Volume 2
8) In cases when strategy conditions aren't as clear cut, the situation is considered? a) Grey b) Risky c) Unknown d) Marginal
d) Marginal
Vol. II 207.01A The entry control point to the WMD hot zone should be a minimum of _____ From the source. a. ½ mile b. 800 m c. 150' d. 300'
d. 300'
10. for a confined space rescue (204.08); if entry personnel use an SCBA, they shall enter no farther than one half the amount of supplied air minus __________ pounds? a. 250 b. 1000 c. 750 d. 500
d. 500
7. According to 204.10: a high-angle litter rescue is over _____ degrees. a. 30 b. 45 c. 25 d. 60
d. 60
1.Basic tactical priorities are as follows except #1 - Rescue #2 - Fire Control #3 - Property Conservation #4- safety
#3 - Property Conservation
During summer months you should limit to ......min cardio and drink ..... oz water. A. 1 hr and 100 oz B. 30 min and 64 0z C. Whatever doesnt make you exhausted
B. 30 min and 64 oz water
11. Command should rapidly survey the scene to identify any hazards or safety concerns and establish _____________________________. This can be accomplished through proper defensive rig positioning, use of flashing lights and the placement of flares or reflectors. Additional traffic control should be requested from law enforcement through Dispatch.: 1. a safe zone for crews to operate 2. an incident action plan 3. cold, warm and hot zones 4. situational awareness
1. A safe zone for crews to operate
4.Positioning of operating companies can severely affect the safety/survival of such companies. Personnel must use caution when placed in the following positions: 1. Above the fire (floors/roof) 2. On ladders 3. Below the fire 4. basements
1. Above the fire (floors/roof) 2. On ladders 3. Below the fire 4. basements
Bumper assemblies have been known to travel ... feet A. 30 yards B. 50 ft C. 25 ft D. 100 yards
25 ft
According to volume II, 207.01, how many nerve agent kits should personnel entering the Hot Zone carry?
3
20. When all IMMEDIATE patients have been transported from the scene, Transportation should notify Command. A declaration by Command to Dispatch of "All IMMEDIATES Transported" is _______________________________. 1.a signal that transport sector is no longer needed 2.an EMS tactical benchmark 3.means the scene is stabilized
2.an EMS tactical benchmark
According to volume II, 207.01, how many entry teams should be assigned to a WMD entry team?
3; One assigned to victim, one to agent ID, one for backup
Apparatus should be at least ... from evolved structure even if nothing is showing. A. 150 ft B. 100 ft C. 300 ft D. 30 ft
30 ft
Per Volume II M.P. 204.01A, any time more than ____ persons are evacuated, the Duty Chief advises the City Manager or his/her designee. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25
A) 10
5. Per Volume II M.P. 204.03, Hazard Zone tape shall be stretched to define an area where readings of ___ MR/hr are detectable. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6
A) 2
4) According to Volume II, 202.02B, master streams are generally the most effective tactic to be deployed in defensive operations. For tactical purposes a standard master stream flow of (Blank) GPM should be the guideline. A) 750 B) 700 C) 650 D) 550
A) 750
5) Hydrogen Sulfide alarm should be set at ?
Answer: 10ppm
2) According to Volume II, 202.02A, there are three basic tactical priorities. Which of the following is NOT included? A) Property Conservation B) Loss Stopped C) Rescue D) Fire Control
B) Loss Stopped
When staged in level 1 staging units should stage.... A. 1/2 mile B. 1 block C. 2 blocks D. 300 ft
B. 1 block
What does B.O.A stand for in. Mayday situation?
Breathe, organize, act
....... patients who were directed earlier in the incident by triage teams to an Assembly Area will be assessed by Extrication and delivered to the treatment area if further medical care is warranted. A. 1 immediate B. Up to 3 delayed C. Minors
C. Minors
5) According to Volume II, 202.03A, The dispatch center does not have the capability to monitor Channels (Blank). Command must be advised to immediately assign someone to monitor them. A) 9 and 10 B) 10 and 11 C) Mesa Alarm D) 11 and 12
D) 11 and 12
According to volume II, 207.01, what 3 detection devices can be used to detect chemical vapors?
Dragger colormetric tubes, APD-2000 CW detector, and M256 paper.
What does H.I.R.T stand for
Hazard Incident Reponse Team
WRITE-OFF PROPERTY THAT IS ALREADY ...........
LOST
Command must consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus its speed, particularly as they affect: Rescue activities ?? Confinement efforts Exposure protection
Level of risk to firefighters
According to volume II, 207.01, what is the treatment medical for nerve agents?
Mark I kits, (Atropine)
The proper strategy will be determined based on the following: 1. Avoiding simultaneous .......................................... strategies in the same fire area. This typically happens by first committing personnel to interior positions, then operating master streams from exterior positions, which places interior crews in danger of injury or death. 2. Matching the appropriate strategy to the........................ of the structure, and minimizing risk to fire fighters.
OFFENSIVE and DEFENSIVE; fire conditions
9. The Decontamination Sector Officer is responsible for determining the most appropriate decontamination procedures and managing the decontamination process. This should be done in conjunction with advice from the______________________. Incident Commander Medical control Poison Control Center Safety officer
Poison Control Center
1. Experience has reflected three levels of evacuation. Each requires a different resource commitment. They include:________________, Intermediate Level Evacuation, and Large Scale Evacuation. Small Evacuation Site Evacuation Full Evacuation Partial Evacuation
Site Evacuation
7. In all cases fire department units shall take whatever actions are necessary to provide for life and property safety. True False
True
__________ could cause Fire to evacuate nearby areas. a. Hurricane b. Wind c. Flooding d. Gasoline presence
b. Wind
2. A __________ is defined as any incidents involving more than 100 patients.(203.01 pg1) a. major medical incident b. mass casualty incident c. disaster d. catastrophe
c. disaster
Fires cannot be considered under ............. until all seven sides are addressed.
control
9) Some hazardous material in quantities up to _____ don't require a placard. a) 1500 b) 2000 c) 3000 d) 1000
d) 1000
4. Factors to consider when evaluating the evacuation need include a. Factors to consider when evaluating the evacuation need include: b. Product Toxicity (as a health hazard) c. Concentrations (before it becomes a health hazard) d. Length of Time Exposed e. All the above
e. All the above
According to volume II, 207.01, what is the treatment for blood agents?
sodium nitrate or sodium thiosulfate.
2.The objectives of each priority are reflected in the following bench marks of completion except #1 - Rescue - primary search (all clear) #2 - Fire Control - under control #3 - Property Conservation - loss stopped #4-agent applied
#4-agent applied
According to Volume II, 207.01, Emergency decontamination serves 3 functions. What are they?
*marks victims for easy ID, *removes product from victims, * engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety.
4) According to Volume II, 203.0, List the 2 additional EMS Tactical Objectives for any multi-patient/mass casualty incident include?
1) Completion of a Triage report 2) Declaration of "All Immediates Transported"
2) According to Volume II, 204.01, What are the names of the 2 initial zones of a hazardous materials incident?
1) Limited Access Zone 2) Evacuation zone
6) According to Volume II, 204.08, during a confined space rescue Hazard Sector shall do atmospheric testing before entering the confined space. What 3 tests are these?
1) Oxygen Level 2) Flammability 3) Toxicity
1) According to Volume II, 204.01, on a haz-mat incident, what are the 5 components that the IAP must provide for?
1) Safety of all fire personnel. 2) Evacuation of endangered area, if necessary 3) Control of the Situation 4) Stabilization of hazardous materials, and/or 5) Disposal or removal of hazardous material
3) According to Volume II, 204.01, what are the 3 levels of evacuation on an incident involving hazardous materials?
1) Site evacuation 2) Intermediate Level Evacuation 3) Large Scale Evacuation
5) According to Volume II, 204.04, on a flammable liquid spill, personnel shall not work in a spill area unless absolutely necessary to perform a rescue or to control a leak. What 2 steps must be taken before working in a spill area?
1) The spill must be covered with foam and precautions against ignition must be taken 2) The area shall be monitored with a combustible gas indicator.
6) According to volume II, 203.01, most multiple-patient incidents require 4 basic sectors. List them.
1) Triage 2) Extrication 3) Treatment 4) Transportation
9. Place rescue the following rescue effort priorities in the correct order: Most severely threatened, The largest number (groups), The remainder of the fire area, The exposed areas 1, 2, 3, 4 4, 3, 2, 1 2, 3, 4, 1 1, 4, 3, 2
1, 2, 3, 4
Rehab Sector will provide a specific area where personnel will assemble to have:
1. Assessment of vital signs 2. Revitalization ‐ rest, hydration, refreshments, and temperature regulation 3. Medical evaluation and treatment of injuries, if needed 4. Transportation for those requiring treatment at medical facilities 5. Reassignment as needed
The proper strategy will be determined based on the following:
1. Avoiding simultaneous OFFENSIVE and DEFENSIVE strategies in the same fire area. This typically happens by first committing personnel to interior positions, then operating master streams from exterior positions, which places interior crews in danger of injury or death. 2. Matching the appropriate strategy to the fire conditions of the structure, and minimizing risk to fire fighters.
The following items should be considered at any Hazardous Materials incident. (Not all will be significant at any particular incident.)
1. Cooling Containers--Flame Impingement 2. Remove Uninvolved Materials 3. Stop the Leak 4. Apply Diluting Spray or Neutralizing Agent 5. Construct Dams, Dikes or Channels 6. Remove Ignition Sources
15. The Extrication Officer should be positioned in a readily visible location that is accessible to arriving companies and maintain a view of the scene. Face-to-face communications should be used within the sector. Company officers should use ____________to relay information to the sector officer. The sector officer shall provide frequent progress reports to Command. 1.messengers 2.radios 3.common sense 4.start triage protocol
1.messengers
3. The next level, or intermediate level, involves larger numbers of citizens and/or affects a larger area. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than persons. 50 100 150 200
100
Traffic cones should be placed farther apart, with the last cone approximately ....... "upstream," to allow adequate warning to drivers. Place and retrieve cones while ...... the traffic. A. 150 ft, back to B. 100 ft, facing C. 50 ft, back to D. 160 feet, facing
160 feet, facing
13. If the incident involves a building collapse or a hazardous material release, it may be more effective to_______________________________________. This is also true of motor vehicle collisions involving a train wreck or bus. In these cases, triage will be performed at the entrance to the treatment area. 1.request a TRT unit 2.remove victims to a safe area rather than stabilize hazards 3.request a HAZ MAT team 4.perform triage from an elevated position
2.remove victims to a safe area rather than stabilize hazards request a HAZ MAT team
According to Volume II, 207.01, How many feet should FD evacuate if fire is present and a radiological agent is suspected?
2000 feet
6. Company officers shall be responsible to monitor/manage cardiovascular activity (tennis, racquetball, running, etc.) shall be limited to a maximum of ______minutes. a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 30
30
14. The Extrication Officer should assign personnel to help size-up the situation. An evaluation of the number of patients involved and the complexity of extrication requirements is an immediate priority. A reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ___ victims. 6 7 4 5
4
17. Of all the sectors, the Treatment Sector typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel. During major incidents, one company per _________patients should be the initial objective (one rescuer per patient). 3 5 4 6
4
3.Command must consider the following factors in developing a basic rescue size-up except 1. Number, location and condition of victims 2. Affect the fire has on the victims 3. Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control Fire 4. Wind direction
4. Wind direction
7.A Rehab Team concept will be used wherever possible to establish and manage the Rehab Sector. This team shall consist of all the following except 1. Rehab Truck 2. Utility Truck 3. Rescue 4. gummy bears
4. gummy bears
16. All non-ambulatory patients should be moved on backboards, with cervical spine precautions if indicated. Companies may be assigned as "litter bearers" to assist in this movement. Pick-up trucks, baggage carts or similar conveyances may also be used. Full spine immobilization_________________________ during the early stages of an incident. 1.is especially critical 2.can be forgone 3.must be performed 4.may not be possible
4.may not be possible
12. Command should immediately request additional assistance if the need is indicated. Dispatch will begin to notify other agencies and medical facilities based on the amount of assistance requested at the scene and the progress reports from Command. The initial reports should indicate ______________________to allow Dispatch to notify other agencies: 1.the number of injured 2.the unit type you're responding with 3.a thorough game plan 4.the scale of the incident
4.the scale of the incident
7. Master streams are generally the most effective tactic to be employed in defensive operations. For tactical purposes, a standard master stream flow of ____________should be the guideline. Adjustments may be made upward or downward from this figure but it is very significant in the initial deployment of master streams. 350 GPM 500 GPM 600 GPM 750 GPM
750 GPM
Command should abandon marginal attacks when: A. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire. B. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed attic spaces. C. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing. D. All the above
A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal. D. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed attic spaces. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
9) According to Volume II, 202.05, A 100' length of unprotected steel will expand (Blank) feet when heated to 1100 degrees Fahrenheit? A) 9" B) 2" C) 5" D) None of the above
A) 9"
10. An Exterior attack directed to first reduce fire extension and then bring the fire under control describes ___________ A) Defensive Strategy B) How many burpees a are in a W.O.D C) What you caloric intake
A) Defensive Strategy
. Per Volume II M.P. 203.04, when transportation is immediately available, transportation of the patient becomes a priority over ______________________. A) Extended on-site treatment B) Patient stabilization C) Patient extrication D) None of the above
A) Extended on-site treatment
6. The term "SEARCH & " should be used when structuring a primary search over the radio A) Rescue B) Seizer C) Conquer
A) Rescue
9) According to Volume II, 203.05, what sector is responsible for arranging all of the transportation needs for a multiple-patient and for allocating those patients to appropriate medical facilities? A) Transportation Sector B) Treatment Sector C) Medical Sector D) Rescue Sector
A) Transportation Sector
7. The following are fireground factors which should be evaluated by Command as they pertain to each tactical situation. A)BFOLARAS B)Alabama C)Fireload
A)BFOLARAS
5. Command must make the basic rescue decision, Do we remove victims from fire? OR A)Do we remove the fire from the victims B) retreat to a safe area of refuge C)assume no viable victims are living
A)Do we remove the fire from the victims
1. Which one is an engine company function? A)Loss control B)Forcible entry C)Salvage and over haul
A)Loss control
4. Command must consider the following factors in developing a basic rescue size-up A)Number, location and condition of victims B)what phase the fire is in C)is automatic aid is applies in their jurisdiction
A)Number, location and condition of victims
8. Command must declare which strategy is being used as part of the on-scene report and at each notification of ______. A)elapse time B)when they ask to balance the assignment C)when they run out of personeel to use
A)elapse time
Precautions shall be taken to protect the trapped and injured from further injuries during the operation (i.e. sparks, propelled objects, flying glass, etc.), and a charged________ in place, manned by personnel in full protective clothing. A. 1-1/2" FOAM HOSELINE B. DECKGUN C. 2 ½ SMOOTH BORE NOZZLE
A. 1-1/2" FOAM HOSELINE
4. Any time more than ____ persons are evacuated, the Duty Deputy advises the City Manager, or his/her designee, of the situation. A. 10 B. 5 C. 3 D. 12
A. 10
5 inch hose can typically supply .......... away without being pumped. A. 1000 gpm 1000' away B. 800 gpm 800' away C. 700 gpm 1000' away
A. 1000 gpm 1000 ft away
Personnel with a systolic pressure greater than ............ and / or a diastolic greater than ......... after 20 minutes in Rehab must go thru an ALS evaluation. A. 160, 100 B. 200, 120 C. 140, 100
A. 160, 100
Place ingress and egress ladders into the trench. There should be at least .... ladders placed into the trench no more than ...... feet apart. A. 2,50 B. 1, 25 C. 3, 25 D. None of the above
A. 2,50
companies shall remain in rehab for a minimum of ______ post fire and work cycles. A. 20 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 25 minutes
A. 20 minutes
What should a AFFF line be pumped at on bee calls and how long does it take it to kill them? A. 200 psi at 95 GPM, 60 sec B. 150 psi at 100 GPM, 30 sec C. 100 psi at 100 GPM, 15 sec
A. 200 psi at 95 GPM, 60 sec
Type 6 engine - Typical Phoenix regional "brush truck". Minimum crew of two, approx. ..... gallon tank and ... gpm pump with higher pump pressure capacity than an engine and pump- and-roll capability. Typically 4-wheel drive for off-road fire suppression. A. 200, 50 B. 500, 250 C. 250, 250
A. 200, 50
OSHA Regulations Standard ______________Permit-Required Confined Spaces regulates entry into confined spaces for general industry and the rescue service and shall be considered the basis for confined space rescue operations. A. 29 CFR 1910.146 B. 29 CFR 1911.146 C. 29 CFR 1912.146 D. 29 CFR 1913.146
A. 29 CFR 1910.146
2. Triage tags should be used any time there are (__) or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than (__) patients. A. 3, 10 B. 2, 10 C. 5, 10 D. 4, 12
A. 3, 10 -
Type 1 engine - A typical structure engine. Crew of 4 personnel, minimum A. 400 gallon tank and 1000gpm pump B. 500 gallon tank and 2000 gpm pump C. 1000 gallon tame 1000 gpm pump
A. 400 gallon tank and 1000gpm pump
One 95 GPM class B foam line is needed for every 600 square feet of spill area. The initial application will require .... gallons of concentrate when used at 3% and ... gallons of concentrate when used at 6%. Haz-Mat crews will need to check for escaping vapors with a combustible gas indicator to judge when the seal is breaking down. A. 43, 86 B. 50,100 C. 25, 50
A. 43, 86
a high-rise building is defined as ............... A. 6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater. B. 100 ft C. 3 stories or more
A. 6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater
A non-pumped 500 foot 4" supply line can flow ..... A. 800 gpm B. 1800-1900gpm C. 1000 D. None of the above
A. 800 gpm
A violent incident is defined as any type of incident in which Fire Department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act. Examples of violent incidents may include but are not limited to: A. ACTIVE SHOOTER/MASS CASUALTY ATTACKS B. CAR WASH FUNDRAISER C. STATION MAINTENECNE
A. ACTIVE SHOOTER/MASS CASUALTY ATTACKS
A violent incident is defined as any type of incident in which Fire Department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act. Examples of violent incidents may include but are not limited to: A. ATTACKS ONINSTITUTIONS AND?OR PLACES OF PUBLIC ASSEMBLY SUCH AS SCHOOLS, BUSINESSES, ENTERTAINMENT B. STATION TOURS C.MEDICAL CALLS
A. ATTACKS ONINSTITUTIONS AND?OR PLACES OF PUBLIC ASSEMBLY SUCH AS SCHOOLS, BUSINESSES, ENTERTAINMENT
Triage should be completed using the "_____________". A. Arizona Triage System B. Nevada Triage System C. California Triage System D. Vermont Triage System
A. Arizona Triage System
What are the functions of rehab sector? A. Assesment, Hydration and Replenishment, Medical Treatment and Transport B. Get crews ready for reassignment C. Vitals and replenish air supply
A. Assessment, hydration and replenishment, medical treatment and transport
Confined space rescue sector responsibilities include. Select most appropriate answer. A. B, C and D B. Assuming technical rescue operations control C. Identifying hazards and critical factors D. Develop a rescue plan and backup plan
A. B, C and D
What does the exterior view size up of a high rise building consist of? A. B, C, and D B. Often hide fire and smoke due to building being well sealed and large internal capacity for smoke C. Estimate potential for falling debris and/or major structural collapse D. Guide responding companies around these hazards
A. B, C, and D
When combating offensive structural fires. A. CAFS should be implemented at the start of overhaul. B. CAFS should be implemented on offensive attack C. CAFS should be implemented only on defensive fire
A. CAFS should be implemented at the start of overhaul
5. It shall be the responsibility of the __ to rapidly deploy the TIC in a visibly diminished atmosphere or in an atmosphere that may suddenly become visibly diminished. A. Captain B. Senior Firefighter C. Junior Firefighter D. BC
A. Captain
The purpose of triage is to __________ patients based on the severity of their injuries, prioritize their need for treatment and transportation and stabilize life threatening injuries before additional resources arrive on scene. A. Categorize B. Deliver C. Extricate D. Extinguish
A. Categorize
The ......... of the vehicle will confirm that all personnel and riders are on-board, properly attired, with seat belts on, before the vehicle is permitted to move. A. Company Officer/driver B. Engineer C. Captain
A. Company Officer/driver
A violent incident is defined as any type of incident in which Fire Department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act. Examples of violent incidents may include but are not limited to: A. DOMESTIC AND INTERNATIONAL TEROIST ATTACKS B. TOWN COUNCIL MEETING C. FILL THE BOOT
A. DOMESTIC AND INTERNATIONAL TEROIST ATTACKS
The two most common types of mercury are ________ and _________. A. Elemental, Inorganic B. Inorganic, Organic C. Organic, Elemental D. B and C
A. Elemental, Inorganic
1. Replacement S.C.B.A.s shall be obtained from Resource Management or from the on-duty __ after normal working hours. A. Engineer B. Captain C. BC D. Firefighter
A. Engineer
_________shall be worn by those members operating, or in close proximity to the operation of the Hydraulic Rescue Tool. A. FULL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING B. JACKET C. BUNKERS
A. FULL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING
_________ shall be worn by those members operating, and by those members in close proximity to the operation of power saws.The __________ shall be in position to provide eye protection. A. FULL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING/FACESHIELD B.HELMET/ GLASSES C.GLOVES/ SUNGLASS
A. FULL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING/FACESHIELD
What is the preferred method to pass command? A. Face to face B. Over radio C. Either one.
