Volume 4, Chapters 1-5: Pre-Test

Approximately what percent of the blood volume can be added to arterial circulation by constriction of the venous​ system? A. 20 percent B. 10 percent C. 50 percent D. 35 percent

A. 20 percent

At what point does a trauma victim begin losing his ability to compensate for blood​ loss, placing his survival at​ risk? A. 30 to 40 percent of volume B. 40 to 50 percent of volume C. 10 to 15 percent of volume D. Over 50 percent of volume

A. 30 to 40 percent of volume

In accordance with the rule of​ nines, how does the head of an infant compare with the head of an​ adult? A. An​ infant's head and neck account for twice the total body surface area of an​ adult's. B. The rule of nines​ doesn't apply to infants. C. An​ infant's head and neck account for half the total body surface area of an​ adult's. D. An​ infant's head and neck account for the same total body surface area as an​ adult's.

A. An​ infant's head and neck account for twice the total body surface area of an​ adult's.

What is the most appropriate method for placement of an endotracheal tube in a facial gunshot wound victim who has lost all​ landmarks? A. Attempt to visualize the larynx while another rescuer places pressure on the chest. B. Insert a King or Combitube airway. C. Perform​ rapid-sequence intubation. D. Insert two nasopharyngeal airways.

A. Attempt to visualize the larynx while another rescuer places pressure on the chest.

Which of the injury types is most likely to be complicated by​ entrapment? A. Crush injuries B. ATV collisions C. Blast injuries D. Falls

A. Crush injuries

Which tissue layer contains nerve​ endings, sebaceous​ glands, and sudoriferous​ glands? A. Dermis B. Musculature C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

A. Dermis

You arrive at the scene of a single car accident to find that a bystander has placed a makeshift but effective tourniquet on the​ victim's leg to stem bleeding from an open femur fracture. There are no other apparent injuries. What should be included in treatment of this​ fracture? A. Dress the​ wound, immobilize, and rapidly transport to the ED. B. Immobilize the extremity and transport slow and easy. C. Immediately remove the tourniquet and control bleeding with less aggressive​ methods, immobilize, and transport. D. Tightly bandage the open wound and rapidly transport to the ED.

A. Dress the​ wound, immobilize, and rapidly transport to the ED.

What is the initial step in the healing of a​ wound? A. Hemostasis B. Homeostasis C. Inflammation D. Coagulation

A. Hemostasis

A properly restrained driver is involved in a​ head-on collision. Without contacting any internal structure in the​ car, he sustains a myocardial contusion. What principle of motion describes this​ injury? A. Inertia B. Conservation C. Deceleration D. Motion

A. Inertia

During your collision analysis of two vehicles striking head​ on, you note that the SRS system deployed in both​ cars, and the drivers are walking around the scene. Neither vehicle has a damaged windshield. What should your vehicle investigation also​ include? A. Lift the air bag and look for dash or steering wheel damage. B. Poll bystanders. C. Ask the drivers how fast they were traveling. D. Look for skid marks

A. Lift the air bag and look for dash or steering wheel damage.

Your squad is dispatched to a residence for a​ 9-year-old male patient with a head laceration. When you​ arrive, you are directed by another young boy to the​ kitchen, where you find the patient sitting at the table​ crying, with his mother standing behind him holding a kitchen towel over his left ear. You notice that there is a small amount of blood on the​ child's shirt also. As you approach the​ boy, he tells you that they were having a sword fight with plastic swords when the other boy struck him on the ear and he began bleeding. After establishing that the child does not appear to be in immediate​ danger, you prepare a dressing and bandaging materials and remove the cloth to inspect the laceration. During inspection you note that the laceration has horizontally bisected the outer ear at the level of the ear canal and lacerated the scalp in the mastoid area. Which method of bleeding control would you​ implement? A. Loose gauze dressing to absorb blood B. Gauze dressing firmly wrapped circumferentially to apply pressure to control bleeding C. Direct pressure over a gauze pad to control bleeding D. Gauze dressing firmly wrapped circumferentially to apply pressure to control bleeding and a cold pack over the area

A. Loose gauze dressing to absorb blood

What physiological differences most likely adversely affect an elderly​ patient's response to​ hemorrhage? A. Lower fluid reserves and​ less-responsive compensatory mechanisms B. The tendency of elderly patients to be in a state of denial regarding injury or illness C. Inability of the skin to properly regulate body temperature D. Lower muscle mass and​ less-responsive compensatory mechanisms

A. Lower fluid reserves and​ less-responsive compensatory mechanisms

What is the first sign that can reliably be attributed to a state of hypovolemic​ shock? A. Narrowing pulse pressure B. Pale skin C. Increasing pulse rate D. Thirst

A. Narrowing pulse pressure

If a patient was to display some signs and symptoms of a Class I​ hemorrhage, what would they​ include? A. Nervousness and marginally cool skin with a slight pallor B. Altered mental status C. Tachycardia and narrowing of the pulse pressure D. Lethargy and confusion

