VTNE

121. Pentobarbital should be used with great care, or not at all, in what kind of dogs? a. Scent hounds b. Sight hounds c. Brachycephalics d. Dolichocephalics

121. B: Sight hounds

When discussing teeth, what is the tooth surface closest to the tongue termed? A. Lingual B. Buccal C. Frontal D. Gingival

Explanation A The lingual side is closest the tongue. The buccal side is closest the cheek.

1. Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on a prescription label? a. Date of the prescription b. Age of the patient c. Name of the prescriber d. Address of the dispensing pharmacy

1. B: Age of the patient Every prescription label must include: •Name and address of dispensing pharmacy •Serial number of the prescription •Date of the prescription •Name of the prescriber •Name of the patient •Name and strength of the drug •Directions for use •Cautionary statements, as appropriate

150. Absorption of plain catgut suture occurs in a. 30-45 days. b. 60-70 days. c. 80-90 days. d. 100-120 days.

150. B: 60-70 days

89. What is the drug of choice for a tick-borne pathogen such as Borrelia burgdorferi? a. Doxycycline b. Tetracycline c. Penicillin d. Fluoroquinolones

89. A: Doxycycline

A plain red top tube or a tiger top tube is used for collecting which of the following? CBC Hematocrit Serum Your Answer Urine Plasma

Explanation Serum is used the most for chemistry testing and is collected in a red top or a tiger top (serum separator) tube. For the greatest accuracy, it should be spun down in a centrifuge for 10 minutes as soon as the clot has formed.

Which of the following would you use to induce emesis in cats? Apomorphine Naltrexone Xylazine Your Answer Activated charcoal

Explanation The correct answer is xylazine. This is an alpha-2 agonist and produces emesis reliably in the cat.

140. A lesion that develops at pressure points, especially in large dogs, is a. parakeratosis. b. ecthyma. c. acanthosis nigricans. d. a hygroma.

140. D: A hygroma The repeated trauma to pressure points from lying on a hard surface induces an inflammatory response, and, secondarily, a fluid-filled, painless false bursae. This lesion is called a hygroma.

40. A dog that weighs 80 pounds weighs a. 36 kg. b. 31 kg. c. 176 kg. d. 203 kg.

40. A: 36 kg One kilogram is equivalent to 2.2 pounds.

97. A 14.6 kg animal weighs a. 6.6 pounds. b. 5 pounds. c. 25 pounds. d. 32.1 pounds.

97. D: 32.1 pounds Each kilogram is equivalent to 2.2 pounds. 14.6 x 2.2 = 32.1 pounds.

126. The SNAP 4Dx Test tests for all of the following diseases EXCEPT a. heartworm. b. bartonellosis. c. anaplasmosis. d. ehrlichiosis.

126. B: Bartonellosis The SNAP 4Dx Test by IDEXX Laboratories is a commonly used rapid screening test for heartworm, Lyme disease, Anaplasma phagocytophila, and Ehrlichia canis.

147. Cross-training is a. continuing education through in-house training, online training, and outside seminars. b. training provided by a superior who is not a technician. c. learning tasks that are the responsibility of other staff members. d. training with another species.

147. C: Learning tasks that are the responsibility of other staff members Practices with a team philosophy and efficient work habits cross-train staff. Each staff member learns the responsibilities of his or her own position as well as responsibilities of staff members in other roles. A kennel worker, for example, is trained to restrain animals and set up laboratory samples. A technician learns receptionist duties including handling payment at discharge.

179. PCR is a revolutionary laboratory technique that a. diagnoses lameness. b. amplifies DNA. c. separates white blood cells. d. fast freezes histological samples.

179. B: Amplifies DNA Using PCR, or polymerase chain reaction, scientists can amplify the DNA present in a sample. DNA amplification of a selective piece of DNA is possible. In veterinary practice, this technique is used to maximize the opportunity to identify pathogens present in samples.

200. The most practical and efficient method to assessing a mare's readiness to breed is a. serum estrogen sampling. b. serum progesterone sampling. c. teasing. d. temperature.

200. C: Teasing A mare or group of mares under evaluation is exposed to a stallion. One on one, a mare is presented head to head to a stallion followed by his head to her tail. If the mare is estrual, or in heat, the stallion will exhibit a flehmen response. Teasing should take place every day or every other day to assess a mare's readiness to breed.

204. Which small mammal has a high risk of dystocia if bred after 6 months of age? a. Chinchilla b. Rabbit c. Guinea pig d. Ferret

204. C: Guinea pig The pubic symphysis of guinea pigs fuses together between 7 and 8 months of age and is normally not an issue with nonbreeding females. Guinea pigs that are acquired for breeding purposes, however, and are bred after 6 months of age will experience difficult labor and possibly dystocia if they are unable to separate the symphysis during parturition.

Which of the following animals do not have canine teeth? Rodents Your Answer Horses Ferrets Pigs

Explanation Rodents do not have canine teeth. Horses, pigs and ferrets all have canine teeth.

You are doing a fecal flotation and observe these eggs under the microscope. They have bipolar plugs; one plug on each end (see image). What are these? Roundworm eggs Whipworm eggs Your Answer Tapeworm eggs Hookworm eggs

Explanation The bipolar plugs on the eggs are typical of Trichuris vulpis (whipworm).

164. A canine patient is diagnosed with lymphoma. How long will the dog probably survive without treatment? a. 4-6 weeks b. 3-4 month c. 9-12 months d. 1-2 years

164. A: 4-6 weeks Canine lymphoma is an aggressive and common white blood cell cancer. Without treatment, lymphoma is fatal within 6 weeks. Aggressive treatment with today's best protocols results in an 85-90% likelihood of complete remission, though less than 5% of dogs are ever cured. 50% oftreated patients live 1 year after diagnosis with a good quality of life, 25% live 2 years with a good quality of life.

32. What is the correct use of Metzenbaum scissors? a. To cut delicate tissue b. To cut bandages c. To cut sutures d. For routine cutting and dissection

32. A: To cut delicate tissue Metzenbaum scissors are a smaller, slightly curved surgical scissor designed to cut delicate tissues. Mayo scissors are used for routine cutting and dissection. Some other scissors are practically named, bandage scissors for cutting bandages, and suture scissors for cutting sutures.

A 2-ounce bottle of Dermacool spray contains how many milliliters? 30 mL 40 mL 15 mL 60 mL Your Answer

Explanation There are 30 mL in one ounce. 2-ounce bottle X 30 mL/ounce = 60 mL

214. A 75-pound Labrador Retriever requires 8 mg/kg of injectable phenobarbital for initial treatment of status epilepticus. If the concentration of this drug is 30 mg/mL, how many milliliters should this patient receive? a. 9 mL b. 20 mL c. 60 mL d. 18 mL

214. A: 9 mL First, convert pounds to kilograms: 75 lbs * 1 kg/2.2 lbs = 34 kg. Second, calculate how many milligrams of drug the patient requires: 34 kg * 8 mg/kg = 272 mg. Third, calculate the volume that will yield 272 mg of drug: 272 mg * 1 mL/30 mg = 9 mL.

All drugs need to be stored and handled so that they are safe for the patient, client, and veterinary staff. When handling drugs that are considered cytotoxic or hazardous, personal protective apparel (PPA) should be worn. With which of the following drugs is it imperative to pay special attention to safe handling? Metoclopramide Sucralfate Metronidazole Ascorbic Acid Vincristine Your Answer

Explanation Vincristine is a chemotheraputic agent and PPA including gloves, gowns, and a face shield should be worn when using this drug. Ascorbic acid is Vitamin C and probably poses minimal risk when handling. Metronidazole and sucralfate are not hazardous via handling.

In cattle, a balling gun is sometimes used for which of the following. Administering medications Your Answer Floating teeth Castration Euthanasia

Explanation A balling gun is used to give medication boluses to cattle. Fluids and medications can also be given via orogastric tube.

What toxicity is caused by ingestion of these items? Nickel toxicity Zinc toxicity Your Answer No toxicity is caused by penny ingestion Lead toxicity

Explanation Any penny minted after 1982 contains a large amount of zinc, leading to zinc toxicity in animals even from just a single penny.

Which drug inhibits platelet aggregation? Metronidazole Enalapril Amoxicillin Aspirin Your Answer

Explanation Aspirin has antithrombotic effects (it is a COX-1 inhibitor); it blocks the platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase (aspirin is a Cox-1 inhibitor) resulting in inhibition of platelet aggregation.

The degree to which an administered drug is absorbed intact into the systemic circulation is known as which of the following? Half-life Bioavailability Your Answer First-pass Metabolism

Explanation Bioavailability is a word used to describe how chemicals are absorbed by the body. It is the administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation. This is the amount of the drug that the body can actually use. IV drugs are 100% bioavailable to the body, because they don't pass through the gastrointestinal system and are directly injected into the circulation. Some oral medications are not fully absorbed so they have a lower bioavailability than IV medications. Drug interactions can also affect the bioavailability of certain drugs.

Which of the following drugs is considered an alpha-2 agonist? Atropine Dexmedetomidine Your Answer Yohimbine Atipamezole

Explanation Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is a sedative/analgesic that acts on the alpha-2 receptors of the brain. Xylazine is also an important alpha-2 agonist to know. Atipamezole is the reversal for dexmedetomidine. Therefore it is an alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist (it antagonizes the effects of the dexmedetomidine). Yohimbine is an alpha-2 blocker used to reverse xylazine (which is an alpha-2 agonist). Atropine is an anticholinergic drug (parasympatholytic).

What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe? 3-8 mm 0-3 mm Your Answer 0-1 mm 3-5 mm

Explanation In dogs, a sulcus depth of 0-3 mm is considered normal. Depths greater than 3 mm are suggestive of periodontal disease. In cats, the normal depth is only 0-1 mm.

Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect? Increased muscle tone Increased heart rate Increased cardiac contractility Muscle relaxation Your Answer

Explanation Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity. Valium (diazepam) is often given with ketamine to provide muscle relaxation.

If a horse gets a cut on loose barbed wire or steps on a rusty nail, which disease would be the biggest risk? Blackleg Rhodococcus Tetanus Your Answer Leptospirosis

Explanation Places where horses are kept (pastures, barns, etc.) should be free of loose nails, barbed wire, or other things that may penetrate the skin and cause infection with Clostridium tetani. Horses should be vaccinated against tetanus. Rhodococcus is a gram-positive bacterium and is often found in dry and dusty soil and is most commonly transmitted via inhalation. Clostridium chauvoei is the cause of blackleg in cattle and is a soil-borne bacterium spreading through food, water, and wounds. Horses are not usually susceptible to blackleg bacteria and are protected by natural resistance. Leptospirosis may be transmitted to horses through ingestion of contaminated water or soil. The environment becomes contaminated through infected urine and is found most often in damp ground where the bacteria can most easily survive.

The interns at the hospital where you work are required to "SOAP" their patients daily. What does this stand for? Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan Your Answer Subjective, Outline, Action, Plan Symptoms, Outline, Assessment, Prognosis Symptoms, Outline, Assessment, Plan

Explanation SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan. Subjective includes the history; Objective includes the physical exam and other information gathered; Assessment includes the problem list and rule outs; and Plan includes the next steps in the evaluation/plan.

Drugs that have no accepted medical use, are not considered safe, and have high potential for abuse are the most controlled by the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration). Drugs under this category such as heroin are listed as what type of category? Schedule IV controlled substance Schedule II controlled substance Schedule V controlled substance Schedule III controlled substance Schedule I controlled substance Your Answer

Explanation Schedule I substances are the most controlled and are unlikely to be available at a veterinary clinic. Schedule II substances such as morphine and fentanyl are frequently the most tightly controlled substances in a veterinary hospital.

What is the average gestation length of a cat? Approximately 340 days Approximately 90 days Approximately 60 days Your Answer Approximately 290 days

Explanation The average gestation length of dogs and cats is 63 days. Horses have a gestation length of approximately 340 days. Although the average for horses is approximately 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days. Cows have an average gestation length of 285 days (about 9 months).

A very young puppy presents with a history of milk coming from his nose and seems to cough and gurgle when he eats. What deformity commonly results in this presentation? A. Cleft palate B. Persistent right aortic arch C. Stenotic nares D. Occluded sinus E. Esophageal stricture

Explanation A A common presentation for cleft palate is milk coming from a puppy's (or kitten's) nose after or during eating. It is a defect that affects the upper lip and/or the roof of the mouth. Cleft palate can involve only the soft tissue in the back of the mouth (soft palate) or extend forward through the front of the mouth (hard palate). If there is a hole in the roof of the mouth, milk can travel out the nose while the puppy is drinking.

Which suture type is non-absorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration? A. Ethilon B. Monocryl C. Maxon D. Chromic gut E. Polysorb

Explanation A Ethilon is nylon suture. Nylon sutures are non-absorbable and are often used for skin sutures that will be removed.

As teeth make contact and grind together they gradually become worn. What is this process known as? A. Attrition B. Dentition C. Hypertrophy D. Thinning

Explanation A Attrition is the wearing of teeth by tooth-on-tooth contact during mastication. Hypertrophy is a general term that means enlargement or overgrowth.

In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, you are most concerned about damage to which nerve? A. Obturator B. Tibial C. Femoral D. Peroneal

Explanation A Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common. This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs. During birthing, this nerve can become crushed and lead to this problem.

Where would you find a Sertoli cell tumor? A. Testicle B. Adrenal gland C. Brain D. Kidney E. Pancreas

Explanation A Sertoli cells are striated cells in the seminiferous tubules that aid in spermatogenesis by providing nourishment for sperm cells. They are present in the testicle.

Which injectable medication comes in an emulsion containing egg lecithin and soybean oil? Metoclopramide Thiopental Propofol Your Answer Ketamine

Explanation Propofol is an injectable anesthetic drug. It comes in an emulsion containing egg lecithin and soybean oil. It is produced in this manner because this drug is poorly dissolved in water.

An owner has fed her diabetic cat and has given the insulin injection. She calls the clinic because there is a wet spot on the fur where she gave the injection and she doesn't think it went in. What will you advise her to do? Not re-dose the insulin, just give the next scheduled dose as directed Your Answer Give Karo syrup orally and monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia Give another 1/2 dose of insulin Repeat the insulin injection since the cat ate

Explanation The cat should not be re-dosed. It would be more detrimental for the cat to receive additional insulin than for him to miss an injection. Advise the owner to just give the next regularly scheduled dose. Karo syrup is given when hypoglycemia is suspected (if too much insulin is given or if the animal is having symptoms of hypoglycemia

When collecting an arterial blood sample, the best location to obtain arterial blood in the standing adult horse is where? Dorsal Metatarsal Artery Jugular Artery Transverse facial artery Your Answer Femoral Artery Carotid Artery

Explanation The transverse facial artery is the easiest and most commonly used artery to collect arterial blood in a standing adult horse. It is typically located caudal and ventral to the eye and is easily detected. The dorsal metatarsal and carotid arteries are possible sites to collect arterial blood, but an adult horse typically will not stand still to collect blood from the extremity (hind limb). The carotid is also possible to collect arterial blood but is a deeper structure and is obviously a very large vessel; damage to this vessel during collection can be problematic.

Which species regurgitates food for remastication? A. Horses B. Pigs C. Cats D. Lagomorphs E. Cattle

Explanation E Cattle chew their "cud", which is food that they regurgitate for remastication. When a cow chews her cud, she regurgitates a food bolus into her mouth, which is then re-chewed and re-swallowed. While cattle are chewing their cud, they produce saliva which acts as a natural antacid that helps to buffer and protect the rumen. Cows sometimes spend up to 8 hours a day chewing their cud.

41. The proper name for a neutered male pig is a a. gelding. b. wether. c. gib. d. barrow.

41. D: Barrow A neutered male pig is a barrow. A neutered male ferret is a gib. A neutered male horse or llama is a gelding. A neutered male sheep is a wether.

109. Aside from heart rate maintenance, atropine is used as a pre-anesthetic medication to a. maintain respiration. b. control secretions. c. reduce the risk of seizure activity. d. ease catheterization.

109. B: Control secretions Anticholinergics atropine and glycopyrrolate control salivary and respiratory tract secretions.

2. Fluoroquinolones should not be used in a. young animals because they cause arthropathy. b. growing animals because they cause heart conduction disturbance. c. pregnant animals because they cause abortion. d. older animals because they cause arthropathy.

2. A: Young animals because they cause arthropathy Fluoroquinolones are toxic to chondrocytes. Damaged chondrocytes form vesicles on articular surfaces. Higher doses of fluoroquinolones are more likely to cause articular damage. Affected animals become lame.

220. Which of the following is NOT a function of diazepam? a. Anxiolytic b. Anticonvulsant c. Analgesic d. Muscle relaxant

220. C: Analgesic Diazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that has several clinical indications. In prescribed doses, it can function as an anxiolytic, a short-duration anticonvulsant, a muscle relaxant, and an appetite stimulant. Diazepam does not, however, provide any analgesia when administered by itself and therefore must be used in conjunction with specific pain-relieving drugs, such as opioids, when used for anesthetic purposes.

35. Diffusion across the cell membrane with the assistance of carrier proteins is called a. diffusion. b. osmosis. c. facilitated diffusion. d. filtration.

35. C: Facilitated diffusion Diffusion is a passive process of molecular movement from a high concentration to a low concentration. Osmosis is the movement of water through a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute to high solute. Facilitated diffusion is diffusion with the assistance of carrier proteins across the cell membrane. Filtration is a process of forcing substances across a cell membrane using hydrostatic pressure.

46. When performing a barium study of the upper gastrointestinal tract of a bird, ventrodorsal and lateral radiographs should be taken at a. 0, 15, 30, 60, and 120 minutes. b. 0, 15, 30, 45, and 60 minutes. c. 0, 30, 60, 120, and 240 minutes. d. 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes.

46. C: 0, 30, 60, 120, and 240 minutes An upper gastrointestinal tract barium study may be used to evaluate the cause of regurgitation, vomition, diarrhea, and abnormal palpation in a bird. Positive-contrast medium such as barium may also be used to determine organ location. Barium is administered to the bird by stomach tube and radiographs are taken at 0 m, 30 m, 60 m, 2 h, and 4 h. In a normal gastrointestinal tract, the crop fills immediately. The proventriculus and gizzard fill after 30 minutes; the small intestine after 1 hour. By 4 hours, the crop should be empty.

54. A common test to establish the presence of ringworm infection is a. Response to antibiotics b. Fecal flotation c. Culture on dermatophyte medium d. Culture on blood agar

54. C: Culture on dermatophyte medium Ringworm is a contagious fungal skin infection. The type of fungi that cause ringworm are dermatophytic, specifically Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton, with Microsporum canis particularly common. Affected animals experience pruritus and alopecia. Crusting, scaling, redness, and hyperpigmentation may exist. A Wood's lamp may be used to check for fluorescence of suspected infected hairs. Fluorescence suggests ringworm infection, but neither the presence nor absence of fluorescence is diagnostic. Definitive diagnosis of ringworm depends on culturing the fungus from plucked hairs. Hairs are placed on dermatophyte test medium and gently pressed into the medium. Results are often seen within days, but up to two weeks are allowed for growth and color change of the medium.

81. Compared to the commonly unstained wet preparation for feline or canine urine sediment evaluation, the air-dried, modified-Wright stain is a. more accurate for determination of crystalluria. b. less accurate for determination of crystalluria. c. more accurate for detection of bacteriuria. d. less accurate for detection of bacteriuria.

81. C: More accurate for detection of bacteriuria Urine sediment examination can yield different results than urine culture, often because of misinterpreted pseudobacteria, small particles that resemble bacteria in size, shape, and movement. An air-dried urine preparation stained with a modified-Wright (Diff-Quik) stain reduces misidentification.

84. Goals for personal or professional achievement should be SMART. SMART stands for a. specific, manageable, attainable, realistic, timely. b. specific, measurable, attainable, reliable, timely. c. specific, manageable, attainable, reliable, targeted. d. specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely.

84. D: Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely. SMART goals make achievement planned and monitored for success. A goal should be specifically defined and detailed. The goal should be measurable to know when it has been reached. Goals must be attainable to be true goals and not wishes. Goals should be aspiring, but also realistic goal with a certainty that achievement is possible. Goals should have a set time frame to focus achievement. A large goal may be broken down into smaller parts for timely and realistic attainment.

100. Which animal experiences fur slip when roughly handled? a. Ferret b. Guinea pig c. Rabbit d. Chinchilla

100. D: Chinchilla Chinchillas will lose large patches of hair when roughly handled, a condition called fur slip.

101. A roaster is a a. 5-pound chicken. b. 6-month-old chicken. c. 3-5-month-old chicken weighing about 5-7 pounds. d. 1-year-old chicken weighing about 7 pounds.

101. C: 3-5-month-old chicken weighing approximately 5-7 pounds A roaster is a 3- to 5-month-old chicken that weighs approximately 5 to 7 pounds. A roaster has a higher density of meat than a broiler or a fryer. A broiler is 6 to 8 weeks old.

157. Puppies begin to wean from their mothers at what age? a. 3 weeks b. 5 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 12 weeks

157. A: 3 weeks Puppies begin to wean from their mother at 3 weeks of age. Formula is offered, first. Later, thin cereal is mixed into the formula. Canned food is next offered. At around 5 weeks, puppies can be offered dry puppy food.

111. Hyperkalemia may be treated with a. chloride. b. sodium. c. insulin and glucose. d. insulin and dexamethasone.

111. C: Insulin and glucose Hyperkalemia, high serum potassium content, is a serious condition requiring prompt treatment. Potassium can be driven into cells by activating the sodium-potassium pump with administration of insulin. Because excess insulin will also drive glucose into cells, supplemental glucose must be given to prevent hypoglycemia while treating hyperkalemia.

124. When a urinalysis will not be run immediately, what test should be performed at the time of storage and at the time of evaluation? a. Specific gravity b. pH c. Protein d. Bilirubin

124. B: pH Refrigeration of urine leads to degeneration of casts and, in some cases, ex vivo crystal formation. To assess the likelihood of changes in sediment, pH can be monitored. A change in pH indicates a likelihood of cast and crystal changes.

161. A hyperbaric oxygen chamber is used to deliver ___% oxygen and to ___ pressure relative to air pressure. a. 21%, decrease b. 21%, increase c. 100%, decrease d. 100%, increase

161. D: 100%, increased A hyperbaric oxygen chamber provides 100% oxygen under increased pressure, relative to room air, resulting in an up to fifteen time increase in dissolved oxygen. Increasing oxygen concentration in the blood increases the amount of oxygen in tissues as well as the depth of diffusion into tissues. Treatment is useful with compromised circulation, smoke inhalation, anaerobic infection, and some injuries. Barotrauma and oxygen toxicity can occur, but are minimized by proper treatment procedures.

4. Which class of drugs is NOT a good choice to treat an infection by a gram-positive anaerobe? a. Tetracyclines b. Macrolides c. Aminoglycosides d. Beta-lactams

4. C: Aminoglycosides Beta-lactams and macrolides are reliably useful against gram-positive anaerobes. Tetracyclines are also clinically effective against some gram-positive anaerobes. Aminoglycosides are not clinically useful in fighting gram-positive anaerobes.