A. Face to face
9. The four primary areas of concern for response to incidents involving flammable liquids are extinguishment of flammable liquid fires, spills without fire, disposal and ____. A. Firefighter Safety B. Fire Protection C. Extinguish Pilot Lights D. Fire Code Violations
A. Firefighter Safety
The _________ company officer needs to determine the most effective means to treat patients. A. First B. Second C. Third D. Chief
A. First
There are two types of aircraft crashes: A. High Impact, Low Impact B. Disaster, emergency C. Head on, indirect
A. High impact, low impact
In a hazmat incident patients in need of medical treatment should be removed from the source of contamination as quickly as possible but remain within the _________ zone perimeter. A. Hot B. Warm C. Cold D. Decon
A. Hot
The Function B of the Rehabilitation Sector consists of? A. Hydration and replenishment B. Feeding residents C. Staging all apparatus D. Assessment
A. Hydration and replenishment
1. What is the objective of size-up when talking about Hazardous Materials incidents? A. Identify the nature and severity of the immediate problem and to gather sufficient information to formulate a valid action plan B. Avoid premature commitment of companies and personnel to potentially hazardous locations C. Evaluate effects of wind, topography and location of the situation D. To control the flow or release, get the hazardous material back into a safe container, neutralize it, allow it to dissipate safely, or coordinate proper disposal.
A. Identify the nature and severity of the immediate problem and to gather sufficient information to formulate a valid action plan
5. If gas is detected all sources of _____should be shut off. A. Ignitions B. Electricity C. Fire D. Water
A. Ignitions
Command should consider ESTABLISHING ...... WHENEVER POSSIBLE FOR OTHER RESPONDING UNITS. STAGED COMPANIES MUST BE in a safe location, taking into account wind, spill flow, explosion potential and similar factors in any situation. A. LEVEL II STAGING B. Command C. Site control
A. LEVEL II STAGING
Transporting of ....... patients should not be delayed for complete decontamination. A. Level I B. Level 2 C. Minor D. Delayed
A. Level 1
Declaring an offensive strategy means that the officer does what? A. Makes entry interior B. Stages in the truck C. Stages in level one D. Protects the A and B structures
A. Makes entry interior
5. To improve the fire department's capability to treat patients arising from a large-scale multiple patient incident, a ____ shall be established during all 3-Alarm Medical (or greater) major medical incidents using a minimum of one fire company. A. Medical Supply Sector B. Medical Safety Sector C. Treatment Sector D. Transportation Sector
A. Medical Supply Sector
4. When arriving on scene of a structural explosion units must assume it is____________? A. Natural gas B. Gasoline C. Chlorine D. Diesel fuel
A. Natural gas
2. Natural gas itself is _________? A. Non toxic B. Toxic C. Liquid D. Pink
A. Non toxic
For the purpose of this procedure, a "less experienced" fire fighter is defined as: A. Probationary fire fighter/ Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties. B.VOLUNTEER FIREFIGHTER C.PAID ON CALL
A. Probationary fire fighter/ Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties.
What does RMD stand for for Haz-mat A. Radiological Monitoring Device B. Rad Monitoring Device C. Radiological Metering Device
A. Radiological Monitoring Device
THE ONLY REASON TO OPERATE IN MARGINAL SITUATIONS IS....... A. Rescue B. Incipient size fire C. room and contents fire D. Fire is not in the attic
A. Rescue
Members must maintain ______________before and during each call, no matter how seemingly trivial the nature. (206.01 pg3) A. Situational awareness B. A pessimistic assessment C. Radio contact D. Out of sight staging
A. Situational awareness
The first arriving officer on a hazmat assignment should take command and begin a ________. A. Size up B. Extinguishment C. Recall D. Offensive strategy
A. Size up
All outside agencies responding to a medical incident should be sent to the ________ area. A. Staging B. Triage C. Salvage and overhaul D. Fire attack
A. Staging
On a high rise fire Lobby Sector will be operating on the ............ A. Staging radio channel B. Tactical channel C. Channel 16 D. Coordinate with alarm
A. Staging radio channel
No firefighter shall operate on the roof of a residential structure fire covered with __________. A. Tile shingles B. Asphalt shingles C. Wood shingles D. Rolled asphalt shingles
A. Tile shingles
Crisis Management is.... A. To effectively be able to manage a incident B. Don't call more resources then needed C. A situation grows at a rate faster than the response rate to that situation -- Command ends up with an out of control situation and inadequate resources to control it.
A. To effectively be able to manage a incident
9. What are the responsibilities of the Medical Branch Director? A. To ensure that the functions of triage, extrication, and treatment are carried out B. To integrate the multi-patient/mass casualty procedures within the framework of the incident management system C. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of rescue personnel and victims D. Coordinate patient transportation
A. To ensure that the functions of triage, extrication, and treatment are carried out
You ventilate a building principally for two reasons: A. To prevent mushrooming, To gain (and maintain) entry B. Visibility C. Control fire and flow pad D. Cuz it's bad ass
A. To prevent mushrooming, to gain (and maintain) entry
A violent incident is defined as any type of incident in which Fire Department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act. Examples of violent incidents may include but are not limited to: A. VIOLENCE RELATED TO BORDER ISSUES B. ROUTINE EMS CALLS C. SCHOOL TALKS
A. VIOLENCE RELATED TO BORDER ISSUES
At what height should heavy objects ideally be stored? (206.04 pg1) A. approximately waist level B. approximately shoulder level C. approximately knee level D. At floor level
A. approximately waist level
It is recommended that major tire fires be handled as ..... A. hazardous materials incidents. B. Structure fire C. TRT D. All the above
A. hazardous materials incidents.
The position of the Medical Safety Officer (MSO) would place a licensed ........ as part of the strategic level to enhance the medical wellness issues associated with our workforce. A. medical practitioner B. Battalion chief C. Captain D. 4 Fireifghters
A. medical practitioner
Where additional fans are required, placing two or more fans in "tandem"--one behind the other is more effective than side by side. A. more effective than side by side. B. Less effective the side by side C. Just as effective as side by side
A. more effective than side by side.
Dry foam will not provide adequate thermal protection to crews who are attempting to fight structure fires from A. offensive, interior positions. B. Defensive, exterior position C. During rescue
A. offensive, interior positions.
A standard Attack Team consists of A. two engine companies plus a ladder company. B. A 3 and 1 C. 3 engines on ladder D. Working fire response
A. two engine companies plus a ladder company.
The following practices are to be implemented whenever temperatures are expected to exceed_______ or whenever the combination of air temperature and humidity equal a humiture index of_________. A.105 degrees B.100 degrees C.102 degrees
A.105 degrees
An important element of loss control is to ............ A.extinguish the fire B. Prevent damage C. Preserve property
A.extinguish the fire
10) According to Volume II, 203.01, is a TRIAGE Sector Assignment always necessary?
ANSWER: No, the triage function should be performed by the first arriving company. Normally, it will last 4-6 minutes. A sector assignment may not be necessary
9) According to Volume II, 204.09, on a trench rescue the hot zone extends
Answer: 0-50 feet
2) What should the monitor be calibrated to for the LEL of the calibrant gas?
Answer: 10%
6) Command should recognize that the LEL reading will not be accurate on any O2 readings below ______%
Answer: 12%
10) According to Volume II, 204.09, on a trench rescue the cold zone extends
Answer: 150-300 feet
3) Instruments shall have the audio alarm set at: _____ O2 low and _____ O2 enriched.
Answer: 19.5% and 23.5%
4) The toxicity of carbon monoxide monitor should be set at?
Answer: 35ppm
7) According to Volume II, 204.08, if entry personnel use an SCBA, they shall enter no farther than the amount of supplied air minus ______ pounds.
Answer: 500
8) According to Volume II, 204.08, Entry personnel shall have a class ______ harness prior to entry.
Answer: II or III. Class III if inversion is possible
1) According to Volume II, 204.08, during a confined space rescue primary assessment, an early decision must be made as to whether the operation will be run in the rescue or ____ mode.
Answer: Recovery
4) According to Volume II, 204.03, when the first arriving engine is involved in a large area of burning flammable liquids, the amount of liquid may exceed the ability of one hand line to extinguish. What should command do in this situation?
Answer: wait until two or three engines are in position with charged lines before initiating a coordinated attack. Water should be used to protect exposures in the interim.
Definition of a mayday
Any situation where a individual is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or resolve an event in 30 sec.
According to volume II, 207.01, after hazmat teams collect rest samples of any suspected biological agent, PD will transfer the sample to what laboratory for further testing and ID?
Arizona Department of Health Services
Per Volume II M.P. 206.19, at what temperature and/or humidity should crews be cautious to avoid heat stress related injuries? A) 101.1' F B) 105' F and above C) 110' F and above D) 100' F and above
B) 105' F and above
Per Volume II M.P. 206.09, during a Police Assistance/ EOD incident, if a medical standby is to be longer than ____ hours, a rotation of companies should be considered. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2
1. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, a "multi-patient incident is defined as any incident with fewer than __ patients. A "mass casualty incident" involves __ to ___ patients. A "disaster" is defined as having more than ___ patients. A) 20, 20, 80, 80 B) 25, 25, 100, 100 C) 50, 50, 75, 75 D) 30, 30, 90, 90
B) 25, 25, 100, 100
10. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, triage tags should be used any time there are ____or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than 10 total patients. A) 2 10. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, triage tags should be used any time there are ____or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than 10 total patients. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
B) 3
3. Per Volume II M.P. 202.02, how many fireground factors are there? A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 6
B) 7
5) According to Volume II, 203.01, All first alarm medical incidents (or greater) require a Level (Blank) staging area for all fire department resources. A) I B) II C) III D) IV
B) II
. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, patients should be treated and transported in the following order: A) Immediate, delayed, minor B) Immediate, delayed patients upgraded to immediate, delayed, minor C) Immediate, delayed patients upgraded to immediate, minor D) None of the above
B) Immediate, delayed patients upgraded to immediate, delayed, minor
Per Volume II M.P. 206.17, what can the public use as an alternative to a sand bag during monsoon season? A) Pillow case B) Medium garbage bag C) Large Paper sack D) All of the above
B) Medium garbage bag
6. _________ is the critical factor in the primary search process per Volume II M.P. 202.02C A) Search Pattern B) Time C) Thoroughness D) Area
B) Time
2. What is a function of a ladder company A)forcible entry B)Pump hoselines C)scene size up
B)forcible entry
The minimum size of hoseline is the....... handline. A. 1 3/4 B. 1 1/2 C. 2
B. 1 1/2
10. What size line must fire crews us for protection when the gas company needs to excavate for shut off valve? A. 5" B. 1.5" C. 2" D. 3"
B. 1.5"
Fans should be positioned ...feet back from the entry point. A. 10-12ft B. 12-15ft C. 12-20ft
B. 12-15ft
7. It was discovered that once the low air alarm of an SCBA is activated, a firefighter can crawl approximately __ feet until their air supply is exhausted. A. 100ft B. 150ft C. 200ft D. 225ft
B. 150ft
3. All __ medical incidents (or greater) require a Level II staging area for all fire department resources, including rescue companies. A. 3-and-1 B. 1st alarm C. 2nd alarm D. 3rd alarm
B. 1st alarm -
Persons with a persistent respiratory rate greater than ...... breaths per minute after 20 minutes of rest shall receive ALS evaluation and treatment per standard medical protocol. A. 16 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30
B. 20
Any member requiring further evaluation beyond ............... will be documented on an EMS patient care report. A. 25 min B. 20 min C. 30 min D. 45 min
B. 20 min
All fire attack hose lines shall be supplied by one pumper. The RIC unit backup hose lines shall be supplied by a second pumper. All hose lines will be flow tested to confirm a minimum of ........ A. 100 gpm B. 95 gpm C. 150 gpm
B. 95 gpm
One .....GPM class B foam line is needed for every ......square feet of spill area. A. 100, 400 B. 95, 600 C. 150, 600
B. 95, 600
For personnel with body temperatures greater than ............after 20 minutes may be not returned to duty and will be transported to a hospital for further evaluation. A. 100 B. 99.5 C. 105 D. 101
B. 99.5
Some of the considerations for safety officer on a confined space rescue include? Choose most correct answer. A. One of the regional special operations qualified safety officer B. A, C and D C. A special operations qualified battalion chief and/or FIT D. Any experienced TRT company officer assigned to the incident
B. A, C and D
The First arriving company officer on a confined space rescue assignment should do what? A. Get out as soon as possible B. Assume Command C. Stage north D. Stage South
B. Assume Command
1. In the EMS Responsibilities section from vol. II, how many people defines a "mass casualty incident?" A. Fewer than 25 B. Between 25 and 100 C. More than 100 D. None of the above
B. Between 25 and 100 -
Class .........foam should not be dispensed through a CAFS unit unless specifically approved by Support Services personnel. A. Class A B. Class B C. Class D
B. Class B
3. Whose responsibility is it to monitor, support, and revise the evacuation process as necessary when working with Haz. Mat. Evacuations? A. Dispatch Center B. Command C. Police Dept. D. PIO
B. Command
A WMD/terrorist incident is a? A. Non priority call B. Crime scene C. Basic call D. A or C
B. Crime scene
The Hydraulic Rescue Tool engine should be kept away from the injured and placed ____________of the work area. (206.13 pg1) A. Up wind B. Down wind C. Up hill D. Down hill
B. Down wind
Triage will be initiated ________ in an incident. A. Late B. Early C. When convenient D. If the crew wants to
B. Early
The following sectors shall be established on all structural training fires except? A. Interior B. Exposure C. Safety D. Rehab E. All the above
B. Exposure
What should the strategy be determined by? A. Building B. Incident Command C. Fire D. Operating Crews
B. Incident Command
Who is responsible to keep a constant accountability of air each firefighter has in bottle? A. Captain B. Individual Firefighter C. Command
B. Individual firefighter
5. Name one of the two most common types of Mercury. A. Organic B. Inorganic C. Metallic D. Methylmercury
B. Inorganic
Pertaining to natural gas responses it is important to remember that natural gas is _______ air. A. equal to B. Lighter than C. Heavier than D. A and C
B. Lighter than
10. A Fire Investigator is not needed for the following situations: A. Car, field, or dumpster fires that have an identified lead or suspect in custody B. Minor fires where cause is determined to be accidental C. All working first alarm or greater structure fires D. Fire deaths or serious fire injuries
B. Minor fires where cause is determined to be accidental
For exposure control, the fans(s) would be placed at an entry point at.......... exposure first. A. Unburned exposure B. most severe C. Least severe D. All the above
B. Most severe
3. Natural gas displaces __________ and could cause_____________? A. Carbon/ a high B. Oxygen/ asphyxiation C. Carbon/ asphyxiation D. Oxygen/ a high
B. Oxygen/ asphyxiation
Meth labs Without ventilation, this type of operation can easily generate toxic levels of ...... gas. A. Methane B. Phosphene C. Chorine
B. Phosphene
Which is not a fire ground tactical priorities? A. Life Safety B. Property stabilization C. Incident stabilization D. Property conservation
B. Property stabilization
6. Triage will initially direct all MINOR (ambulatory) patients using the ____ criteria to a specific area. A. R.P.M. B. S.T.A.R.T. C. ALS D. Command