A. Nervousness and marginally cool skin with a slight pallor

You arrive at the scene of a flash fire that occurred when fumes from a pan of​ gasoline, in which the victim was cleaning​ parts, ignited. The​ victim, who is conscious and well​ oriented, received partial thickness and a few small full thickness burns to his hands and forearms. His vitals are currently respirations​ 18, pulse​ 100, blood pressure​ 120/76, and pulse ox 100 percent on room air. How should oxygen be administered to this​ patient? A. No oxygen therapy at this time B. 15 lpm via nonrebreather mask C. 10 lpm via Venturi mask for 50 percent delivered concentration D. 6 lpm via cannula

A. No oxygen therapy at this time

What could be an early indicator of internal bleeding requiring intervention as part of your treatment​ plan? A. Signs of poor peripheral perfusion B. Sluggish pupils C. ​Cheyne-Stokes respirations D. Dropping blood pressure

A. Signs of poor peripheral perfusion

Electrical burns typically deliver a heat burn resulting from the​ body's resistance to the flow of energy. Which part of the body typically receives the largest amount of​ burn-related damage? A. Skin B. Underlying musculature C. Nerve tissue D. Mucous membranes

A. Skin

Which type of motorcycle collision occurs when an experienced rider trades severe injuries for minor to moderate injuries by placing the motorcycle between themselves and an​ object? A. Sliding impact B. Angular C. Frontal D. Ejection

A. Sliding impact

You are dispatched to the scene of a hunting accident and arrive to find an​ 18-year-old male patient with an arrow through his right​ shoulder, the tip protruding anteriorly. He is conscious and well​ oriented, and has a respiratory rate of 14 and easy with clear bilateral lung​ sounds; his radial pulse is​ 74, and the pulse ox reads 99 percent on ambient air. You note only minimal bleeding from the wound sites. How would you prepare your patient for​ transport? A. Support the arrow in place and place your patient on his left side. B. Transport him in sitting​ position, leaning forward. C. Cut the arrow flush with the skin on his​ posterior, support the arrow​ anteriorly, and place him on his back. D. Support the arrow in place and place your patient on his right side.

A. Support the arrow in place and place your patient on his left side.

Tetanic convulsions can accompany electric shock from household current. How do these convulsions contribute to prolonged exposure to the​ current? A. The victim may be unable to break contact with the electric source. B. Muscle tissue in the electric path can​ die, releasing toxins. C. Increased resistance at the electrical exit wound causes the body to load with electrons. D. Prolonged exposure can cause respiratory arrest.

A. The victim may be unable to break contact with the electric source.

Treatment of penetrating trauma injuries may commonly be performed at potential crime scenes. After patient​ care, you should next give a high level of priority​ to: A. conserving evidence. B. the search for additional victims. C. scene safety. D. personal safety.

A. conserving evidence.

During a vehicle​ collision, lap belt and shoulder strap use prevents the wearer​ from: A. continuing to move. B. being injured. C. secondary impacts. D. compression injuries.

A. continuing to move.

Structural collapse and industrial or agricultural incidents are common causes​ of: A. crush injuries. B. projectile injuries. C. toxic inhalation. D. falls.

A. crush injuries.

In a​ single-car accident a vehicle collides with a tree near the​ roadway; during your collision​ analysis, a lack of skid marks would indicate that​ the: A. driver was prevented from braking. B. impact speed was high. C. driver was impaired. D. driver was distracted.

A. driver was prevented from braking.

The outermost layer of the skin is​ the: A. epidermis. B. subcutaneous. C. dermis. D. overlying structure.

A. epidermis.

Devices such as napalm that are designed to induce damage and injury through combustion are said to​ be: A. incendiary. B. tertiary. C. heat inducing. D. ignitable.

A. incendiary.

Blood loss in the​ chest, abdomen, and pelvis can continue​ until: A. it clots or is surgically repaired. B. peripheral vascular resistance halts the blood loss. C. the pressure equalizes in the compartment. D. normal blood pressure is restored with the use of whole blood or packed red blood cells.

A. it clots or is surgically repaired.

Your​ 24-year-old male patient was riding an ATV through the woods and impaled himself on a dead tree branch. The​ 1" in diameter branch went in through his mouth and out his right cheek before breaking from the tree. On your​ arrival, the patient is bleeding heavily into his mouth and is struggling to breathe unless he is leaning forward. In order to gain control of his bleeding and thereby his​ airway, you​ should: A. remove the object. B. sacrifice spinal immobilization and transport him sitting and leaning forward. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. D. pack his mouth full of gauze and tell your patient to breathe through his nose.

A. remove the object.

Tertiary blast injuries can result​ from: A. structural building collapse. B. the overpressure wave. C. projectile impacts. D. secondary combustion.