Which of the following should be clean, but does not need to be sterile for surgical procedures? A. Mask B. Gown C. Gloves D. Drape

Explanation A The cap, mask, and shoe covers are not typically sterile. They should, however, be clean. Ideally, a new mask should be used for every procedure. Gowns, drapes, gloves, instruments should be sterilized. It is best practice for all people in the surgery suite to wear caps, masks, and shoe covers.

What structure connects the kidneys to the bladder? A. Loop of Henle B. Urethra C. Trigone D. Ureter

Explanation D The kidneys connect to the bladder via the ureters. The bladder excretes urine to the outside via the urethra. The trigone is the smooth triagular region inside the bladder that is formed by the area where the ureters and urethra attach to the bladder. The Loop of Henle is part of the nephron in the kidney

A drug that is an anti-cholinergic agent will have which of the following effects? Decrease salivation Your Answer Constrict the pupil of the eye Decrease heart rate Suppress the cough reflex

Explanation Anti-cholinergic agents are drugs that antagonize the effects of acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system. Commonly used examples of anticholinergic agents include atropine and pilocarpine. They are commonly used prior to anesthesia because they increase the heart rate (most anesthetic drugs decrease heart rate) and decrease oral secretions, which can aid intubation.

Which of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility? Diphenhydramine Famotidine Metoclopramide Your Answer Barium

Explanation Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide, increase gastrointestinal motility. Metoclopramide (Reglan) also acts centrally as an antiemetic by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors in the chemo-receptor-trigger-zone (CRTZ). Famotidine is an H2 blocker. Diphenhydramine helps prevent mast cell degranulation. Barium is used to perform contrast studies of the gastrointestinal tract.

Which of the following is an example of an endodontic treatment? Root canal Your Answer Dental scaling Tumor removal from the tongue Soft palate resection surgery

Explanation Endodontics deals with the tooth pulp and the tissues surrounding the root of a tooth. The root canal is the most common endodontic procedure.

10. What is a reverse distributor? a. A supplier who resells returned merchandise b. A supplier who resells returned pharmacy merchandise only c. A Drug Enforcement Administration registered pharmacist who is authorized to sell items from their inventory to practitioners d. A Drug Enforcement Administration registrant authorized to receive unusable or unwanted controlled substances

10. D: A Drug Enforcement Administration registrant authorized to receive unusable or unwanted controlled substances. Practitioners dispose of out-of-date, damaged, unusable, and unwanted controlled substances by transferring them to a reverse distributor, a Drug Enforcement Administration registrant authorized to receive them. Local DEA field offices provide a list of authorized reverse distributors. Copies of the records documenting the transfer and disposal must be maintained for 2 years.

102. Which breed of chicken would not be farmed as a meat breed? a. Silkie Bantam b. New Hampshire Red c. Rhode Island Red d. Wyandotte

102. A: Silkie Bantam While some chickens are farmed for both meat and eggs, the Silkie Bantam is an ornamental breed raised for eggs, but not meat.

103. The primary survey during triage includes assessment of a. history and complete physical examination. b. minimum database. c. obvious trauma only. d. airway, breathing, and circulation.

103. D: Airway, breathing, circulation Triage assigns priority to emergency patients and their medical issues. Certain severe problems including excessive bleeding and open fractures warrant immediate treatment without full assessment. For patients surveyed during triage, the primary survey involves assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation. The secondary survey includes history taking, complete physical examination, and a minimum database.

104. A chick egg takes how many days to hatch? a. 14 days b. 21 days c. 28 days d. 35 days

104. B: 21 days Chicken eggs are commonly incubated to hatch them. An egg takes 21 days to hatch. A still-air incubator is heated to 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit. Incubator humidity should be 60-65 percent for the first 18 days of incubation, and 80-85 percent for the last 3 days.

105. A duck with limber neck has a. chlamydiosis. b. tetanus. c. avian influenza. d. botulism.

105. D: Botulism Clostridium botulinum, once ingested by a duck, releases a toxin that causes paralysis. They are said to have limber neck. With early supportive treatment, the duck may survive through the toxin wearing off.

106. A twitch is usually placed on a horse's upper lip. Less commonly, it is placed on a. both lips. b. the lower lip and ear. c. the tail. d. both ears.

106. B: The lower lip and ear The twitch, properly applied, is an effective means of restraint, distracting the horse from other tasks. A twitch is applied to the lower lip by holding the lip and pulling it into the loop of the twitch. The handle is then rotated to tighten the twitch on the lip. Uncommonly, the lower lip and ear will be twitched.

107. Proper general restraint of the ferret is achieved by a. scruffing the neck and allowing the body to hang freely down. b. using an arm to hold the length of the ferret against the body. c. placing one hand under the shoulders with the thumb under the jaw, and using the other hand to support and restrain the hindquarters. d. holding the ferret forward of the pelvis and allowing the rest of the body to hang freely down.

107. C: Placing one hand under the shoulders with the thumb under the jaw, and using the other hand to support and restrain the hindquarters Ferrets can be difficult to restrain, but must be safely restrained at both their shoulders and hips to prevent injury.

108. Which breed is an example of a dolichocephalic dog? a. Collie b. Westie c. Pug d. Saint Bernard

108. A: Collie Dolichocephaly indicates a long head, often recognized as an elongated nose in dogs. Brachycephalic breeds, by contrast, have broad heads and short muzzles.

11. Which of the following is an effective surface disinfectant? a. 1:32 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite b. 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite c. 1:5 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite d. All of the above

11. A: 1:32 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite Proper surface disinfection depends on proper cleaning of the surface first. In addition, the surface disinfectant should adequately cover the surface and maintain contact with the surface for a suitable period. Sodium hypochlorite, the active ingredient in bleach, provides optimal disinfection with a 0.16% solution. A 0.16% solution is created by diluting a 5.25% solution to a 1:32 dilution. A dilute bleach or sodium hypochlorite solution is effective against parvovirus as well as other bacteria and viruses.

110. Which of these is NOT a sign of dystocia in a dog? a. 68 days of gestation without signs of labor b. 4 hours of weak contractions without production of a fetus c. 30 minutes of strong contractions without production of a fetus d. Overt disorder interfering with delivery

110. A: 68 days of gestation without signs of labor Canine gestation may last 57-72 days, with an average of 65 days. Dystocia, problems with delivery of one or more pups are caused by fetal factors including oversize and malpresentations, anatomic disorder of the mother, and uterine inertia. Signs of dystocia include gestation past 70 days with no sign of labor, pelvic anatomical disorders, pup lodged in the birth canal, strong contractions without delivery of a pup in 30 minutes, weal contractions without delivery of a pup in 4 hours, severe pain, temperature drop below 100 degrees Fahrenheit with return to normal but no labor after 24 hours.

112. Complete the sequence of viral replication: Adsorption, then penetration, then ___, then synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein, then assembly/maturation, then release. a. Uncoating b. Destruction of cell c. Replication of virions d. Adherence

112. A: Uncoating The first step of viral replication is adsorption, when the virus attaches to the cell surface. Second, the virus penetrates the cell by fusing with the plasma membrane, entering through endosomes at the cell surface, or crossing the membrane directly. Next, the virus uncoats so that virus replication can begin. During the fourth step, the virus synthesizes viral nucleic acid and protein. New virus particles are then assembled, and, in the sixth and final step, the newly assembled virus particles are released due to cell lysis or budding from the cell.

113. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration prohibits the use of which antibiotic in livestock? a. Penicillin b. Cephalosporins c. Tetracycline d. Monensin

113. B: Cephalosporins Antibiotics are used in food animals to treat active infections and control infections that may limit growth. Some medications may not be used within a defined time period prior to slaughter to limit the risk of human exposure to medication through food. The Food and Drug Administration expressly prohibits the use of some antibiotics, including fluoroquinolones and cephalosporins, in livestock.

114. Which common painful lesions of feline teeth are the result of odontoclast activation? a. Reline caries b. Feline oral resorptive lesions c. Feline oral squamous cell carcinoma d. Feline ulcerative disease

114. B: Feline oral resorptive lesions Feline oral resorptive lesions have been observed with increasing frequency since the 1970s. The lesions are caused by activation of odontoclasts, though the cause of activation remains under study. With this disease, odontoclasts abnormally remodel tooth structure, causing excess, and potentially extensive, tooth resorption. Lesions tend to occur at the gumline and are very painful.

115. Cheyne-Stokes respiration refers to a. deep, rapid breathing with no end-expiratory pause. b. an unpredictable breathing pattern. c. periods of apnea alternating with periods of tachypnea and hyperpnea. d. a pause at the end of inspiration.

115. C: Periods of apnea alternating with periods of tachypnea and hyperpnea Cheyne-Stokes respiration is an abnormal breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea alternating with periods of tachypnea and hyperpnea. This breathing pattern can have negative cardiopulmonary effects including oxygen desaturation and arrhythmias. Treatment depends on the underlying cause, which may be advanced cardiac disease.

116. Which species has the potential for substantial stress-related hyperglycemia? a. Horse b. Pig c. Cat d. Rabbit

116. C: Cat While other animals can experience an elevated serum glucose concentration secondary to stress, cats may have such substantial elevation as to confuse stress hyperglycemia with diabetes. When in doubt, serum fructosamine levels can be evaluated to differentiate chronic elevation in glucose from a limited episode.

117. The process of setting a sheep on its hindquarters to work on its hooves or undersides is called a. straddling. b. tipping. c. blocking. d. cradling.

117. B: Tipping A sheep is tipped to trim hooves or work on its underside. Tipping can be performed humanely and without injury to the sheep. The handler should hold the sheep's head and position his or her body aside the sheep. By swinging the head outward while rotating the body down and inward, the sheep can be moved into a position of resting on its hindquarters or rump.

118. Complete the stages of the estrous cycle: proestrus, then estrus, then ___, then diestrus a. Biestrus b. Transestrus c. Postestrus d. Metestrus

118. D: Metestrus Progesterone levels decline and estradiol increases as the corpus luteum regresses in the proestrus stage. The follicle grows during proestrus and estrus. Ovulation occurs during estrus in most species. Metestrus is the first part of the luteal phase when the corpus luteum develops. Ovulation occurs during metestrus in the cow. Diestrus completes the luteal phase.

119. A frantic owner calls to report worms in her dog's feces. You respond: a. "That's an emergency. Bring your dog right in." b. "Don't worry. Come in and pick up some medicine, I'll get it ready for you." c. "Don't worry. Just keep your dog on monthly heartworm preventative." d. "I'll schedule an appointment for you. Please bring a sample of feces with you for evaluation."

119. D: "I'll schedule an appointment for you. Please bring a sample of feces with you for evaluation." While worms in the feces are not an emergency, they are of great concern and must be addressed. Dogs may be infected with multiple intestinal parasites, and should not be diagnosed or treated solely on the basis of visible worms. Medication should not be dispensed without a valid doctor- client-patient relationship and a doctor's prescription. The dog should be evaluated for signs of disease. The dog's feces should be evaluated for other parasites. The client should be educated on treatment and limiting the likelihood of further infection.

120. Flea larvae are a. hydrophilic and photophilic. b. hydrophilic and photophobic. c. photophilic and kinesophobic. d. photophobic and kinesophobic.

120. D: Photophobic and kinesophobic Understanding the flea life cycle and characteristics is useful to avoid fleas and treat infestations. Flea eggs can be picked up by vacuums. Flea larvae eat flea feces. Vacuuming removes flea feces and reduces the food supply for larvae. Because larvae are photophobic and kinesophobic, they will more likely be found in dark, poorly trafficked areas. Treatment should focus on these areas.

122. A pet has been placed on an elimination diet to evaluate response in assessing a food allergy. For what length of time must the pet remain on the elimination diet to ensure there has been NO response? a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 12 weeks

122. D: 12 weeks To properly assess the presence of a food allergy and define the one or more causative patients, cats and dogs are placed on novel protein-limited ingredient elimination diets. Because it takes time to build an allergic response, the animal will not have an allergic reaction to ingredients to which the animal has not been previously exposed. A positive response is a reduction or elimination of allergic symptoms while on the elimination diet. A diagnosis depends on confirmation with return of allergic symptoms when reintroduced to the offending protein. A positive response, a reduction in allergy symptoms, can be detected early in the course of assessment. Contrarily, a negative response takes 12 weeks to confirm. A lack of response to the novel diet over the first few weeks is not diagnostic. Some animals take up to three weeks to resolve their inflammatory response.

123. A loud murmur with a palpable thrill is a a. grade 1 murmur. b. grade 2 murmur. c. grade 4 murmur. d. grade 5 murmur.

123. D: Grade 5 murmur Heart murmurs are graded based on their loudness and intensity. A grade 1 heart murmur will be difficult to detect even under ideal conditions. A grade 3 murmur is moderately loud or intense and can be heard in more than one location. Grade 4 and grade 5 murmurs are loud. They are differentiated by the presence of a palpable thrill. A loud murmur with a palpable thrill is categorized as grade 5.

125. The veterinarian has asked you to perform a skin scraping and microscopic evaluation of an animal suspected of having a mite infestation. The collected material is placed on a slide. What is the correct method for slide evaluation? a. 5 randomly chosen spots under high magnification b. 5 randomly chosen spots under low magnification c. A Z pattern under high magnification d. A Z pattern under low magnification

125. D: A Z pattern under low magnification Mites are relatively large and easily spotted under microscopic examination. Low power magnification, either 4x or 10x, is most appropriate for visualizing mites. For thorough evaluation, the slide is moved in a Z pattern to ensure all fields are viewed and evaluated. Using the Z pattern, viewing begins at one corner of the slide and viewing continues in a straight line. When the edge of the sample or edge of slide is reached, the slide is moved to the next line, with slight overlap of the first line. Evaluation of the entire slide continues in this manner.

127. Which of the following is NOT a round cell tumor? a. Transmissible venereal tumor b. Mast cell tumor c. Melanoma d. Cutaneous lymphoma

127. C: Melanoma Round cell tumors are named for their shape under microscopic examination. The cells are discrete cells, round to oval in shape, that exfoliate from the tumor mass well. Generally speaking, they are easily identified with fine needle aspiration and microscopic evaluation. Canine round cell tumors include mast cell tumor, histiocytoma, plasmacytomas, transmissible venereal tumors, and cutaneous lymphoma. Llamas and alpacas have malignant round cell tumors that include lymphoma, neuroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and primitive neuroectodermal tumor.

128. Horses have a blind spot in their visual field directly behind their head at approximately a. 3 degrees. b. 20 degrees. c. 52 degrees. d. 87 degrees.

128. A: 3 degrees Horses have large eyes, positioned laterally. The horizontal field of vision for each eye is 190 degrees, with an overlapping binocular field of 65 degrees. The vertical field of vision of each eye is 180 degrees. Horses have two very narrow blind spots. One is below the nose. The other is behind the head, extending over the spine of the horse. The rear blind spot is only 3 degrees wide.

129. When bandaging horses' legs, the legs should be wrapped in what direction(s)? a. Right legs counterclockwise, left legs clockwise b. Left legs counterclockwise, right legs clockwise c. Clockwise d. Counterclockwise

129. B: Left legs counterclockwise, right legs clockwise Proper bandaging technique of horse limbs requires wrapping in a spiral pattern beginning at the inside of the cannon bone above the fetlock. Each leg should be wrapped from front to back and from outside to inside. This pattern equates to counterclockwise wrapping of left legs, and clockwise wrapping of right legs. Bandages should not begin or end over a joint. Each layer should overlap the prior layer by 50%.

13. Which of the following is the best description of strangles? a. A contagious disease of horses caused by Streptococcus equi var equi b. An autoimmune disease of dogs causing a skin disorder c. A bacterial disease of horses that can be prevented with vaccination d. All of the above.

13. D: All of the above Strangles, also known as distemper in horses, is a highly contagious disease caused by S. equi var equi. Vaccines are available and are recommended where strangles is endemic or when horses are expected to be at high risk. Streptococcus equi can be transmitted directly or indirectly, and causes an inflammatory response resulting in fever, dysphagia, anorexia, stridor, nasal discharge, and lymphadenopathy. All symptoms are not necessarily present. Strangles in dogs is called puppy strangles, juvenile cellulitis, and sterile granulomatous dermatitis and lymphadenitis. It is an uncommon disease related to immune system dysfunction occurring in puppies between 3 weeks and 4 months of age. The face becomes markedly swollen. High doses of corticosteroids are needed to treat the disease. Following resolution, the disease does not recur.

130. On a rebreathing system, the appropriate oxygen flow rate for a 5 kg cat is a. 500 mL/min b. 300 mL/min c. 250 mL/min d. 150 mL/min

130. D: 150 mL/min On a rebreathing system, the appropriate flow rate for oxygen is 30 mL/kg/min. A 5-kg cat receives 150 mL/min (5 kg x 30mL = 150 mL). Alterations in flow rate would be made to accommodate disease states and inhibited ventilation.

131. The most common arrhythmia in a patient with GDV is a. asystole. b. VPCs. c. sinus arrhythmia. d. prolonged PR interval.

131. B: VPCs When a patient has gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV), the distended stomach may compress the abdominal caudal vena cava, thereby decreasing venous return to the heart and decreasing cardiac output. The cascade of deleterious effects continues as systolic blood pressure drops and peripheral vasoconstriction follows. The decreasing circulation of oxygen-rich blood and venous return increases the risk of myocardial damage. As the heart experiences injury, the electrical rhythm changes as demonstrated in an ECG: P waves disappear as ventricles spontaneously fire and the QRS complex becomes wide and irregular as electrical communication is disrupted. These VPCs (ventricular premature contractions) develop 12+ hours following dilatation and volvulus.

132. Hyperkalemia leads to what electrocardiographic change? a. Asystole b. VPCs c. Absent PR interval d. Peaked T waves

132. D: Peaked T waves Serum potassium concentrations above 5.5 mEq/L accelerate depolarization of the heart. Electrically, the result will be seen in the ECG as the T waves become tall and tented or peaked. If serum potassium concentrations continue to rise above 6.5 mEq/L, cardiac conduction slows and intervals are prolonged. Serum potassium levels above 7 mEq/L further affect the heart's conduction, flattening the P wave, inducing ventricular fibrillation, and, in the most severe cases, causing cardiac arrest.

133. Between the ages of 4 and 20, a horse should have his or her teeth floated every a. 3 months. b. 6 months. c. 1 year. d. 2 years.

133. C: 1 year A horse's chewing motion causes sharp points to develop on the molars over time. If left alone, the points will interfere with the ability to chew food properly. The horse may also have difficulty with a bit. Consequently, the points are filed down, known as floating teeth. Floating is generally first needed at three to four years of age, and then every year on an ongoing basis. Some horses may be able to go as long as a year and a half in between floatings.

134. An adult rabbit should NOT be fed what type of hay routinely? a. Timothy b. Orchard grass c. Alfalfa d. Johnson grass

134. C: Alfalfa Rabbits should have hay offered ad libitum. Young, growing rabbits should have alfalfa hay that is higher in protein and calcium levels. Adult rabbits should not have legume hays like alfalfa, peanut, clover, vetch, or pea. Instead the maintenance diet of adult rabbits should include grass hay. Timothy hay is most often fed, but orchard, Timothy, oat, brome, Bermuda, and Johnson grass are acceptable options.

135. Small breed rabbits will be sexually mature as early as a. 5 months. b. 9 months. c. 1 year. d. 2 years.

135. A: 5 months While different breeds of rabbit become sexually mature at different ages, all rabbit breeds are able to reproduce by one year of age. Smaller rabbits mature sexually sooner than larger rabbits. The smallest breeds, those under 4 kg, mature at four to five months of age. Breeds in the 2-4 kg range tend to become sexually mature at five to six months of age. Larger breeds become sexually mature at six to eight months of age, though some mature slightly after that.

136. Raptors are more easily handled with what placed on them? a. Hood b. Muzzle c. Leash d. Tape

136. A: Hood When handling raptors, long leather gloves should be worn and the bird permitted to perch atop the glove. A hood can be used to cover the eyes, and calm the bird.

137. Sweet clover poisoning causes a. blindness. b. diarrhea. c. kidney failure. d. hemorrhaging.

137. D: Hemorrhaging The natural coumarins in sweet clover change into toxic dicumarol when the sweet clover spoils or gets moldy. Dicumarol is an anticoagulant, interfering with production of coagulation factor VII. Poisoning, therefore, causes hemorrhaging, massive bleeding. Blood transfusions, vitamin K1, and removal of spoiled sweet clover are necessary for treatment.

138. A repetitious behavior with no obvious purpose or function that interferes with normal function is a a. redirected activity. b. displaced activity. c. stereotypic behavior. d. frustration.

138. C: Stereotypic behavior Stereotypic behaviors are repetitious movements with no obvious purpose. They are usually derived from normal maintenance behaviors, but now interfere with normal function. Stereotypic behaviors are a description, not a diagnosis. Redirected activity is focused away from the actual target and on to another target. Displaced activity has similarities to redirected behavior, but involves an activity performed out-of-context or with a different behavior because the animal cannot perform the original activity.

139. Approximately 18% of dogs of what breed are unilaterally or bilaterally deaf? a. Basenji b. Dalmatian c. German Shepherd d. Dogue de Bordeaux

139. B: Dalmatian Although the precise number varies slightly among different studies, 18-20% of Dalmatians have congenital deafness. The incidence of unilaterally deaf Dalmatians is almost three times the number of bilaterally deaf Dalmatians. Hearing is evaluated with the BAER test. Evaluation has shown an inherited pattern. Unilaterally deaf Dalmatians with blue eyes should not be bred.

14. Which of the following is false regarding endotoxins? a. Endotoxin is a component of the external cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. b. Endotoxin causes the release of cytokines, vasoactive amines, and proteases. c. Glucocorticoids are used to treat endotoxic shock. d. Antibiotics are used to treat endotoxic shock.

14. D: Antibiotics are used to treat endotoxic shock. Endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide and a component of the external cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria. It is released from the bacteria during bacterial growth, and cell lysis and death. When endotoxin binds receptors on host endothelial cells, macrophages or monocytes, or polymorphonuclear leukocytes, biochemical mediators are produced and released. These mediators include cytokines, eicosanoids, nitric oxide, platelet activating factor, proteases, toxic oxygen radicals, and vasoactive amines. The release of these mediators initiates physiologic events resulting in endotoxic shock with cardiopulmonary dysfunction, loss of microvascular integrity, and multiple organ failure. Glucocorticoids are used in endotoxic shock because they are known to reduce cytokine production, inhibit the inflammatory cascade, and inhibit nitrous oxide. Lazaroids, nonsteroidal antiinflammatories, pentoxifylline, and nitrous oxide inhibitors are used to treat endotoxic shock, but not antibacterials.

141. Regarding drug pricing, a higher markup should NOT be charged for drugs that a. are expensive. b. have a lower turnover rate. c. have a short expiration date. d. require special handling.

141. A: Are expensive Good inventory management and pricing strategies are highly important to the financial success of veterinary practices. Prices are set based not only on the direct cost of the drug but the additional costs of inventorying and handling each drug. Costs increase when drugs have a low turnover rate resulting in higher storage costs, have a short expiration date—increasing the chance of waste—or require special handling.

142. The reorder point is the a. time to requisition new stock to maintain predetermined inventory levels. b. maximum number of a product to be inventoried at any time. c. point that gives maximum pricing benefit. d. guarantee of proper stock maintenance.