B. S.T.A.R.T.
All members of the crew will exit prior to the low air alarm ................. on the SCBA. A. Runs out B. Sounding C. Reaches 25%
B. Sounding
3. What is the critical factor in the primary search process? A. Resources B. Time C. Leadership D. Experience
B. Time
Pertaining to hazmat assignments command should consider level _______ staging for other responding units. A. One B. Two C. Three D. One scene
B. Two
6. Ground probes are used to search for natural gas where? A. Above ground B. Underground C. In air D. In water
B. Underground
Air monitoring devices for confined space rescues monitor all of the following except? A. Oxygen levels B. Wind direction C. Flammability D. Toxicity
B. Wind direction
A working fire involving the interior of the vehicle passenger compartment will damage the vehicle beyond repair. As such, the attack plan should consider the vehicle as a ..... and a safe and appropriate approach and fire attack must be implemented. A. Defensive B. Write off C. Offensive
B. Write off
What will be required at the moment a less experienced fire fighter enters an area that exposes the fire fighter to potential injury or death? (206.03 pg2) A. a charged hoseline B. direct supervision C. a thermal imaging camera D. an exit plan
B. direct supervision
If a scene becomes violent, fire personnel are empowered to take appropriate actions to ____________. (206.01 pg10) A. retaliate against violent individuals B. mitigate harm to crew and patient C. withdraw crews from the area D. document the violent actions
B. mitigate harm to crew and patient
5. When making door-to-door evacuations you should be a. Be in uniform and Wear your helmet. b. Be aggressive to get people to leave c. Tell people the evacuation is mandatory d. Bark like a dog
Be in uniform and Wear your helmet.
4. Per Volume II M.P. 204.01C, DOT hazardous materials marking systems are not always adequate because some hazardous materials in quantities up to ________ lbs. do not require a placard. A) 500 B) 750 C) 1,000 D) 1,500
C) 1,000
3) According to Volume II, 203.01, a disaster is defined as any incidents involving more than (Blank) patients. A) 25 B) 50 C) 100 D) 1000
C) 100
2. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, upon completion of EMS Tactical objectives, what other information should be included? A) Declaration of "All IMMEDIATES Transported B) Completion of a "triage Report" C) Both A & B D) B only
C) Both A & B
6. Per Volume II M.P. 204.02, Fire Department may only take possession of Mercury if: A) A Commercial Business brings it to a Fire Station B) A citizen brings it to a Fire Station C) Both A & B D) Never Take Mercury
C) Both A & B
7. Per Volume II M.P. 203.03, Extrication Sector is responsible for the __________ of patients. A) Extrication B) Delivery of patients to treatment area C) Both A & B D) None of the above
C) Both A & B
Per Volume II M.P. 206.04, a large percentage of personnel injuries occur while participating in routine activities at or around the station. How can most of these injuries been prevented? A) By observing proper safety practices B) Adopting a safety conscious attitude C) Both A & B D) By using universal precautions
C) Both A & B
Per Volume II, M.P. 206.03, when supervising less experienced personnel, a "less experienced" firefighter is defined as_________________. A) Probationary Firefighter B) Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to firefighting duties C) Both A & B D) None of the above
C) Both A & B
9. Per Volume II M.P. 202.05, Rehab should be located in the ________ zone. A) Hot B) Warm C) Cold
C) Cold
. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, at least one ________ company will be assigned to the Landing Zone. A) Ladder B) Ambulance C) Engine D) Battalion Chief
C) Engine
Per Volume II M.P. 206.13, _______________ shall be worn when operating, or in close proximity to the operation of the Hydraulic rescue Tool. A) Goggles only B) Gloves only C) Full protective clothing D) Goggles, gloves, and helmet
C) Full protective clothing
3. Per Volume II M.P. 204.01B, the Decontamination Area should be located in the _____ Zone perimeter adjacent to the Entrance/Exit (Lobby Control). A) Cold B) Warm C) Hot D) No-Fly
C) Hot
1. Per Volume II M.P. 204.01A, a hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene. They are ____________ zone and ____________ zone. A) Entry and Exit B) Entry and Hot C) Limited Access and Evacuation D) None of the above
C) Limited Access and Evacuation
7) According to Volume II, 203.01, The Hospital Communications Coordinator should check on hospital availability on what tactical channel? A) The assigned tactical channel from alarm B) K deck 12 C) Med-9 D) White deck 12
C) Med-9
1) According to Volume II, 202.01, which of the following basic fireground functions is NOT part of the Engine Company Functions? A) Search, rescue, and treatment B) Loss control C) Perform Overhaul D) Operate nozzles
C) Perform Overhaul
2. What type of unit is responsible for transportation of sick and injured to hospitals A) Engine Company B) Ladder Company C) Rescue Company D) Hazmat Company
C) Rescue Company
1. Which of the following is an Engine Company function: A) Forcible Entry B) Extrication C) Stretch Hose lines D) Provide lighting
C) Stretch Hose lines
9. Per Volume II M.P. 203.05, ____________ sector will normally advise Transportation when patients are ready for transport. A) Extrication B) Triage C) Treatment D) Command
C) Treatment
8) According to Volume II, what sector is responsible for establishing a treatment area to provide stabilization and continuing care of patients until they can be transported to a medical facility? A) Medical sector B) Triage sector C) Treatment Sector D) Rescue Sector
C) Treatment Sector
9. An Interior attack and related support directed toward quickly conducting a search for victims and bringing the fire under control describes______ A)Loss stop B)All clear C)Offensive strategy
C)Offensive strategy
Ventilation hole(s) of at least ...... of roof surface of the involved area is a rule of thumb to consider. A. 25% B. 50% C. 10% D. 15%
C. 10%
Water Tender ("Tender") - A water transport and delivery fire apparatus. Capable of carrying .........gallons of water. Pumps may range from 50 to 1500 gpm. A. 3000 B. 6000 C. 1000 to 5000
C. 1000-5000
Triage tagging should be completed in accordance with procedures established in Volume ___. A. 13 B. 17 C. 12 D. 10
C. 12
Remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least ....feet away from the hazard zone perimeter. A. 300 B. 100 C. 150 D. 350
C. 150
A single 5 inch hose can deliver ..... when pumped by a key pumper making it unnecessary to lay two 5 inch supply lines. A. 1000 gpm B. 2000 gpm C. 1800 - 1900 GPM D. 1200 gpm
C. 1800 - 1900 GPM
After a declaration of a high rise "working fire", once on scene, all ............... should proceed directly to the building and report to Lobby Sector A. 1st alarm B. Working fire units C. 1st and 2nd Alarm companies D. Everyone
C. 1st and 2nd Alarm companies
6. A standard Attack Team consists of: A. 1 engine and 1 ladder company B. 2 engines and 2 ladder companies C. 2 engines and 1 ladder company D. 3 engines and 1 ladder company
C. 2 engines and 1 ladder company
"Inexperienced firefighter" is any member with less than ...... years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties. A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 2 years
C. 2 years
The average passenger car tire holds ........gallons of oil. A. 5 gallons B. 3.5 gallons C. 2.5
C. 2.5
At incidents with less than ..... patients, Medical Supply Sector will report to Command. At larger mass casualty incidents, this Sector will report to Medical Branch or Logistics Section. A. 100 B. 50 C. 20 D. 25
C. 20
7. If a nuclear weapon involves fire, evacuate the area of ___feet, in all directions, immediately. A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 2000 D. 3000
C. 2000
When operating around a high-rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established ...... from the building and shall be observed by all Fire personnel as a high hazard area. A. 100 ft B. 150 ft C. 200 ft
C. 200ft
Be aware that aircraft have numerous high pressure hydraulic lines that operate at.........; these can cause serious injury if cut or broken under pressure. A. 1000 psi B. 10000psi C. 3000psi
C. 3000 psi
1. Per phoenix volume 2 what are the approximate flammable ranges of natural gas? A. 5-20 B. 6-9 C. 4-15 D. 12-24
C. 4-15
When using stairs to ascend, crews must collectively check their air supply every ......... floors A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. 1
C. 5
A non-pumped 500 foot 4" supply line can flow ..... A. 900 gpm B. 700 gpm C. 800 gpm
C. 800 gpm
For the purpose of emergency response a confined space is defined as. A. A space large enough for personnel to physically enter B. A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy C. A and B D. None of the above
C. A and B
On traffic calls Companies should ........ to specific parking locations to protect the work area, patients, and emergency personnel. A. Should know B. Park C. be directed
C. Be directed
Apparatus placement avoid "......" A. Bumper to bumper B. Congestion C. Belly to butt D. None of the above
C. Belly to butt
What may also be called to the incident scene to provide cooling or shelter. A. Utilitie B. Red Cross C. City bus
C. City bus
The tactical priorities, (Rescue, Fire Control, Property Conservation) are clear, measurable, and obtainable objectives. These objectives are considered ............. when the benchmarks are declared. A. First B. priority C. Complete A. All of the above
C. Complete
For confined space rescues the risk assessment is completed? A. Once B. Twice C. Continuously re-assessed D. Not necessary
C. Continuously re-assessed
Initial companies need to understand mulch fires that these types of fires are going to be ...... A. Hard fought B. Offensive C. Defensive D. Up to the officer
C. Defensive
In addition to police, what agency should be contacted in the event that temporary foster care is required for children? (206.11 pg1) A. Immigration and Naturalization B. Department of Homeland Security C. Department of Economic Security D. Adoption Services Division
C. Department of Economic Security
hazardous materials incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. A LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the __________ ZONE. A. Warm B. Hot C. Evacuation D. Destruction
C. Evacuation
9. What type of tape should be used to designate a limited access zone? A. Masking B. Scotch C. Fire D. Police
C. Fire
The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the ................ A. City Manager B. Car 1 C. Fire Department Incident Commander. D. Haz-Mat team
C. Fire Department Incident Commander.
During flammable liquid spills under the safety category the ________ Zone should be established and marked by the use of fire line tape. A. Work B. Rehab C. Hazard D. Wash down
C. Hazard
Activation of the low air warning for SCBA's is an ___________ action item for the individual and crew involved? A. Delayed B. Progressive C. Immediate D. Not important
C. Immediate
In wild land ...... is same as defensive. A. Attack B. Fire attack C. Indirect attack D. Direct attack
C. Indirect attack
When is the heat stress management procedure implemented? A. Summer B. Spring-fall C. June 1st- sept 30th
C. June 1st- Sept 30th
Furthermore, any ........ action taken prior to determining the product involved may place firefighters at considerable safety risk and may further compound the problem. A. Fast B. Uncordinated C. Knee-jerk D. Dumb
C. Knee-jerk
2. A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large off-site evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. This is called: A. Site Evacuation B. Intermediate Level Evacuation C. Large Scale Evacuation D. Immediate Evacuation
C. Large Scale Evacuation
The basic variables relating to attack operations involve: A. How many people are inside of structure B. Location of structure C. Location/position of attack Size of attack Support functions
C. Location/position of attack Size of attack Support functions
If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, Command should consider this a ......... A. A loss B. Defensive fire C. Marginal situation D. All the above
C. Marginal situation
4. How many rescues, that are initial staged off site, are allowed to be brought into the loading area for pt. transportation? A. As many as needed B. No more than 1 C. No more than 2 D. No more than 3
C. No more than 2
When the first unit reports on the scene with "nothing showing" or an equivalent report, any additional units shall continue Code 3, but shall ...... A. Not go on coming B. Go into a intersection that is red C. Not exceed the posted speed limit.
C. Not exceed the posted speed limit.
Proper loss control operations shall be completed prior to any ........ A. Investigation B. Crews leave scene C. Occupant walk through D. All the above
C. Occupant walk through
When establishing treatment for large numbers you can use what color salvage covers to differentiate immediate, delayed and minor patients? A. Blue, Green and Orange B. Yellow, Red and Purple C. Red, Yellow and Green D. Green, Red and Blue
C. Red, Yellow and Green
2. Once determined safe, an Offensive Fire Attack is centered around __. A. The Incident Commander B. Fire control C. Rescue D. the Risk Management Plan
C. Rescue
The First TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT company officer should be assigned? A. Head officer B. Staging sector leader C. Rescue sector D. Lead officer
C. Rescue sector
Command should assign what sector as soon as the basic sectors have been established? A. Attack B. Defensive C. Safety D. Triage
C. Safety
6. Who is responsible for clean up operations when working with Radiological Hazards? A. Fire Dept. B. Haz. Mat Team C. Shippers and manufacturers D. Police Dept.
C. Shippers and manufacturers
........ under the leather gloves will give added protection from contact with the contaminated water, oil, and mud. A. Dry hands B. We hands C. Surgical gloves D. All the above
C. Surgical gloves
The two strategies are based on the application of the ..... A. The extent of the fire B. Size of the fire C. The Risk Managment System D. Resources available
C. The Risk Managment System
2. At no time should any fire department personnel operate within an active "law enforcement _______________" (206.01 pg5) A. Hot Zone B. hostile environment C. inner perimeter D. action area
C. inner perimeter
Using greater alarm mechanism is preferred over priece meal because..... A. Allows proper units to be called B. Will give you ladders and engines C. it is the quickest, provides for automatic move-ups and indicates in a standard manner that the fire problem is in an expanded mode.
C. it is the quickest, provides for automatic move-ups and indicates in a standard manner that the fire problem is in an expanded mode.
The application of class b foam on a chemical spill will need to be repeated regularly, as the seal will break down in ....... minutes. A. 30 B. 1 hr C. 10 to 15
C. l0 to 15
4. Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order: A. most severely threatened, exposed areas, largest number (groups), remainder of the fire area B. exposed areas, most severely threatened, largest number (groups), remainder of the fire area C. most severely threatened, largest number (groups), remainder of the fire area, exposed areas D. exposed areas, remainder of the fire area, most severely threatened, largest number (groups)
C. most severely threatened, largest number (groups), remainder of the fire area, exposed areas
Experience levels of newer personnel depend upon a number of factors. Which is not one of them? (206.03 pg1) A. time on the job B. number, type and intensity of past incidents C. previous employment history D. quality of supervision and training
C. previous employment history
Oil not consumed by the fire will leach into the soil, pool, and begin to flow under the pile. Heat from the fire could ignite the oil, resulting in a ..... A. Mulch type fire B. Free burning C. three-dimensional fire.