A. structural building collapse.

The only way to recognize which trauma care practices benefit patients​ is: A. surveillance. B. care modalities. C. polling. D. public education.

A. surveillance.

The term​ "force" as it relates to penetrating injuries can be practically defined​ as: A. the rate of deceleration of a penetrating object on impact. B. the mass transferred to the​ "target" on impact. C. ​Newton's first law of motion. D. the change in mass of a penetrating object on impact.

A. the rate of deceleration of a penetrating object on impact.

Treatment of​ off-road vehicle accident victims is commonly complicated​ by: A. the remote location of accidents. B. a high center of gravity. C. entrapment below the unit. D. the lack of crumple zones.

A. the remote location of accidents.

A standard set of data is collected by regional trauma centers and analyzed to describe the types of patients and injuries that EMS responds to. This is used to determine how well the system is performing and to identify factors that may either lessen or increase patient survival. This process is referred to​ as: A. the trauma registry. B. epidemiology. C. trauma triage criteria. D. the trauma triage protocol.

A. the trauma registry.

Chest injuries such as flail​ chest, blunt cardiac​ injury, and aortic tears are most likely to result​ from: A. the​ down-and-under pathway. B. the restrained pathway. C. a​ rear-end impact. D. oblique impacts.

A. the​ down-and-under pathway.

The leading killer of persons between the ages of 1 and 44​ is: A. trauma. B. pneumonia. C. cancer. D. cardiovascular disease.

A. trauma.

As it pertains to​ trauma, which definition of coagulopathy is most​ accurate? A. Another term for disseminated intravascular coagulation B. A condition in which the​ blood's ability to clot is impaired C. Obstruction of a vein by a blood clot D. A lack of platelets

B. A condition in which the​ blood's ability to clot is impaired

For which trauma patient should you not perform a trauma assessment during the secondary​ assessment? A. A stable patient with controlled​ airway, breathing, and circulation B. A critical patient with uncontrolled​ airway, breathing, or circulation problems C. An unstable patient with controlled​ airway, breathing, and circulation D. A potentially unstable patient with controlled​ airway, breathing, and circulation

B. A critical patient with uncontrolled​ airway, breathing, or circulation problems

At what height does a fall become severe enough to necessitate trauma services based solely on the mechanism of​ injury? A. ​Twenty-five feet B. About three times the​ patient's height C. Thirty feet D. Fifteen feet

B. About three times the​ patient's height

A larger and more disrupted entrance wound than the bullet caliber would suggest is an indicator that what has taken​ place? A. The bullet was fired from a close range B. Bullet tumbling or deformation C. Premature formation of the cavitational wave D. The bullet was fired from a greater distance

B. Bullet tumbling or deformation

As blood loss continues for the patient in compensated​ shock, what is the clinical result of blood being redirected to critical organs from the peripheral​ circulation? A. Cool and red skin B. Cool and pale skin C. Warm and pale skin D. Reddened skin

B. Cool and pale skin

Which depth of burn destroys the​ tissue's ability to​ regenerate? A. Partial thickness B. Full thickness C. Superficial D. Flash

B. Full thickness

What best describes how​ Newton's first law of motion applies to penetrating​ trauma? A. It explains the trajectory at work during a collision. B. It explains both how a projectile delivers its energy to an object and how that object reacts to being impacted. C. It explains how a projectile delivers​ its mass to an object. D. It explains kinetic energy.

B. It explains both how a projectile delivers its energy to an object and how that object reacts to being impacted.

What aspect of burn patient assessment gives the most information about the​ body's condition? A. Blood pressure B. Skin condition C. MOI D. Respiratory effort

B. Skin condition

To what extent does heat injury increase the damage of a bullet​ wound? A. Heat damage is only significant if the bullet does not exit the body. B. The effect of bullet temperature is generally negligible. C. Heat damage is generally​ significant, especially where the bullet comes to rest. D. The bullet can cauterize the wound​ track, reducing hemorrhage.

B. The effect of bullet temperature is generally negligible.

What have improved building​ codes, safer construction​ techniques, sprinkler​ systems, and smoke detector use done to the mortality rate due to​ burns? A. The rate has been declining in the United States but is on the increase in other developing nations. B. The rate has been declining for decades in the United States and other developing countries. C. The rate has been incrementally creeping up. D. The rate has held steady despite a growing population in the United States.

B. The rate has been declining for decades in the United States and other developing countries.

What is the health care surveillance process utilized in trauma systems​ called? A. Risk protocol B. Trauma registry C. Quality management D. Provider fault

B. Trauma registry

What is the unsteady wobble that a bullet develops when​ deflected? A. Cavitation B. Yaw C. Rifling D. Rotation

B. Yaw

The most important reason paramedics should not wear rings or other jewelry while on duty is because of the risk​ of: A. contamination. B. a degloving injury. C. robbery. D. loss.