142. A: Time to requisition new stock to maintain predetermined inventory levels Each practice establishes its own inventory reorder point. A point is set for every item in inventory to minimize the cost of carrying product as well as any disruption in supply. Reorder point formulas are available, but the point may be set by a fairly simple interpretation of minimum tolerable stock, the length of time required to restock, and turnover rate.

143. Which of the following is NOT an accepted technique following cruciate ligament rupture? a. Cruciate ligament graft b. Tibial tuberosity advancement c. Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy d. Extracapsular repair

143. A: Cruciate ligament graft The cranial cruciate ligament is injured fairly frequently, and is the most common knee injury of the dog. Veterinarians will often be able to elicit a drawer sign when the ligament is ruptured. Rupture of the ligament destabilizes the knee joint and establishes an environment for arthritis. Surgical repair stabilizes the knee joint, and may limit the progression of osteoarthritis. Different surgical approaches are used: TPLO (tibial plateau leveling osteotomy), TTA (tibial tuberosity advancement), and extracapsular repair. Intracapsular repair, or the "over the top" method, is no longer commonly used.

144. Which of the following items is included in an employee handbook? 1. Disciplinary procedures 2. Dress code 3. Social media policy 4. Job descriptions a. All of the above b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3

144. D: 1, 2, 3 Employee handbooks can be extensive summaries of a practices rules and policies. An employee handbook includes information on the practice and the type of employment, general employment information including ADA and EEO information, attendance policies, work safety issues, reimbursement policies, compensation and benefits information, time off work, performance evaluation procedures, complaint procedures, and workplace monitoring. It does not include job descriptions.

145. A vicious cat is at the practice for surgery. Where should the staff mark this is an aggressive animal? a. The pet's record b. On the cat's cage c. On the surgery schedule d. All of the above

145. D: All of the above Safety is a priority. The safest solution is to mark the cat's aggressive status in every location staff may look for information about the cat. Marking the cage is important for any staff members who may have responsibility for cages, but are less likely to check records prior to basic care.

146. When should surgical patients be marked with identification? a. When transferred to the surgical ward b. Upon arrival c. Just before surgery d. At home prior to arrival

146. B: Upon arrival To minimize the possibility of confusion and misidentification, patients arriving for surgery should be marked with identification upon arrival at the practice.

148. Pups under what age may not have complete bladder control and cannot reliably avoid house soiling? a. 12 weeks b. 16 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 26 weeks

148. A: 12 weeks Puppies may be too young to be fully house-trained. The ability to reliably avoid soiling the house depends upon good bladder control. Under twelve weeks of age, bladder control is incomplete and unreliable.

149. Eye caps on a snake are directly related to a. old age. b. fungal disease. c. low humidity. d. cancer.

149. C: Low humidity Snakes normally shed every few weeks to once or twice per year. The skin normally sheds in one piece. Poor shedding may be indirectly related to poor health. It is directly related to low humidity and mite infestation. When a snake does not shed properly and fully, old skin may be retained over the eyes, called eye caps. Substantial retention requires removal so the snake can see clearly and eat properly.

15. Which of the following is NOT a statement of the Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics? a. "Veterinary technicians shall remain competent through commitment to life-long learning." b. "Veterinary technicians shall safeguard the public and the profession against individuals deficient in professional competence or ethics." c. "Veterinary technicians shall assume accountability for their professional actions as well as those with whom they work." d. "Veterinary technicians shall represent their credentials or identify themselves with specialty organizations only if the designation has been awarded or earned."

15. C: "Veterinary technicians shall assume accountability for their professional actions as well as those with whom they work." The full NAVTA Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics covers the obligations, ethical responsibilities, and ideals of veterinary technicians. It was developed by the NAVTA Ethics Committee and contains eleven statements in the Code of Ethics. The line in question correctly reads, "Veterinary technicians shall assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgments."

151. Which of these flowers is NOT known to cause acute renal failure in cats? a. Peace lily b. Tiger lily c. Day lily d. Stargazer lily

151. A: Peace lily True lilies are highly toxic to cats, and known to cause acute renal failure in that species. True lilies include the Easter lily, tiger lily, stargazer lily, day lily, and all Asiatic lilies. Other flowers have lily in their name, but are not true lilies and do not cause acute renal failure. These flowers include the calla lily, peace lily, lily of the valley, and Peruvian lily.

152. Shamrock and rhubarb may cause acute renal failure in large animals because they contain a. insoluble oxalates. b. soluble oxalates. c. glycosides. d. urates.

152. B: Soluble oxalates Rhubarb leaves, star fruit, and shamrock contain soluble oxalates. When eaten, these oxalates are absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and bind with serum calcium and cause acute hypocalcemia. Additionally, calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in the kidneys and cause damage.

153. Digibind is an antidote for a. opioid toxicity. b. cardiac glycoside toxicity. c. propylene glycol toxicity. d. foreign body trauma.

153. B: Cardiac glycoside toxicity Digibind is a human product and antidote to cardiac glycoside toxicity. Toxicity can occur with administration of digitalis or ingestion of foxglove, oleander, or other plants containing cardiac glycosides.

154. Which of the following client behaviors is NOT consistent with an animal hoarder? a. Reluctance to identify the number of pets in the home b. Client presenting a large number of pets in inconsistent patterns c. Client having 5 pets that are consistently seen d. Client attempting to get medication refills without brining pets in

154. C: Client has 5 pets that are consistently seen True animal hoarding is a type of mental illness. Hoarders attempt to maintain far more animals than they can adequately care for. Hoarders are often experienced at hiding signs of this behavior. Some tip-offs that a patient lives with a hoarder or that a client is a hoarder are: Inconsistent or unidentified number of pets in the home Interest in further animal acquisition Inconsistent care of individual patients, but many visits with different patients Attempting to obtain medications for unseen animals Bringing in one or more poorly conditioned animals claiming stray status Not every client with multiple pets, or a higher than average number of pets is a hoarder. An owner taking proper care of all pets is not likely to be a hoarder.

155. A patient is scheduled for surgery and will be placed on inhalant anesthesia. To calculate the proper size of the breathing bag for the patient, a. multiply the tidal volume by 2. b. multiply the patient's weight in kg by 5. c. multiply the tidal volume by 6. d. multiply the patient's weight in kg by 10.

155. C: Multiply the tidal volume by 6 Tidal volume, the air inhales and exhaled with each breath, is 10-20 mL/kg. The volume of the breathing bag should be 6 times the tidal volume. The result will be in mL and should be translated to L to match bag sizing.

156. Neonatal isoerythrolysis is a(n) a. allergic reaction. b. delayed hypersensitivity reaction. c. type II hypersensitivity reaction. d. type III hypersensitivity reaction.

156. C: Type II hypersensitivity reaction In this condition, animals are born healthy, but develop a serious hemolytic anemia after drinking their mother's colostrum. The anemia develops within days, or even hours. A mother exposed to red cell antigens of the father or neonate develops a sensitivity to the antigens and produces alloantibody. Antibodies are released in colostrums, causing the newborn to be exposed to antibodies to the antigens on its red cells. Red cell lysis follows. This is a type II hypersensitivity.

158. A saddle thromboembolism is generally a sign of a. liver disease. b. a low platelet count. c. heart disease. d. pelvic injury.

158. C: Heart disease Turbulent blood flow in the heart precipitated blood clots forming. This happens at a substantially higher rate in the presence of heart disease, and is often associated with hypertrophiccardiomyopathy. Often, a large clot forms in the left atrium and attaches to the wall. A piece of thrombus may break free and enter the circulation. The clot may then catch in the narrowed blood vessel, the aortic trifurcation. A clot in this location blocks blood flow to the hind limbs and is called a saddle thrombus or thromboembolism. A cat with a saddle thrombus presents with partial or complete paralysis of the hind limbs and is often in substantial pain. Pain relief, treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, anticoagulants, and fluid therapy are given.

159. An increase in canine distemper may be caused by all the following EXCEPT a. an increase in insect vectors. b. a failure of vaccination. c. an increase in virulence. d. a reduced rate of vaccination.

159. A: An increase in insect vectors Canine distemper is a viral disease caused by contact with infected animals and environments. Canine distemper is not carried by insect vectors. A vaccine is routinely used to prevent infection. The incidence of canine distemper increases if the distemper virus mutates to a more virulent form, if fewer patients are vaccinated so that more are susceptible, and if the vaccine against canine distemper is flawed so that it does not provide as much immunity and protection.

16. Which of the following groups contains all reportable diseases? a. Bluetongue, paratuberculosis, Rift Valley fever, lumpy skin disease b. Anthrax, coronavirus, Marek's disease, ascariasis c. Rinderpest, sheep pox virus, toxoplasmosis, feline infectious peritonitis d. Camel pox virus, Q fever, trichinellosis, feline immunodeficiency virus

16. A: Bluetongue, paratuberculosis, Rift Valley fever, lumpy skin disease Complete lists of reportable diseases for all species can be found on the CDC, USDA, and state websites. Of the disease included, the following are reportable: bluetongue, paratuberculosis, Rift Valley fever, lumpy skin disease, anthrax, Marek's disease, rinderpest, sheep pox virus, camel pox virus, Q fever, and trichinellosis.

160. Chagas disease is contracted by a. direct contact. b. mosquito bite. c. worm infestation. d. triatomine bite.

160. D: Triatomine bite Chagas disease, caused by the organism Trypanosoma cruzi, is passed to animals by triatomines, blood-feeding insects. Trypanosoma cruzi is actually in the insect feces, often rubbed into the wounds left by the insect bites by the animals themselves. Once the organism is rubbed into the wound, eyes, or mouth, the animal is infected. When animals in the home are exposed, the risk of human exposure increases.

162. What somewhat-controversial program is used to manage feral cat colonies? a. TNR b. TAK c. DNR d. DTR

162. A: TNR TNR or "trap, neuter, release" programs are often run by charitable organizations hoping to minimize feral cat populations without killing colonies. Groups identify a feral colony, develop a plan to trap the cats, have them neutered, and release them back to their colony once safely awake. Groups may also have volunteers bring in feral cats or stray cats not identified as part of a colony. Opponents argue the method is ineffective as the colony will be healthier and live longer. New cats may be added more easily, and any intact females in the group will have larger litters. Supporters argue that they not only improve the quality of life for these cats, but anecdotal and numerical evidence show the success of TNR.

163. How much time does the typical horse at pasture spend in grazing behavior? a. 90% b. 70% c. 50% d. 30%

163. B: 70% A typical horse at pasture spends 17 hours per day, or 70% of its time, in grazing behavior. The other 30% of time is distributed between sleep, play, socialization, and herd behaviors. A typical horse sleeps 1 to 4 hours per day.

165. Clients may interpret the sound of what activity in their small dog as choking or trouble breathing? a. Vomiting b. Reverse sneezing c. Chattering d. Snoring

165. B: Reverse sneezing Reverse sneezing is a paroxysmal sound from the laryngeal region. The episode varies in length. The dog returns to normal immediately following. Reverse sneezing may be related to hypersensitivities or allergies. Antihistamines may help minimize episodes in patients that frequently exhibit this action.

166. The most prevalent metabolic disease of cattle is a. diabetes. b. hypothyroidism. c. hyperinsulinism. d. ketosis.

166. D: Ketosis Ketosis is estimated to occur in 30% of dairy cattle, though some herds have an incidence over 50%. Onset of ketosis often begins within 5 DIM, days in milk. While most cases resolve in seven days, some cows remain ketotic at 16 DIM. Ketotic cows produce less milk, have more reproductive difficulty, and are at increased risk of displaced abomasums. Preventing ketosis, therefore, is important, and involves reducing cow stress and preventing negative energy balance.

167. Universal precautions should be taken when dealing with a patient with a potentially zoonotic or contagious disease. Which is NOT a universal precaution? a. Minimize the number of staff in contact with the patient. b. Contain contaminated waste. c. Use disinfectant procedures for contaminated environmental surfaces. d. Keep the patient a minimum of 12 feet from other patients at all times.

167. D: Keep the patient a minimum of 12 feet from other patients at all times Universal precautions are taken when patients present with any potential zoonotic or contagious disease and include minimizing the number of staff in contact with the patients; wearing protective equipment, often a gown and gloves as a physical barrier; using effective, approved cleaning and disinfecting procedures for staff as well as contaminated environmental surfaces; and containing and disposing of contaminated waste. Waste is bagged in the patient's room, then placed within another bag outside the area and sealed for disposal. Specific precautions are added depending on diagnosis or suspected diagnosis. A patient contagious only to its own species can freely stay with other species. A patient capable of infecting other patients and staff requires strict quarantine.

168. Vaccine-associated feline sarcomas occur in one of every ___ vaccinated cats a. 1,000 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 1,000,000

168. B: 10,000 Vaccine-associated feline sarcomas are rapidly growing, highly invasive tumors requiring aggressive treatment. They occur at injection sites in approximately one of every 10,000 vaccinated cats.

169. The incidence of what disease or disorder does not increase with animal obesity? a. Renal failure b. Diabetes c. Musculoskeletal disease d. Heat intolerance

169. A: Renal failure Obesity primarily or secondarily affects body systems substantially. Obesity is related to an increased incidence of musculoskeletal disease, cardiovascular disease, heat intolerance, exercise intolerance, diabetes, and liver disease.

17. Which of the following is/are important post-surgical instructions following an ovariohysterectomy? a. Directions for use of pain relief b. Limit movement c. Return for suture removal in 3 days d. Both A and B

17. D: Both A and B Following ovariohysterectomy, patients' movements should be restricted to minimize discomfort as well as pull on the suture line and internal organs. While challenging at times, restriction is important for several days following surgery. Injectable pain relief may be used at the time of surgery with oral pain relievers sent home for use following surgery. Clients must fully understand the dose and administration of pain relievers as well as potential side effects. The surgeon may place intradermal, or subcuticular, sutures, or use skin glue for closure, so that no suture removal is necessary. If skin sutures are placed, they should be removed 7-10 days following surgery. In some cases, sutures may be removed as early as 5 days post-surgery.

170. The crystals in a carbon dioxide absorber are changed when what percent of crystals have changed color? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

170. B: 50% Carbon dioxide absorbers connect to an anesthetic machine system to capture exhaled carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is absorbed by the barium hydroxide lime or sodium hydroxide lime crystals, producing, heat, water, and a color change, and depleting the crystals. Crystals are changed when 50% of the crystals in the absorber have changed color. Hours of use can be tracked to better define the best time to change the canister.

171. Scrubbing of a surgical site is performed in a a. target pattern. b. side to side pattern. c. Z-pattern. d. random pattern.

171. A: Target pattern Surgical sites are always cleaned from the primary incision area out to edge of the field. Movements are circular. Scrubbing begins at the anticipated incision site with circular motions of the localized area. New scrub and gauze are used to scrub a clean ring around the first ring, and so on until the edge of the field is reached. At no time does the hand scrub from the edge of the surgical field toward the center of the surgical field.

172. Which of these agents is NOT an appropriate rinse solution during surgical scrubbing? a. 70% rubbing alcohol b. Sterile water c. 70% propylene glycol d. Sterile saline

172. C: 70% propylene glycol A rinsing agent is used, in alternating fashion, to remove the scrubbing agent when cleaning a surgical field. 70% isopropyl alcohol, or rubbing alcohol, is commonly used. Sterile water and sterile saline may also be used. Care must be taken not to overly cool the patient using alcohol.

173. What type of knot is used to secure a patient to a surgical table? a. Square knot b. Bowline knot c. Quick-release knot d. Double knot

173. C: Quick-release knot Quick release knots are used to secure surgical patients to the surgery table in correct position for the anticipated procedure. Patients must be secure, yet easy to free for an emergency or when recovery is rapid.

174. If the veterinary surgeon is performing a Zepp procedure, what part of the body must be prepared for surgery? a. Carpus b. Ear c. Prepuce d. Perianal area

174. B: Ear The Zepp procedure is also known as a lateral ear resection. This surgery is often performed to mitigate chronic and painful ear infections, but may be used to treat cancer and ear trauma.

176. "Bicipital" refers to a. the bicuspid valve. b. a bicuspid tooth. c. the occipital area. d. the biceps brachii muscle or tendon.

176. D: The biceps brachii muscle or tendon

177. Postoperatively, extubation of the endotracheal tube should occur after a. the blink reflex is present. b. the patient is fully awake. c. the swallowing reflex is present. d. surgery and before recovery.

177. C: The swallowing reflex is present Endotracheal tubes are placed to maintain respiratory access and reduce the risk of aspiration. They are removed before the patient is awake enough, postoperatively, to bite or chew the tube. A good practice is to remove the endotracheal tube after the patient has recovered its swallowing reflex. The cuff on the tube must be deflated prior to extubation.

178. The receptive nerve cells responsible for colored images in daylight are a. tapetum. b. fovea. c. rods. d. cones.

178. D: Cones Modified dendrites of nerve cells form photoreceptor cells in the inner layer of the eye. Those receptive to a variety of colors allowing the formation of a colored image in daylight are cones.

18. What is the proper order of procedures for cleaning the canine or feline ear canal? 1. Ensure the tympanic membrane is intact. 2. Massage the ear. 3. Apply cleaning/flushing fluid to the ear canal. 4. Remove debris from the canal. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 4, 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 3, 2, 4 d. 3, 2, 4, 1

18. C: 1, 3, 2, 4 Before applying a cleanser or medication to the ear canal, it is best to determine that the tympanic membrane is intact. When a large amount of debris is present, it may be necessary to first remove some debris to visualize the tympanic membrane. When there is a great deal of inflammation or stenosis, it may not be possible to properly evaluate the tympanic membrane. Ensuring the tympanic membrane is intact is important prior to treatment both to avoid ototoxic cleansers and medications if it is broken and to determine appropriate treatment. Several drops of cleanser are added to the ear canal and the base of the ear is massaged to move the cleanser through the ear and help break up debris. Debris from the ear canal should be gently, but thoroughly, removed.

180. Which of these is not a major type of canine aggression? a. Pack b. Predation c. Pain d. Protectiveness

180. A: Pack Borchelt identified 8 major types of canine aggression. Fear aggression relates to a dog's aggressive behavior secondary to a fear response. Dominance aggression is aggression directed at establishing the dog's dominance against another animal. The possessiveness type of dominance is seen when a dog exhibits aggressive behavior to maintain an item as his or hers. Protectiveness of people and territory aggression is exhibited when a dog experiences a perceived threat to protected people or territory—the threat needn't seem substantial or real to humans to be protective aggression. Predation aggression is the aggression used to hunt. Punishment aggression is retaliatory for a real or perceived insult. Pain aggression is seen when a dog exhibits aggressive behavior directly related to an incident in which the dog is in pain. The eighth major type of aggression is intraspecific aggression.

181. A 950-pound horse is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfadiazine. The dosage of trimethoprim- sulfadiazine is 30 mg/kg every 12-24 hours. Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine is available as 960 mg tablets. How many tablets must the horse be given for each dose? a. 11 b. 13.5 c. 15 d. 18.5

181. B: 13.5 A 950 pound horse is 950/2.2 = 432 kg. A 432-kg horse needs 432 x 30 = 12,960 mg of combined product. If each tablet is 960 mg, 12960/960 = 13.5 tablets are needed.

182. Before recommending or feeding a canine or feline diet, the diet should be checked to ensure it a. contains a minimum 30% protein content. b. is supplemented with taurine and carnitine. c. contains no more than 20% fiber content. d. meets AAFCO nutritional standards as a complete and balanced food.

182. D: Meets AAFCO nutritional standards as a complete and balanced food AAFCO, the Association of American Feed Control Officials, offers model regulations for pet foods, a checklist for labels, and develops nutritional standards. Nutritional standards are based on substantiated nutrient content and feeding trials. Pets should be fed foods that have undergone feeding trials to prove they are balanced and complete.

184. Patients receiving glucocorticoids are prone to developing what metabolic disorder? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hyperestrogenemia

184. C: Diabetes mellitus Glucocorticoids, particularly when administered at high doses or for extended periods of time, have a substantial incidence of adverse effects. Adverse effects include thromboembolism, infection, stomach ulcers, Cushing's disease, hepatic changes, and diabetes mellitus. Glucocorticoids increase insulin resistance and increase the incidence of hyperglycemia. When persistent hyperglycemia and glucosuria develop, insulin therapy is started, and glucocorticoids are weaned as possible. Remission may occur following cessation of glucocorticoid treatment.

185. Prednisone is activated in the liver to a. cortisol. b. dexamethasone. c. prednisolone. d. deoxycorticosterone acetate.

185. C: Prednisolone Glucocorticoid therapy is available as prednisone and prednisolone. When prednisone is administered, it is activated in the liver into prednisolone. Some cats have difficulty converting prednisone to prednisolone. Prednisolone is, therefore, the preferred form for administration in cats.

186. Which of these is the best source of protein for an iguana's diet? a. Alfalfa b. Chicken c. Chick peas d. Egg

186. A: Alfalfa Iguanas are herbivores and are not fed animal protein. Mature alfalfa contains 15% protein by volume and is an excellent and appropriate source of protein for the iguana.

187. Aleutian disease in ferrets is caused by a. autoimmune disease. b. streptococcal infection. c. a migrating parasite. d. a parvovirus.

187. D: A parvovirus Aleutian disease is caused by a parvovirus, and was first reported in mink in 1940. Mutant strains of the mink Aleutian disease virus affect ferrets. Different strains vary in their virulence. Aleutian disease is primarily transmitted with direct contact of infected body fluids and feces, but can be transmitted through the air or contact with contaminated people and objects. The incubation and shedding periods are unknown. Ferrets can be healthy carriers of the disease.

188. What percentage of dogs and cats, aged 4 and up, have periodontal disease? a. 85% b. 75% c. 50% d. 35%

188. A: 85% 85% of dogs and cats, aged 4 or older, have periodontal disease. Periodontal disease begins when plaque forms. If left alone, mineral salts in food precipitate and form dental calculus irritating gingival tissues. Irritated gingival alters the pH of the mouth and allows subgingival bacteria to survive. As those bacteria thrive, deep periodontal pockets form, and then bone is destroyed. Daily tooth brushing, a hard diet, and dental cleanings prevent plaque formation and resolve early periodontitis.

189. Which of the following is an absorbable suture? a. Prolene b. Dexon c. Ethilon d. Silk

189. B: Dexon Dexon is an example of a synthetic absorbable suture with the generic name of polyglycolic acid. Prolene, ethilon, and silk are all examples of nonabsorbable suture materials that are used primarily in the skin and removed after an incision is healed.

19. Which of the following is true about heat therapy during cranial cruciate ligament rehabilitation? a. Damp heat is applied to muscles prior to exercise. b. Dry heat is applied to the joint and muscles. c. Heat is applied immediately following surgery. d. Heat is applied every hour during recovery.

19. A: Damp heat is applied to muscles prior to exercise. Following cranial cruciate ligament injury and/or surgery, the application of heat to the muscles around the stifle joint is helpful to recovery. During the first three postoperative days, only cryotherapy should be used. Beginning day four, heat should be applied three times daily, and should be applied prior to any rehabilitative exercise. Damp heat offers better penetration than dry and is far safer.

190. On the dental mobility index, a tooth that moves less than the distance of its crown width is classified as a class a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV.