C. three-dimensional fire.
10. The Decontamination Sector Officer must assume that all personnel and equipment preparing to leave the Hot Zone are contaminated. Three courses of action are available, they include all but: Confirm not contaminated--using instruments or investigation based on the nature of the situation Decontaminate (as appropriate to the situation) and release Retain and package items for removal from the site for disposal or decontamination at a different location Complete a thorough decontamination before release
Complete a thorough decontamination before release
1) According to Volume II, 203.01, A multi-patient is defined as any incident with fewer than (Blank) patients. A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 25
D) 25
2) According to Volume II, 203.01, a mass casualty incident is defined as any incident involving (Blank to Blank) patients. A) 5 to 25 B) 10 to 50 C) 20 to 50 D) 25 to 100
D) 25 to 100
3) According to Volume II, 202.02B, Fires cannot be considered under control until all (BLANK) sides are addressed? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
D) 7
5. Per Volume II M.P. 202.02B, how many sides are there on a building on fire? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
D) 7
. Per Volume II M.P. 206.01, during a violent incident, the Police/Fire Liaison Sector Officer will coordinate all activities between the departs, including traffic control, crowd control- establishment of fire line perimeters, evacuation, and ____________. A) Fatalities B) Crime scenes C) Persons interfering with fire department operations D) All of the above
D) All of the above
10. Per Volume II M.P. 202.05B, each member of the Operations Division shall check the condition of the assigned SCBA ____________. A) Beginning of each shift B) After each use C) Any time it may be necessary to render the equipment in a ready state D) All of the above
D) All of the above
10. Per Volume II M.P.204.08, a confined space is defined as: A) A space large enough for personnel to physically enter B) A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy C) An area with limited entry and egress D) All of the above
D) All of the above
7. Per Volume II M.P. 204.04, the main operational problems with flammable liquids are: A) Fire Extinguishment B) Ignition Prevention C) Disposal of Spills D) All of the above
D) All of the above
8. Per Volume II M.P. 202.05, the hot zone will be defined as any area that requires __________, or in which Fire Fighting personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure. A) SCBA B) Charged hoseline C) Special protective clothing D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Per Volume II M.P. 206.14, what units should be dispatched to an Africanized Honey Bee attack? A) An ALS Engine B) A Ladder C) A Battalion Chief D) All of the above
D) All of the above
7) According to Volume II, 202.05, when a crew completes an assignment and no other assignment is available within that sector, crews should be assigned to what sector(s) until such time as they can be reassigned to an operating sector or released to in-service status? A) Resource B) Staging C) Rehab D) Any of the above
D) Any of the above
8. Per Volume II M.P. 204.05, Natural Gas emergencies require the use of _________ and _______ to detect leaks. A) Human sensory indicators (sight, smell, and hearing) B) Gas indicators C) Ground probes D) B & C only
D) B & C only
. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, most multiple-patient incidents require which basic sectors? A) Patient triage, treatment B) Extrication, transportation C) Treatment, Transportation D) Both A & B
D) Both A & B
6. Per Volume II M.P. 203.01, the purpose of triage is to categorize patients based on the severity of their injuries, prioritize the need for treatment and transportation, and stabilize life threatening injuries before additional resources arrive on scene. With this in mind, ________ and ___________ sectors should be assigned separately. A) Treatment, Transportation B) Treatment, Extrication C) Treatment, Triage D) Extrication, Triage
D) Extrication, Triage
7. Per Volume II M.P. 202.02C, rescue efforts should be extended in which order? A) Largest number of people, most severely threatened, the remainder of the fire area, the exposed areas B) Exposed area, most severely threatened, largest number of people, remainder of the fire area C) Largest number of people, exposed areas, most severely threatened, remainder of the fire area D) Most severely threatened, largest number of people, remainder of the fire area, exposed areas
D) Most severely threatened, largest number of people, remainder of the fire area, exposed areas
9. Per Volume II M.P. 204.07, it is imperative that _______ is moved, shut off, turned on, or touched, at a clandestine laboratory whether active or abandoned. A) Utilities only B) Gas only C) Everything D) Nothing
D) Nothing
Per Volume II M.P. 206.18, how often should each company schedule and complete a Tactical Premise pre-plan on different occupancies? A) Each Shift B) Once each set C) One per month D) One per Quarter
D) One per Quarter
4. The three tactical priorities are considered in which order of priority per Volume II M.P. 202.02A? A) Property Conservation, Rescue, Fire Control B) Fire Control, Rescue, Property Conservation C) Rescue, Property Conservation, Fire Control D) Rescue, Fire Control, Property Conservation
D) Rescue, Fire Control, Property Conservation
Per Volume II M.P. 206.05, the rescue saw should be carried with the engine ________, the blade ____________ and muffler away from your body. A) Running, to the rear B) Running, frontward C) Stopped, to the rear D) Stopped, frontward
D) Stopped, frontward
8. Benchmarks for PCAN reports are __ minute elapsed time on air, all clear, fire control, and lost stopped. A. 5 B. 15 C. 20 D. 10
D. 10
The purpose of this procedure is to establish standard guidelines for conducting structural training fires while complying with NFPA Standard A.1400 B. 1500 C. 1300 D. 1403
D. 1403
The initial fire attack (flammable liquid on fire) will require ......gallons of concentrate when used at ... and 374 gallons of concentrate when used at 6%. A.100, 3% B.150, 3% C. 200, 6% D. 187, 3%,
D. 187, 3%
A crust may form over the pile while internal temperatures reach about ......degrees fahrenheit. A. 1000 B. 700 C. 1500 D. 2000
D. 2000
8. What are the flammable limits of Natural Gas in air? A. 5%-18% B. 3%-12% C. 5%-15% D. 4%-15%
D. 4%-15%
Two separate sources of hydrant water supply shall be established (two Engine Companies minimum). The water supply shall be test flowed by the forward pumper to insure adequate water supply of a minimum of .....gallons per minute. A. 300 gpm B. 400 gpm C. 1000 gpm D. 500 gpm
D. 500 gpm
Persons with a persistent pulse oximeter value below ............ after 20 minutes of oxygen therapy and rest will receive ALS evaluation and treatment per standard medical protocol. A. 95% B. 96% C. 98% D. 92%
D. 92%
What are/is a factor(s) to consider when evaluating an evacuation need in a hazmat assignment? A. Product toxicity B. How sunny it is C. Shelter locations D. A and C
D. A and C
10. What are some things that fire personnel should be aware of when working in Clandestine Drug Labs? A. Unusual odors like ether, acetic, solvents, and odors of urea B. Vacuum pumps, plastic or rubber tubing C. Marked and unmarked chemical containers of various sizes D. All of the above
D. All of the above
11. Hazards involved in a hazardous materials incident may include. Indicate the most correct answer. A. Flammability B. Radiological exposure C. Corrosives D. All of the above
D. All of the above
A hot zone includes which of the following? A. Entering a structure reported to be on fire B. Operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations C. Confined space D. All of the above
D. All of the above
For the purpose of emergency response, a confined space is defined as? A. A space large enough for personnel to enter B. A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy C. An area with limited entry and egress D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Proper PPE shall include? Choose most correct answer. A. Helmet B. Gloves C. Goggles D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Roof sector objectives are? A. determining a safe working surface B. complete adequate size ventilation hole(s) and achieve effective ventilation C. coordinate roof ventilation with interior crews D. All of the above
D. All of the above
9. First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include: A. Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew B. Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex C. Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire D. All the above
D. All the above
Dispatch will automatically notify the police department of the need for traffic control at any ....... A. MVA B. Any major med C. All working fires D. All the above
D. All the above
First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include: A. Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew B. Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex C. Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire D. All the above
D. All the above
The Police Liaison Sector officer will coordinate all activities requiring coordination between the departments, including A. Traffic control B. Crowd control - establishment of fire line perimeters C. Evacuation - hazardous materials, etc. D. Fatalities E. Crime scenes - (bombings, etc.) F. Persons interfering with fire department operations D. All the above
D. All the above
A confined space permit is required has which of the following. Select most appropriate answer. A. Ankle deep water hazard B. Atmospheric hazards C. Configuration hazard D. B and C
D. B and C
Signs of a building collapse may include? A. Cracks in interior walls B. Light pink smoke C. Bulges in exterior walls D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
What are strategies to declare on a fire ground? A. Offensive B. Progressive C. Defensive D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
ON A HAZMAT BE AWARE THAT ......... IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SAFETY OF ALL PERSONNEL INVOLVED IN ANY INCIDENT. A. Captain B. Car 1 C. Haz-Mat team D. Command
D. COMMAND
The most urgent reason for calling additional alarms is for the purpose of A. Additional resources B. Fire fighter safety C. Rehab D. Covering life safety
D. Covering life safety
In wild land ....... is same as offensive. A. Attack B. Offensive C. Fire attack D. Direct attack
D. Direct attack
The umbrella of service is made up of three on- going considerations. A. Tactical priorities B. Fire attack C. Apparatus placement D. Fire fighter safety, customer service, loss control
D. Fire fighter safet, customer service, loss stop
7. ____ patients are moved first, followed by ______ patients. A. Immediate, Dead B. Dead, Delayed C. Dead, Immediate D. Immediate, Delayed
D. Immediate, Delayed
10. _______ would be better positioned to provide the Command Team with strategic information related to triage, treatment, and transportation of our firefighters to specialty hospitals and state-of-the-art practices. A. Treatment Sector B. Transportation Officer C. Transportation Branch Director D. MSO (Medical Safety Officer)
D. MSO (Medical Safety Officer)
A mass casualty incident may require the implementation of two separate branches known as _________ and __________. A. Offensive, Defensive B. Extrication, Treatment C. East, West D. Medical, Transportation
D. Medical, Transportation
8. Crews should where what while in known vicinity of an active leak? A. SCBA only B. Turnouts only C. Helmet only D. PPE + SCBA
D. PPE + SCBA
Which is the tactical objective of highest priority at a violent incident? (206.01 pg7) A. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety. B. Perform the functions of triage, extrication, treatment and transportation. C. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of rescue personnel and victims. D. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
D. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
Once determined safe, an Offensive Fire Attack is centered around what? A. Fire control B. Fire fighter safety C. Loss stop D. Rescue
D. Rescue
9.Personnel Accountability Report or "PAR" shall be used at the following accountability benchmarks: a Upon entering the structure b Any report of a trapped or missing firefighter c By all crews reporting an "All Clear" D. all the above
D. all the above
The strategy can change with conditions or because certain A. Fire is out B. No water available C. Little resources D. certain benchmark (i.e., ALL CLEAR) are obtained.
D. certain benchmark (i.e., ALL CLEAR) are obtained.
Operating a power saw above __________ is extremely hazardous and should not be attempted as a normal course of action. (206.05 pg2) A. your head B. the suspected fire area C. an arched roof D. chest height
D. chest height
When calling for additional resource, Command must..... A. Be able to handle the extra resources B. Be able to effectively use the additional resource C. Wait until all resources on scene are assigned D. expand the incident arrangement system to manage that additional resource.
D. expand the incident arrangement system to manage that additional resource.
Operate roof lines only for the ............ unless Command orders a coordinated roof attack. A. Control fire B. Fire attack C. Put out attic fire D. purpose of protecting personnel and external exposures
D. purpose of protecting personnel and external exposures
Additional alarms should be struck...... A. Skip alarms if you think you will need the resources B. At least 10 minutes apart C. One above what you think it should be D. sequentially which includes going from a 2 and 1 assignment to a 1st alarm to a 2nd alarm, etc.
D. sequentially which includes going from a 2 and 1 assignment to a 1st alarm to a 2nd alarm, etc.
At no time will an emergency responder be allowed to return to duty until the pulse rate is below ....... beats per minute after 20 minutes of rest. A. 99 B. 150 C. 110 D. 100
D.100
A phased approach to confined space rescue operations which include; .......... can be utilized to safely and effectively mitigate these high-risk / low-frequency events. A. Arrival B. Pre-entry operations C. Entry operations D. Termination E. All the above
E. All the above
On a high rise Phoenix Fire Department testing has stated that most difficult areas to communicate to and from will be fire ......... A. Fire floor B. Lobby C. Staged crews D. Crew in stair wells E. control room and elevators
E. control room and elevators
Command should consider ......... STAGING WHENEVER POSSIBLE FOR OTHER RESPONDING UNITS. A. Establishing level 2 staging B. Establishing level 1 staging C. Immediate D. No
ESTABLISHING LEVEL II
4. A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large off-site evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Rapid initiation of the evacuation process may be required. In most cases, the City's _________________________________to support the evacuation and site operations. Police Department will be notified Emergency Operations Center (EOC) will be opened National Guard Services will be deployed Environmental Protection Agency division
Emergency Operations Center (EOC) will be opened
What units are dispatched to Africanized Honey be call and how for do you stage away from the colony? A. 2 and 1 and 100ft B. Engine, ladder, BC and 150ft C. Engine and 150 ft D. None of the above
Engine, Ladder, BC and 150 ft
7. The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the _________________________________________. If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the EOC staff. No other City agency will be authorized to order the return. Fire Department Incident Commander Police Department Evacuation Branch Officer Safety Officer
Fire Department Incident Commander
What are the three stages of a tire fire?
Incipiant free burning Smoldering
According to volume II, 207.01, what 3 detection devices can be used to detect chemical liquids?
M-8 paper, M-9 paper, and M256 detection kit
What doe NFPA 1500 say about a mayday? A. Only captain can call one B. Call for hazardous event C.readiness as the ability to "don, doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves
NFPA 1500 Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to "don, doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves
When combating offensive structural fires, CAFS should be implemented at the start of .......
Overhaul
6. Command must not lose sight of the very simple and basic fire ground reality that at some point fire fighters must engage and fight the fire. Command must structure whatever operations are required to________________________. The rescue/fire control-extension/exposure problem is solved in the majority of cases by a fast, strong, well-placed attack. Command must establish an attack plan that overpowers the fire with ACTUAL water application, either from offensive or defensive positions. PUT WATER ON THE FIRE SAFELY MITIGATE THE LOSS SAVE SAVEABLE LIVES ENSURE PROPERTY CONSERVATION
PUT WATER ON THE FIRE
The use of flammable or combustible liquids, as defined in NFPA-30, shall be allowed for use in live fire training evolutions. True or false
Prohibited false
3. Fire ground operations will fall in one of two strategies, OFFENSIVE OR DEFENSIVE. The two strategies are based _________________________that is to be employed at ALL structure fires. Initial scene size up
Risk management profile
Air craft crash Obtain primary and secondary all clears. Never assume absence of survivors. True or false
True
Engine Mounted Master Streams should never be operated on a structure where firefighters are operating interior. True or false
True
Level I Staging will be implemented in the following manner: For Fires, Hazardous Materials, & Special Operations Incidents True of False
True
Smaller (1 3⁄4") hand lines should be shut down after changing to a defensive operation. True or false
True
The IC may waive post incident inspections if a fire watch is in place. True or False
True
Toxins from fires can be absorbed either through the skin, mucus membranes, or respiratory system. True or false
True
Type 3 engine - Typically a short wheelbase engine capable of both structure and wildland fire operations. Commonly 4-wheel drive. Minimum 3 personnel, 500 gallon tank, 250 gpm pump. True or false
True
Virtually every fire, small or large, produces a need for some form of salvage operations.
True
6. An Evacuation Branch/Sector must be established. On large-scale evacuations, Evacuation Branch should have______________________. Various sub-level sectors would also need to be established and report to Evacuation Branch. a separate command post a transport branch/sector rehab services a separate radio channel
a separate radio channel
4. If a violent incident is within _________of the station Companies should consider Level 2 staging in quarters. a) 1 mile b) 2 miles c) 3 miles d) 4 miles
a) 1 mile
When dealing with ____ or more patients triage should be assigned to next arriving company. a) 10 b) 11 c) 5 d) 3
a) 10
10. According to Volume II Trench Rescue Operations the Hazard zone perimeter should be at least _________feet from the collapse area. a) 150 b) 50 c) 75 d) 200
a) 150
6) How many feet away from trench failure should level 1 staging take place? a) 150 feet b) 200 feet c) 50 feet d) 100 feet
a) 150 feet
8) Non-technical mountain rescues have an inclination less than? a) 40 degrees b) 25 degrees c) 45 degrees d) 90 degrees
a) 40 degrees
9) According to Volume II, 204.09, during trench rescue operations, the first-in company should spot the apparatus at least (BLANK) feet from the location of the trench failure a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150
a) 50
7) How many sectors of the fire must command consider? a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 6
a) 7
4) In a confined space while using an SCBA personnel shall maintain line of sight and exit the confined space prior to low air alarm activation following the __________? a) 75%-25% rule b) Rule of thumb c) Confined space rule d) 50%-50% rule
a) 75%-25% rule
If gas company personnel must excavate to shut off a leak what should be in place? a) A charged 1 ½ in. line and two firefighters in full PPE and SCBA b) An uncharged 1 ¾ in. line and two firefighters in full PPE and SCBA c) Two firefighters in full PPE and SCBA and a RIC Crew d) Two firefighters in full PPE and SCBA
a) A charged 1 ½ in. line and two firefighters in full PPE and SCBA
In relation of mass casualty incidents, if a patient requires transport to a medical facility, he/she should go by_______________? a) Ambulance only b) Police car if an ambulance isn't readily available c) Any vehicle if an ambulance isn't available d) POV only
a) Ambulance only
7. When should ventilation be started on an aircraft crash? a) At the same time as attack lines are put into operation b) Prior to attack lines being put into operation c) After fire is out d) As soon as sufficient foam blanket is created
a) At the same time as attack lines are put into operation
10) Within extrication sector what type of communication should be used? a) Face to face b) Radio c) Written d) Hand signals
a) Face to face
6) In disaster level incidents hospital may receive ______ resources until it can obtain adequate hospital staff. a) Fire department b) Police c) Military d) Local nursing school
a) Fire department
6) What actions is refered to when dealing with the candle moth syndrome? a) Focus only on the fire b) Freelancing c) Not operating under a strategy d) Not thinking outside the box
a) Focus only on the fire
A hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. What are they? a) Limited access zone and evacuation zone b) Hot zone and cold zone c) Hazard and command d) Hazard and Decon
a) Limited access zone and evacuation zone
Which sector will be established to control access to the LAZ and maintain an awareness of which personnel are working in the area. a) Lobby control sector b) LAZ control sector c) Hazard control sector d) Evacuation control sector
a) Lobby control sector
2. Which is a type of aircraft crash per Aircraft Emergencies SOP 202.17 a) Low Impact b) High Speed c) General Aviation d) Incursion
a) Low Impact
4) Incident commanders should avoid which of the following? a) Offensive and defensive strategies in the same fire area b) Switching strategies during the incident c) Offensive and defensive strategies in different fire areas d) Going with a defensive strategy without trying an offensive strategy first
a) Offensive and defensive strategies in the same fire area
5. In a confined space rescue, who should be responsible for "entry" operations? a) Rescue Sector b) Entry Team c) Back Up Team d) The Incident Commander
a) Rescue Sector
1) Hazardous material emergencies are usually related to? a) The material escaping from the protective container. b) Human error. c) Natural disasters d) Amount of material stored at facility.
a) The material escaping from the protective container.
4) It may be more effective to shelter in place when? a) When toxic or irritant vapors are being carried downwind. b) When there are too many people to notify. c) When there is only a few possible victims. d) When the weather outside is too hot and the risk for heat stroke exist.
a) When toxic or irritant vapors are being carried downwind.