B. a degloving injury.

Collision of a​ medium-velocity bullet with the body after striking Kevlar body armor is​ considered: A. energy exchange reducing. B. a secondary impact. C. tumble inducing. D. a primary impact.

B. a secondary impact.

​Hematemesis, an indicator of internal​ bleeding, may present with the appearance​ of: A. black tarry stool. B. coffee grounds. C. epistaxis. D. hematochezia.

B. coffee grounds.

If severe hemorrhage continues and hypotension​ occurs, the reduced blood pressure at the hemorrhage site subsequently limits blood flow and the rate of​ hemorrhage, and: A. reduces clotting factors. B. enhances clot development. C. damages platelets. D. increases catecholamine release.

B. enhances clot development.

You are en route to the scene of a​ bow-hunting accident where a​ 32-year-old male was accidently shot in the upper leg by his​ 14-year-old son. While mentally reviewing possible injuries and the equipment that will most likely assist you​ initially, you understand​ that: A. the boy may be panicked and require psychological assistance. B. extremity injuries are rarely fatal unless a major blood vessel is​ involved, so you need to be prepared for bleeding control. C. a fractured femur is​ likely, and you need to be prepared to apply a traction splint. D. the victim likely fell and struck his​ head, so you will need to be prepared to perform longboard immobilization.

B. extremity injuries are rarely fatal unless a major blood vessel is​ involved, so you need to be prepared for bleeding control.

Burn injuries associated with an explosion are​ typically: A. scalds. B. partial thickness. C. third degree. D. secondary to structural collapse.

B. partial thickness.

The most significant variable in a fall​ is: A. contact area B. rate of deceleration C. transmission pathway D. fall height

B. rate of deceleration

A particularly serious finding when evaluating a burn​ victim's airway would​ be: A. hoarseness. B. stridor. C. singed nose hairs. D. coughing.

B. stridor.

You are dispatched to treat the​ 32-year-old victim of a​ robbery, and you are cleared to proceed to the site by law enforcement. On arrival you are shown to the​ victim, who is sitting in the back of a​ cruiser, holding a gauze pad to her right​ cheek; she tells you that after she surrendered her purse at knifepoint the perpetrator lacerated her cheek to​ "teach her a​ lesson." Removal of the bandage reveals a​ 1" long laceration that has almost completely stopped hemorrhaging. She denies any other injuries. After properly dressing the​ wound, you​ should: A. release her after she​ "signs off." B. transport her to the nearest ED. C. recommend she see her family physician. D. transport her to a level 1 trauma center.

B. transport her to the nearest ED.

What are the signs of the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine in a​ patient? A. Decreased level of​ consciousness, necrotic skin B. ​Nervousness, marginally cool​ skin, and slight pallor C. Pronounced​ anxiety, flushed and hot skin D. Increased alertness and​ hot, dry skin

B. ​Nervousness, marginally cool​ skin, and slight pallor

Which population has the highest risk for soft tissue​ injuries? A. ​Middle-age adults B. ​School-age children C. Young adults D. All populations are at similar risk

B. ​School-age children

Which of the following patients should be immediately transported to a trauma​ center? A. An automobile driver in a 35 mph collision with a road sign B. An patient who fell 12 feet C. A motorcyclist involved in a 35 mph collision with a car D. A respiratory rate of 28 in a patient who was struck in the chest by a line drive during a softball game

C. A motorcyclist involved in a 35 mph collision with a car

Based on the CUPS triage​ scheme, which of the following criteria represent the best description of a patient who would receive a​ "critical" designation? A. Difficulty​ breathing, pale skin or other signs of poor​ perfusion, severe pain in any area of the​ body, severe chest pain B. A poor general​ impression, unresponsive, with no gag or cough reflexes C. A patient in whom you are unable to secure the​ airway, breathing, or circulation D. Severe chest pain with a systolic BP of less than 100​ mmHg, or the inability to move any part of the body

C. A patient in whom you are unable to secure the​ airway, breathing, or circulation

What is the weakest form of​ radiation? A. Gamma radiation B. Beta radiation C. Alpha radiation D. Neutron radiation

C. Alpha radiation

Which patient should be immediately transported to a trauma​ center? A. A​ partial-thickness burn to the left hand and arm B. A child with a tibia and fibula fracture of the left leg C. An unrestrained child inside a vehicle involved in a 20 mph vehicle collision D. A stab wound through the right palm

C. An unrestrained child inside a vehicle involved in a 20 mph vehicle collision

You are called to the scene of a finger​ amputation; you bandage the hemorrhaging area but have not yet located the missing thumb. How should you​ proceed? A. Call medical command. B. Delay transport as long as the victim is stable. C. Assign others to continue searching and transport the victim to the ED. D. If the victim is​ stable, spend no more than 20 minutes looking for the amputated part.