190. B: Class II The dental mobility index is a formal way of grading the looseness of a tooth. Classifications are as follows: Class I: tooth moves slightly Class II: tooth moves less than the distance of its crown width Class III: tooth moves more than the distance of its crown width

191. To assess canine liver function, serum bile acids should be measured fasting and a. immediately post-prandial. b. 2 hours post-prandial. c. 4 hours post-prandial. d. 8 hours post-prandial.

191. B: 2 hours post-prandial When symptoms and blood chemistries suggest liver disease, serum bile acids should be tested. Serum bile acids are a highly sensitive and specific test of hepatic function. Serum bile acids are the best available method of assessing liver function, but do not determine the cause or severity of the underlying liver disease. The first blood draw for serum bile acids takes place when the patient is fasted. The patient is then fed. Two hours later, a post-prandial sample is taken for evaluation of bile acids. Abnormal results suggest the need for a liver biopsy to specifically evaluate the cause of the liver dysfunction.

194. A giraffe has how many cervical vertebrae? a. 7 b. 9 c. 11 d. 12

194. A: 7 Mammals have 7 cervical vertebrae no matter the length of neck. Mammals also have 13 thoracic vertebrae, 7 lumbar vertebrae, and 3 sacral vertebrae. The number of caudal vertebrae varies.

195. Which of the following does NOT occur with reperfusion injury? a. Reactive oxygen species b. Endothelial cell dysfunction c. Increased erythrocyte production d. Activation of platelets

195. C: Increased erythrocyte production Reperfusion injury occurs when tissues previously deprived of oxygen receive an influx of oxygen. While the tissues need oxygen, the rapid alteration results in cellular damage, including the production of reactive oxygen species that interfere with cellular metabolism. Additionally, reperfusion can cause intracellular calcium handling changes and intracellular calcium overloadmicrovascular and endothelial cell dysfunction, and activation of neutrophils, platelets, and complement.

196. The most common primary brain tumor of the cat is the a. glioma. b. pituitary adenoma. c. meningioma. d. adenocarcinoma.

196. C: Meningioma The most common primary brain tumor of the cat and dog is the meningioma, a brain tumor that originates in the arachnoid mater of the meninges, or membranes lining the brain. Meningiomas, fortunately, are rather slow-growing tumors and are relatively easily resected. Symptoms result from compression of brain tissue resulting in neurologic deficits.

197. What does STT stand for and what does it assess? a. Sexually Transmitted Test, exposure to sexually transmitted diseases b. Semitendinosus tracking, presence of bursitis c. Schirmer Tear Test, corneal ulcers d. Schirmer Tear Test, tear production

197. D: Schirmer tear test, tear production The Schirmer tear test is an easy, rapid test to assess tear production. The test strip is placed between the conjunctiva and the cornea. Tear movement up the strip is monitored and measured using either markings on the test strip or comparison against markings on the container. 15 mm or more of tear production over 1 minute is deemed sufficient for a dog. Some testers will end the test at 30 seconds so long as tear production is at or above 15mm. The Schirmer tear test measures only the middle aqueous layer of tear production, not the inner mucin layer or outer lipid layer. Deficiency in tear production will leave the eye dry and predispose it to damage.

198. When assessing the results of Schiotz tonometry, use the a. Mackay-Marg calibration. b. 10 gram weight. c. plus or minus 2 rule. d. multiplication factor of 2.

198. C: Plus or minus 2 rule Schiotz tonometry is used to measure intraocular pressure. A topical anesthetic should be used on the cornea prior to tonometry. The tonometer should be zeroed and the foot plate rested evenly on the patient's cornea. The results are interpreted using the plus or minus 2 rule. If the 5 gram weight is used, a normal intraocular pressure is between 3 and 7 (5 minus 2 to 5 plus 2). A normal pressure falls between 5.5 and 9.5 when the 7.5 gram weight is used.

199. The universal birthday for all thoroughbreds born in the Northern hemisphere is a. January 1. b. May 1. c. August 1. d. November 1.

199. A: January 1 No matter the actual date of birth of a thoroughbred, all horses born in the same year are given a January 1 birthday. This birthday is set so that all horses born in a given year are all considered yearlings, two-year olds, or three-year olds. Horse owners attempt to manage thoroughbred reproduction so that foals are born as close to January 1 as possible, making them older, and likely larger, than foals born later in the year.

202. Over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, naproxen, and aspirin represent a leading cause of toxicoses in small animals. What is their common mechanism of action? a. Bone marrow suppression b. Smooth muscle contraction c. Prostaglandin synthesis inhibition d. Vasodilation of renal vessels

202. C: Prostaglandin synthesis inhibition Prostaglandins are chemicals that mediate an array of normal physiologic functions such as platelet aggregation, renal blood flow, and gastric acid production. In addition, they protect the cells lining the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from noxious chemicals. When over-the-counter NSAIDs are mistakenly given or accidentally ingested in large quantities, they work to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which can potentially lead to a myriad of life-threatening problems such as GI ulceration, clotting abnormalities, and kidney failure. It is important to note that the toxic dose of any NSAID can vary between animals depending on individual sensitivities, and actual manifestation of clinical signs (melena, vomiting, etc) can be delayed by up to 4 days following ingestion. This being said, many owners do not seek out veterinary care unless clinical signs are present and only after the damage has already been done. Thus, it is important to recommend to clients who may have administered or suspect that their animals have ingested any NSAID that their animal be seen immediately for a consultation.

203. Improper handling or restraint of rabbits can result in this common injury: a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Spinal fracture or luxation c. Splenic rupture d. Skull fracture

203. B: Spinal fracture or luxation Rabbits that are allowed to frantically kick, whether confined in a cage or while being restrained, or rabbits that are dropped can fracture or dislocate their lumbar vertebrae. The result is hind limb paresis or paralysis that only rarely responds to emergency medical therapy. When handled or restrained, rabbits need to have their hind end fully supported. This can be accomplished with a "football" hold, whereby the rabbit's head is tucked into the handler's arm with one hand, and the other hand supports its hind end. If rabbits are kept at the clinic and become too excited in a cage, then they will need to be moved to a small carrier to prevent excessive movement.

205. Animals poisoned with ethylene glycol (antifreeze) often have large numbers of these crystals in the urine: a. Struvite b. Ammonium biurate c. Cystine d. Calcium oxalate

205. D: Calcium oxalate Calcium oxalate monohydrate urolithiasis is a common occurrence in animals that have ingested antifreeze (ethylene glycol). It occurs as a result of ethylene glycol metabolism in the liver, the end products of which are several potentially lethal toxic metabolites, one of which is oxalate. These metabolites direct their toxic effects on the kidneys by destroying renal epithelial cells as well as by obstructing the renal tubules, which ultimately results in acute renal failure.

206. Which of the following statements regarding dermatophyte test medium (DTM) is TRUE? a. Sample DTM jars should be closed tightly to prevent the introduction of saprophytic fungi. b. Dermatophytes rapidly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as little as 3-5 days. c. Samples should be placed in an incubator for 1-2 weeks. d. All of the above.

206. B: Dermatophytes rapidly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as little as 3-5 days. Dermatophytes can quickly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as few as 3-5 days, and before growth can be visualized by the naked eye. The caps on these samples need to be secured loosely to permit the flow of air into the sample, thus allowing growth of the dermatophyte. The sample should be kept at room temperature in a place where it can be easily seen and evaluated each day.

207. In a nonrebreathing system, which of the following has the most influence on the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) rebreathed? a. Fresh gas flow rate b. CO2 absorbent c. Scavenger system d. Design of rebreathing system

207. A: Fresh gas flow rate In a nonrebreathing system, there is no CO2 absorption, so the clearance of CO2 is dependent on the use of high fresh gas flow rates (200-300 mL/kg/min). These rates are required to prevent buildup of CO2, which can lead to the rebreathing of exhaled air. Flow rates below 200 mL/kg/min will result in the accumulation and rebreathing of exhaled gases, and the potential for the development of hypoxemia and hypercarbemia.

208. What will happen to a patient if the positive-pressure-relief (pop-off) valve is accidentally left closed during anesthesia? a. Pressure will build up in the system and the patient will not be able to exhale. b. The lungs will rupture causing a pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. c. Venous return to the heart will be compromised. d. All of the above.

208. D: All of the above A pop-off valve that is accidentally left closed during anesthesia can have catastrophic repercussions. Pressure will build up in the system, and as a result, the patient will not be able to exhale. If pressure continues to build in the thorax, there will be inadequate venous return to the heart. Ultimately, a patient could suffer a ruptured lung and subsequent pneumothorax. Thus, it is EXTREMELY important to remember to open a pop-off valve that has been closed, and always put the anesthetic machine away with the valve in the open position.

209. An increase in heart rate that is accompanied with normal P-QRS-T complexes on electrocardiogram (ECG), and occurs as a result of increased activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node is termed: a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Atrial fibrillation c. Sinus tachycardia d. Atrial tachycardia

209. C: Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia is an increase in heart rate that can occur due to a variety of physiologic (i.e., exercise, pain, fear), pharmacologic (drugs such as atropine, epinephrine, acepromazine) or pathologic influences (i.e., anemia, heart failure, shock). The heart remains under the control of a normal SA node and the P-QRS-T complexes appear normal.

21. Calculate a constant rate infusion of lidocaine for a 20-kg dog. The dog must receive lidocaine at 60 mcg/kg/minute. The dog is currently receiving NaCl at a rate of 60 mL/kg/day. a. 68 mL b. 72 mL c. 78 mL d. 90 mL

21. B: 72 mL The patient is receiving fluids at 1200 mL/day (60mL x 20 kg = 1200 mL) or 50 mL/hour (1200/24 = 50). The 1 L bag of fluids will last this patient 20 hours (1000/50 = 20) or 1200 minutes (20 x 60). The patient must receive 1200 mcg lidocaine per minute. Since the fluids will last 1200 minutes at the current rate of delivery, 1,440,000 mcg (1200 mcg x 1200 minutes) or 1440 mg (1,440,000 mcg/1000 = 1440 mg) of lidocaine must be added to the liter of NaCl. 2% lidocaine contains 20 mg/mL of lidocaine. 1440 mg of 2% lidocaine will be present in 72 mL (1440/20 = 72 mL). 72 mL of NaCl should be discarded from the liter bag, and 72 mL of 2% lidocaine added.

210. What drug is the emetic of choice in canines? a. Xylazine b. Apomorphine c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Syrup of ipecac

210. B: Apomorphine Apomorphine is the most reliable and effective drug for the induction of emesis in canines. When administered intravenously or intramuscularly, apomorphine can produce emesis in a matter of minutes. It is also available in a tablet form that can be crushed and a small amount placed in the conjunctival sac. Xylazine is an effective and fast-acting (1-2 minutes) emetic in cats. Hydrogen peroxide can induce vomiting in dogs by irritating the gastric mucosa. Results, however, are often not immediate and may not occur at all. Syrup of ipecac can also induce vomiting in dogs, but only after 15-30 minutes following administration. It must reach the intestine before it exerts is effects.

211. A technician is about to administer an intramuscular injection of antibiotic to a box turtle suffering from an aural abscess. Where should the technician administer this injection? a. Front leg b. Back leg c. None of the above d. a or b

211. A: Front leg The technician should administer the injection in a front leg in order to avoid the renal portal system in the caudal half of the body. The renal portal system is a complex of blood vessels associated with the kidneys. Injections given in the caudal half of the body could potentially be carried to the kidneys before entering the systemic circulation. As a result, the drug may not reach therapeutic levels because a portion may be excreted prematurely. Renal damage could also occur since the drug has not had an opportunity to be metabolized by the body.

212. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding jugular intravenous drug administration in horses? a. The needle should be inserted caudally into the jugular vein in order to match the direction of blood flow. b. The cranial third of the neck should be used to access the jugular vein to avoid accidental entry into the carotid artery. c. The medication should be bolused as quickly as possible. d. Arterial versus venous blood cannot be differentiated by color when drawn into a syringe filled with fluid.

212. C: The medication should be bolused as quickly as possible. Caution must always be exercised when performing an intravenous (IV) injection in the jugular vein of horses because the carotid artery lies in close proximity to the jugular vein, and can therefore be mistakenly accessed even by the most experienced technicians. Steps to help minimize this error include utilizing the cranial third of the neck for venipuncture. This is because the artery does not lie in such close proximity to the vein as it does in the more caudal aspect of the neck. Another tactic would be to insert a large bore needle first and watch the blood as it exits the hub. If it is a gentle drip, then the needle is in the vein. If it is a steady, pulsating stream, the needle is in the artery and needs to be readjusted. Once the needle is in the vein, the drug should be administered slowly in order to give the technician or veterinarian ample time to stop the injection in the event of an adverse reaction. For example, sometimes horses move during an injection and cause the needle to be redirected into the carotid artery. If medication is injected into the carotid artery, it travels straight to the brain where it can cause potentially lethal consequences. Thus, it is extremely important not to be overconfident with these injections, and always use good judgment and safe techniques.

213. Which of the following syndromes will result in a postrenal azotemia? a. Shock b. Antifreeze intoxication c. Feline urologic syndrome (FUS). d. Dehydration

213. C: Feline urologic syndrome (FUS). Postrenal azotemia results from either an obstruction (i.e., foreign body, FUS, neoplasia) in the urinary outflow tract or interruption (i.e., rupture, laceration) of the urinary outflow tract leading to the escape of urine into the peritoneal cavity. Early in the course of the disease, lab findings usually demonstrate an increase in both the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine values. Urine specific gravity is usually normal. Postrenal azotemia, however, can progress to intrinsic renal disease due to increased pressure in the urinary system or due to a sustained decrease in renal blood flow. The prognosis of postrenal azotemia is good if the underlying cause can be treated or corrected early in the course of disease.

215. Which of the following statements regarding grids is incorrect? a. Grids help reduce the amount of scatter radiation. b. Grids are used when the area to be radiographed is equal to or exceeds 10 cm in thickness. c. Grids do not absorb any part of the primary beam. d. Grids improve the quality of the radiograph by increasing contrast.

215. C: Grids do not absorb any part of the primary beam. In radiology, grids are used to help reduce the amount of scatter radiation when radiographing large areas (≥10 cm thick). They are needed because larger subjects require more kVp for penetration, and more kVp produces more scatter radiation, which ultimately results in a poor quality radiograph. An important fact about grids is that they do indeed absorb some of the primary beam thereby necessitating an increase in exposure. This is accomplished by increasing the mAs before taking the radiograph.

216. A client brings in his 5-month-old puppy for vomiting and diarrhea of 2-day duration. He indicates that he himself vaccinated the puppy with injectables purchased at a local feed and grain store. He also states that he followed a vaccine protocol described on the Internet. Despite this owner's good intentions, the puppy tests positive for parvovirus. What is a plausible explanation for this test result? a. The puppy was immunosuppressed at the time of vaccination and could therefore not mount a sufficient immune response to the vaccines. b. The owner administered the vaccine incorrectly or at inappropriate intervals. c. The vaccine was stored at an improper temperature by the retail store or by the owner, thereby rendering the vaccine ineffective. d. All of the above.

216. D: All of the above. The efficacy of any one vaccine is dependent on several variables. First and foremost, it must be stored in the proper conditions once it leaves the manufacturer. As a consumer, it is impossible to know if the store immediately refrigerated the vaccines after they arrived. Also, the consumer must transport the vaccine back home and may do so in less than optimal conditions. Perhaps this individual forgets that the vaccine is in the car, or runs errands on a hot day, thereby further endangering the vaccine's potency. If the vaccine does happen to make it home without insult, there are still other variables that could produce a less than optimal immune response once it is injected. For example, the owner could inadvertently inject all the way through the skin, in which case the puppy receives no vaccine at all. If the owner starts the vaccine series too early (before 6 weeks), maternal antibodies will destroy the vaccine. Also, if the puppy is sick or is born with a weak immune system, it may not be able to mount a sufficient antibody response to the vaccine. In all these instances, vaccines will lose their efficacy, which is why it is important to educate the public about the dangers of store-bought vaccines and why exams are recommended before any vaccine is administered.

217. Which of the following statements regarding feline transfusion medicine is incorrect? a. There is no universal feline blood type due to the presence of naturally occurring alloantibodies. b. Type A cats have weak anti-B alloantibodies. c. A type AB cat can be safely used as an in-house blood donor. d. Transfusion of a type B cat with type A blood can produce a potentially fatal acute hemolytic crisis.

217. C: A type AB cat can be safely used as an in-house blood donor. There are 3 described blood types in cats: A, B, and AB. Blood type A is the most prevalent and is seen in most domestic longhairs and shorthairs. Blood type B is not as common and is seen mostly in purebred cats, but not exclusively. Type AB is very rare and can be present in any cat. All cats have naturally occurring alloantibodies to blood types that are not their own. These antibodies canbe very strong, as in the case of type B cats, or weak as with the type A cats. As a result, type B cats will undergo a severe reaction if transfused with type A blood. However, type A cats may not react at all with a transfusion of type B blood, but the transfused blood will only last a few days. Because of the presence of these alloantibodies, there can be no universal feline donor. A type AB cat is no exception.

218. Alkaline urine does not result from, nor is produced by a. Diets rich in vegetable products. b. A urinary tract infection with urease producing bacteria (i.e., Staph or Proteus). c. Time (>1 hr the voided sample stands at room temperature). d. Diets consisting of milk or animal products.

218. D: Diets consisting of animal products and/or milk are acid producing and therefore, lower the pH of urine. Diets rich in vegetable products will produce an alkaline urine sample. A urine sample that is allowed to stand at room temperature for an hour or more will become alkaline, so these must be checked within 20-30 minutes of collection or at least refrigerated to help prevent the sample from degrading. A urinary tract infection with urease producing bacteria will cause an alkaline urine sample because the enzyme urease converts urea to ammonia, which raises pH.

219. What type of drug is activated charcoal? a. Laxative b. Cathartic c. Purgative d. Adsorbent and protectant

219. D: Adsorbent and protectant Activated charcoal adsorbs to its surface many chemicals, toxins, and drugs in the upper gastrointestinal tract that would otherwise be absorbed systemically.

22. When a pet dies, its owner often experiences grief. Correctly identify the order and stages of the five stages of grief as identified by Kubler-Ross. a. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance b. Anger, depression, denial, bargaining, and acceptance c. Anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance, and peace d. Bargaining, anger, depression, peace, acceptance

22. A: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance While grief is an individual process, Elisabeth Kubler-Ross identified five stages people may experience as they come to terms with their loss. Often, people experience the stages of grief as: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. When loss makes life overwhelming, denial helps people survive the loss, slowing the pace of these overwhelming feelings. As a grieving person begins questioning, their denial begins to fade and they often turn to anger. Anger is a necessary and important step in the healing process. Anger can provide strength and grounding, providing connections, albeit negative. Grieving people may shift between stages, going back and forth between anger and bargaining, for example. In the bargaining stage, a mourner expresses many "If only" and "What if" statements. People want things returned to their prior state and try to negotiate with a higher power. Post-bargaining, a griever moves his or her attention to the present, feeling grief on a deeper level, and entering the depression stage. This depression is a normal, appropriate response to loss and not mental illness. Finally, the loss is accepted. Acceptance doesn't mean all is right with the world, it means the mourner has accepted the reality of his or her loss. There is no set time for each stage of grief. Mourners may move through some steps quickly and others for an extended time.

221. What is the earliest day of gestation that a small animal pregnancy can be confirmed using ultrasound? a. Day 5 b. Day 11 c. Day 20 d. Day 45

221. C: Day 20 Ultrasonography provides the earliest detection of pregnancy on day 20 of gestation in small animals. At this time the gestational sac should be readily visible.

222. The components of fresh whole blood remain effective for up to: a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours

222. C: 8 hours It is always recommended to transfuse fresh whole blood immediately after collection so that the patient reaps the benefits of all the active components (coagulation factors, platelets, etc). If this is not possible, however, the blood may be transfused within the next 6-8 hours and still retain is effectiveness. After 8 hours, the blood will need to be refrigerated to preserve the blood components that are still useful (proteins, cells, Vitamin K dependent clotting factors). Platelets and other more "delicate" coagulation factors in the blood become ineffective over time and with refrigeration.

223. What type of injection should be avoided in meat-producing animals? a. Subcutaneous b. Intravenous c. Intramuscular d. Intraperitoneal

223. C: Intramuscular Bruising is a common sequela of intramuscular injections. Any bruised meat that is found at the time of slaughter will be either trimmed away, if possible, or thrown out all together, which results in a financial loss for the cattle rancher.

224. What is ultimately responsible for the resolution of an ultrasound image? a. Size of patient b. Gain c. Transducer frequency d. Power

224. C: Transducer frequency The transducer frequency is ultimately responsible for the resolution of the ultrasound image. As frequency increases, the wavelength decreases and shorter wavelengths produce better resolution and overall quality of the image.

225. On electrocardiograms (ECGs), ectopic foci that discharge prematurely anywhere within the ventricular walls give rise to: a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Ventricular premature complexes d. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

225. C: Ventricular premature complexes Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) occur as a result of an ectopic foci that discharge anywhere in the myocardial wall of the ventricle. The impulse is conducted cell-to-cell through the myocardium at a slow rate, versus more quickly through the intended Purkinje system, thereby producing an abnormally wide and bizarre QRS-T complex on ECG. VPCs are commonly seen with primary cardiac disease, secondary to trauma or systemic disease, or secondary to drug therapy. It is important to understand that they rarely cause any hemodynamic impairment unless they occur frequently, in which case they should be treated to prevent progression to more serious and potentially fatal arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.

226. What is the most commonly encountered diet-related illness in pet hedgehogs? a. Rickets b. Obesity c. Hepatic lipidosis d. Periodontal disease

226. B: Obesity Obesity is the most common diet-related illness in pet hedgehogs and may occur as a result of overfeeding, lack of exercise, or high-fat diets. Obesity may lead to poor skin condition, hepatic lipidosis, respiratory and/or immune related disease, as well as skin fold dermatitis. It is therefore important to monitor the animal's weight frequently and to adjust the amount or type of food fed to the animal accordingly. Rickets and periodontal disease are other types of diet-related illness in hedgehogs that occur in unbalanced diets or diets that lack a hard consistency.

227. In ultrasonography, this artifact is produced when soundwaves are unable to traverse certain types of tissue or anomalies, such as bone or calculi: a. Distance enhancement b. Reverberation c. Acoustic shadowing d. Mirror image

227. C: Acoustic shadowing Acoustic shadowing is produced when soundwaves fail to travel through certain tissue like bone, or anomalies like bladder or gall stones. Since these soundwaves are completely attenuated, there is a shadow present directly posterior to these types of structures due to an absence of echoes.

228. What is the anesthetic of choice in patients with cardiac disease? a. Ketamine b. Propofol c. Fentanyl d. Etomidate

228. D: Etomidate Etomidate is a fast acting and short-lived induction agent that produces minimal cardiopulmonary effects, and is therefore the anesthetic of choice in patients with heart disease. Heart rate and rhythm, blood pressure, as well as respiratory rate are all maintained throughout anesthesia. Due to its short duration of action, etomidate is ideal to conduct brief studies such as examination and diagnostics on patients in extreme distress from cardiopulmonary disease that could easily die with any manipulation.