According to Vol II how should the LAZ be identified in a hazardous material incident? a) With yellow fireline tape b) With a salvage cover c) With a sign d) With an officer wearing an LAZ vest
a) With yellow fireline tape
2. According to Volume II Confined Space Rescue M.P. 204.08 and attic and basement are considered ______________________. a) a confined space b) compartments c) non-living spaces d) concealed spaces
a) a confined space
7. According to Volume 2 Trench Rescue Operations, what is the term used to describe any depression, hole, trench, earth wall (man made or natural) of four feet or greater? a) an excavation b) confined space c) oxygen deprived space d) OSHA Hole
a) an excavation
The scene of a violent incident is considered secure when: __________________. a) the Incident Commander communicates and confirms "scene secured" b) when PD "waves you in" c) when a bystander states the suspect has left d) none of the above
a) the Incident Commander communicates and confirms "scene secured"
5. The purpose of this procedure is to establish guidelines and responsibilities for minimizing the effects of heat stress to department members. The following practices are to be implemented whenever temperatures are expected to exceed ________degrees or whenever the combination of air temperature and humidity equal a humiture index of ________ degrees. a. 105 -105 b. 100-105 c. 100-100 d. 105-110
a. 105 -105
1. According to 204.08 - Confined Space Rescue: Any O2 readings below _______, Command should recognize that the LEL reading will not be accurate. a. 12% b. 16% c. 8% d. 21%
a. 12%
Hot Zone Support, Rescue, and Technical Decon personnel operate in WARM ZONE with full protective gear. Decon lines are established in the WARM ZONE. This area should be minimally________________, but must encompass all victims awaiting decon and decon equipment. A LOBBY SECTOR will be established at the entry to the warm zone for accountability a. 15 feet wide b. 10 feet wide c. 20 feet wide d. 25 feet wide
a. 15 feet wide
According to Volume II 204.11, a minimum of __________ tether should be built for swift water operations. a. 2 point b. 3 point c. 4 point d. 5 point
a. 2 point
According to 207.01A: If fire is present and a radiological agent is suspected, evacuate at a distance of ___________ feet. a. 2000 b. 1000 c. 500 d. 1500
a. 2000
If fire is present and radiological agent suspected, evacuate to ________ feet. Check downwind areas for contamination. a. 2000 b. 150 c. 300
a. 2000
How many feet need to be evacuated when fire is present and radiological agent is suspected? a. 2000ft b. 1000ft c. 1500ft d. 2500ft
a. 2000ft
According to Volume II 207.01C, what is the melting point of Methylene Bisphenyl Isocyanate (MDI)? a. 37 degrees C b. 40 degrees C c. 80 degrees C d. 10 degrees C
a. 37 degrees C
9. According to Volume II section 204.05, natural gas tends to pocket inside buildings and its flammable limits are approximately _____ in air. a. 4%-15% b. 3%-12% c. 4%-18% d. 2%-17%
a. 4%-15%
9. Vol. II 204.09 OSHA Regulations Standard 29 regulates excavation for industry. According to this standard, and for the purpose of emergency response, an excavation is defined by any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man-made or natural ______________ or greater. a. 4' b. 6' c. 8' d. 10'
a. 4'
9. The triage function should be performed by the first arriving company. Normally, it will last? a. 4-6 minutes b. 6-10 minutes c. No more than 15 minutes d. 2 minutes
a. 4-6 minutes
According to Volume II 204.13, what is the minimum radius of the immediate rescue area around a tree during a rescue operation? a. 50' b. 60' c. 75' d. 80'
a. 50'
According to Volume II 207.01B, optimally how many technicians should operate the technical decontamination setup? a. 6 b. 8 c. 4 d. 12
a. 6
2. Vol. II 204.08 At least _____ trained personnel should be on scene to do the rescue/recovery. a. 8 b. 9 c. 7 d. 5
a. 8
Per Volume II 204.08, at least how many trained personnel should be on the scene of a confined space rescue? a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 20
a. 8
DO NOT USE SPECIFIC NAME OF SUSPECTED AGENT OVER THE RADIO; USE ONLY __________________________________ a. A BIOLOGICAL AGENT@ OR AN UNKNOWN AGENT. b. Liquid color and viscosity c. Amount size
a. A BIOLOGICAL AGENT@ OR AN UNKNOWN AGENT.
What is the Benchmark of the Life Safety tactical priority? (202.02A pg1) a. All Clear b. Under control c. Loss stopped d. Life Safe
a. All Clear
4. It is crucial that the closest ___________________________be notified immediately via the Alarm Room. If the decision to stage is made, the Company Officer shall notify Dispatch that the unit(s) is staged and state their location. a. Battalion Chief and Shift Commander b. Safety Officer and Chief Officer c. Chief Officer and Department Chief d. Police Chief and Chief Officer
a. Battalion Chief and Shift Commander
7. how can you tell a patient is an immediate patient a. By using RPM b. by asking them c. its easy to guess if there faking there injuries.
a. By using RPM
6. Vol. II 204.08 What is the recommended class of harness for confined space rescue while wearing Nomex/pbi jumpsuit? a. Class III b. Class I c. Class AAA d. Class B
a. Class III
According to Volume 2, Hazardous Materials WMD, Treatment areas will be established in the __________________ zone. a. Cold Zone b. Warm Zone c. Hazard Zone d. Hot Zone
a. Cold Zone
Vol. II 207.01A The HOT ZONE perimeter should be defined to include all _________. a. Dead bodies b. Injured patients c. Physically damaged structures d. Metered atmospheres
a. Dead bodies
Which sector officer is responsible for determining the most appropriate decontamination procedures and managing the decontamination process? a. Decon Sector Officer - b. Haz Mat Sector Officer c. Treatment Sector Officer d. Safety Officer
a. Decon Sector Officer
5. Per Volume II section 204.02, which type of mercury is commonly found in blood pressure cuffs and thermometers? a. Elemental b. Inorganic c. Organic d. Simple
a. Elemental
6. Triage Sector is to determine, in close coordination with __________, the location, number and condition of patients. (203.01 pg4) a. Extrication b. Command c. Treatment d. Transportation
a. Extrication
The ______ zone is the area immediately around the site/munitions/device/source? a. Hot b. Cold c. Warm d. Fire
a. Hot
3. Where should the Decontamination Area be established on a hazardous materials incident (204.01B)? a. Hot zone b. Warm zone c. Cold zone d. Cool zone
a. Hot zone
8. Per Volume 2 section 202.05, what is defined as any area that requires SCBA, charged hose line, special protective clothing, or in which firefighting personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped or injured by the environment or structure? a. Hot zone b. Warm Zone c. Hazard Zone d. Fire ground
a. Hot zone
According to 207.01A: Which of the following is NOT an example of a WMD/terrorist agent? a. IED b. Chemical c. Biological d. Radiological
a. IED
1. Which patient should be treated and transported first? a. IMMEDIATE b. DELAYED patients upgraded to IMMEDIATE c. DELAYED d. MINOR
a. IMMEDIATE
S.T.A.R.T. (Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment) criteria will be used for triage, using four classifications: a. IMMEDIATE, DELAYED, MINOR, DEAD OR DYING. b. Trauma, immediate, dead minor c. Delayed, minor dead and dying
a. IMMEDIATE, DELAYED, MINOR, DEAD OR DYING.
5. Emergency Decontamination at WMD incidents serve these functions except: (207.01A pg4) a. Initiates the victim triage process b. Marks victims for easy identification c. Removes product/particles from victims d. Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety.
a. Initiates the victim triage process
1. A hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. There are the? a. LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE. b. Limited access zone and rescue zone c. Evacuation zone and safety zone d. Hot zone and warm zone
a. LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE
9. Proper disposal of the hazardous material(s) in a clandestine laboratory is the responsibility of a. Law enforcement b. Fire department c. Hazmat teams d. Federal government
a. Law enforcement
6. According to 204.04: The only time a flammable liquid will be flushed to the environment or drain is if it fits within this guideline? a. Less than 30 gallons of unleaded fuel b. Less than 10 gallons of unleaded fuel c. Less than 30 gallons of diesel fuel d. Less than 30 gallons of leaded fuel
a. Less than 30 gallons of unleaded fuel
4. Which is not one of the four designations of patients in the "Arizona Triage System"? a. Level 1 b. Delayed c. Minor d. Immediate
a. Level 1
2. What is LAZ an abbreviation for a. Limited access zone b. Limited area zone c. Life altering zone d. Life safety zone
a. Limited access zone
6. What does LPG stand for? a. Liquefied petroleum gas b. Liquefied potassium gamete c. Liquid placard grade d. None of the above
a. Liquefied petroleum gas
6. What should be used to create a dense shower flow to establish a more effective method of mass casualty emergency decontamination? (207.01A pg5) a. Master streams b. Hand lines c. Booster lines d. Flowing hydrants
a. Master streams
According to M.P.207.01A when it comes to naming agent used in a biological incident___? a. Never use name over the radio b. Use trade name c. Use scientific name d. Use abbreviation
a. Never use name over the radio
5. Why will helicopters NOT be used for transporting any contaminated patients (204.01B)? a. Off gassing effects on the pilot and flight crew b. No safe location for an LZ c. Rotors will potentially spread the product beyond the Hot zone d. Excessive static electricity
a. Off gassing effects on the pilot and flight crew
10. What is the initial objective in relation to the personnel to patient ratio in larger medical incidents? a. One company per four patients b. One company per patient c. One company per two patients d. None of the above
a. One company per four patients
All personnel should use __________ when contacting patients a. PPE b. Care c. Gentleness d. Love
a. PPE
First arriving units should secure a________, evaluate the situation, and await the arrival of the Hazardous Materials Technicians. a. Perimeter b. DOT book c. Niosh book
a. Perimeter
What is the correct order for decon during the TECHNICAL DECON LINE PROCESS/STRUCTURE for personnel? a. Personal belongings drop, clothing removal, shower, monitoring, clothing issue/redress b. Clothing removal, personal belongings drop, shower, monitoring, clothing issue/redress c. Personal belongings drop, monitoring, clothing removal, shower, clothing issue/redress d. Personal belongings drop, clothing removal, monitoring, shower, clothing issue/redress
a. Personal belongings drop, clothing removal, shower, monitoring, clothing issue/redress
BE AWARE OF SECONDARY DEVICES designed to injure additional victims and/or first responders. Upon sighting a device that appears operable, withdraw personnel until ________________________ has inspected/rendered safe any suspicious appearing device. a. Police Bomb Squad b. the FBI c. the HAZ/Mat team d. the FD TRT team
a. Police Bomb Squad
Who is responsible for transporting suspected biological agents to the ADHS State laboratory? (207.01A) a. Police Dept personnel b. Fire Dept personnel c. ADHS personnel d. FBI
a. Police Dept personnel
6. Volume II section 203.03 states that extrication will assist triage with any patient treatment that is necessary __________ disentanglement a. Prior to b. During c. After d. Except
a. Prior to
8. In a disaster level incident, where may some fire department resources need to be allocated? (203.01 pg6) a. Receiving hospitals b. Red Cross outposts c. Information call centers d. Community health clinics
a. Receiving hospitals
6. Once an incident has been deemed a rescue, _____________ Sector becomes Treatment Sector (204.10). a. Recon b. Rescue c. Extrication d. Technical
a. Recon
4. Once long term sheltering is identified, the _______________ will open and manage shelters a. Red cross b. St Vincent de paul c. Osha d. Fema
a. Red cross
1. The only reason to operate in marginal situations is to _____________ (202.02B). a. Rescue b. Save trapped animals c. Save savable property d. Obtain a secondary all clear
a. Rescue
4. According to Volume 2 section 202.02B, once determined safe, an OFFENSIVE fire attack is centered around ____________ a. Rescue b. Fire control c. Property conservation d. All of the above
a. Rescue
5.Roof Sector Duties The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions except a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.) b. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof c. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions d. skylight locations
a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.) b. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof c. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions d. skylight locations
The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions...
a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.) b. Structural conditions c. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof d. Locations of fire walls e. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions f. Ventilation plan
5. the incident action plan of haz mat call must provide for a. Safety of all fire personnel b.re-assignment to automatic aid c. care of the elderly and children first
a. Safety of all fire personnel
Which of the following has NO non-military use (207.01C)? a. Sarin b. Sulfur mustard c. Methyl Isocyanate d. Hydrogen Cyanide
a. Sarin
1. Tactical priorities identify the three separate tactical objectives that must be completed in order to stabilize any fire situation--these priorities also establish the order in which these basic fire ground objectives must be performed. The three basic tactical priorities include all but: a. Scene Size Up b. Rescue c. Fire Control d. Property Conservation
a. Scene Size Up
3. The three Levels of Evacuation are a. Site Evacuation, Intermediate Level Evacuation, and Large Scale Evacuation b. Small medium large c. Immediate, delayed, in place d. partial, complete combination
a. Site Evacuation, Intermediate Level Evacuation, and Large Scale Evacuation
3. The Levels of Evacuation are; a. Site evacuation, intermediate level evacuation and large scale evacuation b. rapid evacuation, intermediate level evacuation and large scale evacuation c. Site evacuation, intermediate level evacuation and dissolving scale evacuation d. Small evacuation, medium level evacuation and large scale evacuation
a. Site evacuation, intermediate level evacuation and large scale evacuation
On a WMD incident, the first arriving unit will establish command and begin a ___________? a. Size up b. Briefing c. Stage locations d. Entry way
a. Size up
Before a citizen leaves, what must you ensure that they do? a. They complete and sign a form identifying the material and verifying that it is from a households b. I photo id with social security number c. Leave copy of the materials MSDS d. Name and address
a. They complete and sign a form identifying the material and verifying that it is from a households
8. According to 202.09, you ventilate a building principally for two reasons: a. To prevent mushrooming and to gain (and maintain) entry b. To prevent mushrooming and to remove heat and fire gasses c. To facilitate rescue and help locate the fire d. To remove heat and fire gasses and protect interior crews
a. To prevent mushrooming and to gain (and maintain) entry
4. Treatment Sector officer will consult with the __________Sector on the allocation of patients to various medical facilities a. Transportation b. Triage c. Command d. Safety
a. Transportation
4. Per Volume II section 203.01, in conjunction with Command, who is responsible for the location of the staging area, rescue loading area and helicopter LZ? a. Transportation sector b. Triage sector c. Safety Officer d. Logistics
a. Transportation sector
5. According to 203.04: Of all the sectors, the _______________ Sector typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel. a. Treatment b. Extrication c. Hazard d. Triage
a. Treatment
8. Who may have to forward a "Triage Update"? a. Treatment Sector Officer b. Triage Sector Officer c. Transportation Sector Officer d. Command
a. Treatment Sector Officer
1. A hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. There are the LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE a. True b. False
a. True
10. Command shall provide for effective interaction between gas company personnel and the Fire Department. Gas company personnel are responsible for locating and eliminating leaks in the gas system a. True b. false
a. True
3. True or False. There should only be one triage location. a. True b. False
a. True
True or false When a citizen brings hazardous waste to the station the materials are not to be brought inside the building or the bay a. True b. False
a. True
According to volume II, 207.01, is it true or false that radiation exposure alone is not a medical emergency? a. true b. false
a. True, radioactive particles are easily removed from skin and clothing.
. When making door-to-door evacuations notices: (204.01A pg6) a. Wear your helmet. b. Order people to leave their pets c. Do not allow time to retrieve personal items d. Where SCBA and be on-air.
a. Wear your helmet
8. The Fire Department personnel __________ participate in a law enforcement agency entry operation into a suspected and unsecured clandestine drug laboratory. a. Will not b. Will c. Might
a. Will not
Pertaining to a letter carrying an unknown substance the first arriving unit should secure a perimeter, evaluate the situation, and await the arrival of hazmat technicians? a. Yes b. No
a. Yes
10. Treatment is preferred in? a. a designated treatment area, or can be performed "in-place," b. a designated treatment area c. in place d. none of the above
a. a designated treatment area, or can be performed "in-place,"
10. how long should it take per patient to triage them a. a few seconds b. 2 minutes C. minimum of 3 minutes
a. a few seconds
. Taking immediate action at a HAZ MAT incident to make a rescue or evacuate an area should be attempted only after ......... (204.01 pg2) a. a risk/benefit analysis is completed. b. decontamination is ready. c. the material has been identified. d. all of these
a. a risk/benefit analysis is completed
9. who can perform a triage a. anyone who is trained to b. lay bystanders c. administration personnel
a. anyone who is trained to
The specific WMD agent involved -- _________, biological and radiological a. chemical b. oxidizers c. acids
a. chemical
Medical management within WMD includes_____, _____, treatment, behavioral health and transportation. a. decontamination and triage b. transportation and research c. medical sector and hazard sector
a. decontamination and triage
Fireground factors represent an array of items that are _________ during the entire fireground process. (202.02 pg1) a. dynamic b. constant c. predictable d. undeterminable
a. dynamic
If fire is present and radiological agent suspected,_______________________. Check downwind areas for contamination. a. evacuate to 2000 feet b. evacuate to 1000 feet c. evacuate to 3000 feet d. evacuate to 5000 feet
a. evacuate to 2000 feet
In Volume 2, WMD/CBR/NBC Descriptions and treatment protocols, M.P. 207.01C, regarding treatment for liquid and vapors, Miosis is not treated unless? a. eye/head pain is severe b. nausea and vomiting observed c. patient requests it d. after an ALS patch to the medical director
a. eye/head pain is severe
A "multi-patient incident" is defined as any incident with ____________ patients. (203.01 pg1) a. fewer than twenty-five b. five to ten c. more than twenty-five d. any of these
a. fewer than twenty-five
6. a level "A" entry is a. fully enclosed level A suite b. turnouts and scba c. duty cloths
a. fully enclosed level A suite
In known or suspected explosions when purposeful or terrorist activity cannot be ruled out (i.e., natural gas explosion) initial actions should be to secure__________ a perimeter and call for the EOD (PD bomb squad) to respond. a. hot zone b. cold zone c. responsible party
a. hot zone
4. vehicles transporting hazardous materials are located a. in the drivers cab with in arms reach b. in his back pack c. on his phone or tablet.
a. in the drivers cab with in arms reach
8. who is in charge of establishing a triage sector. a. incident commander b. who every cares c. the first person on scene
a. incident commander
3. MSDS is an abbreviation for a. materials safety data sheet b. make sound decision's soon c. move slow don't stop
a. materials safety data sheet
natural gas itself is a. non toxic b. smells like bitter almonds c. all the above
a. non toxic
According to Volume II 207.01A, response actions at a WMD incident can be divided into those undertaken by __________ ____________ and those undertaken of supervised by _________ __________. a. operational readiness; hazmat technicians b. emergency crews; specialty technicians c. first responders; bio hazard technicians d. field operations; hazmat technicians
a. operational readiness; hazmat technicians
Response actions at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident can be divided into those undertaken by________________ and those undertaken or supervised by___________ a. operational responders, hazmat technician b. front line responders and district c. first responders and first responders awareness
a. operational responders, hazmat technician
7.an NFPA diamond is colored a. red, blue ,white, yellow b. red, white, blue, green c. red, blue, white, green, yellow
a. red, blue ,white, yellow
Minimum PPE for decontaminating victims is___________ a. turnouts and SCBA. b. Duty gear c. Tyvex
a. turnouts and SCBA.