C. Assign others to continue searching and transport the victim to the ED.

How can the injury potential of assault weapons be greatly​ increased? A. By loading with military ammunition B. By reducing the weight of the bullet C. By loading with hunting ammunition D. By using fully jacketed ammunition

C. By loading with hunting ammunition

A patient who has lost 25 percent of his circulating blood volume would be displaying signs and symptoms associated with which class of​ hemorrhage? A. Class III hemorrhage B. Class I hemorrhage C. Class II hemorrhage D. Class IV hemorrhage

C. Class II hemorrhage

In less than 10 minutes from arrival at the​ scene, what may EMS not be expected to​ do? A. Provide emergency stabilization for the patient. B. Package the patient for transport. C. Complete transport to the destination facility. D. Provide a primary assessment of the patient.

C. Complete transport to the destination facility.

As blunt impact abruptly halts a portion of the​ body, and inertia causes the remaining anatomy to continue its​ motion, one tissue or organ is pushed into another. What type of injury is​ this? A. Shearing injury B. Stretch injury C. Compression injury D. Rupture injury

C. Compression injury

A patient has partial thickness burns over 35 percent of his​ body, including both feet. Which classification does this patient fall​ under? A. Superficial B. Minor C. Critical D. Moderate

C. Critical

You are called to the scene of a fall down a concrete stairway. On arrival you note that the patient is unconscious and bleeding heavily from the nose and mouth. You note a respiratory rate of 24 and a radial pulse of 100. After​ suctioning, you are still unable to place an endotracheal​ tube, making it difficult to prevent blood from entering the lungs. How would you rate this​ victim's priority​ status? A. Potentially unstable B. Unstable C. Critical D. Stable

C. Critical

You arrive at the scene of a female victim complaining of a severe laceration of the left forearm she received when a glass slipped from her hand and broke while she was placing it in the cupboard. You note as you approach the woman that she is sitting in a chair holding her hand over a wound that is freely hemorrhaging dark red blood between her fingers. She appears to be alert and well oriented. What method of bleeding control would you immediately​ attempt? A. Tourniquet B. Digital pressure C. Direct pressure over a dressing D. Clamping of the vessel with forceps

C. Direct pressure over a dressing

You are sitting in front of your station when a car pulls up and a young mother gets out with her crying​ 6-year-old daughter, who has her left hand wrapped in a​ blood-soaked cloth. The mother tells you that the girl attempted to cut open an orange by herself and cut the palm of her hand. After establishing that the girl is in no immediate​ danger, you turn your focus to the wound. After initial bleeding​ control, what is your next​ concern? A. Tendon involvement B. Transport priority C. Distal circulation D. The potential for child abuse

C. Distal circulation

Which tissue layer contains no​ vasculature? A. Musculature B. Subcutaneous tissue C. Epidermis D. Dermis

C. Epidermis

In accordance with the law of energy​ conservation, the energy of​ motion, as it pertains to driving an​ ambulance, is converted to what form of energy during the normal braking at a traffic​ light? A. Mass B. Light C. Heat D. Kinetic

C. Heat

Which of these statements regarding hemostasis following an amputation is​ true? A. Clotting is typically more effective if the amputation is crushed for a period. B. Jagged amputations​ don't tend to hemorrhage. C. Hemorrhage is typically limited if the amputation is clean. D. ​Cross-tension amputations​ don't tend to hemorrhage.

C. Hemorrhage is typically limited if the amputation is clean.

How would you prepare for the burn victim with suspected respiratory​ involvement? A. Check for widening pulse pressures. B. Have​ high-flow oxygen available if the​ pulse-ox level drops below 95. C. Immediately provide​ high-flow oxygen and prepare to maintain the airway. D. Monitor the heart rate.

C. Immediately provide​ high-flow oxygen and prepare to maintain the airway.

Which of the following does not result in hypovolemic​ shock? A. Significant blood loss B. Plasma loss from significant burns C. Introduction of a foreign substance into the body that causes a massive histamine release D. Fluid and electrolyte loss due to protracted vomiting

C. Introduction of a foreign substance into the body that causes a massive histamine release

What condition exists when aggressive resuscitation restores blood pressure and pulse but organ failure continues​ unabated? A. Terminal hypoxia B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Irreversible shock D. Compensatory failure

C. Irreversible shock

A blunt impact begins to cause injury when what​ increase? A. Acceleration and inertia B. Mass and deceleration C. Kinetic energy and rate of velocity D. Force and mass

C. Kinetic energy and rate of velocity

The law of inertia and the law of energy conservation are the two basic principles of what​ concept? A. Velocity B. Mass C. Kinetics D. Force

C. Kinetics

Which of the following organs would be expected to display the most damage resulting from the pressure wave of a​ high-velocity, penetrating​ object? A. Lungs B. Urinary bladder C. Liver D. Large intestine

C. Liver

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding a wound from a​ handgun? A. Deformation of the bullet increases the chance that the round will retain energy. B. The pressure wave created when the bullet impacts tissue helps to diminish adjacent organ damage. C. Only organs directly in the​ bullet's path are likely to be injured. D. Tumbling of the bullet delivers significantly less energy.

