of the outer membrane covering of the lung a. aspiration pneumonia b. diptheria c. emphysema d. interstitial pneumonia e. pleuritis

e

which of the following clinical signs would you expect to see in a feedlot steer infected with E. coli O157:H7 a. abdomial pain/colic b. diarrhea c. fever d. any of the above e. none of the above

e

name the common term for exuberant granulation tissue, a form of chronic inflmmation that sometiems occurs during the wound healing process

proud flesh