1. How many hazmat units will be dispatched to a "HAZ" assignment a.1 b.2 c.3
a.1
3. A disaster is considered _____ or more patients a.100 b.25 c.30
a.100
5. a multi-patient incident is considered fewer than ______________patients a.25 b.62 c.85
a.25
9. LAZ in a hazmat scene is referred to as a.Limited access zone b.lazy zone c. line access zone
a.Limited access zone
2. "START" triage stand for a.Simple triage and rapid treatment b.Stop towards and relay treatment c.Stop the angry restless thieves
a.Simple triage and rapid treatment
6.when it comes to triage where do you start a.Start with the first patient you come to b.Zig zag back and fourth c.Start with children first.
a.Start with the first patient you come to
1. First arriving unit should give an on-scene report followed by a a.Triage b.Orders to B.C mileage report
a.Triage
8. what types of radiation is penetrable through clothing a.gama b.alpha c.sigma
a.gama
All WMD terrorism incidents are crime scenes; _________ needs early establishment. a. police sector b. logistics c. hazard sectors
a.police sector
2. when approaching a hazmat scene it is best to a.stay upwind b. stay away c. stay in quarters.
a.stay upwind
The Roof Sector officer must ...... when ventilation holes are completed and any change it may have on the roof conditions. A. advise Command B. advise interior C. Punch through
advise Command
10. The most urgent reason for calling additional alarms is for the purpose of covering life safety. Command must develop a realistic (________________) rescue size-up as early as possible. and optimistic and coordinated and educated and pessimistic
and pessimistic
9. Off airport ARFF response from Sky Harbor has a ______mile radius. a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10
b) 3
8) According to Volume II, 204.09, for the purpose of emergency response, an excavation shall be defined by any depression, hole, trench or earth wall, man-made or natural of (Blank) feet or greater. a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 5
b) 4
8. According to Volume II Trench Rescue Operations, apparatus shall remain at least ______feet from the location of the trench failure. a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) 150
b) 50
5. How quickly can fire burn through a fuselage? a) 30 seconds b) 60 seconds c) 90 seconds d) 5 minutes
b) 60 seconds
8. When should overhaul be started on an aircraft crash? a) As soon as possible b) After investigative agencies are finished c) Never, the NTSB is responsible for overhaul d) Only after all souls are accounted for
b) After investigative agencies are finished
1. What is one of the answers that defines a confined space according to OSHA Regulations Standard 29 CFR 1910.146 per Volume II Confined Space Rescue M.P. 204.08? a) A depression b) An area with limited entry and egress c) A residential house d) All of the above
b) An area with limited entry and egress
3. What should the first arriving unit to an aircraft accident do? a) Shut down the runway b) Assume command c) Contact the air traffic control tower d) Notify NTSB
b) Assume command
4. What type of foam should be utilized for an aircraft accident? a) Class A b) Class B c) Either Class A or B d) Water should be used until Dry Chem is available
b) Class B
3) Hazardous material incidents have two initial zones associated with the scene, which are? a) Hot zone and cold zone b) Limited access zone and evacuation zone. c) Private and public zone d) Research and decon
b) Limited access zone and evacuation zone.
2) An incident with 25-100 patients is known as? a) Multi-patient incident b) Mass casualty incident c) Disaster d) Catastrophe
b) Mass casualty incident
10) Who should rescue efforts be extended to first? a) The largest numbers b) Most severely threatened c) The young and old
b) Most severely threatened
1) What is something worked toward or striven for: a goal? According to M.P. 202.02A a) Priority b) Objective c) Reason d) Strategy
b) Objective
10) Which of the following types of mercury is the least common? a) Elemental mercury b) Organic mercury c) Inorganic mercury d) Acute mercury
b) Organic mercury
7) Extrication and triage sectors a) Should be combined when possible b) Should be assigned separately c) Are redundant and there is only a need for one d) Compete for resources
b) Should be assigned separately
The extrication sector of a violent incident is responsible for all of the following except? a) Locating patients b) Treating patients c) Removing patients d) Transporting patients
b) Treating patients
5) Which medical sector in responsible for determining whether patient treatment will occur "in place" or in a designated treatment area? a) Triage b) Treatment c) Extrication d) Command
b) Treatment
When can non-departmental personnel be utilized on a hazmat incident? a) Non departmental personnel should never be used b) When such personnel are outfitted with breathing apparatus, chemical suits, etc. c) Only after being "cleared" by command d) Only during a "protect in place" situation
b) When such personnel are outfitted with breathing apparatus, chemical suits, etc.
6. During the victim removal of a confined space rescue, rescuers should not allow the victim between _______________and the _________________. a) the tag-line, ventilation opening b) rescuer, the point of egress c) ingress, hazards d) rescuer, shoring
b) rescuer, the point of egress
Once the alarm room is informed of the violent incident address or location they will request a premise alert for a minimum of what radius? a) 100 yrds b) ¼ mile c) ½ mile d) 1 mile
b) ¼ mile
. The intermediate evacuation level involves large numbers of citizens and/or affects a large area. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than ____________persons. (204.01A pg1) a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 300
b. 100
2. Per Volume II section 203.01, a "disaster" is defined as any incident involving more than _____ patients. a. 25 b. 100 c. 75 d. 50
b. 100
D.O.T. placards are required on vehicles carrying quantities of ___________ pounds or more (204.01C). a. 500 b. 1000 c. 1500 d. 2000
b. 1000
According to 207.01A: the hot zone is defined as an area where survey instruments produce readings of? a. 2.5 MR/hr b. 2 MR/hr c. 1MR/hr d. .5MR/hr
b. 2 MR/hr
5. When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend __________ above the roof line (202.05). a. 2-3 rungs b. 2-3 feet c. 4-5 rungs d. 4-5 feet
b. 2-3 feet
6. According to Volume II section 204.03, during a radiological event, hazard zone tape shall be stretched to define an area where readings of ________ are detectable. a. 4MR/hr b. 2MR/hr c. 200 PPM d. 600 PPM
b. 2MR/hr
3. According to Volume II section 204.01A, how many levels of evacuation are there? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
b. 3
7. One salvage cover provides ample working room for up to _________________ patients. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
b. 3
3. Volume II section 203.01 states that triage tags should be used anytime there are ______ or more immediate patients or more than _______ patients' total. a. 4; 10 b. 3, 10 c. 2; 8 d. 5; 15
b. 3, 10
5. According to 204.10 - High Angle Rope Rescue: a big wheel stokes operation must have ______ rescuers attending to the basket. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
b. 4
. Volume II 204.10 states that technical evacuations are considered from angles ____ to ______ a. 20 degrees: 80 degrees b. 40 degrees: 90 degrees c. 30 degrees: 90 degrees d. 10 degrees: 45 degrees
b. 40 degrees: 90 degrees
3. Vol. II 204.08 Confined space rescue ventilation equipment should have a CFM of __________. a. 5500-6000 b. 4000-5000 c. 2500-3500 d. 500-1000
b. 4000-5000
According to Volume II 204.08, during a confined space incident, hazard sector shall give Command atmosphere readings at least every _______ minutes. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15
b. 5
According to Volume 2, Hazardous Materials WMD M.P. 207.01A, For chemical agents, areas and equipment that cannot be accommodated in the technical equipment decon corridor will be cleaned with__________________ a. 10% Bleach Solution b. 5% Bleach Solution c. 10% Ammonia Solution d. Soap and Water
b. 5% Bleach Solution
10. Vol. II 204.09 When arriving at a trench rescue incident, the first arriving company officer shall assume command and ensure the apparatus remains at least _____________ from the location of the trench failure. Level 1 staging should take place at least ___________ from the trench failure. a. 25', 50' b. 50', 150' c. 150',250' d. 200',300'
b. 50', 150'
Volume II 204.08 states that if personnel choose to use an SCBA to enter a confined space, they shall enter no farther than one half the amount of supplied air minus _____. a. 200 lbs b. 500 lbs c. 600 lbs d. 1000 lbs
b. 500 lbs
8. Volume II section 204.04 states that the principle agent for flammable liquid fire fighting is __________? a. Class A foam b. AFFF/Class B foam c. Wet water d. Dry chem
b. AFFF/Class B foam
8. According to Volume II section 203.04, the treatment sector must cause ________________ and packaging of patients with an emphasis on ______________ a. Stabilization; immediates b. Aggressive treatment; rapid transport c. Advanced measures; stabilization d. Fast treatment; stabilization
b. Aggressive treatment; rapid transport
8. Samples of suspected biological agents will be transferred to which agency for study and identification? (207.01A pg7) a. Department of Public Safety b. Arizona Department of Health Services c. Department of Homeland Security d. Centers for Disease Control
b. Arizona Department of Health Services
Which Fireground Factor includes the access, arrangement, and distance of external exposures? (202.02 pg3) a. Occupancy b. Arrangement c. Fire d. Building
b. Arrangement
How should household hazardous waste intake be treated? a. As citizen services b. As an incident c. As an duty to the city d. As a training opportunity
b. As an incident
4. According to 203.03: If patients are spread over a large area, Extrication should ________________? a. Assign a member to each area or group of patients b. Assign companies to specific areas or groups of patients c. Work systematically with one specific area or group of patients at a time d. Identify an assembly area
b. Assign companies to specific areas or groups of patients
2. Per Volume 2 section 202.02, the 3 basic information factors of fire ground intelligence utilized by Command to develop an overlapping variety of information management factors and forms include of the following except? a. Visual factors b. Audible Factors c. Reconnaissance factors d. Pre-planning and familiarity factors
b. Audible Factors
Military Designation for cyanogen chloride is? a. CC b. CK c. AC d. CH
b. CK
According to 207.01C: The military designation for chlorine is: a. CH b. CL c. CR d. CN
b. CL
Those exposed to _____________ agents may be off gassing. a. Powder b. Chemical c. Nuclear d. Biological
b. Chemical
4. The treatment area for __________ patients can be clearly identified by using a YELLOW salvage cover. (203.01 pg3) a. IMMEDIATE b. DELAYED c. DEAD/DYING d. MINOR
b. DELAYED
7. Burning natural gas should not normally be : a. Approached b. Extinguished c. Left to burn d. A and b
b. Extinguished
6. True or False. In general patients should be moved to the treatment area prior to being tagged and triaged. a. True b. False
b. False
True or false- You may accept only small quantities from commercial businesses. a. True b. False
b. False
Fireground information management revolves around these basic information factors except: (202.02 pg1) a. Visual Factors b. Fireground Factors c. Reconnaissance Factors d. Preplanning and Familiarity Factors
b. Fireground Factors
If there is an incident indoors, what must be turned off to minimize contamination spread? a. Utilities b. HVAC c. Fans d. None of the above
b. HVAC
Dead animals and birds at the scene should be incorporated to what? a. Warm b. Hot c. Cold d. Fire
b. Hot
2. Per Volume II section 204.01, during a hazardous situation, the objective of a size-up is to identify the nature and severity of the ____________ and to gather sufficient information to formulate a(n) _________________. a. Situation: IAP b. Immediate problem: valid action plan c. Evacuation area: tactical objective d. Hazard zone: command strategy
b. Immediate problem: valid action plan
. A hazardous materials incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. There are the _______________ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE. (204.01 pg4) a. CONTROL b. LIMITED ACCESS c. HOT d. HAZARD
b. LIMITED ACCESS
Which type of Company has overhaul as a basic company function? (202.01 pg1) a. Engine b. Ladder c. Rescue b. Battalion
b. Ladder
Vol. II 207.01A In the event a very large number of victims are affected, triage may be indicated initially by ...... a. Flinging a triage tag in the general direction of the victim b. Marking the priority on the patient's forehead with a felt pen c. Taking an article of clothing from the pt. d. Placing flares by groups of dead/dying
b. Marking the priority on the patient's forehead with a felt pen
5. What number of patients is considered a "larger incident" according to Vol 2 Medical Operations Triage Sector? a. More than 5 patients b. More than 10 patients c. More patients than number of responding crews d. 50 or more
b. More than 10 patients
7. Vol. II 204.08 If entry personnel use an SCBA, they shall enter no farther than ________________. a. 200' b. One half the amount of supplied air minus 500lbs. c. The length of their tether d. The gated wye
b. One half the amount of supplied air minus 500lbs.
8. According to 204.05: When is it required to have two firefighters on a 1 ¾ hose line for stand by protection? a. Immediately after your on scene report b. Only if the gas company is going to excavate c. A full crew of four is required to turnout with SCBA d. Anytime personnel are in an ignitable atmosphere
b. Only if the gas company is going to excavate
7. According to Volume 2 section 202.05, ______________ of operating companies can severely affect the safety/survival of such companies. a. Tactics b. Positioning c. Strategies d. Competence
b. Positioning
8. Where should the Transportation Branch be located? a. This Director is mobile not needing a physical location b. Preferably at or close to the Command Post c. Must be at one of the established Transportation sectors d. Position is held by Alarm/Dispatch; location is in the alarm room
b. Preferably at or close to the Command Post
9. During Pre-Rescue Operations of a structural collapse (204.12), initial on-scene companies should be directed in _______________. a. Positioning apparatus b. Rescuing victims on the surface of the collapse c. Re-routing traffic around collapse zone d. Establishing a triage team
b. Rescuing victims on the surface of the collapse
10. According to Volume II section 203.06A, a MSO would be assigned to work under what sector? a. Treatment b. Safety c. Transportation
b. Safety
What kind of devices in a wmd/terrorist attack are designed to injure additional victims or first responders? a. Trigger points b. Secondary devices c. Incendiary devices d. A or C
b. Secondary devices
Vol. II 207.01A The Commander of a WMD incident with victims should establish communication quickly by _____________. a. Establishing a ISO b. Selecting a fire member/officer as a point of communication c. Using the order model d. Talking to victims by bull horn
b. Selecting a fire member/officer as a point of communication
. Experience has reflected three levels of HAZ MAT evacuation that include: ____________ Evacuation, Intermediate Level Evacuation, and Large Scale Evacuation. (204.01A pg1) a. Rapid b. Site c. Small Scale d. Primary
b. Site
Fire personnel requesting assistance shall provide information on the type of material, packaging, amount, physical state of the material (solid, liquid or gas) and what else? a. The name of person that left the material b. The condition of the container c. The odor d. The taste
b. The condition of the container
According to M.P.207.01A how many Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (MARK I) will each member carry for entering the hot zone of a chemical agents incident? a. One b. Three c. Five d. Seven
b. Three
According to M.P.207.01A secondary devices are designed ___? a. In case primary device doesn't exploded b. To harm first responders c. To record events as they unfold d. To harm people as they flee from primary device
b. To harm first responders
9. Of all the medical operations sectors, which one requires the heaviest commitment of personnel? a. Triage b. Treatment c. Transportation d. Medical supply
b. Treatment
3. Volume 2 section 202.02A states that within the Command framework lies an on-going responsibility that is not completed with benchmarks. This is often referred to as? a. Tactical objectives b. Umbrella of service c. Tactical Priorities d. CAN reports
b. Umbrella of service
3. The Triage Sector officer normally performs all of the following operations EXCEPT: (203.02) a. Determine the location, number and condition of patients b. Victim disentanglement and removal to treatment area c. Determine resources d. Ensure safety and accountability of all assigned personnel
b. Victim disentanglement and removal to treatment area
4. At a WMD incident, A LOBBY SECTOR will be established at the entry to the_________? (207.01A pg2) a. Cold Zone b. Warm Zone c. Hot Zone d. Contamination Zone
b. Warm Zone
7. When evaluating underground gas leaks with probes, what is NOT a factor you need to record (204.05)? a. Location b. Wind c. Time d. Concentration
b. Wind
3. Which WMD agents are considered non-volatile and controllable? (207.01A pg2) a. chemical b. biological c. radiological d. none of them
b. biological
According to 207.01C: Mustard is a "____________ agent" that causes cell damage and destruction. a. nerve b. blister c. explosive d. oxidizing
b. blister
If victims are present the Incident Commander should establish communication quickly to control their anxiety and behavior. Select a ____________________________as a point of communication to establish rapport and credibility. If possible all direct communications to victims should be conducted/coordinated through this person. a. senior firefighter b. fire member/officer (preferably paramedic) c. safety officer d. PIO
b. fire member/officer (preferably paramedic)
3. For Trench Rescue Operations (204.09), the definition of an excavation is any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall ____ feet deep. a. 2 - 4 b. greater than 4 c. 1 - 3 d. There is no definition per Volume II
b. greater than 4
10. What concept emphasizes the importance of craftsmanship, pride in profession, and compassion for those we service in this time of need? (202.02A pg2) a. customer service b. loss control c. diversity d. property conservation
b. loss control
10. For a multi-patient medical response, Rescues should be sent to the loading area ____________ (203.01 pg8) a. as they arrive b. no more than two at a time c. one at a time d. only when requested by treatment
b. no more than two at a time
3. Once the incident address or location is obtained and confirmed, Command or the TLO/C958 will determine a safe and secure staging location for fire resources. The Alarm Room will be informed of the incident address or location and request a premises alert for a minimum of ___________________________. a. 500 ft. radius b. one‐quarter (1/4) mile radius c. one half mile radius d. one mile radius
b. one‐quarter (1/4) mile radius
2. The first‐in company/unit should either stage in quarters or __________________until the scene is confirmed safe. All other units responding will follow established staging procedures. a. one half mile away b. out of sight c. one mile away d. at a safe distance
b. out of sight
A declaration by Command to Dispatch of "All IMMEDIATES Transported" is an EMS a. Confirmation of incident termination b. tactical benchmark c. requirement d. none of the above
b. tactical benchmark
A WMD/terrorist incident is a CRIME SCENE. Once fire/hazmat work is complete, scene passes to ___________________________. a. the DPS b. the FBI c. the local police jurisdiction d. the senior police officer on scene
b. the FBI
6) Any time how many people are evacuated must the On Duty Deputy advice the City Manager? a) 1 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20
c) 10
7) According to Volume II, 204.08, Command should recognize that any readings below (blank)%, the LEL reading will not be accurate. a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 19
c) 12
9. According to Volume II Trench Rescue, Level 1 Staging should take place at least ________ feet from the trench failure. a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
c) 150
1) The EMS responsibilities procedure is to be implemented by first arriving officer on any EMS incident requiring a ________ or greater? a) First alarm b) 3 and 1 c) 2-1 medical d) 1 engine company
c) 2-1 medical
10) According to Volume II, 204.10, During a high angle/rope rescue, Technical evacuations are considered those form (BLANK) degrees? a) 50 to 100 b) 60 to 90 c) 40 to 90 d) 30 to 90
c) 40 to 90
9) Technical rescues have angles between? a) 180-360 degrees b) 45-90 degrees c) 40-90 degrees d) 25-90 degrees
c) 40-90 degrees
7) The first arriving company should stage at least how many feet away from trench failure? a) 150 feet b) 200 feet c) 50 feet d) 100 feet
c) 50 feet
2) If particular resources are unavailable to control hazardous material emergency it may be necessary to? a) Do something anyway. b) Apply large amounts of water. c) Adapt a "holding patter". d) give up
c) Adapt a "holding patter".