C. Only organs directly in the​ bullet's path are likely to be injured.

Which adult patient would be considered to be moderate in terms of burn​ severity? A. Superficial burns over the front and back of both arms B. Partial thickness burns over both legs C. Partial thickness burns of the right hand and arm D. Full thickness burns of one leg

C. Partial thickness burns of the right hand and arm

Which statement is true regarding protective gear and sports​ injuries? A. Protective gear prevents any chance of a sports injury. B. Newer helmet designs for​ high-contact sports have dispensed with specially fitted padding. C. Protective gear can contribute to a sports injury. D. Protective gear is specifically designed in a fashion that avoids hindering your assessment of the patient.

C. Protective gear can contribute to a sports injury.

What injuries are received during the primary blast​ phase? A. Chemical burns B. Crush injuries from collapse C. Pulmonary injuries D. Personnel displacement

C. Pulmonary injuries

In crush​ syndrome, crushed skeletal muscle tissue can undergo disintegration and as a result release metabolic byproducts. What is this degenerative process​ called? A. Myoglobinization B. Cellular collapse C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Necrosis

C. Rhabdomyolysis

What​ is, by​ far, the most common type of trauma the body​ sustains? A. Long bone fractures B. Sprains C. Soft tissue injuries D. Head injuries

C. Soft tissue injuries

What is the collection of data to identify the​ existence, significance, and characteristics of a disease​ called? A. Intervention development B. Risk analysis C. Surveillance D. A Haddon Matrix

C. Surveillance

What is indicated by the lack of an exit wound in a patient that suffered a​ GSW? A. The bullet struck a bone. B. The bullet broke up. C. The bullet expended all its energy. D. The bullet was tumbling on impact.

C. The bullet expended all its energy.

How does the progression of shock for a woman in the late stages of pregnancy differ from the general​ population? A. Blood loss in the mother is almost immediately apparent. B. The fetus is less susceptible to harm from the​ mother's blood loss. C. The mother can lose a greater blood volume prior to progressing through the stages of shock. D. The fetus contributes to fluid replacement from the​ mother's blood loss.

C. The mother can lose a greater blood volume prior to progressing through the stages of shock.

Immediately after​ impact, at what rate of speed will the unrestrained driver continue to move forward in a frontal impact vehicle​ collision? A. Much faster than the vehicle B. The driver will stop with the vehicle. C. The same speed as the vehicle D. Much slower than the vehicle

C. The same speed as the vehicle

Use of recreational vehicles​ (ATVs) has significantly increased. What impact has this increase had on recreational vehicle​ injuries? A. They have decreased because of rider education​ programs, sponsored trail​ rides, and improved safety design. B. They initially increased slightly but are now decreasing. C. They have significantly increased also. D. They have remained relatively flat because of rider education programs and improved safety design.

C. They have significantly increased also.

You arrive at the scene of an ATV accident and establish that the rider collided with a​ high-tensile wire fence that penetrated his neck. What neck structures are the most often injured from penetrating​ trauma? A. The cervical spine and trachea B. Trachea and esophagus C. Trachea and major blood vessels D. The cervical spine and major blood vessels

C. Trachea and major blood vessels

You are directed to approach the scene of a shooting by a local security officer at a shopping mall. What should your initial consideration be when approaching the​ patient? A. Moving the patient to a safe location B. Performing your primary exam C. Whether or not the patient is still armed D. Protecting scene evidence

C. Whether or not the patient is still armed

For what demographic are burns the second leading cause of​ death? A. Young adults B. Elderly C. Young children D. Teenagers

C. Young children

Identification of compartment syndrome may be unlikely​ without: A. recognizing the symptoms in the field. B. a thorough secondary exam. C. an accurate MOI for the ED staff. D. an accurate patient complaint.

C. an accurate MOI for the ED staff.

During the absence of perfusion that occurs distally from the application of a​ tourniquet, the body forms lactic acid with potassium liberation. The chemicals formed are known​ as: A. stagnant blood. B. relative acidosis. C. anaerobic metabolites. D. hypercapnea.

C. anaerobic metabolites.

A shallow diving accident may result in compression force on the cervical spine known​ as: A. epistaxis. B. blast overpressure. C. axial loading. D. a pressure wave.

C. axial loading.

Potential significant internal hemorrhage may first reveal itself during the primary assessment in the form​ of: A. widening blood pressure. B. tachycardia. C. a​ rapid, thready pulse. D. low blood pressure.

C. a​ rapid, thready pulse.

The EMT can differentiate between superficial burns and partial thickness burns based​ on: A. redness of color. B. the depth of the burn. C. blister formation. D. the amount of pain.

C. blister formation.

The​ body's process of causing platelets to adhere to the vessel wall and other​ platelets, forming a platelet plug and reducing blood flow​ or, in small​ vessels, stopping it​ altogether, is​ called: A. hemostasis. B. inflammation. C. clotting. D. phagocytosis.