229. Etomidate should not be administered in repeated boluses because it is a hypertonic solution. What term best describes the changes a red blood cell (RBC) undergoes when introduced into a hypertonic solution? a. Autoagglutination b. Hemolysis c. Crenation d. Rouleaux formation

229. C: Crenation Crenation occurs when RBCs lose water through osmosis because the extracellular fluid is more concentrated (hypertonic) than the intracellular fluid (isotonic). Hemolysis occurs when RBCs gain water through osmosis because the extracellular fluid is less concentrated (hypotonic) than the intracellular fluid. Clumping of RBCs is termed autoagglutination and is usually indicative of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia. RBCs that are clumped or stacked into a linear arrangement create a rouleaux formation (a normal finding in horses).

23. When evaluating a dog or cat for middle ear disease, which radiographic view is best to use? a. VD or lateral b. VD, open mouth, or parallel open jaw c. DV or open mouth d. DV and lateral

23. B: VD, open mouth, or parallel open jaw The ventrodorsal view allows a fairly clear view of the bullae as well as comparison of the left and right bulla. Using a block to support the nose and keep the head straight improves the view. An open mouth radiographic view allows visualization of the bulla and surrounding structures with less overlap of other tissues. A parallel open jaw view is equally effective in evaluating middle ear structures. The head is angled up and the radiograph shot with the beam parallel to the lower jaw. Greater overlap of tissues and interference occurs with a dorsoventral view and shouldn't be used. Lateral views are not useful in the evaluation of the middle ear due to overlapping structures.

230. Which of the following statements regarding equine nasogastric intubation and medication is FALSE? a. The nasogastric tube should be guided into the dorsal meatus of the horse's nasal passages. b. When placed properly, the tube can be seen on the left side of the horse's neck as it passes through the esophagus and into the stomach. c. Force should NEVER be used at any time during nasogastric intubation. d. A horse could potentially die from gastric rupture when its stomach is overfilled with large volumes of medication or fluid delivered through a nasogastric tube

230. A: The nasogastric tube should be guided into the dorsal meatus of the horse's nasal passages. A nasogastric tube placed properly into the ventral meatus will feed easily into the esophagus and meet little resistance along the way, providing there are no obstructions such as tumors or foreign objects. Excessive force during nasogastric intubation can damage the ethmoturbinates of the equine nasal passages, which will result in an exorbitant amount of bleeding. Force can also rupture the esophagus if there is a foreign body present. An equine stomach should always be checked for gastric reflux before introducing any water or medication. If an abnormally large amount of ingesta is present in the stomach (this is usually indicated when ingesta flows freely out of the nasogastric tube), then the delivery of medication or water should be postponed until the stomach empties. This will reduce the risk of gastric overfilling and potential rupture.

231. Which of the following statements regarding urine casts is TRUE? a. Large numbers of casts in urine usually indicate active renal disease. b. Casts will dissolve in alkaline urine. c. Casts contain material in their matrix that was present in the renal tubule when the cast was formed. d. All of the above.

231. D: All of the above. Casts are formed by the slow movement of material in the renal tubules and are molded by the tubular lumen. Casts are comprised predominantly of a protein matrix that also contains substances that were present in the tubule when the cast was formed, such as hyaline, white or red blood cells, or epithelial cells. When present in large numbers, they indicate active renal disease. Few casts, however, may not be significant, especially if not found on repeat sediment exams. Casts readily dissolve in alkaline urine, so it is imperative that urine samples be evaluated immediately before the urine chemistry changes.

232. Which of the following is the most common oropharyngeal tumor in canines? a. Fibrosarcoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Malignant melanoma d. Ameloblastoma

232. C: Malignant melanoma Malignant melanoma is the most common oropharyngeal tumor in dogs and is usually located on the gingiva or on the buccal or labial mucosa. It may or may not be pigmented. Metastasis is very common with malignant melanoma (50% or more of cases), as is bone invasion (66% of cases), so preliminary diagnostics to determine stage of disease is recommended. Treatment usually involves a combination of surgical excision, radiation, immunotherapy, and/or chemotherapy. These treatments, however, still only afford a guarded prognosis.

233. Cutaneous larval migrans is an important parasitic zoonoses that is caused by: a. Whipworms b. Roundworms c. Tapeworms d. Hookworms

233. D: Hookworms Cutaneous larval migrans is a zoonotic disease in humans that is caused by the burrowing and migration of hookworm larvae intracutaneously, resulting in an intense dermatitis. Children who play in the dirt as well as people who are exposed to infected soil (gardeners, utility workers) are at risk of hookworm infection. These larvae migrate for long periods of time, and may penetrate into deeper tissues. The zoonotic potential of many parasites necessitates the adoption of a comprehensive deworming program in any clinic. Technicians play a vital role in providing clients with vital information regarding these parasites so they can make informed decisions regarding the health of their pets and their families.

234. The connective tissue that occupies the space between each tooth and the alveolar bone is called: a. Cementum b. Pulp c. Periodontal ligament d. Gingiva

234. C: Periodontal ligament The periodontal ligament is composed of connective fibers that serve to anchor the tooth root to the alveolar bone. In addition to this function, the periodontal ligament also provides nutrients to the alveolar bone and cementum through a network of arterioles, and also serves as a "shock absorber" during mastication.

235. What is the purpose of polishing in dental prophylaxis? a. Eliminate calculi b. Remove sublingual deposits c. Strengthen the enamel d. Smooth the enamel

235. D: Smooth the enamel Dental polishing represents an integral part of the dental prophylaxis. Polishing decreases total tooth surface area by smoothing the enamel that was roughened and made irregular by the scaling process. By decreasing this surface area, polishing decreases the rate of plaque and calculus reattachment.

236. Mechanical scalers have the potential to generate excessive heat on the enamel, which can lead to accidental structural damage to the tooth. What step(s) can be taken to avoid this scenario? a. Use a large amount of water to cool the teeth during scaling. b. Limit the time spent on each tooth to 5-10 seconds each. c. Use only at the recommended speed for the particular unit. d. All of the above.

236. D: All of the above. Mechanical scalers are an indispensable instrument during any prophylaxis and must be used properly to avoid accidental heat damage to the tooth surface. The amount of heat generated by thescaler can be reduced by using large amounts of water during the scaling process to cool the teeth, limiting the time spent on each tooth to only 5-10 seconds a piece, and only using the scaler at the speed that is recommended for the particular unit. In addition, it also helps not to use excessive force with the scaler, which can also create heat and further damage the enamel, possibly exposing the pulp.

237. Scissors that are primarily used in intraocular surgery are called: a. Metzenbaum scissors b. Iris scissors c. Mayo scissors d. Spencer scissors

237. B: Iris scissors Iris scissors are small, fine, delicate scissors that are reserved for precise surgeries, usually involving the eye. Spencer scissors are used to remove sutures. Mayo scissors are common in surgery for cutting dense, thick tissue. Metzenbaum scissors are also used in surgery for delicate tissue dissection.

24. "Fill the cat's bladder with contrast and saline. Place the cat in lateral recumbency. Apply gentle pressure to the bladder. Take a radiograph as fluid leaks out." Which of the following is the proper name for this procedure? a. Bladder study b. Vesiculourethrogram c. Voiding urethrogram d. Positive contrast urethrogram

24. C: Voiding Urethrogram This procedure is designed to evaluate the urethra, not the bladder, and will show contrast as it actively moves through the urethra. A positive contrast urethrogram, by contrast, is performed by placing a catheter about 2 cm into the urethra and injecting positive contrast. The catheter is withdrawn and a radiograph is taken. This study shows a passive view of urethral status.

240. In a rebreathing system, how often should the carbon dioxide absorbent be changed? a. Every 2-4 hours of use b. Every 6-8 hours of use c. Every 10-12 hours of use d. Every 20 hours of use

240. B: Every 6-8 hours of use The carbon dioxide absorbent needs to be changed after 6-8 hours of use, or every 30 days regardless of how little it has been used. The absorbent serves to "capture" exhaled CO2 and convert it to carbonate. If all the absorbent has been consumed, the patient will start to accumulate CO2 in the bloodstream (hypercapnia), which leads to respiratory acidosis.

241. Which knot is recommended to secure a patient's limb to the surgery table? a. Square knot b. Sheet bend knot c. Bowline knot d. Half hitch

241. D: Half hitch A half hitch knot is recommended because it not only allows for easy release in case of an emergency, but also alleviates direct pressure on the skin when it is applied over 2 areas of contact.

242. Drain placement helps to reduce the occurrence of a. Seromas. b. Dead space. c. Hematomas. d. All of the above.

242. D: All of the above. When a surgeon requests a drain during a surgical procedure, he/she is anticipating an accumulation of air (dead space) or fluid (i.e., pus, serum, blood) in and/or around the surgical site. Procedures or conditions that warrant drain placement include abscesses, removal of large tumors that leave large gaps in muscle or tissue, limb amputation, or wounds that are difficult to clean completely. If drains are not utilized for these types of situations, the surgical site could swell or leak fluid, or continue to be infected, all of which can lead to suture dehiscence and the need for more surgery.

243. Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is FALSE? a. Hydrogen peroxide is an effective broad spectrum antimicrobial. b. Hydrogen peroxide can damage tissue with repeated use. c. Hydrogen peroxide is a common foaming wound irrigant. d. Hydrogen is an effective sporicide.

243. A: Hydrogen peroxide is an effective broad spectrum antimicrobial. Hydrogen peroxide is a common foaming wound irrigant that should only be used once for the initial cleansing of a contaminated wound. If used repeatedly, hydrogen peroxide can damage the surrounding healthy tissue, which results in delayed wound healing. Hydrogen peroxide does not possess any significant antimicrobial properties and thus should not be used solely for this purpose. It does, however, have a certain amount of effectiveness against spores.

244. Which of the following properties is NOT shared by chlorhexidine AND povidone-iodine scrubs? a. They are both broad-spectrum antimicrobials. b. Their residual bactericidal effects are inactivated by blood or alcohol. c. They have a rapid antimicrobial effect. d. They both have residual antimicrobial activity that lasts more than 3 hours.

244. B: Their residual bactericidal effects are inactivated by blood or alcohol. Chlorhexidine and povidone-iodine scrubs share many properties, however only povidone-iodine scrub is inactivated by alcohol and organic matter such as blood or body fluids.

245. Which of the following should never be used to maintain or increase the body temperature of an animal that is undergoing or recovering from surgery? a. Heated circulating water blanket b. Electric heating pad c. Warm water bath d. Warm air blanket

245. B: Electric heating pad Electric heating pads are extremely dangerous when used to warm an animal and should never be used. They provide intense, focal areas of heat to which an unconscious animal cannot react, resulting in very painful and necrosing thermal burns.

246. Which of the following pairs of analgesics should NOT be used together? a. Morphine and lidocaine b. Butorphanol and fentanyl c. Dexmedetomidine and buprenorphine d. Tramadol and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

246. B: Butorphanol and fentanyl Butorphanol should not be used in conjunction with fentanyl or any pure opioid agonist because it blocks the receptor (mu) in the brain to which the opioids bind to produce analgesia. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist meaning it stimulates certain receptors of the brain (kappa) to produce mild analgesia and moderate sedation, however it blocks the mu receptors, which are responsible for profound analgesia and mild sedation. So, when used together, a patient only receives the fleeting (45 minutes) analgesic effects of butorphanol versus the longer analgesic duration of the other pure opioid agonists, and is therefore experiencing pain most of the time.

247. Which of the following opioids can be administered transmucosally in the feline? a. Buprenorphine b. Hydroxymorphone c. Fentanyl d. Butorphanol

247. A: Buprenorphine Buprenorphine is an opioid analgesic in small animals that is used to control mild to moderate pain. Due to the unusual chemistry of the feline oral cavity, buprenorphine can be administered orally and still retain the same efficacy as an intramuscular or intravenous injection.

248. Which of the following drugs is used to offset the untoward effect of hypersalivation that is commonly seen with barbiturate and dissociative anesthetics? a. Naloxone hydrochloride b. Antisedan c. Glycopyrrolate d. Thiopental

248. C: Glycopyrrolate Glycopyrrolate is a preanesthetic anticholinergic that prevents or remedies the adverse effects (bradycardia, hypersalivation) of opioids, barbiturates, and dissociative anesthetics such as morphine, thiopental, and ketamine, respectively. As a parasympatholytic drug, glycopyrrolate also functions as a mydriatic, a bronchodilator as well as in inhibitor of intestinal motility. Because glycopyrrolate does not cross significantly through the blood-brain barrier, its effects on the central nervous system are less pronounced. It also should be noted that glycopyrrolate does not cross the placental barrier, which makes it an excellent preanesthetic drug for pregnant animals.

25. A non-rebreathing circuit on an anesthesia machine should only be used a. for patients weighing 6 kg or less. b. for patients weighing more than 6 kg. c. during anesthetic induction. d. when using isoflurane anesthesia.

25. A: For patients weighing 6 kg or less With a non-rebreathing circuit, anesthetic gases flow from the anesthetic machine to the patient to the atmosphere without flowing back to the patient. Adequate gas flow is needed to properly eliminate CO2. Due to delivery of precise anesthetic concentration with a non-rebreathing system, a change in vaporizer setting effects rapid change in inspired gas concentration and patient anesthesia. Examples of non-rebreathing circuits are the Bain circuit, Ayre's T piece, Magill system, and Lack system. The amount of dead space in an apparatus and the resistance in the apparatus are limits to the size of the patient.

250. All of the following drugs are diuretics EXCEPT: a. Furosemide. b. Enalapril. c. Spironolactone. d. Mannitol.

250. B: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and functions to reduce the workload on a diseased heart by promoting vasodilation. Diuretics are substances that promote urine secretion, usually through a mechanism that enhances the excretion of sodium and water in the renal tubules. They are most commonly used to treat edema that occurs as a result of congestive heart failure, liver failure, or neuronal edema from head trauma. For example, mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that has a low molecular weight and is freely filtered by the kidneys. Its presence in the kidney will draw water and sodium into the tubules, thereby increasing urine flow. It is used primary in cases of cerebral edema. Furosemide is a drug that inhibits sodium chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, again serving to increase

26. Which of the following steps is NOT necessary to check an anesthesia machine and circuit prior to use? a. Fill vaporizers. b. Confirm waste gas scavenging system is connected. c. Check the system for leaks by pressurizing a closed circuit to 30 cm H2O. d. Allow oxygen and gas to flow for five minutes prior to use.

26. D: Allow oxygen and gas to flow for five minutes prior to use All anesthetic machines should be checked prior to use by: 1) Restock by filling vaporizers, and filling the CO2 canister with absorbent. 2) Check to confirm function of unidirectional valves, verify the oxygen supply, check the pressure of the oxygen cylinder and the N2O cylinder, and check for free movement of the float in flow meters. 3) Check the integrity of the breathing circuit and ensure tight connections. Close the pop-off or pressure relief valve, block the Y-piece, bring the circuit to a pressure of 30 cm H2O, and check for leaks. 4) Check the gas scavenging system is properly connected and turned on. 5) Check that the ventilator is properly attached to the breathing circuit and is free of leaks.

27. Which of the following is not a parameter of perfusion? a. Capillary refill time b. Mucous membrane color c. Heart rate d. Respiratory rate

27. D: Respiratory rate A patient's perfusion can be assessed by evaluating the patient's heart rate, capillary refill time, mucous membrane color, and arterial blood pressure.

28. Food should be withheld for how long prior to surgery in horses? a. 1 hour b. 4-8 hours c. 24 hours d. Food should not be withheld

28. B: 4-8 hours Whenever possible, food should be withheld for 4-8 hours prior to surgery in equine patients. Water should not be withheld. By comparison, food is withheld for 12-18 hours prior to surgery in large ruminants, and 8-12 hours in small ruminants. Cats and dogs should be fasted 6 hours prior to surgery.

29. Which of the following anesthetics is the only one licensed for use in fish? a. Isoflurane b. Etomidate c. Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222) d. Keta

29. C: Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222) MS-222, etomidate, clove oil, and isoflurane are effective anesthetic agents in fish. Only MS-222, tricaine methanesulfonate, is licensed for use in fish. MS-222 is used as an immersion bath with 20- 50 mg/L causing sedation and 75-125 mg/L causing anesthesia. Anesthesia is maintained at 50-75 mg/L though dose is species-dependent. To achieve proper depth of anesthesia, fish are moved from an anesthetic water bath to a non-medicated water bath. MS-222 has a wide margin of safety and induces anesthesia rapidly, in less than five minutes.

3. Which of the following is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside? a. Streptomycin b. Amikacin c. Tobramycin d. Neomycin

3. D: Neomycin is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside. The significant adverse effects of aminoglycosides include nephrotoxicosis, ototoxicosis, and vestibulotoxicosis. Nephrotoxicosis risk increases with frequent and extended administration of aminoglycosides, particularly when trough concentrations are persistently elevated. Articles in the veterinary literature indicate that neomycin if the most nephrotoxic of the group.

30. Surgical anesthesia is attained in rabbits and rodents a. when the patient has been on anesthetic gas for five minutes. b. when reflexes have decreased such that ear, toe, and tail pinches do not result in withdrawal. c. when heart rate decreases to 40 beats per minute. d. in none of the above situations.

30. B: Reflexes have decreased such that ear, toe, and tail pinches do not result in withdrawal. Rabbits and rodents have reached a surgical plan of anesthesia when they no longer withdraw to a pinch on the ear, toe, and tail. Corneal reflexes are highly variable under anesthesia. Loss of corneal reflex is not an indicator of reaching a surgical plane of anesthesia, but loss of corneal reflex in a patient that previously had a reflex indicates that anesthesia is too deep. Anesthesia is also too deep if heart rate or respiratory rate is dropping.

31. Which of the following types of forceps would NOT be included in a standard surgical pack? a. Kelly hemostatic forceps b. Adson-Brown tissue forceps c. Babcock forceps d. Backhaus towel clamp

31. C: Babcock forceps Babcock forceps have looped blades designed to hold a short length of intestine without causing tissue compression. They are not part of a standard surgical pack, but would be used for intestinal surgeries. Kelly hemostatic forceps are used to occlude blood vessels or clamp tissue. Adson-Brown forceps, or Brown-Adson forceps, are common grasping forceps. Backhaus towel clamps are commonly used to hold towels and drapes in place.

33. Which of the following is true about steam sterilization of surgical packs? a. Cotton muslin wrap should never be used. b. A minimum temperature of 160 degrees Fahrenheit is needed for sterilization. c. Wrapping material must be permeable to steam. d. Autoclave paper can be reused.

33. C: Wrapping material must be permeable to steam. Steam autoclaves are used to sterilize surgical packs. Successful sterilization depends upon the steam thoroughly penetrating the pack wrap and the contents. Wrapping should be permeable to steam, but not to microbes. Cotton muslin is a good choice for its durability and flexibility, but offers less storage time than other wraps. When used, muslin should be double layered and double wrapped around the pack. Autoclave paper, such as crepe paper, can be used, but not reused. Paper can be used in single or double layers and offers a superior pack storage time to fabric. Instruments must be unhinged when they are sterilized for proper effect. Pans should be packed with the open end facing down or horizontally. Linens must be laundered and ironed prior to sterilization. Drapes should be packaged separately and individually to allow proper steam penetration of the compact material. Instrument packs should be positioned in the direction of steam flow and vertically with empty space between packs. A minimum of 13 minutes saturated steam at 120 degrees Fahrenheit is the minimum requirement for sterilization. Higher temperatures may be used for highly resistant spores.

34. Which of the following is true regarding cytochrome P450? 1. Cytochrome P-450 gene families are named beginning with the letters CYP. 2. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes metabolize toxins and drugs. 3. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes work primarily in the intestines. 4. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes synthesize steroids. 5. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes synthesize bile acids. 6. Drugs can cause cytochrome P-450 enzyme induction. a. 2, 4, 5, 6 b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 c. 1, 2, 5, 6 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

34. B: All but 3 Cytochrome P-450 enzymes metabolize toxins and drugs, the process of biotransformation, primarily in the liver. P-450 enzymes also synthesize steroids, fatty acids, and bile acids. These enzymes are also found in the intestines, lungs, and other organs. Cytochrome P-450 gene families are classified by sequence similarities, not function. A gene family is labeled by the letters "CYP." CYP1, CYP2, and CYP3 gene families metabolize drugs. Individual enzymes in this system are named "CYP" followed by a number, a letter, and a number. CYP2D6, for example, is responsible for metabolizing psychotherapy drugs. Drug interactions result from cytochrome P-450 enzyme inhibition or enzyme induction. Enzyme inhibition often occurs when drugs compete for the enzyme binding site. Enzyme induction occurs when the body produces additional enzyme protein in response to a drug.

36. When delivered fluid is more concentrated than intravascular fluid, the delivered fluid is considered a. hypertonic. b. isotonic. c. hypotonic. d. none of the above.

36. A: Hypertonic Isotonic fluid is equally as concentrated as the comparison fluid. Hypotonic fluid is less concentrated than the comparison fluid. Hypertonic fluid is more concentrated than the comparison fluid.

37. Adipose is what type of tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Muscle tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Connective tissue

37. D: Connective tissue Areolar, adipose, and reticular tissues are all proper connective tissues. Hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage, spongy blood, and bone are all specialized connective tissues.

38. If something is plantar, it is a. at the bottom of the rear foot. b. toward the tail. c. toward the backbone. d. farthest from the medial plane.

38. A: At the bottom of the rear foot By definition, plantar refers to the bottom of the rear foot; palmar to the bottom of the front foot. Caudal and posterior refer to toward the tail. Dorsal is towards the backbone. Lateral is farthest from the medial plane.

39. Which of the following is equivalent? a. 1 tbsp = 5 mL b. 1 tbsp = 15 mL c. 1 in = 2.45 cm d. 1 in = 2.50 cm

39. B: 1tbsp = 15 mL One teaspoon is equivalent to 5 milliliters. One tablespoon is equivalent to 15 milliliters. One inch is equivalent to 2.54 centimeters.

42. The gestational period of the horse is a. 285 days. b. 148 days. c. 336 days. d. 365 days.

42. C: 336 days This chart indicates normal gestational periods, in days, of different species: Horse - 336 Cow - 285 Sheep - 148 Goat - 149 Pig - 114 Dog - 63-65 Cat - 63-65

43. Which of the following is FALSE about canine hookworms? a. Uncinaria stenocephala is a canine hookworm. b. Canine hookworms have a worldwide incidence. c. The prepatent period of canine hookworms is 7 days. d. Dogs are infected by the ingestion of 3rd stage larvae.

43. C: The prepatent period of canine hookworms is 7 days. Ancylostoma caninum, uncinaria stenocephala, and ancylostoma braziliense are canine hookworms. Dogs are infected by ingestion of 3rd stage larvae, larval penetration of the skin, ingestion of a vertebrate with infected tissue, and transmammary transmission. The prepatent period ranges from 13 to 27 days, though nursing puppies can shed eggs in just 10 to 12 days. Canine hookworms are present worldwide. A. caninum is highly pathogenic, and A. braziliense causes cutaneous larva migrans.

44. Alternaria species, grain mite eggs, and Planarian are all a. pseudoparasites. b. spurious parasites. c. parasites of chicken. d. parasites of geese.