10) All of the following can be considered for the technical advisor role except? a) A special operations qualified BC and or FIT b) One of the regional special operations qualified safety officers c) An RP that is familiar with the process d) Any experienced TRT company officer assigned to the incident
c) An RP that is familiar with the process
2) Which of the following is not a definition of a confined space? a) A space large enough for personnel to physically enter. b) A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy c) An area where light and air are limited d) An area with limited entry and egress
c) An area where light and air are limited
9) Triage should be completed using what system? a) American multi-patient system b) FEMA triage system c) Arizona triage system d) Phoenix FD triage system
c) Arizona triage system
3) In confined space rescues what takes place during the secondary assessment? a) Assess the immediate and potential hazards to the rescuers b) Assess on-scene capabilities and determine the need for additional resources c) Assess the structural stability of the confined space d) Assess the experience of the rescue sector advisor
c) Assess the structural stability of the confined space
2) Rescuing and protecting human life is our highest priority, and _____ life safety highest on the list. a) Children's b) Elderly c) Firefighter's d) The public
c) Firefighter's
1) Which agency regulates entry into confined spaces? a) NFFA b) IAFF c) OSHA d) Local Fire Department
c) OSHA
1. The purpose of the aircraft emergency SOP is to outline responsibilities for: a) On-airport Fire personnel b) Off-airport Fire personnel c) On-airport and off-airport Fire personnel d) Non ARFF personnel
c) On-airport and off-airport Fire personnel
When should a rescue be attempted at a hazmat situation? a) Anytime there is somebody at risk. b) Not until the material in question is identified. c) Only after a risk/benefit analysis is completed. d) As soon as decon is set up.
c) Only after a risk/benefit analysis is completed.
3. According to Volume II M.P. 204.08 Confined Space Rescue, the first arriving TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT company officer should be assigned__________________. a) Staging Sector b) Hazard Sector c) Rescue Sector d) Safety Sector
c) Rescue Sector
Personnel working in a suspected ignitable atmosphere (i.e., attempting to shut off a gas line): a) Should don PPE once source is located b) Shall be breathing air from SCBA c) Shall be breathing air from SCBA and shall be covered by a manned protective hoseline d) Gas lines should only be shut off by Gas company personnel
c) Shall be breathing air from SCBA and shall be covered by a manned protective hoseline
8) Transporting level 1 patients that are contaminated. a) Should be done via helicopter whenever possible b) Should be decontaminated before transporting. c) Should not be delayed for complete decontamination. d) Will never be done.
c) Should not be delayed for complete decontamination.
5) Which of the following is not one of the levels of evacuation? a) Site evacuation b) Intermediate level evacuation c) Small scale evacuation d) Large scale evacuation
c) Small scale evacuation
6. Fatalities in survivable aircraft crashes are usually due to? a) Flame b) Heat c) Smoke d) Trauma
c) Smoke
How should a burning natural gas situation be mitigated? a) Extinguish with water b) Extinguish with foam c) Stop the flow d) Evacuate and deny entry until gas company arrives
c) Stop the flow
The action plan for a Hazmat incident includes all of the following except: a) Safety of all fire personnel b) Evacuation of endangered area, if necessary c) Take command of the incident d) Stabilization of hazardous materials
c) Take command of the incident
If a scene becomes violent fire personnel are empowered to do all of the following except a) Take appropriate actions to mitigate harm to crew and patient b) Neutralize the threat if necessary c) Take no offensive action d) Seek safety
c) Take no offensive action
5) When can rescuers allow victims to get between the rescuer and the point of egress? a) Never b) When the victim's condition is declining rapidly c) When it is necessary for one rescuer to pull the victim while another rescuer pushes the victim. d) Only when the rescuer has more than 90% of the air in their bottle remaining
c) When it is necessary for one rescuer to pull the victim while another rescuer pushes the victim.
4) What colored salvage cover should delayed patients be sent to? a) Red b) Blue c) Yellow d) Green
c) Yellow
If transporting a suspect under arrest, he/she can be secured in all of the following ways except: a) utilizing two sets of restraints to secure each wrist to the gurney b) restraining the wrists behind the back c) restraining the wrists in front d) A and B
c) restraining the wrists in front
4. Vol. II 204.08 When making the confined space rescue area safe, atmospheric testing should be calibrated to ____ of the LEL of the calibrant gas. a. 15% b. 25% c. 10% d. 12%
c. 10%
2. Intermediate level evacuation affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than _________ persons (204.01A). a. 75 b. 20 c. 100 d. 50
c. 100
. According to Volume II 204.10, during a rope rescue, what safety factor shall be maintained along with a double rope technique if possible? a. 5:1 b. 10:1 c. 15:1 d. 20:1
c. 15:1
If fire is present and radiological agent is suspected, evacuate to __________ ft. a. 1,000 b. 10,000 c. 2,000 d. 100
c. 2,000
8. Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain in rehab for a minimum of _____________). a. 30 minutes b. 45 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
According to M.P.207.01A how far do you evacuate if fire is present in a suspected radiological agent incident? a. 1000 ft b. 3000 ft c. 2000 ft d. 2500 ft
c. 2000 ft
9. According to 203.06, a Medical Supply Sector shall be established during all ____ -Alarm Medical (or greater) major medical incidents using a minimum of one fire company. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. 3
How many shelters will initially be setup on a wmd incident? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. 3
The HOT ZONE is the area immediately around the site/munition/device/source. Enforce a single entry control point. All personnel entering this area must wear full protective gear. The entry control point should be a minimum of___________________________. This applies whether suspected agent is chemical, biological or radiological a. 1000 feet from the source b. 500 feet from the source c. 300 feet from the source d. 200 feet from the source
c. 300 feet from the source
9. Per Volume II section 203.06 , a medical supply sector will be established at any _________ or greater incident. a. 1st alarm b. 2nd alarm c. 3rd alarm d. 3&1 medical
c. 3rd alarm
What is the minimum staffing for each decontamination shelter? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
c. 5
For chemical agents, areas and equipment that cannot be accommodated in the technical equipment decon corridor will be cleaned with a ____ bleach solution. A minimum solution contact time of __________ will be observed, then area or equipment will be thoroughly rinsed and remonitored for contamination. The process will continue until monitoring indicates no contamination is present. a. 2% - 20 minutes b. 10% - 5 minutes c. 5% - 15 minutes d. 1% - 10 minutes
c. 5% - 15 minutes
5. According to Volume II section 203.02, triage should be completed using the ______________ a. Emergency Management System b. NFPA 450 c. Arizona Triage System d. NFPA 1440
c. Arizona Triage System
According to M.P.207.01C Mustard is a? a. Nerve agent b. Radioactive agent c. Blister agent d. Chemical agent
c. Blister agent
According to M.P.207.01C the military designation for Chlorine is? a. CL1 b. CL 0.1 c. CL d. CH
c. CL
Victims that are exposed to this agent may be off-gassing. a. Radiological b. Biological c. Chemical d. Nuclear
c. Chemical
4. CAFS is designed to operate using _____________ foam (202.04A). a. Class B b. AFFF c. Class A d. All of the above
c. Class A
7. When all IMMEDIATE patients have been transported from the scene, Transportation should notify a. Triage b. Treatment c. Command d. Alarm
c. Command
Examples of materials which could present safety hazards are found where? a. Phoenix list of unsafe materials b. Niosh book c. D.O.T emergency response guide d. Emergency medical technician book 10 edition
c. D.O.T emergency response guide
4. Who approves personnel, equipment and apparatus to leave the Hot Zone (204.01B)? a. Command sector officer b. Safety sector officer c. Decontamination sector officer d. Any HazMat Tech on scene
c. Decontamination sector officer
6. Take the following items for an evacuation except a. Wallet/purse b. House & car keys c. Deed to the house d. Eye glasses e. Medications
c. Deed to the house
7. Which is NOT something Transportation sector should do in concert with Command? a. Determine location for ambulance staging b. Establish a landing zone a safe distance from the scene c. Determine which order patients are extricated d. Assign at least one engine company to the LZ
c. Determine which order patients are extricated
A WMD/terrorist incident is a CRIME SCENE. Once fire/hazmat work is complete, scene passes to ____. a. PD b. Command c. FBI d. Bomb Squad
c. FBI
When the Fire/hazmat call is complete the incident is handed over to? (pertaining to a WMD call). a. DMV b. CIA c. FBI d. All of the above
c. FBI
1. According to 203.01- EMS Responsibilities: For the purposes of this procedure, a "multi-patient incident" is defined as any incident with _________________ patients. a. 5 b. 10 c. Fewer than 25 d. More than 25
c. Fewer than 25
Who should be immediately contacted when household hazardous waste is accepted a. Battalion Chief b. The alarm room c. Fire Prevention Specialist d. CR288
c. Fire Prevention Specialist
9. According to 204.07: Indications of a clandestine drug lab in a fire scenario include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Unusually bright or dark orange flames b. An unusual color of smoke or odor c. Fire may spread slower and with less intensity d. Flames may be of several different colors
c. Fire may spread slower and with less intensity
9. Salvage includes activities required to stop direct and indirect fire damage in addition to those required to minimize the effects of firefighting operations. This includes losses from water, smoke and ____________________ (202.12A). a. Fire b. Collapse c. Firefighting efforts d. The responsible party
c. Firefighting efforts
Which is not a basic Engine Company Function? (202.01 pg1) a. Search, rescue, and treatment b. Stretch hoselines c. Forcible entry d. Pump hoselines
c. Forcible entry
In known or suspected explosions when purposeful or terrorist activity cannot be ruled out (i.e., natural gas explosion) initial actions should be to secure what? a. Landing zone b. Warm zone c. Hot zone d. A and B
c. Hot zone
According to Volume 2 M.P. 207.01C WMD/CBR/NBC agent descriptions and treatment protocols, Military Designation of AC is known as? a. Acting Captain b. Anhydrous Chlorine c. Hydrocyanic Acid d. Air Conditioning
c. Hydrocyanic Acid
2. When is a Class III harness used instead of a Class II harness (204.08)? a. If a liquid toxin is present b. If the total weight of patient plus rescuer exceeds 400 lbs. 2. When is a Class III harness used instead of a Class II harness (204.08)? a. If a liquid toxin is present b. If the total weight of patient plus rescuer exceeds 400 lbs. c. If inversion of the rescuer is possible d. If you are unable to see the rescuer or patient d. If you are unable to see the rescuer or patient
c. If inversion of the rescuer is possible
8. During scene size-up of a structural collapse (204.12), Command should consider all of the following EXCEPT_________________. a. Institute level 1 and 2 staging immediately b. Additional resources needed c. Initiate rescue functions d. Perform a hazard assessment
c. Initiate rescue functions
6. Volume 2 section 202.04A states that foam ____________ materials by keeping them wet and cool longer, making them less likely to ignite or rekindle. a. Absorbs b. Impregnates c. Insulates d. Swells
c. Insulates
10. Per Volume II section 204.07, who is ultimately responsible for the proper disposal of hazardous materials from a clandestine laboratory? a. Incident Commander b. Hazardous Materials Specialty Chief c. Law enforcement agency that is making seizure d. Department of Environmental Quality
c. Law enforcement agency that is making seizure
Which of the following is NOT a nerve agent? a. Tabun b. Sarin c. Methylene Dilsocyanate MDI d. Soman
c. Methylene Dilsocyanate MDI
Vol. II 207.01A Radiation exposure alone is..... a. Only treated by the National Disaster Medical System b. Treatable by Mark 1 kits c. Not a Medical Emergency d. A 3 Alarm assignment
c. Not a Medical Emergency
1. Because all WMD terrorism incidents are crime scenes, which sector needs early establishment? (207.01A pg1) a. Decontamination b. Evidence Preservation c. Police d. Information Gathering
c. Police
According to M.P.207.01A all WMD terrorism incidents are crime scenes and require what sector to be established early? a. Safety sector b. Evidence sector c. Police sector d. Rehab sector
c. Police sector
Which of the following is not one of the two groups to sort ambulatory victims into? a. People with special needs b. Gender c. Race
c. Race
10. According to 204.13 - Tree Rescue Operations: To make the immediate rescue area of a tree rescue safe, what distance is required? a. 50 feet from patient b. 100 feet from tree c. Radius of 50 feet around tree d. Twice the height of the tree
c. Radius of 50 feet around tree
What should you do if a citizen wants to drop of their used motor oil? a. Gladly accept it b. Them to go away c. Refer them to the nearest motor oil recycler location
c. Refer them to the nearest motor oil recycler location
All personnel should be aware of what throughout the entire incident? a. Ebola b. Hep c c. Secondary devices d. Sharp objects
c. Secondary devices
1. According to Volume 2 section 202.02, _____________ is a conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors and the development of a strategy and __________ plan of attack based on those decisions. a. Command; aggressive b. Safety; rapid c. Size-up; rational d. Operational; quick
c. Size-up; rational
According to M.P.207.01C which of the following is not a nerve agent? a. Tabun b. Sarin c. Sulfur d. Soman
c. Sulfur
8.The following items should be considered when addressing salvage except a. Type, value and location of contents b. The extent and location of the fire c. The cost of equipment d. Estimate of required resource
c. The cost of equipment
10. All of the following items should be considered when addressing salvage EXCEPT: (202.12A) a. Type, value and location of contents b. The extent and location of the fire c. Time required to perform salvage safely d. Recognition of existing and potential damage sources e. Estimate of required resource
c. Time required to perform salvage safely
What is the purpose of the Toxic exposure investigation program? a. To identify unknown chemicals b. To confirm known chemicals c. To document all known or suspected toxic exposures d. To document all unknown toxic exposures
c. To document all known or suspected toxic exposures
1. According to Volume II section 204.01, during a hazardous event, the first arriving officer will evaluate the effects of wind, _________ and location. a. Elevation b. Temperature c. Topography d. Humidity
c. Topography
Minimum PPE for decontamination of victims is what level? a. Level A b. Level B c. Turnouts d. Station Uniform
c. Turnouts
What is the minimum PPE for decontaminating victims? a. Level A b. Level B c. Turnouts and SCBA d. All of the above
c. Turnouts and SCBA
7. For Radiological threats, what is the minimum PPE? (207.01A pg6) a. Level A suit and SCBA b. Level B suit and SCBA c. Turnouts, butyl rubber gloves and SCBA d. Hardhat, Tyvek coveralls, butyl rubber gloves and PAPR
c. Turnouts, butyl rubber gloves and SCBA
9. The on-going considerations of fire fighter safety, customer service, and loss control make up the ________________. (202.02A pg1) a. Tactical objectives b. Fireground Factors c. Umbrella of Service d. Responsibilities of Command
c. Umbrella of Service
. If residents refuse to evacuate the hazardous area, document their ___________ and report it to the evacuation officer. (204.01A pg6) a. reason for not evacuating b. number of people at home c. address d. next of kin information
c. address
5. If patients must be moved from danger before they are triaged, where will triage occur? (203.01 pg3) a. at the command post b. while moving to the refuge area c. at the treatment area entrance d. close to where they were found
c. at the treatment area entrance
Per Volume II 207.01A, medical management includes documentation, triage, treatment, ____________ and transportation a. decontamination b. radiological screening c. behavioral health d. rapid extrication
c. behavioral health
According to Volume II 207.01A, in known or suspected explosions when purposeful or terrorist activity cannot be ruled out, initial actions should be to secure a hot zone perimeter and _____________ a. stage b. assist PD with evacuation c. call for the EOD d. set up defensive lines
c. call for the EOD
Per Volume II 207.01C, which agent is classified as an amber liquid or greenish-yellow gas with a very characteristic irritability, pungent odor? a. hydrogen cyanide b. mustard gas c. chlorine d. methylene isocyanate
c. chlorine
9. Medical incident resource commitment typically ___________________ (203.01 pg6) a. decreases as the incident progresses. b. moves opposite patient flow. c. follows patients. d. overwhelms the IC
c. follows patients.