C. clotting.

The most common cause of trauma resulting in activation of the EMS system​ is: A. auto accidents. B. blunt traumas. C. falls. D. stabbings.

C. falls.

Lacerations that run perpendicular to the​ skin's tension lines tend​ to: A. bleed less. B. remain closed. C. gape open. D. have shallower penetration.

C. gape open.

The most common and serious explosion injuries​ are: A. severe lacerations. B. head injuries. C. pulmonary injuries. D. oxidation.

C. pulmonary injuries.

The most important step in any treatment plan for victims suspected of internal hemorrhage​ is: A. placing the patient with head and torso elevated. B. applying direct manual pressure to the locations of internal bleeding. C. rapid transport with monitoring for signs and symptoms of shock. D. supplemental oxygen by nasal cannula titrated to a minimum pO2 of 98 percent.

C. rapid transport with monitoring for signs and symptoms of shock.

The connective strength and elasticity of tissue influence how much tissue damage occurs with kinetic energy​ transfer; this strength and elasticity is​ called: A. healing. B. memory. C. resiliency. D. recovery.

C. resiliency.

Extreme​ exertion, fatigue, and direct trauma commonly contribute​ to: A. obesity. B. vehicle collisions. C. sports injuries. D. influenza.

C. sports injuries.

The potential for injury decreases​ as: A. the speed of the object increases. B. the mass of the object increases. C. the time of deceleration increases. D. the time of deceleration decreases.

C. the time of deceleration increases.

According to the rule of​ nines, what would the involved surface area be for an adult victim who has received burns to his right arm and right anterior​ chest? A. 9.5 percent B. 16 percent C. 18 percent D. 13.5 percent

D. 13.5 percent

You are dispatched to the scene of a propane tank fire. On your arrival you are directed to a​ 30-year-old male patient with partial thickness burns over the anterior side of both​ legs, the genital​ area, thorax, and face. As you approach the​ patient, you establish that he is conscious and well​ oriented, respirations are​ 22, his radial pulse is​ 96, and pulse ox shows 92 percent on room air. You immediately place him on​ high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask. What oxygen saturation should you titrate your oxygen therapy​ to? A. 92 percent B. 100 percent C. 90 percent D. 96 percent

D. 96 percent

In what form of trauma does the energy exchange cause a chain reaction within various body tissues that​ crush, stretch, and tear their​ structures, resulting in injury at and beneath the​ skin's surface without an object actually penetrating the​ body? A. Inertial trauma B. Penetrating trauma C. Kinetic trauma D. Blunt trauma

D. Blunt trauma

Which soft tissue wound exposes a large area of tissue that often becomes severely​ contaminated? A. Puncture B. Straight laceration C. Hematoma D. Degloving injury

D. Degloving injury

What should the paramedic monitor after the application of a circumferential bandage on an​ extremity? A. Venous return B. Sepsis C. Proximal edema D. Distal circulation

D. Distal circulation

When treating a victim at a trauma scene following an​ MVC, when should you begin to establish the​ MOI? A. After the FD has extricated the patient B. Any time prior to establishing the patient priority C. During the primary assessment D. During scene​ size-up

D. During scene​ size-up

Which action contributes most to mortality in a rollover​ accident? A. Compounding of injuries sustained in the initial collision B. Multiple impacts with the vehicle interior C. Impact with unpadded interior components D. Ejection

D. Ejection

What is the primary consideration for a paramedic when responding to the scene of a​ shooting? A. Assist the patient. B. Put on personal protective equipment. C. Protect the crime scene for law enforcement. D. Ensure that the scene is secured by law enforcement.

D. Ensure that the scene is secured by law enforcement.

What is the early stage of wound healing in which adjacent stratum germinativum cells migrate over the surface of the​ wound? A. Hyperemia B. Collagenization C. Remodeling D. Epithelialization

D. Epithelialization

What step begins the assessment of any soft tissue injury following the ruling out of potential​ hazards? A. Survey the skin for signs of injury B. Conducting a focused trauma assessment C. Conducting a primary assessment D. Establishing a likely MOI

D. Establishing a likely MOI

The energy of a body in constant motion is​ called: A. Deceleration B. Potential C. Impact D. Kinetic

D. Kinetic

What trauma center designation is given to a regional trauma​ center, usually a university teaching​ center, prepared and committed to handle all types of specialty​ trauma? A. Resource support center B. Level II C. Primary trauma center D. Level I

D. Level I

A hospital that is most likely to attempt​ non-surgical stabilization of critical trauma patients prior to transporting them to a hospital with​ higher-level trauma capabilities has a trauma care rating​ of: A. Level I. B. Level VI. C. Level X. D. Level IV.