44. A: Pseudoparasites Pseudoparasites are mistaken for parasites when found in feces or blood, but are not parasites. Fecal pseudoparasites include Alternaria species, free-living nematodes, grain mite eggs, Planarian, and pollen granules. A spurious parasite is a true parasite in one or more species, but not in the one in which it is found. Spurious parasites are found when an animal ingests invertebrates with larval stages of the parasite or the feces of infected animals.

45. Which of the following life cycles is correctly ordered? a. Dirofilaria immitis: mature larvae in the pulmonary arteries and right heart; then microfilaria develop in the blood to the L2 stage; then mosquito ingests the L2 larvae and larvae develop to the L3 stage; then mosquito transmits infective L3 by bite. b. Taenia spp.: adult worms live in an animal's small intestine; then eggs and posterior segments of adult worms are shed in feces; then eggs are released from segments in feces; then intermediate hosts ingest eggs; then intermediate host tissue is eaten by the animal. c. Toxascaris leonina: larvae mature in the small intestine and adult worms lay eggs; then eggs pass with feces; then eggs embryonate; then eggs undergo three molts; then animals pick up the L5 larvae in the environment. d. Echinococcus granulosus: adult worms in the small intestine lay eggs; then eggs pass in the feces; then larvae develop to the infective L3 stage; then larvae are eaten and develop to adult worms.

45. B: Taenia spp. Adult worms live in an animal's small intestine; then eggs and posterior segments of adult worms are shed in feces; then eggs are released from segments in feces; then intermediate hosts ingest eggs; then intermediate host tissue is eaten by the animal. The correct order of the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis is: larvae mature on the heart and pulmonary arteries and release microfilaria; then mosquito takes a blood meal and ingests microfilaria; then microfilaria develop to the L3 stage within the mosquito; then mosquito transmits the infective L3 larvae with a bite. The correct order of the life cycle of Toxocaris leonina: larvae mature in the small intestines and adult worms lay eggs; then eggs pass with feces; then eggs embryonate; then larvae molts twice within the egg; then embryonated egg is ingested by a transport host; then transport host or embryonated eggs are eaten. The correct order of the life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus is: adult worms are in the small intestine; then worm segments pass in the feces; then eggs are released from the segments; then eggs in the feces are ingested by an intermediate host; then hydatids form in the intermediate host in the liver or lungs; then intermediate host is ingested.

47. Which is NOT a radiographic view commonly used to evaluate the navicular bone? a. Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal view b. Tangential coronary view c. Lateral-medial view d. Flexor tangential view

47. B: Tangential coronary view The navicular bone of the horse has an articular surface and a flexor surface. The articular surface is the palmar or plantar part of the distal interphalangeal joint. Radiographs of the navicular bone are used for prepurchase examinations, to evaluate navicular disease, evaluate trauma, and determine the extent of foot abscesses and wounds. Before radiographs are taken, the horse's show should be removed, when possible, and the sole cleaned and pared. Three views are commonly taken for comprehensive evaluation of the navicular bone. The dorsoproximal-palmarodistal view can be taken by the high coronary route with the foot flat, or the upright pedal route with an angled foot against a vertical plate. With the lateral-medial view, the horse's foot lies on a wooden block so the x-ray beam can be centered on the lateral axis of the bone. For the flexor tangential view, the horse's foot is positioned caudally while the horse stands on a reinforced cassette or cassette tunnel. The x-ray beam is centered between the bulbs of the heel and tangential to the flexor cortex plane.

48. You would expect to see which of the following radiographic changes in a dog with patent ductus arterioles? 1. Enlarged left ventricle 2. Enlarged right ventricle 3. Segmental enlargement of the descending aortic arch 4. Enlarged left atrium 5. Enhanced pulmonary vascular pattern 6. Pulmonary effusion a. 1, 2, 4, 6 b. 2, 3, 5, 6 c. 3, 5, 6 d. 1, 3, 4, 5

48. D: 1, 3, 4, 5 Patent ductus arteriosus is a condition in which a blood vessel, the ductus arteriosus, allows embryonic blood to bypass the lungs and does not close at or immediately following birth. Consequently, the abnormal blood flow and pressure causes some pathologic changes in the heart and cardiopulmonary vasculature. Specifically, the descending aortic arch is segmentally enlarged, the left atrium and left ventricle are enlarged, and the pulmonary vascular pattern is enhanced.

49. A deficiency in which nutrients is known to cause canine cardiomyopathy? a. Taurine and carnitine b. Taurine and glycine c. Folic acid and carnitine d. Calcium and folic acid

49. A: Taurine and carnitine Canine dilated cardiomyopathy is an acquired cardiovascular disease more likely to occur in breeds such as the Cocker Spaniel, and in large and giant breeds. Research has identified low taurine and carnitine levels in the blood of a considerable portion of dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy. Taurine is an amino acid. Carnitine is a derivative of the amino acid lysine. Even in dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy without measurable deficits in carnitine and taurine, patients have improved when given these nutritional supplements.

5. When a cat is in compensatory shock the cat should receive isotonic replacement crystalloid fluids intravenously at a rate of a. 60 mL/kg/h b. 90 mL/kg/h c. 30 mL/kg/h d. 45 mL/kg/h

5. A: 60 mL/kg/h In compensatory shock, or early decompensatory shock, cats should be treated with 60 mL/kg/h of isotonic crystalloid replacement fluid. Dogs are treated at a rate of 90 mL/kg/h. When replacement crystalloids with synthetic colloids are used, the rate to treat a cat in compensatory or decompensatory shock decreases to 24-36 mL/kg/h.

50. Guinea pigs have an absolute requirement for a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D

50. C: Vitamin C Humans, monkeys, apes, guinea pigs, capybaras, and some bats, birds, and fish cannot manufacture their own vitamin C, and, therefore, have an absolute requirement for it.

51. Topical steroids should never be used on the eye when a. a corneal ulcer is present. b. uveitis is present. c. a cataract is present. d. systemic steroids are also used.

51. A: A corneal ulcer is present A corneal ulcer is an erosion through the corneal epithelium. Corneal ulcers may be caused by trauma, chemical burn, infection, and disease. For example, keratoconjunctivitis sicca dries the cornea and predisposes it to ulceration. Corneal ulcers are treated with antibiotic drops or ointment to prevent infection, atropine drops or ointment to relieve spasm, and, often, surgery to close and protect the eye. Steroids are contraindicated during the initial healing phase of corneal ulceration because steroids inhibit healing of the epithelium and the response to infection.

52. A 40-kg nursing bitch presents with hypocalcemia. She is to be treated with a constant rate infusion of 10% calcium gluconate at a rate of 10 mg/kg/hr. Calculate the amount of calcium gluconate to be delivered per minute. a. 4 mg/min b. 6.7 mg/min c. 67 mg/min d. 400 mg/min

52. B: 6.7 mg/min The female must receive 10 mg/kg/hr. She weighs 40 kg. Thus she needs 400 mg calcium gluconate per hour (10 mg x 40 kg = 400 mg/hour) or 6.7 mg per minute (400 mg/hour / 60 min/hour = 6.67 mg/min).

53. What is true about testing for viral infection? a. Positive viral serology proves active infection. b. To prove active infection, viral serology must be performed twice, two weeks apart, and show a rising viral titer. c. Positive viral serology that shows a viral antigen load of at least 1:128 is consistent with active infection. d. Negative viral serology proves that the animal has not been exposed to, and is not infected with, the virus.

53. B: To prove active infection, viral serology must be performed twice, two weeks apart, and show a rising viral titer. Viral serology tests for the presence of antibodies specific to a given virus. A positive value, the presence of serum antibody to a virus, indicates an animal's exposure to a virus. A single positive value, no matter the quantity of antibody, does not necessarily indicate active infection. To prove active infection, current and convalescent blood samples must be taken and viral serology performed on both. A rising titer of viral antibody confirms active infection. Generally, samples are taken two weeks apart. Negative viral serology does not prove an animal has not been exposed to a virus or is not infected with a virus. The test will be negative in the days prior to the body mounting an antibody response, when the animal is unable to generate a response (usually because of significant immune disease or immunosuppressive medications), or when the animal was exposed to the virus a considerable time ago and no measurable antibodies remain in the serum.

55. The feline dental formula - permanent is a. b. c. d.

55. A: Response B is the feline deciduous dental formula. Response C is the canine permanent dental formula. Response D is the porcine permanent dental formula.

56. The owner of two cats calls to report that she is often finding feces outside the litter box. Which of the following would you recommend? a. Allowing the cats to go outdoors b. Medicating the cats for anxiety c. Confining the cats to the bathroom with the litter pan d. A second litter pan and more frequent cleaning of the litter pans

56. D: A second litter pan and more frequent cleaning of the litter pans When two or more cats are present in a household, the litter pan must be cleaned at least once a day as fastidious, and even less fastidious cats, may find the shared litter pan too dirty to use. In this case, one or more of the cats may defecate outside the litter pan, often in close proximity. More frequent cleaning of the litter pan, sometimes more than once a day, or offering multiple litter pans—at least one per cat—should solve the problem. If the scenario had included evidence of a new addition to the family, pain, or another stressful event, anxiety might be a consideration. In the case of anxiety, however, both urine and feces would typically be found outside the litter pan. Similarly, territorial marking generally includes inappropriate urination.

57. The frequencies used for veterinary ultrasound range from a. 10 to 20 MHz b. 25 to 40 MHz c. 0.1 to 2.0 MHz d. 2.25 to 10 MHz

57. D: 2.25 to 10 MHz Veterinary ultrasound frequencies of 2.25 to 10 MHz do not penetrate bone or air, which reflect waves in this frequency range. Lower frequency sound waves penetrate farther than higher frequency sound waves and are used for deeper structures. Different frequencies are also used for different animals; for example, dogs are usually evaluated with 5.0 or 7.5 MHZ. Horse tendons are likely to be evaluated at 7.5 MHz.

58. Electrical activity that stimulates a heart beat begins at the a. bundle of His. b. Purkinje bundle. c. sinoatrial node. d. atrioventricular node.

58. C: Sinoatrial node The sinoatrial node or S-A node is the natural pacemaker of the heart with cells that initiate the electrical activity that will spread through the heart. From the S-A node, the electrical impulse spreads across the atria to the atrioventricular or A-V node. From the atrioventricular node, the electrical signal passes to the His bundle, through the right and left bundle branches, to the Purkinje fibers.

59. SOAP stands for a. Standard Operating and Assessment Procedure. b. Subjective Objective Assessment Plan. c. Slim Overweight Anorexic Postanorexic. d. Species Order Animalia Plantae.

59. B: Subjective Objective Assessment Plan Soap is an organization plan for patient record keeping. Notes under (S) Subjective include history and observations. (O) Objective includes factual information including vital statistics, examination notes, and laboratory and radiographic data. (A) Assessment includes conclusions based on the subjective and objective information as well as differential diagnoses. The (P) Plan includes client education, proposed and planned diagnostic procedures and surgery, and therapies.

6. If a patient presented with dry and retracted eyes, dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulses, and a significant loss of skin turgor, at what percentage of interstitial dehydration would you estimate the patient to be? a. More than 11% b. 8% - 10% c. 4 - 5% d. 0 - 3%

6. B: 8 - 10%

60. Which of the following conditions are potential complications of a bovine cesarean section? 1. Retained placenta 2. Dehydration 3. Mastitis 4. Incision complications a. 1, 4 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 d. 4

60. C: 1, 2, 3, 4 A large incision must be made for a bovine cesarean section. Complications at the incision site are not uncommon. Cows should deliver their placenta within 24 hours. A retained placenta will not pass in that time frame. Bacterial infection of the skin, uterus, and mammaries (mastitis) are risks. Dehydration may occur secondary to fluid loss or inadequate intake.

61. Under OSHA regulations, a practice's written safety and health program for employees involved in hazardous waste operations must include a. the safety and health training program, names of all employees, and work schedules. b. names of all employees involved in hazardous waste operations, a medical surveillance program, and contractors who share hazardous waste operations. c. the safety and health training program, a medical surveillance program, and the practice's standard operating procedures for safety and health. d. a comprehensive work plan, employee phone list, and work schedules.

61. C: the safety and health training program, medical surveillance program, and the practice's standard operating procedures for safety and health. According to OSHA Standard 29 CFR Part 1920, "Employers shall develop and implement a written safety and health program for their employees involved in hazardous waste operations. The program shall be designed to identify, evaluate, and control safety and health hazards, and provide for emergency response for hazardous waste operations." This written safety and health program must include: organizational structure, comprehensive work plan, site-specific safety and health plan, safety and health training program, medical surveillance program, employer's standard operating procedures for safety and health, and necessary interface between general program and site-specific activities.

62. Personal protective equipment for protection against radiation is made from a. steel. b. lead. c. bonded flexible plastic. d. rubber.

62. B: Lead Lead effectively blocks the passage of x-rays and is used to shield bodies during radiographic exposure. Personal protective equipment for taking radiographs includes lead gloves, lead apron, lead thyroid shield, lead gonad shield, and lead glasses.

63. In regard to radiographic personal protective equipment, veterinary technicians should do all of the following EXCEPT a. fill lead gloves with water to check for leaks that allow radiation through. b. hang safety equipment. c. wear their own dosimeter whenever taking or assisting with radiographs. d. radiograph PPE to evaluate for cracks.

63. A: Fill lead gloves with water to check for leaks that allow radiation through Personal protective equipment used to ward against radiographic exposure must be properly cared for to maintain its protective value. Lead-containing safety equipment should never be folded. Aprons and shields should be hung up; gloves should be placed on a glove rack. Equipment should be examined for damage and periodically radiographed to look for cracks or breaks. One of the most important pieces of protective equipment is not a shield, but a measurement devise—the dosimeter that measures radiation exposure. A personal dosimeter must be worn whenever taking, or assisting with, radiographs. Whenever possible, only the radiographic subject should be in the radiology room.

64. Patient files are often color-coded to a. identify the age of the patient. b. establish the year a patient came to the practice. c. prevent visual washout. d. make filing errors easily visible.

64. D: Make filing errors easily visible. Patient files are often marked with two or three colored letter labels identifying the first letters of the last name of the client. The colored labels are placed on the outside edge of the file so they are visible when the file is filed away. In this manner, record keepers can visually scan all files and see any file out of place. In some practices, names are replaced with numbers generated by the practice and color-coded numbers are placed on the files. Color can be used in other ways in files to provide easily detected visual information. For example, a blue or pink patient information sheet may be used to identify the sex of the patient or a red sticker may be clearly placed on the file to indicate an aggressive animal.

65. Procaine penicillin should NEVER be given in which of the following ways? a. IV b. IM c. SQ d. None of the above

65. A: IV Procaine penicillin is a long-acting formulation. Like benzathine-penicillin it may be used IM or SQ, but never IV.

66. Canine body temperature exceeding 104 degrees Fahrenheit is common with toxic exposure to a. lilies. b. metaldehyde. c. foxglove. d. rodenticide.

66. B: Metaldehyde Slug and snail control products, and rat control products, may contain metaldehyde. When ingested, metaldehyde is absorbed in the stomach and intestines and decreases serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA. Neurological signs appear including muscle tremors and ataxia. After ingesting metaldehyde, a dog likely also experiences hyperthermia and tachycardia. Symptoms progress to convulsions. Diazepam may be used to reduce excitement and convulsions.

67. Reconstituted vaccines must be used within a. 1 hour. b. 1 day. c. 12 hours. d. 2 hours.

67. A: 1 hour A vaccine that requires no mixing or reconstitution may be sterilely placed in a syringe and capped. So long as it was handled properly and refrigerated, the vaccine remains stable and safe. Reconstituted vaccines, however, even when handled properly, must be used within an hour of reconstitution. Any exceptions will be noted on the product label. Vaccine should only be mixed with its own designated diluent. The diluent must be sterilely removed from its vial and injected into the vaccine vial. The dry vaccine and diluent are then gently mixed. After full mixing, the reconstituted vaccine is sterilely removed with a syringe. Biologics, such as vaccines, are kept refrigerated in a designated refrigerator free of food.

68. An animal is prescribed prednisone on the following schedule: "Take 20 mg every morning for 3 days. Take 10 mg every morning for 7 days. Take 5 mg every morning for 7 days. Take 5 mg every other morning for 2 weeks." How many tablets should be dispensed? a. 20 tablets (5mg) b. 30 tablets (5mg) c. 20 tablets (10mg) d. 25 tablets (10mg)

68. C: 20 tablets (10 mg) The patient takes 20 mg every morning for 3 days. 20 x 3 = 60 The patient then takes 10 mg every morning for 7 days. 10 x 7 = 70 The patient next takes 5 mg every morning for 7 days. 5 x 7 = 35 The patient finishes with 5 mg every other morning for 14 days. 5 x 7 = 35 60 + 70 + 35 + 35 = 200 mg The only choice that contains exactly 200 mg is 20 tablets (10mg)

69. A refractometer should be calibrated to 0 every week using a. control solution. b. refraction fluid. c. deionized water. d. distilled water.

69. D: Distilled water A refractometer measures the specific gravity of fluid. A drop of fluid is placed on the glass, the top closed and the specific gravity read by looking through the eyepiece and observing the line against the measures. In between each use, the refractometer is cleaned to the manufacturer's instruction, generally by wiping the glass dry with a non-scratching, lint-free cloth. Once a week, the refractometer is calibrated by placing a drop of distilled water on the glass. Distilled water gives a reading of a specific gravity of 1.000. If the refractometer reads differently, it must be adjusted. As with all device control testing and recalibrations, a record should be kept of the date of recalibration, signed by the person who conducted the recalibration.

7. To create a 5% dextrose solution in a 500 mL bag of 0.45% NaCl, how many mL of a 50% dextrose solution must be added? (Assume that a corresponding amount of NaCl solution will be removed prior to the dextrose being added.) a. 5 mL b. 25 mL c. 50 mL d. 100 mL

7. C: 50 mL Each mL of 50% dextrose contains 0.5 g of dextrose. A 5% solution contains of NaCl will contain 50 g of dextrose per liter, or 25 g per half liter. If each mL of 50% dextrose contains 0.5 g, 50 mL of the 50% dextrose will be needed to bring the 500 mL bag of 0.45% NaCl to a 5% dextrose solution. 50 mL of NaCl should be removed from the bag before the corresponding amount of dextrose is added.

70. "Walking dandruff" is a. Demodex, diagnosed with a tape preparation. b. Demodex, diagnosed by skin scraping. c. Cheyletiella, diagnosed with a tape preparation. d. Cheyletiella, diagnosed by skin scraping.

70. C: Cheyletiella, diagnosed with a tape preparation Cheyletiella is a mite commonly referred to as walking dandruff. Cheyletiella is best diagnosed by placing a piece of cellophane tape against the patient's skin and hair then placing the tape on a slide. Microscopic viewing should show any Cheyletiella or other pathologic mites, including Demodex, Sarcoptes, and Notoedres, are diagnosed from a skin scraping. Scraped calls are swiped onto a clean slide. The slide is evaluated microscopically for the presence of mites.

71. Use of a 40x objective on a standard light microscope will provide magnification of the studied object of a. 400x. b. 40x. c. 4x. d. 4000x.

71. A: 400x A standard light microscope has an ocular projection lens with a magnification of x10. Combined with the magnification power of an objective lens, the total magnification will be the power of the ocular lens times the power of the objective lens, in this case 10 x 40, or 400. The object studied using the microscope is magnified 400 times.

72. The presence of a large number of erythrocytes with a wide variation in size is referred to as a. microcytosis. b. poikilocytosis. c. macrocytosis. d. anisocytosis.

72. D: Anisocytosis All of these words are descriptors in abnormal variability of red cell size or shape. Anisocytosis describes a substantial percentage of red blood cells with sizes varying from the norm. Microcytosis describes red cells smaller than 6 μm in diameter; macrocytosis larger than normal. Poikilocytes are red cells with distorted shapes.

73. Which are observed artifacts of histological sections? 1. Shrinkage 2. Precipitates 3. Folds 4. Growth distortion a. 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 3, 4 d. All of the above

73. B: 1, 2, 3 Artifacts in histological sections result from manipulation of the samples and must be minimized for best interpretation. The following 6 types of artifacts are known to occur: shrinkage, precipitates, folds and wrinkles, cut defects, mutilation from rough handling, and postmortem degeneration. Shrinkage results from fixatives or heat and may be uneven. Inadequately buffered fixative may crystallize and precipitate. Folds and wrinkles occur when thin tissue samples are cut or attached to slides. Any defects in the cutting knife edge may cause straight line defects in the tissue sample. Rough handling from pinching or crushing the tissue may mutilate the tissue. If tissues aren't fixed promptly and properly, tissues will undergo autolysis or degeneration.

74. Put the following steps in order for proper Gram staining procedure. 1. Decolorize with ethyl alcohol. 2. Rinse with water. 3. Stain with crystal violet. 4. Stain with Gram's iodine. 5. Stain with safranin. a. 3, 2, 4, 1, 2, 5, 2 b. 1, 4, 2, 3, 2, 5 c. 1, 3, 2, 5, 2, 4, 2 d. 4, 2, 3, 2, 5, 2, 1

74. A: 3, 2, 4, 1, 2, 5, 2 The proper steps to gram-stain a sample on a slide are: 1) Stain with crystal violet, the primary stain. 2) Rinse with water. 3) Stain with Gram's iodine, the mordant. 4) Run 95% ethyl alcohol down the slide as a decolorizing agent. 5) Rinse with water. 6) Stain with safranin, the counter stain. 7) Rinse with water

75. A cat with isosthenuric urine will have what measure on the refractometer? a. Below 1.008 b. 1.008 to 1.020 c. 1.008 to 1.012 d. Above 1.020

75. C: 1.008 to 1.012 Isosthenuric urine is neither concentrated nor dilute. It is produced when there is neither excess water the body must get rid of, nor a need to conserve water by the body. Isosthenuric urine may also be a sign of kidney disease, as it may be a sign that the kidney tubules are no longer capable of concentrating or diluting urine. Three-fourths of kidney function must be lost before the kidneys are unable to concentrate or dilute urine.

76. Neurontin, the proprietary liquid formulation of gabapentin, is contraindicated in dogs because it a. causes seizures. b. causes irreversible myelosuppression. c. contains xylitol. d. contains glycerin.

76. C: It contains xylitol. Xylitol is a sugar substitute often used in gums and mints. Xylitol is rapidly and completely absorbed by dogs with blood levels peaking 30 minutes post-ingestion. Dogs exposed to xylitol may vomit. A dog's blood sugar may drop within 30 minutes or after several hours. Developing hypoglycemia may secondarily cause lethargy, ataxia, seizure, and collapse. Acute liver failure is also possible following xylitol ingestion. Responsive treatment with IV fluids containing dextrose is necessary.

77. Dogs treated with bromide as an anticonvulsant that are already past the initiation phase must have blood levels checked every a. 6 months. b. 3 months. c. 1 month. d. 2 weeks.

77. A: 6 months Dogs treated with bromide as an anticonvulsant initially have their blood levels checked at one and three months. Thereafter, tests occur every 6 months to ensure therapeutic serum bromide concentrations. Phenobarbital and bromide are commonly used anticonvulsants in dogs. Alternative anticonvulsants include felbamate, gabapentin, levetiracetam, pregabalin, topiramate, and zonisamide. It is important to maintain a therapeutic level of bromide to reduce the incidence of convulsions. It is equally important to limit the concentration to reduce the incidence of adverse effects including sedation and rear limb lameness.