According to Volume 2, Weapons of Mass Destruction M.P. 207.01B, incidents involving WMD/NBC, how many shelters will initially be constructed for grouped victims? a. one b. two c. three d. five
c. three
Per Volume II 204.09, cave-ins and collapses generally occur because of __________ combined with improper or inadequate shoring. a. complacency b. uneven walls c. unstable soil conditions d. egregious violations
c. unstable soil conditions
10. During technical decontamination, when will people have their personal belongings returned? (207.01B pg1) a. immediately after the items are decontaminated b. immediately after the items have been cataloged. c. upon exiting the decontamination line. d. during the re-dressing phase
c. upon exiting the decontamination line.
. Per Volume II 204.11, during a water rescue, Command should assign a(n) ___________ to spot floating debris and notify Command or extrication sector. a. recon sector b. safety sector c. upstream sector d. rescue sector
c. upstream sector
4. A mass casualty is considered _____________to 100 patients a.1 b.10 c.25
c.25
4. According to Volume II Confined Space Rescue M.P. 204.08, if encountering a space that has one or more hazards of Atmosphere, Engulfment, Configuration or any other recognized hazards, prior to entering, what needs to be obtained? a) Blueprints b) Order from the IC c) SCBA d) A confined space permit
d) A confined space permit
Operations within a police inner perimeter during an active violent incident event may be carefully considered only when: a) There is a unified command system in place b) There is a clear and precise plan communicated between all involved personnel c) There are extenuating circumstances d) All of the above
d) All of the above
EMS tactical objectives to be completed during any multi‐patient/mass casualty incident include: a) Completion of a "Triage Report" b) Declaration of "All immediates transported" c) None of the above d) Both A and B
d) Both A and B
3) When should triage tags be used? a) Any time there are 3 more immediate patient b) Any time there are ten or more patients c) Always d) Both a an b
d) Both a an b
9) Command should abandon marginal attacks when? a) A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal b) Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing c) When crews are beginning to fatigue d) Both a and b
d) Both a and b
7) Which is not one of the three ways to assure contaminated equipment or personnel don't leave hot zone? a) Confirm not contaminated using instruments. b) Decontaminate and release. c) Retain and package items for removal from the site and disposal at a different location. d) Don't allow anyone in hot zone.
d) Don't allow anyone in hot zone.
5) Offensive fire attack is centered around? a) Fire attack b) Rapid deployment of lines c) Salvage and overhaul d) Rescue
d) Rescue
Which of the following are not necessary to evaluate as a first arriving unit to a hazardous material incident? a) Wind b) Topography c) Location d) Taste of material in question
d) Taste of material in question
3) The strategic mode will be based on the following, except which one? a) The building b) The fire load c) The rescue profile d) The exposures
d) The exposures
In relation to violent incidents, The first‐in company/unit should stage___________. a) in quarters b) out of sight c) until the scene is confirmed safe d) any of the above
d) any of the above
6. Vent/heat holes should be at least ___________ of the roof surface (202.06). a. 4' x 4' b. 20% c. 8' x 8' d. 10%
d. 10%
4. Per Volume II section 204.01A, an intermediate level evacuation usually effects fewer than ______ persons. a. 50 b. 150 c. 200 d. 100
d. 100
. According to Volume II 204.09, during trench rescue operations, Command should dictate level 1 staging at least _______ from the scene. a. 350' b. 300' c. 200' d. 150'
d. 150'
4. At least _____ ladders should be placed _____ feet apart during a trench rescue (204.09)? a. 1, 35 b. 2, 30 c. 3, 50 d. 2, 50
d. 2, 50
2. If fire is present and radiological agent suspected, what is the evacuation distance? (207.01A pg2) a. 100 ft b. 300 ft c. 1000 ft d. 2000 ft
d. 2000 ft
5. Vol. II 204.08 Confined space Rescue Sector shall provide a minimum __________ ratio of personnel outside the confined space to support personnel inside. a. 4:8 b. 2:10 c. 5:3 d. 2:1
d. 2:1
7. A minimum of of __________________ of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift. a. 32 ounces (1 quart) b. 96 ounces (3 quarts) c. 128 ounces (4 quarts) d. 64 ounces (2 quarts
d. 64 ounces (2 quarts
When dealing with contaminated patients after emergency decontamination you should sort ambulatory victims into? a. People with special needs b. Gender Groups c. By their height d. A and B
d. A and B
2. Who determines where triage will be performed. a. Treatment sector b. Triage sector c. Treatment sector d. A combination of Extrication sector and Triage sector
d. A combination of Extrication sector and Triage sector
8. Personnel should be aware of the indications of potential clandestine drug laboratories when responding to EMS, fire, check odor, or and other service request. Common indicators are: a. Unusual orders b. Heating elements, hot plates c. Marked and unmarked chemical containers of various sizes. d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Emergency decon serves what function(s) a. Marks victims for easy identification b. Remove particles/product from victims c. Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety d. All of the above
d. All of the above
3. A multi-patient incident's on-scene report will answer which question? (203.01 pg2) a. What do I have? b. What action will I take? c. What resources do I need? d. All of these
d. All of these
5. The treatment must be? a. In a readily accessible location b. Away from dangerous conditions associated with the incident c. Accessible for transportation loading d. All the above
d. All the above
9. For the purpose of emergency response, a confined space is defined as: a. A space large enough for personnel to physically enter. b. A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy. c. An area with limited entry and egress. d. All the above
d. All the above
Which functions serve as Emergency Decon? a. Marks victims for easy identification b. Removes product/particles from victims c. Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety d. All the above
d. All the above -
2. Triage should be completed using the? a. Red cross triage system b. American heart triage system c. Guns and roses triage system d. Arizona Triage System
d. Arizona Triage System
5. Per Volume 2 section 202.02B, companies must resist the urge to focus only on the fire. This is known as? a. Candle Moth Syndrome b. Tunnel vision c. Task oriented d. Both A and B
d. Both A and B
1. According to Volume II section 203.01, the EMS tactical objectives that are to be completed during any multi-patient/mass casualty incident include? a. Completion of a triage report b. Extrication complete c. Declaration of all immediates transported d. Both A and C
d. Both A and C
According to Volume 2, Hazardous Materials WMD M.P. 207.01A, M-8 and M-9 are referred to as what type of equipment? a. Dragger Tubes b. Serius Meters c. Chemical Detection Kit d. Chemical Detection Paper
d. Chemical Detection Paper
According to M.P.207.01A emergency decon serves three functions, which of the following is not one of them? a. Marks victims for easy identification b. Removes products/ particles from victims c. Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety d. Collects a sample for state lab identification
d. Collects a sample for state lab identification
8. Vol. II 204.08 During confined space rescue, if explosion proof lighting is not available, use of _________ type lights must be used by the entry team. a. Incandescent b. LED c. Handheld mag-light d. Cyalume
d. Cyalume
1. Which of the following is not one of the initial Triage Sector Responsibilities of the Triage Sector Officer? a. Determine the location of patients b. Determine the number of patients c. Determine the condition of patients d. Determine treatment location
d. Determine treatment location
. In-place sheltering can be considered over evacuation during the following circumstances except: (204.01A pg3) a. The material has been identified as having a low or moderate level health risk. b. The material has been released from its container and is now dissipating. c. Leaks can be controlled rapidly and before evacuation can be completed. d. Exposure to the product is expected to be long-term and of high health risk.
d. Exposure to the product is expected to be long-term and of high health risk
______________ should provide Command with a "checklist" of the basic items that are involved in size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision on the fireground. (202.02 pg1) a. Basic company functions b. Regional SOPs c. Gut feelings d. Fireground Factors
d. Fireground Factors
. Once the Hazardous Materials Sector has been established, ____________personnel will define and establish a hot, warm and cold zone. (204.01 pg6) a. Police b. Command c. FEMA d. HAZ MAT
d. HAZ MAT
Initial entry into the Hot Zone will be made by who? a. Ems personnel b. Confined space trained individuals c. First Chief on scene d. Hazmat technicians
d. Hazmat technicians
2. Command should abandon marginal attacks in all of the following situations EXCEPT (202.02B). a. A primary all clear is obtained and the situational is still marginal. b. The roof is safe or tenable. c. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire. d. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
d. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
2. According to 203.01 - EMS Responsibilities: The initial actions of the first arriving officer shall be directed toward scene size-up, requesting appropriate resources and initial organization of the scene. Initial actions include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Perform a rapid hazard assessment and establish a safe zone to operate b. Radio a Triage report to Dispatch c. Initiate patient assessment and treatment functions d. Identify a location for Level II Staging
d. Identify a location for Level II Staging
7. Per Volume II section 204.04, the main operational problems with flammable liquids are fire extinguishment, _______________ and disposal of spill. a. Runoff b. Vapor suppression c. Containment d. Ignition prevention
d. Ignition prevention
According to M.P.207.01C nerve agents have biological activity similar to what? a. Fire b. Mercury c. Pesticides d. Insecticides
d. Insecticides
10. At expanded incidents, the Medical Supply Sector may be assigned to the ____________ Section a. Operations b. Planning c. Treatment d. Logistics
d. Logistics
6. All of the following are Transportation sector responsibilities EXCEPT: a. Determine/request resources b. Determine rescue loading area and helicopter landing zone as needed c. Maintain accounting of all patients and patient destinations d. Maintain rehabilitation for assigned personnel
d. Maintain rehabilitation for assigned personnel
All of the following are examples of nerve agents EXCEPT (207.01C)? a. Sarin b. Tabun c. Soman d. Methyl prednisone
d. Methyl prednisone
7. Per Volume II section 203.03, to reduce confusion and congestion, triage will initially direct all ________ patients using the S.T.A.R.T. criteria to a specific area. a. Delayed b. Immediate c. Injured d. Minor
d. Minor
Under the Technical Decon Line Process/Structure (Personnel) of Volume 2, WMD, M.P. 207.01B, Station 4 is addressed as? a. Clothing Removal b. Shower c. Clothing Issue/Redress d. Monitoring
d. Monitoring
Which agent is described as a "blister agent" that causes cell damage and destruction? a. Methyl Isocyanate b. Hydrogen Cyanide c. Chlorine d. Mustard (Sulfur Mustard)
d. Mustard (Sulfur Mustard)
9. Volume 2 section 202.05B states that members shall achieve a ____________ facepiece-to-skin seal with the mask. a. Tight b. Flush c. Proper d. Non-leaking
d. Non-leaking
Which of the following is NOT an example of a WMD? a. Chemical b. Radiological c. Biological d. Nuclear
d. Nuclear
2. The tactical priorities, (Rescue, Fire Control, Property Conservation) are clear, measurable, and obtainable objectives. These objectives are considered complete when the benchmarks are declared. Within the Command framework lies an on-going responsibility that is not completed with benchmarks. This is often referred to as the umbrella of service. The umbrella of service is made up of three on-going considerations. They include all but: a. Fire fighter safety b. Customer service c. Loss Control d. Public Information
d. Public Information
1. Vol. II 204.08 During the primary assessment of a confined space rescue and early decision must be made as to whether the operation will be run in _____________________. a. Offensive strategy b. Defensive strategy c. Safety mode d. Rescue or recovery mode
d. Rescue or recovery mode
7. Some citizens may refuse to leave. A few methods of persuasion to leave include all except a. Be in uniform. b. Wear your helmet. c. Wear SCBA and facepiece (air hose may not need to be connected) when advising the citizen to leave. d. Tell them they will die
d. Tell them they will die
Who will collect all data and maintain records of all exposures? a. Company officers b. Battalion Chiefs c. Human resources d. The Health Center
d. The Health Center
3. What is the critical factor in the secondary search process (202.02C)? a. Time b. Accuracy c. Speed d. Thoroughness
d. Thoroughness
What is a component of every category of Fireground Factors? (202.02 pg2-4) a. Size b. Extent c. Location d. Time
d. Time
2. A hazardous materials ACTION PLAN MUST PROVIDE FOR except a. Safety of all fire personnel b. Evacuation of endangered area, if necessary c. Control of situation d. Treatment
d. Treatment
Three shelters will be assembled: Two Ambulatory and a Special Needs/Non Ambulatory decontamination shelter for victims requiring assistance, staffed by a male and female support group. Each decontamination shelter will be staffed with _____________________________ (for mass casualty incidents) processing victims through the various stations. a. 3 medics and two emt's b. 10 personnel c. a fire officer and crew d. a minimum of 5 personnel
d. a minimum of 5 personnel
3. Identify a hazardous area based on potential danger, taking into account.... (204.01 pg3) a. materials involved b. wind and weather conditions c. degree of risk to unprotected personnel d. all of these
d. all of these
3. Extrication Sector Responsibilities are? a. Determine the location; number and condition of all patients (coordinate with Triage b. Determine if triage will be performed in place or at the entrance to the treatment area c. Determine resources. d. all the above
d. all the above
The first arriving officer will establish Command and begin a size-up. Survey visible activity, signs and symptoms. Notice potential effects of wind, topography and location of the incident. Route other responding companies________________________. a. to the staging area b. upwind and upstream from the incident c. to an area one half mile from the scene d. away from visible hazards
d. away from visible hazards
9. In the event of a very large number of WMD victims, triage may be indicated initially by marking the priority on the patient's __________with the felt pen. (207.01A pg9) a. hand b. buttock c. shirt d. forehead
d. forehead
6.The objectives for Roof Sector operations include all except a. Determining a safe working surface. b. Complete adequate size ventilation hole(s) and achieve effective ventilation. c. Coordinate roof ventilation with interior crews. d. have a charged line
d. have a charged line
Hydrocyanic acid is ______________ than air and cyanogen chloride is ____________ than air (207.01C). a. heavier; lighter b. heavier; heavier c. lighter; lighter d. lighter; heavier
d. lighter; heavier
1. Violent Incidents can be unpredictable in their scope and nature therefore it is difficult to prepare for all aspects of a violent incident. It is imperative that responding companies employ____________________________________________. The overall incident objectives for violent incidents are firefighter safety, life safety and incident control. a. a defensive posture b. extreme safety measures c. all available resources d. the standard Risk Management System
d. the standard Risk Management System
7. The Treatment Sector officer should coordinate patient allocation with Transportation Sector and notify Command when _________________(203.01 pg5) a. triage is complete b. all patients have been extricated c. a treatment area has been established d. when all patients have been treated
d. when all patients have been treated
5. In-place sheltering can be considered during the following circumstances: a. The hazardous material has been identified as having a low or moderate level health risk. b. • The material has been released from its container and is now dissipating. c. • Leaks can be controlled rapidly and before evacuation can be completed. d. • All of the above
d. • All of the above
10. First arriving TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT Company Officer should be assigned Rescue Sector. The TRT Company Officer assigned as Rescue Sector and should remain with his crew. Rescue Sector responsibilities include: a. Assuming technical rescue operations control. b. Identifying hazards and critical factors. c. Developing a rescue plan and back-up plan. d. Communicating with and directing TRT resources assigned to Rescue Sector. e. All the above
e. All the above
10.BASIC OFFENSIVE PLAN includes a Take Command b Identify critical fireground factors c Establish IRIC d First line--fast, aggressive interior attack e. all the above
e. all the above
5. Companies must resist the urge to focus only on the fire (this is known as the "candle moth" syndrome or "tunnel vision"). In some cases, the most effective tactical analysis involves an evaluation of______________________ rather than what is actually on fire. b. smoke conditions c. building construction d. strategic priorities e. what is not burning
e. what is not burning
8. The decision to operate in a defensive strategy indicates that the offensive attack strategy, or the potential for one, has been abandoned for reasons of personnel safety, and the involved structure has been conceded as lost (the Incident Commander made a conscious decision to write the structure off). If defensive operations are conducted from the onset of the incident, Command will notify Alarm that there will not be a _________________________. Incident Action Plan. Safety Officer assigned. primary search completed for the affected structure(s). formalized command structure
primary search completed for the affected structure(s).
4. Within the framework of the Risk Management Plan, the structure must first be determined to be safe to enter. Once determined safe, an Offensive Fire Attack is centered around_________: a. loss control b. speed and aggression c. rescue d. Incident stabilization
rescue
8. The purpose of the Decontamination Procedure is to assure that any potentially harmful or dangerous residues, on persons, equipment or apparatus, are confined within_____________. Decontamination is intended to prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the already contaminated area, including the fire station, the hospital, and other environments. the Cold Zone the Warm Zone the decontamination tents the Hot Zone
the Hot Zone
19. The Treatment Sector officer will consult with ______________________ on the allocation of patients to various medical facilities. command the Triage Sector medical control the Transportation Sector
the Transportation Sector
18. The treatment area(s) should have a readily identifiable entrance using traffic cones, signs or other markers. Red and yellow salvage covers can also be used to identify the IMMEDIATE care and DELAYED care areas, for IMMEDIATE and DELAYED patients, respectively. One salvage cover provides ample working room for up to _____ patients. two four three five
three
5. Once long term sheltering is identified, the Red Cross will open and manage shelters. Early notification is required. The Red Cross will need _________________to get adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites. one hour up to three hours eight hours up to six hours
up to three hours
2. Site evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes the workers at the site, and persons from adjacent occupancies or areas. The citizens are easily evacuated and collected _____________at the perimeter area: in the cold zone according to START triage systematically upwind
upwind