D. Level IV.

What type of necrosis denatures proteins and​ collagen? A. Electrical B. Radiation C. Coagulation D. Liquefaction

D. Liquefaction

Why is compartment syndrome difficult to determine​ pre-hospital? A. Other associated injuries are more painful. B. There is no level of suspicion for it in the field. C. Injuries that result in compartment syndrome are rare. D. Onset depends on the steady increase of​ pressure, which takes time.

D. Onset depends on the steady increase of​ pressure, which takes time.

Which function is not mediated through the integumentary​ system? A. Temperature control B. Protection against infection C. Fluid control D. Peripheral circulation

D. Peripheral circulation

Which aspect of force is the primary cause of​ injury? A. Closing speed B. Object weight C. Object mass D. Rate of deceleration

D. Rate of deceleration

Which statement is accurate regarding external blood​ loss? A. Direct digital pressure is normally required to control venous but not arterial hemorrhage. B. The use of a tourniquet routinely results in significant distal tissue damage. C. Firm bandaging is only effective after clotting. D. Serious blood loss can be hidden from view due to clothing.

D. Serious blood loss can be hidden from view due to clothing.

Which of the following can result in hemorrhagic​ shock? A. Diarrhea B. Plasma loss from significant burns C. Fluid and electrolyte loss due to protracted vomiting D. Significant blood loss

D. Significant blood loss

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a construction accident. The​ patient, a​ 43-year-old finish​ carpenter, was cutting the edge off a trim board when the knife​ slipped, avulsing a large section of his anterior lower​ arm, including underlying musculature and veins. He is currently alert and​ oriented, and a coworker is successfully applying direct pressure over the avulsed flap to control bleeding. The​ patient's respirations are 12 and his right radial pulse is 84. Which form of bleeding control would you initially attempt to​ utilize? A. Tourniquet B. An absorbent dressing with a loosely applied circumferential bandage C. Digital pressure D. Sterile dressing with a circumferential​ bandage, moderately wrapped to provide pressure

D. Sterile dressing with a circumferential​ bandage, moderately wrapped to provide pressure

What is the name of the tool developed to identify risk elements associated with​ trauma? A. Risk analysis B. Surveillance C. Epidemiology D. The Haddon Matrix

D. The Haddon Matrix

Which definition most accurately reflects the meaning of the term​ "Golden Period"? A. The time interval during which most trauma patients will require surgery to survive B. The time interval between the incident and the surgery over which the paramedic has control C. The first hour following an incident D. The goal for​ incident-to-surgery time for trauma patients

D. The goal for​ incident-to-surgery time for trauma patients

Which statement is true regarding the Golden​ Period? A. The​ 1-hour incident-to-surgery time changes the survival rate for most trauma patients. B. The Golden Period does not include time in the​ paramedic's care. C. Surgery within 1 hour of an incident guarantees a good​ outcome, even if subsequent surgeries are required. D. The​ 1-hour incident to surgery time has not been substantiated.

D. The​ 1-hour incident to surgery time has not been substantiated.

The use of a properly adjusted headrest during a rear​ collision: A. allows slow deceleration of the head. B. minimizes the need to use a cervical collar. C. keeps the head from moving and promotes rotation. D. accelerates the head at the same speed as the body.

D. accelerates the head at the same speed as the body.

External venous hemorrhage from small vessels can almost always​ be, and is preferred to​ be, controlled​ by: A. splinting the limb and applying a cold pack B. using pressure points C. elevation of the bleeding part D. firmly bandaging a dressing in place

D. firmly bandaging a dressing in place

You are treating the victim of a knife wound to the chest who is displaying​ hypotension, muffled heart​ sounds, and jugular venous distention. Field treatment of this victim should​ include: A. positive pressure ventilation. B. a needle decompression. C. a pericardiocentesis. D. immediate and rapid transport to the ED.

D. immediate and rapid transport to the ED.

Compared to a car that slides into a​ snowbank, an auto that strikes a concrete retaining wall will have a deceleration rate that​ is: A. the same. B. slightly less. C. much less. D. much greater.

D. much greater.

Cool and pale skin in the victim of hypovolemic shock is the result​ of: A. progressive shock. B. peripheral venous constriction. C. the release of angiotensin II. D. peripheral vasoconstriction.

D. peripheral vasoconstriction.

Once at the burn​ patient, your initial quick survey should be​ to: A. determine the level of consciousness. B. inspect for additional trauma. C. check the airway. D. stop the burning process.

D. stop the burning process.

Your patient was doing body work on his car when his sander slipped and left a deep abrasion ​2" times ​3" on his upper thigh. There is no significant bleeding or other related​ injury, so after bandaging the wound you​ should: A. recommend he clean and rebandage the abrasion daily. B. recommend that he see his family physician. C. recommend he follow up at a local clinic. D. transport him to the nearest ED.

D. transport him to the nearest ED.

The majority of the​ body's blood volume is located in​ the: A. arterial system. B. capillary system. C. spleen. D. venous system.

D. venous system.