78. For a cat at risk, an appropriate vaccination plan against the feline leukemia virus is a. a two-dose primary series with annual vaccination thereafter. b. vaccines every two to four weeks until 14 weeks of age and annual vaccination thereafter. c. annual vaccination. d. a two-dose primary series.

78. A: A 2-dose primary series with annual vaccination thereafter Vaccines against the feline leukemia vaccine are known to have considerable effectiveness beyond that expected from natural resistance. The vaccine is often given to kittens after they test negative for the feline leukemia virus. No matter the age at initial vaccination, two doses administered two to three weeks apart are given for the initial series. Thereafter, annual doses of vaccine are given so long as the cat remains at risk for exposure.

79. Total parenteral nutrition is administered through a large gauge catheter aseptically placed in the jugular vein or the a. cranial vena cava. b. caudal vena cava. c. saphenous vein. d. brachial vein.

79. B: Caudal vena cava Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is nutrition delivered intravenously to meet the complete nutritional and caloric needs of a patient. TPN must be administered aseptically and through placement of a large gauge catheter. Either the jugular vein or caudal vena cava is used. Patients are sedated for catheter placement. The TPN mixture is individually formulated.

8. Hydromorphone, fentanyl, and pentobarbital are classified by Drug Enforcement Administration regulations as belonging to which of the following groups of controlled substances? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV

8. B: Schedule II Schedule II substances have a high potential for abuse and include morphine and other narcotics, including hydromorphone, methadone, meperidine, oxycodone, and fentanyl, that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Schedule II controlled substances include stimulants as well as cocaine, amobarbital, glutethimide, and pentobarbital. Schedule III controlled substances have less potential for abuse. Schedule III also includes some narcotic combination products with a defined, limited dose of narcotic. Schedule IV substances have an even lower potential for abuse that Schedule III substances. Schedule I controlled substances have a high potential for abuse with no accepted medical use.

80. Rabbits are known to have chronic and subclinical infections with which bacteria? a. Pasteurella multocida b. Klebsiella c. Escherichia coli d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

80. A: Pasteurella multocida Pasteurella infection is so prevalent in rabbit populations that only severe efforts to eliminate it could be effective. Pasteurella is a highly contagious bacteria transmitted through direct contact, and sometimes through aerosolization. 30 to 90% of healthy rabbits carry the bacteria. Mothers often pass it to their kits. Rabbits may remain carriers of Pasteurella or develop disease caused by the bacteria. Rabbits may develop snuffles (rhinitis), pneumonia, otitis interna and media, conjunctivitis, genital infections, and abscesses—all from Pasteurella. While antibiotics may be effectively used for active infection, Pasteurella may not be eradicated.

82. For feline and canine patients that have not been premedicated, an appropriate dose of propofol for anesthetic induction is a. 3 mg/kg IV given to effect. b. 6 mg/kg IV given to effect. c. 3-4 mg/kg IV. d. 10 mg/kg.

82. B: 6 mg/kg IV given to effect Propofol can be used for anesthetic induction and anesthetic maintenance. Premedication reduces the amount of propofol needed for induction. The recommended dose of propofol for anesthetic administration in cats and dogs is 6 mg/kg given intravenously and to effect. With pre- administration with an opioid or sedative, propofol doses in the 3-4 mg/kg range are given intravenously for induction. Anesthesia can be maintained with additional boluses of propofol of 0.5 - 1 mg/kg given to effect intravenously or with a constant rate infusion of propofol at 0.1 - 0.4 mg/kg/min.

83. You are advising a client with a new retriever about canine hip dysplasia. Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to mention? a. Retrievers fed a controlled diet have a lower incidence of osteoarthritis than free-fed retrievers. b. No commercial test ascertains the likelihood of a dog developing significant hip dysplasia. c. If hip dysplasia develops, signs could include stiffness and lameness in the hind limbs, a hopping gait, and difficulty jumping or walking up stairs. d. Because it is genetic, nothing can be done to prevent hip dysplasia in a pet.

83. D: Because it is genetic, nothing can be done to prevent hip dysplasia in her pet. Canine hip dysplasia (CHD) is a significant disease with an increasing incidence. CHD is multifactorial with polygenetic and environmental contributing factors. Limiting food intake and pet body weight reduces radiographic and clinical signs of osteoarthritis in predisposed dogs. Radiographs and examination can be used to evaluate laxity, abnormal bone structure, and osteoarthritic changes, but no available test can determine which dogs will develop significant CHD.

85. A 10-kg dog requires a red cell transfusion. Calculate the rate of transfusion. a. 20 mL/hr b. 2 mL/hr c. 0.1 mL/min d. 1 mL/min

85. A: 20 mL/hr Transfusions are given at a rate of 2 mL/kg/hr. A 10kg dog should receive 20mL of red cells per hour or 0.3 mL per minute.

86. What is the most common bacterium associated with urinary tract infections of the dog or cat? a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. E. coli d. Klebsiella

86. C: E. coli Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Klebsiella, and Proteus all contribute to urinary tract infections in the dog and cat, but Escherichia coli is the most common. E. coli is isolated from 67% of urinary tract infections in cats and 44% in dogs.

88. Which is NOT a potential problem identified by a high CO2 level on the end-tidal CO2 monitor during surgery? a. Hypercapnia b. Leak in system c. Elevated inspired CO2 d. Bradycardia

88. D: Bradycardia A patient's end-tidal CO2 is monitored during surgery to assess ventilation. The CO2 monitor measures the CO2 level of expired breath as well as waveform shape and baseline. Should the patient breathe in a relatively high level of CO2 or be hypercapnic, the end-tidal CO2 will be high. A leak in the breathing system can also result in a high value

Which of the following statements is/are true about the inventory of controlled substances? a. A new inventory of controlled substances on hand must be taken at least every 2 years. b. An inventory must include the number of commercial containers of each finished form. c. An inventory must include the date the inventory was conducted. d. All of the above are true.

9. D: All of the above According to the Drug Enforcement Administration, an inventory of controlled substances must: Be a complete and accurate record of controlled substances on hand Include the date the inventory is conducted Be in written, typewritten or printed form Be conducted at least every two years following an initial inventory Be maintained at the registered location for at least two years past the date of the inventory Include when the inventory was taken (open or close of business) Include names of controlled substances Include each finished form of the controlled substances (injectable liquid, powder, tablet and dose or concentration) Include the number of dosage units of each finished form in the commercial container (for instance, 50 tablet bottle, 10 mL vial) Include the number of commercial containers of each finished form (for example, five 10 mL vials) Include the disposition of the controlled substances

91. Horses with painful colic often have heart rates exceeding a. 100 bpm. b. 140 bpm. c. 120 bpm. d. 50 bpm.

91. D: 50 bpm A horse's at rest heart rate is 28-40 beats per minute. Any painful situation can raise the resting heart rate. Colic ranges from non-painful to severely painful. With a mild obstruction, horses commonly have a resting heart rate elevated in the 50 to 60 beats per minute range. A strangulated bowel causing substantial distress may cause an elevation in heart rate to 80 to 90 beats per minute.

92. Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of shock? a. Hypovolemic b. Proliferative c. Cardiogenic d. Obstructive

92. B: Proliferative Traditional categories of shock include hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock, septic shock, cardiogenic shock, traumatic shock, and anaphylactic shock. Functional categories of shock include hypovolemic, cardiogenic, vasogenic or distributive, and obstructive shock. Cardiogenic shock results from heart failure. Bleeding or substantial loss of intravascular volume leads to hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock. Septic shock (from bacterial infection) and traumatic shock (from fluid movement as a result of trauma) interfere with proper distribution of blood throughout the body.

93. Every time a radiograph is taken, a radiographic exposure log is commonly updated with which of the following information? a. Date, patient name, measurements, type of cassette, exposure factors b. Date, patient name, position, thickness of studied region, exposure factors, initials c. Date, patient name, number of views, measurements d. Patient name, number of views, exposure factors, cassette size

93. B: Date, patient name, position, thickness of studied region, exposure factors, initials A radiographic exposure log serves a number of functions. It is used to track the number of radiographs taken and assess when calibration and cleaning are needed. Data in the log can be used to determine the efficiency of work, track a patient's radiographs, and monitor the effectiveness of settings for a particular body part and thickness. The radiographic log commonly tracks: Date of radiograph Name of patient Position Thickness of studied region Exposure factors Initials of person taking radiograph(s)

94. Inoculated agar plates should be evaluated for growth and change every a. 24 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 1 week. d. 12 hours.

94. A: 24 hours Agar plates are inoculated with a concerted effort to avoid contamination, and with the infected or potentially infected material spread evenly across the surface of the agar plate. The agar plate should be stored upside-down with the lid taped plate. The plate should be placed in an incubator and checked every 24 hours to evaluate growth and color change.

95. MIC stands for a. medial ileal cancer. b. medial ileal cartilage. c. minimum inhibitory concentration. d. maximum inhibitory concentration.

95. C: Minimum inhibitory concentration Following bacterial culture, bacteria are assessed for their sensitivity to different antibiotics and the amount of antibiotic required to inhibit bacterial growth. The minimum concentration of antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth is the MIC, or minimum inhibitory concentration. A broth dilution test is one method of evaluating MIC. In a broth dilution test, the bacteria under evaluation are incubated in several tubes of broth with varying amounts of the antibiotic being tested. The tubes are evaluated to determine which allowed bacterial growth and which did not. The lowest antibiotic concentration that inhibited growth of the bacteria is the MIC. Other methods of evaluating MIC are agar dilution and the Etest.

96. Small intestinal cells absorb fluid droplets by the process of a. phagocytosis. b. pinocytosis. c. membrane binding. d. exocytosis.

96. B: Pinocytosis Endocytosis is an active cell process by which materials are taken into a cell. In pinocytosis, the cell membrane extends around fluid membranes. With phagocytosis, the cell membrane extends around solid particles. Specific substances, including hormones, iron, and cholesterol, enter the cell through a receptor-mediated process. Contrarily, exocytosis is a process of expelling materials from a cell.

The adrenal glands are closest to what other structure? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Pancreas E. Bladder

B.The adrenal glands are located right above the kidneys. The bladder sits in the caudal abdomen ventral to the colon. The liver is just caudal to the diaphragm and is the most cranial organ in the abdomen. The right limb of the pancreas runs parallel with the duodenum while the left limb runs along the body of the stomach.

This 6-year-old Friesian cow has developed a mass on the left jaw region (see image). The farmer reports that it developed over the last several weeks. The mass is firm, immobile, and painful on manipulation. While assisting the veterinarian, you notice a thick granular discharge coming from the mass. The veterinarian suspects "lumpy jaw", which is caused by which of the following agents? A. Corynebacterium B. pseudotuberculosis C. Mycobacterium bovis D. Actinomyces bovis E. Moraxella bovis

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis Mycobacterium bovis Actinomyces bovis Your Answer Moraxella bovis

Acepromazine concentration is 10 mg/mL. You are instructed to make a dilute acepromazine solution at 1 mg/mL. Which of the following could be used for how much acepromazine and how much sterile water are mixed to make this concentration? 10 mL acepromazine and 25 mL sterile water 1 mL acepromazine and 9 mL sterile water Your Answer 0.1 mL acepromazine and 2.5 mL sterile water 9 mL acepromazine and 1 mL sterile water

Explanation 1 mL of acepromazine is equal to 10 mg (since ace is 10 mg/mL). This 10 mg mixed in 9 mL of sterile water results in a concentration of 1 mg/mL. 1 mL (10 mg) of ace + 9 mL of sterile water = 10 mL total volume 10 mg / 10mL = 1 mg/mL

A client calls the clinic and says her 12 pound mixed breed dog was just stung by a bee and his face is starting to swell. You recommend she brings her pet in immediately, and the doctor recommends she give Benadryl 12.5 mg orally now before she leaves her house. The woman has some Benadryl liquid that is 12.5 mg per teaspoon. How many milliliters should she give her pet? 0.5 mLs 2.5 mLs 5 mLs Your Answer 1.5 mLs

Explanation 1 teaspoon is equal to 5 milliliters.

The veterinarian would like you to give famotidine to a 23 kg Doberman Pinscher that has been hospitalized for vomiting. The dosage is 0.5 mg/kg. Using the image, how many milliliters you will be administering? 1.2 ml Your Answer 1.4 ml 11.5 ml 0.12 ml

Explanation 23 kg multiplied by 0.5 mg/kg= 11.5 mg divided by 10 mg/ml= 1.2 ml

The veterinarian asks you use glycopyrrolate to premedicate a patient in the hospital. Using the image, calculate how many milliliters you will administer to a 35 kg dog at a dosage of 0.01 mg/kg? 0.08 ml 0.18 ml 1.75 ml Your Answer 0.004 ml

Explanation 35 kg multiplied by 0.01 mg/kg= 0.35 mg divided by 0.2 mg/ml= 1.75 ml

Which of the following drugs is commonly given by intravenous injection to humanely euthanize small animals? Ketamine Cyanide Pentobarbital Your Answer Phenobarbital Digoxin

Explanation A concentrated solution of sodium pentobarbital is the most commonly used euthanasia solution in small animals. It is administered by IV bolus and results in rapid general CNS anesthesia followed by respiratory and cardiac arrest. This is a controlled drug classified as a barbiturate. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate used to control seizures and is given orally or by injection. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in the treatment of certain types of heart disease due to its ability to improve myocardial contractility and decrease conduction impulses. Cyanide is a lethal toxin but is not a humane form of euthanasia. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic typically used in combination with other drugs for anesthetic induction or analgesia.

A laryngoscope might aid in which procedure? Anal gland expression Endotracheal tube placement Your Answer Jugular catheter placement Ear drum examination

Explanation A laryngoscope is a handheld instrument that has a blade with a light source; it helps to hold down the tongue and view the epiglottis and laryngeal region. It is used to examine this area of the oral cavity and is also used to assist with endotracheal tube placement.

A red blood cell that stains darkly with no central pallor is called what? Acanthocyte Spherocyte Your Answer Keratocyte Schistocyte Echinocyte

Explanation A spherocyte is a dark staining red blood cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from partial phagocytosis of the cell as is seen with immune-mediated destruction. A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from intravascular trauma and they are seen in cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as hemangiosarcoma. An acanthocyte is a red blood cell with surface projections that are seen mainly in animals with altered lipid metabolism or liver disease. An echinocyte is a red blood cell that is speculated with uniform blunt projections that are usual artifacts from blood drying but may be seen in some diseases. A keratocyte is a red blood cell that appears to contain a vacuole; they are sometimes called blister cells and they may occur from intravascular trauma. Next Question

You are asked to place a nasal oxygen tube in a dog. What is the measurement for placement of nasal oxygen? Advance the tube until the dog coughs and then pull back slightly Measure to the top of the head Measure to the medial canthus of the eye Your Answer The catheter should be placed 0.5 inches into the nostril

Explanation A topical anesthetic (such as proparacaine) is instilled into a nostril prior to catheter placement. The catheter is lubed and slid into the nostril and introduced into the ventral nasal meatus. It is advanced to the level of the carnassial tooth or the medial canthus of the eye and is sutured to the skin.

Which drug is known as an ACE-inhibitor? Metoclopramide Acepromazine Diphenhydramine Enalapril Your Answer

Explanation Ace-inhibitors like enalapril are vasodilators which block angiotensin-converting enzyme to prevent angiotensin II (a vacosconstrictor) and aldosterone (causes sodium retention) from forming. Ace-inhibitors help to relax smooth muscle in the arterioles and veins. They are most commonly used in cases of heart and kidney disease. Note that ace-inhibitor drugs usually end in a "pril" (benazapril, captopril, enalapril, etc.)

Which of the following drugs are toxic to cats? Acetaminophen Your Answer Ketoprofen Famotidine Prednisolone Xylazine

Explanation Acetaminophen (Tylenol), even in small doses, can be very toxic to cats. They are very sensitive to this drug due to low levels of an enzyme (glucoronyl transferase) in the liver that is needed to metabolize acetaminophen. Prednisolone is a glucocorticoid steroid that may be used in cats that are deficient in glucocorticoid production (rare) or for its anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive properties. Ketoprofen is an NSAID sometimes used in cats. Famotidine is a gastric acid reducing drug. Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist sometimes used in cats for sedation or as an emetic.

You are instructed to give a medication which you are told is an antipyretic. What will this medication do? Provide sedation Prevent vomiting Reduce gastric acid Reduce fever Your Answer

Explanation Anti-pyretics reduce fever. An example of an anti-pyretic medication is ketofen (Ketoprofen) which is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. The term pyrexia means fever. An example of an acid reducer (antacid) would be famotidine (Pepcid AC). A medication which would prevent vomiting would be an antiemetic. Examples of this include maropitant (Cerenia) or metoclopramide (Reglan). Reglan also has upper GI pro-kinetic properties.

Which of the following drugs is an anticonvulsant? Phenobarbital Your Answer Xylazine Acepromazine Butorphanol

Explanation Anticonvulsant drugs include barbiturates (phenobarbital, pentobarbital, primidone), benzodiazepines (diazepam, lorazepam, clorazepate), potassium bromide, levetiracetam, zonisamide, gabapentin, and felbamate. Acepromazine is a phenothiazine drug that can decrease anxiety. Xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist that causes sedation and analgesia. Butorphanol is an opioid analgesic.

Which of the following is true of aspirin? It should never be given to felines It should never be given to canines It decreases platelet clumping and thus reduces risk of clot formation Your Answer It increases thrombus formation to help prevent bleeding at a site of injury

Explanation Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation and so reduces risk of clot formation. Because of this, it can also increase bleeding risk. Although cats are very sensitive to the effects of aspirin, it is sometimes used when treating certain types of heart disease. It should be used with caution, since cats cannot metabolize aspirin as quickly as dogs can, and owners should be advised to never give their cat aspirin.

Which of the following is an expected side effect of atropine? Cause mild sedation Cause pupillary constriction Cause inhibition of excessive salivation Your Answer Cause bradycardia

Explanation Atropine functions as a sympathetic, competitive antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors. It inhibits salivary secretions, causes increased heart rate, and causes dilation of pupils. It is not a sedative.

A canine hospitalized following a TPLO surgery unexpectedly cardiac arrests. Endotracheal intubation and chest compressions have been initiated. What two drugs are usually administered FIRST during CPCR? Dexamethasone sodium phosphate and methylprednisolone Atropine and epinephrine Your Answer Propofol and diazepam Mannitol and hypertonic saline Dextrose and intravenous fluids

Explanation Atropine is used in CPCR because it blocks signals from the vagus nerve and is used to treat bradycardia. Epinephrine is used because it increases cardiac output by causing peripheral vasoconstriction and causes bronchodilation. Mannitol and hypertonic saline are used to decrease intracranial pressure and are not the first drugs to be administered during CPCR. Dex SP and methylprednisolone are both steroids and do not increase cardiac function or output. Propofol and diazepam are drugs that might be given during status epilepticus, not during CPCR. Dextrose and fluids may be administered during CPCR but are not usually the first drugs of choice.

What is the etiology of Clostridium botulinum, the toxin that causes botulism in cattle? Ingestion Your Answer Contamination of deep puncture wounds Direct contact Trauma

Explanation C. botulinum is found in decomposing plants and animals, and toxins are produced in the decaying material. The most common source of the toxin for cattle is feed contaminated by carcasses of mice and birds. Botulism is characterized by a progressive muscle weakness (paralysis). Affected animals may be weak, stagger about, or go down. Cattle characteristically display flaccid paralysis and occasionally protrusion of the tongue as seen in this photo.

Which of the following species is an induced ovulator? Horse Cat Your Answer Human Dog

Explanation Cats, rabbits, and ferrets are induced ovulators. This means they will ovulate after being bred. Dogs have a diestrous cycle, meaning they cycle in the spring and fall. Animals that cycle continuously throughout the year have polyestrous cycles. Horses are seasonally polyestrous and cycle continuously during specific seasons of the year. Humans are spontaneous ovulators and will ovulate regardless of mating.

What is true regarding chelonians?(turtles) They don't have eyelids They don't have a urinary bladder They don't have a diaphragm Your Answer They don't have a spleen

Explanation Chelonians are turtles and tortoises. They do not have a diaphragm. They have eyelids, and also have a nictitating membrane. They have a spleen. They have a bladder, and bladder stones are not uncommon in pet tortoises.

Some bacteria produce beta-lacatamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins. What beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent this from occurring? Procaine Chloride Sulfamethoxazole Clavulanic acid Your Answer

Explanation Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor added to amoxicillin to prevent some types of antibiotic resistance. Sulfamethoxazole is a sulfonamide bacteriostatic antibiotic typically given with trimethoprim. Sulfa medications can cause side effects such as dry eye, acute hepatitis, and bone-marrow toxicity. Procaine is a local anesthetic, historically added to penicillin to reduce the pain associated with the injection. Clavulanic acid contains a potassium salt, but not chloride.

What clinical syndrome can result from bedding a horse on shavings made from the Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) tree? Nothing/no Effect Foot abscessation Laminitis Your Answer Contact dermatitis Contact alopecia

Explanation Contact with Black Walnut shavings can cause laminitis in the horse within 10-12 hours of being placed on the bedding. Severity of laminitis can be mild to severe and may also be accompanied by limb edema.

Which of the following is the correct term for dental decay, causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth? Enamel hypoplasia Stomatitis Caries Your Answer Odontoclastic resorptive lesions

Explanation Dental caries is the condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria, forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth. Odontoclastic resorptive lesions are a process where the cementum of the tooth is resorbed and replaced with bone-like material. Enamel hypoplasia, is the absence of enamel formation on the tooth crown during tooth development. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces.

An owner calls your vet clinic in a panic because her epileptic dog is currently having a seizure. She says that the vet at your hospital had given her a drug to give rectally to help. She starts to list off the medications in her medicine cabinet. Which of these is the appropriate drug for this instance? Clomipramine Diazepam Your Answer Ketamine Potassium bromide Naloxone

Explanation Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that can stop a seizure. It is most commonly given intravenously in the clinic but it can be given rectally by an owner at home and is sometimes dispensed for this purpose. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic and an NMDA antagonist that is used in anesthetic drug combinations, but it can be seizurogenic and should not be used in dogs prone to seizures. Potassium bromide is used as an anti-seizure drug; it is usually given orally for seizure prevention but an IV loading dose can be given. It is not effective per rectum and must be given over too long of a period of time to be effective at stopping an ongoing seizure. Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is an antidepressant sometimes used as part of the treatment of behavioral disorders in dogs. Naloxone is an opioid reversal agent.

Diphenhydramine is typically used in treating which of the following conditions? Urinary incontinence Keratoconjunctivitis sicca Urinary tract infections Auto-immune conditions Allergic reactions Your Answer

Explanation Diphenhydramine is also known as Benadryl. It is a an anti-histamine most commonly used for treating allergies or allergic reactions. A urinary tract infection would require an antibiotic. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is an immune mediated condition and is usually treated with cyclosporine. Auto-immune conditions also call for immunosuppressive agents. Urinary incontinence may be treated with phenylpropanolamine.

A 6-year old Doberman cardiac arrested and was resuscitated. However, the dog has a consistently low systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg. What drug may be prescribed to increase the blood pressure and via what route? Dopamine via intravenous infusion Your Answer Dopamine via intramuscular administration Hydromorphone via intravenous administration Terbutaline via subcutaneous administration

Explanation Dopamine increases blood pressure by increasing systemic vascular resistance and is administered via intravenous constant rate infusion. Dopamine is not labeled for intramuscular use. Hydromorphone is an opioid and may cause a reduction in the patient's blood pressure. Terbutaline is a bronchodilator.

A tablet may have enteric coating to serve what purpose? It prevents gastric ulceration To protect the medication from being destroyed by the acids of the stomach Your Answer It slows transit time so that the drug will be absorbed mostly through the stomach wall It increases transit time so the drug can make it to the colon more quickly for absorption

Explanation Enteric coatings are used to protect the medication from the acidic stomach environment so that more of the active drug can make it and be absorbed in the small intestine. The enteric coating does not increase or decrease transit time. Drugs are mostly absorbed in the small intestine, not the colon.

Aside from diabetes, what is another cause for glucosuria in a cat? A. High carbohydrate diet Estrus Dehydration Excitement Your Answer

Explanation Excitement, stress, and fear increase blood glucose levels. If those levels exceed the renal threshold, glucosuria can occur. The other answer choices do not result in glucosuria.

Fasciola hepatica requires which intermediate host? Flea Mosquito Snail Your Answer Rat

Explanation Fasciola hepatica is the liver fluke. It is typically found in wet environments where snails proliferate. Snails are the intermediate host for this parasite, and the most common definitive hosts are sheep and cattle. It is a flat worm, resembling a leaf.

A 47 pound Standard Poodle has come to your hospital for a hind limb lameness and the veterinarian would like you to give an injection of Carprofen SQ for pain. The dosage is 2.2 mg/kg. Using the image, how many milliliters will you give to this patient? 0.9 ml Your Answer 4.6 ml 4.1 ml 2.0 ml

Explanation First you must convert pounds to kilograms dividing 47 by 2.2= 21.3 kg. 21.3 kg multiplied by 2.2 mg/kg= 47 mg divided by 50 mg/ml= 0.9 ml

You want to give a 22 pound cat a 5 mg/kg dose of a drug. The drug comes as a 2.5% solution. How many milliliters should you give the cat? .4 .2 20 4.4 2 Your Answer 8.8

Explanation First, you must recognize that the cat's weight is given in pounds and should immediately be converted to kilograms. There are 2.2 lbs/kg so this is a 10 kg cat. Second, you must be able to convert a percent solution to mg/ml. A 2.5% solution is 25 mg/ml. This is hard for some students to remember. A memory tip is that a 100% solution would be 1 gram/ml. Therefore a 50% solution would be 500mg/ml, and a 5% solution would be 50 mg/ml. The math to solve this question is: 22 lbs x (1 kg/2.2 lbs) x 5mg/kg x (1ml/25mg) = 2 ml

Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose? For acid reflux For analgesia Your Answer For tapeworm infestation For constipation

Explanation Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is a non-narcotic, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to provide analgesia and to reduce inflammation. It may also be used as a fever reducer.

What personal protective equipment would be required for a dental cleaning? Eye protection, cap, booties, gloves Mask, eye protection, gloves Your Answer Mask, eye protection, cap Booties, cap, mask, gloves

Explanation For a dental, a face shield or eye protection is needed due to the splatter from dental cleaning. A mask is needed to prevent inhalation of this splatter or mist. Gloves are required to prevent the spread of infection. Dental cleanings are not sterile procedures, so a cap and booties would not be required.

Which drug treats hypothyroidism? Levofloxacin Theophylline Methimazole Levothyroxine Your Answer

Explanation Hypothyroidism is the condition of the thyroid being too low. When it is too low, the animal must be supplemented with levothyroxine. Methimazole is the drug used to treat hyperthyroidism (when the thyroid is too high). Radioactive iodine (I-131) also treats hyperthyroidism. Theophylline is a bronchodilator. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is an antibiotic.

A dog presents to your hospital to have surgery for a cranial cruciate ligament rupture (see x-ray). The veterinarian wants you to place an epidural after the patient is under anesthesia and before the procedure is performed. While performing the epidural you get blood in the hub of the spinal needle. What does this mean and what should you do? You have created a hematoma going through the skin, you should withdraw the needle and start over. You have created a hematoma going through the skin, it is ok to administer the full dose of anesthetic once the needle is in its proper place. You have entered the sinus, you should withdraw the needle and start over. Correct Answer You have entered the sinus and you should give only 1/2 the dose of anesthetic.

Explanation If you see blood flow into the spinal needle it means that you have entered a venous sinus, the needle should be removed and the procedure can be started again.

You perform a Wood's lamp examination on a cat that has had hair loss over the bridge of his nose (see image). It causes a green fluorescence to appear. Which organism is likely the cause? Aspergillus Trichophyton Cryptococcus Microsporum canis Your Answer Coccidioides

Explanation In about 50% of ringworm cases caused by Microsporum canis, a Wood's lamp test will be positive. This is the only organism to cause a positive result.

How can you differentiate a male tortoise from a female? The plastron is concave in males Your Answer The female's carapace is concave The females are smaller in size The eyes are darker in males The hemipenes are evident in males The plastron is convex in males

Explanation In order for the males to be able to mount the females, their plastron is concave. This allow for a good fit over the convex shape of the female's shell.

An owner brings a box of rat poison to your hospital and says her dog ingested it. You help the doctor induce vomiting. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for an animal that has ingested an anticoagulant rodenticide? Give IV vodka Give vitamin K Your Answer Give diazepam Give atropine

Explanation It takes at least a few days for anticoagulant rodenticides to cause prolonged bleeding times and clinical hemorrhage. This could likely be prevented with early intervention with decontamination and Vitamin K1 administration. In patients that have prolonged bleeding times, plasma is also indicated. The bright green vomit confirms the owners suspicion of rodenticide ingestion because many rat poison contains a bright green dye. Dogs that ingest these products may have bright green vomit or stool. Next Question

You find Otodectes cynotis in an ear swab you prepared for a kitten that has been scratching her ears and has dark coffee ground looking debris in them. What could be used to treat this? Albon Fluconazole Clavamox Ivermectin Your Answer

Explanation Ivermectin 0.01% can be applied topically to the ears to treat ear mites. Fluconazole is an anti-fungal that would be effective against Malassezia (yeast). Clavamox would be beneficial for a bacterial ear infection. Albon is used to treat coccidia (an intestinal parasite).

Which medication is typically given through a filter? Cefazolin Dexamethasone Mannitol Your Answer Metoclopramide

Explanation Mannitol forms crystals in solution. An in-line 5 micron IV filter or filter needle is recommended. None of the other choices require a filter for administration. Blood products are frequently filtered prior to IV administration.

Which medication may help in a case of acute glaucoma? Chloramphenicol Mannitol Your Answer Ketamine Atropine

Explanation Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that will help to decrease intraocular pressure. Atropine raises intraocular pressure and would be contraindicated. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic, and ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and dissociative anesthetic. Neither of these are indicated in glaucoma.

A dog presents for his first day of heartworm treatment. He tested positive for heartworms last week, and the infection was confirmed by chest radiographs and finding microfilariae in his blood. Which drug will this dog receive for killing the heart worms? Selamectin Ivermectin Melarsomine Your Answer Milbemycin

Explanation Melarsomine (more commonly known as Immiticide) is the drug of choice for killing adult heartworms. Care must be used when giving this medication as death of a large worm burden may result in a severe anaphylactic reaction. The others listed are heartworm preventatives that are effective against the microfilariae only.

A 10-year-old domestic short hair cat presents for facial excoriations. The cat is extremely itchy on its face. Which of the following medications may cause this side effect? Methimazole Your Answer Metoclopramide Famotidine Metronidazole

Explanation Methimazole (Tapazole) may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect. This medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism.

Which antibiotic often used for diarrhea has potential to cause a neurologic side effect? Bismuth subsalicylate Amoxicillin Metronidazole Your Answer Tylosin

Explanation Metronidazole is used frequently for treating diarrhea. It can cause neurologic symptoms in some sensitive patients or at higher dosages. The treatment for metronidazole toxicity is supportive care, including Diazepam as a main treatment. Owners with pets on higher dosages of this medication should be advised of this potential side effect. The most common use for higher doses is treatment of Giardia. Fenbendazole is often a safer option for this parasite.

A client has been giving her pet a "nutraceutical" she found that is supposed to help with her dog's arthritis. What are nutraceuticals? Phytochemicals Your Answer Vitamins Herbs Minerals

Explanation Nutraceuticals are chemicals or foodstuffs derived from plants (and occasionally animals) in the form of a supplement. These are not typically regulated by the government.

What hormone stimulates uterine contraction? Prolactin Oxytocin Your Answer Luteinizing hormone Antidiuretic hormone

Explanation Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for uterine contraction and is sometimes administered to animals with dystocia to help expel the fetus. Prolactin stimulates lactation, and oxytocin causes the milk letdown. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates ovulation. Antidiuretic hormone results in water re-absorption when released.

Periodontal disease can refer to processes affecting which of the following? Gingiva Your Answer Tongue Dentin Enamel Hard palate

Explanation Periodontal disease is one of the most common conditions seen. The periodontum includes the gingiva, the alveolar bone, the periodontal ligament and cementum of the tooth. Gingivitis is usually the first sign of periodontal disease.

You should not give a phenothiazine tranquilizer to an animal with which disease? Cushings Glaucoma Diabetes Epilepsy Your Answer Hypothyroidism

Explanation Phenothiazine tranquilizers such as acepromazine or chlorpromazine are traditionally thought to be contraindicated in patients with seizure disorders. More recent research has shown that they are not nearly as dangerous as originally perceived and some don't consider these medications as being contraindicated.

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease? Psittacosis Your Answer Coccidioides White muscle disease Pacheco's disease

Explanation Psittacosis, also known as Parrot fever, is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci. It is spread via bird droppings and nasal discharge. In humans, it causes cough, fatigue, fever, headache, and muscle aches. Some birds may be carriers of the bacteria and appear healthy. These carriers can intermittently shed the bacteria in their stool. Symptomatic birds may have droppings which look like pea soup, have decreased appetite, weight loss, ruffled feathers, conjunctivitis, or symptoms of upper respiratory infection. Pacheco's disease (known as Parrot Herpesvirus) is a fatal bird disease but is not contagious to humans. White muscle disease in livestock is caused by a selenium deficiency and is not contagious. Coccidioides immitis is a fungus which is not considered zoonotic from direct contact between animals and people, although humans may contract Coccidiodes indirectly. Any draining lesions thought to be caused by the organism should be handled as such.

You are hooking up the anesthesia machine and place the pulse oximeter on the dog's tongue. This is to measure which of the following? Electrical impulse of the heart Oxygen saturation Your Answer Carbon dioxide Respiratory rate

Explanation Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in arterial blood. The pulse-ox reading should generally always be above 94%. If this measurement drops, especially during anesthesia, sometimes rubbing and wetting the tongue can help improve circulation to the tongue and thus help get a more accurate reading.

Which of the following species has a double row of incisors? Rat Ferret Hamster Guinea Pig Rabbit Your Answer Chinchilla

Explanation Rabbits have a second row of incisors distal to the proximal incisors. When malocclusion occurs, it is important to trim both sets of teeth to maintain proper dentition.

What is a frightened sheep most likely to do? Head butt Bite Kick Run Your Answer

Explanation Sheep are a fight or flight species and will run when frightened.

Which essential amino acid is a requirement in the feline diet? Taurine Your Answer Lysine Arginine Leucine

Explanation Taurine is an essential amino acid that is critical for normal heart muscle function, vision, and reproduction in cats.

What does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause? Constricted pupils Slowed heart rate Salivation Bronchodilation Your Answer

Explanation The beta-2 adrenergic agonists are often used in treating cases of "asthma" or other conditions that require bronchodilation as a treatment. Examples of short acting beta-2 agonists are terbutaline and albuterol.

Which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals? Metoclopramide Your Answer Metronidazole Sucralfate Famotidine

Explanation The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ or CRTZ) is part of the medulla that communicates with the vomiting center to initiate vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an anti-emetic primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting in small animals. This medication blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Sucralfate is a gastric "band-aid" that helps to protect and heal irritated mucosa. Famotidine (Pepcid AC) is a gastric acid reducer. Metronidazole is an antibiotic often prescribed for diarrhea or colitis.

How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a dog? 4 2 8 6 Your Answer

Explanation The correct answer is 6. The 3-rooted permanent teeth in the maxilla of a dog are P4, M1, and M2 (so 3 on each side of the upper jaw). There are no 3-rooted permanent mandibular teeth in the dog.

Johne's disease is an intestinal infection that can lead to clinical signs of diarrhea and weight loss. It affects cattle, sheep, goats, and other species. What is the Genus of the causative agent of Johne's disease? Brucella Fusobacterium Mycobacterium Your Answer Listeria

Explanation The correct answer is Mycobacterium. Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis is the cause of Johne's disease and is known to affect cattle, goats, and sheep, as well as many exotic hoof-stock. Infection usually occurs when the animals are young, but clinical signs do not show up until the animal becomes stressed, often around 2 to 3 years of age. Clinical signs are essentially chronic intermittent diarrhea and weight loss. Listeria monocytogenes causes a disease of the central nervous system. Fusobacterium necrophorum is a bacteria often isolated from footrot in cattle. Brucella abortus is a bacterium which causes abortion in cattle (known as "Bang's disease") and also causes a disease in humans known as undulant fever.

Which of these is an effective drug to induce emesis in the dog? Azathioprine Xylazine Magnesium hydroxide Apomorphine Your Answer

Explanation The correct answer is apomorphine. Apomorphine is an opioid dopaminergic agonist that acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting in dogs. It can be administered IM, SC, IV, or in the conjunctival sac. Xylazine is a fairly effective emetic in the cat but is not used in the dog for this purpose. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive drug not used to induce vomiting. Magnesium hydroxide or Milk of Magnesia is a cathartic but is not used for vomiting.

Which of these sedative/anesthetic drugs does not have an antagonist? Diazepam Propofol Your Answer Xylazine Medetomidine Hydromorphone

Explanation The correct answer is propofol. The reversal agents are: For diazepam: flumazenil For hydromorphone: naloxone or naltrexone For medetomidine: atipamezole For xylazine: yohimbine Acepromazine is another sedative that does not have an antagonist. Next Question

Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds? Thiopental Your Answer Ivermectin Propofol Morphine

Explanation The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

When referring to teeth, which of the following terms describes the portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch? Mesial Your Answer Apical Distal Buccal Lingual

Explanation The following terms are used in veterinary dentistry to describe different positions in the mouth and aspects of the tooth: Rostral - Any structure closer to the front of the head relative to another structure Caudal - Any structure closer to the back of the head relative to another structure Buccal - The tooth surface that faces the cheek Labial- The tooth surface that faces the lips Vestibular- surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal (cheek) and labial (lip) surfaces Facial - The surface of the tooth visible from the front (same as the vestibular surface but applies mainly to the incisor teeth) Lingual - The surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue Palatal - The surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate Mesial - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch Distal - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch (the opposite side of mesial) Apical - The portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure Coronal - The portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure

Which organ(s) most commonly break down or process medications and excrete them from the body? Liver and kidneys Your Answer Gastrointestinal tract and liver Lungs and liver Gastrointestinal tract Pancreas and kidneys

Explanation The four main ways medications are excreted from the body are through the kidneys, liver, skin, and lungs. Most drugs are processed by the liver and then the kidneys. Therefore, animals with kidney or liver problems can have problems processing certain medications; this can raise the drug levels higher since excretion may be impaired.

A 5-month old female cat presents for weight loss, chronic diarrhea and steatorrhea. You are looking at a stained fecal smear from the cat as shown in the image below (this is a magnified 40X image; the organism is approximately 15 x 8 um). What is the organism here? Toxascaris Giardia Your Answer Tritrichomonas Toxacara

Explanation The organism is Giardia, which can be recognized as a trophozoite with two nuclei outlined by adhesive discs. Giardia should be distinguishable from trichomonads, which have a single nucleus and an undulating membrane. The best treatments for Giardia are either fenbendazole or metronidazole.

You are reading a report from an oncologist and read that the popliteal lymph nodes were enlarged. Where are these nodes located? At the chest area over the pectoral muscles In the caudal portion of the hindlimbs at the level of the stifle and back of the thigh Your Answer Inside each thigh at the inguinal area On either side of the neck just under the jaw rostral to the salivary glands

Explanation The popliteal nodes are located on the back of the thigh just caudal to the stifle. The pre-scapular nodes are located at the chest over the pectoral muscles. The mandibular nodes are located under the jaw rostral to the salivary glands. The inguinal nodes are located inside each thigh at the inguinal region.

A cat is given dexmedetomidine, and the cat's heart rate has dropped significantly. The veterinarian asks you to give the reversal, which is the following is the appropriate reversal agent? Acepromazine Atropine Naloxone Atipamezole Your Answer

Explanation The reversal of medetomidine or dexmedetomidine (Domitor or Dexdomitor) is atipamezole (Antisedan). Yohimbine may also have some reversal effects but is not as commonly used to reverse medetomidine. Yohimbine is more often is used to reverse xylazine.

Water comes from the ultrasonic scaler for which purpose? It prevents introduction of bacteria into the gumline It smoothes the surface of the tooth It helps cool the instrument tip Your Answer It prevents dulling of the instrument

Explanation The ultrasonic scaler uses water to cool the instrument tip and to flush debris from the tooth as it is scaled away. By cooling the instrument tip, the water helps to prevent thermal damage to the tooth. The polisher is the instrument used to help smooth the tooth surface.

How do oral flea control products such as Program or Sentinel work? Sterilizing the male flea to prevent reproduction Stopping egg hatching Your Answer Paralyzing the nervous system of the flea Killing adult fleas directly

Explanation These products interfere with chitin synthesis. The flea's "egg tooth", which is made of chitin, is no longer able to help the flea hatch from the egg. Another possible correct choice, but not provided, would be that females produce sterile eggs. Female fleas may produce 150-300 eggs per week (or up to 50 eggs a day). These products do not kill adult fleas.

How many milliliters of dextrose should be added to a 60 ml syringe of 0.9% NaCl to make a 2.5% dextrose solution? The patient weighs 20 kg, and the dextrose in the hospital comes in a 50% concentration. 3 ml Your Answer 6 ml 120 ml 1.5 ml 0.6 ml

Explanation To answer this question, use the following equation: C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.025 V(1) = 60 ml C(2) = 0.50 V(2) = x 0.025(60)= 0.50x x = 3 ml Note that the body weight is completely unnecessary to calculate the answer to this problem. 200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution. Next Question

A 120-pound Great Dane has presented with Gastric Dilatation Volvulus. The clinician has asked you to quickly prepare the drug protocol. As a premedication, the dog is to receive 0.08 mg/kg of Hydromorphone. How many milligrams will you administer? 6.4 mg 4.4mg Your Answer 9.6 mg 2.2 mg

Explanation To calculate milligrams administered the dog's body weight should be converted to kilograms. As a general rule, the majority of medications are dosed in a milligram-per-kilogram dosing. Therefore all body weights need to be converted to kilograms so that you are working in the same units. 120 lb/2.2 = 54.5 kg (There are 2.2 lbs per kilogram) 54.5 kg x (0.08 mg/kg) = 4.4 mg (Notice the "kg" will cancel out when you do the math) If your answer was 9.6 mg, you did not convert the body weight into kilograms.

A 4-kg puppy is in need of subcutaneous fluids due to dehydration. The doctor prescribed a dose of 20 ml/kg. How many milliliters should this patient receive? 24 ml 5 ml 200 ml 80 ml Your Answer

Explanation To obtain the answer the following math should have been performed: 4 kg x (20 ml/kg) = 80 ml Notice the kilograms were canceled out.

A 9-year old male neutered German Shepherd is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma at the distal radius. The owner has chosen palliative care and wants to keep him comfortable as long as possible. He is already on carprofen (Rimadyl) for pain. What other medication could he take for additional analgesia for his bone pain? Meloxicam Prednisone Tramadol Your Answer Glucosamine

Explanation Tramadol is a synthetic drug that acts on the opiate receptor and is often effective against bone pain in dogs. It is safe to give with anti-inflammatory medications. Since this dog is already on Rimadyl, he cannot receive any other NSAIDS or any steroids. Anti-inflammatories (steroids or NSAIDS) cannot be mixed or given concurrently due to the high risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and other complications such as renal damage. Glucosamine, while it would not cause harm, would not provide any analgesia for this dog.

You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the maximum amount of time this bandage should stay on? 4 hours Your Answer 30 minutes 1 hour 12 hours

Explanation Venous return can become compromised if a compression bandage or pressure wrap is left on for more than 4 hours. It is best to remove the pressure bandage once the bleeding has stopped so that the bandage is not forgotten and venous return is not compromised.

Which breed most commonly has von Willebrand's disease? Labrador Retriever English Bulldog Doberman Pinscher Your Answer Shar pei

Explanation Von Willebrand's disease is an inherited bleeding disorder most often seen in the Doberman. Other breeds can also have the disease, just not as commonly.

A Bearded Collie is to receive an injection of maropitant (Cerenia). If the dose prescribed is 1 mg/kg and the concentration of maropitant is 10 mg/ml, how many milliliters should the patient receive? 1.8 2.1 There is not enough information to complete this problem Your Answer 3.5 6 0.5

Explanation Without the weight of the dog, an appropriate dose cannot be calculated.

Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in ruminants? Atropine Xylazine Your Answer Lidocaine Acepromazine

Explanation Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is classified as a sedative/analgesic with muscle relaxant properties. It is not approved for any species to be consumed for food purposes. Ruminants are very sensitive to xylazine and it is not used much in these animals. In fact, ruminants generally require only 1/10 of the dosage required for horses to exhibit the same effect. Due to the unique GI system of the ruminant, much care must be taken when administering drugs so as not to interfere with proper digestion, and xylazine inreases risk of ileus.

A 12 pound DSH is presented to your hospital for a dental cleaning. The attending veterinarian has asked you to induce the cat with Propofol at a dosage of 4 mg/kg IV. The concentration of Propofol is 10 mg/ml. How many milliliters will you draw up in the syringe?

Explanation You must first convert pounds to kilograms dividing 12 by 2.2 = 5.45 kg. 5.45 kg multiplied by 4 mg/kg = 21.8 mg. 21.8 mg divided by 10 mg/ml = 2.18 mls. In a real clinical setting, you would likely round the number down and draw up 2 mL.

What is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time? 10-15 Liters 6-8 Liters Your Answer 1-2 Liters 20-25 Liters

Explanation average size horse (800 to 1200 pounds) has a stomach capacity of only about 4 gallons. It is best to give smaller quantities of fluids more frequently, and no more than 6 to 8 liters should be given at one time.

253. Which of the following statements is most correct about indicator tape? A. Indicator tape should be placed on the outside of a wrap B. Indicator tape is only used if a sterilization strip is not used C. Indicator tape should be placed on the inside of a wrap D. Indicator tape should never be used on linens

Explanation A Indicator tape should always be placed on the outside of a wrap. It is also prudent to label the pack along the indicator with the type of pack, date, and initials of the technician who prepared the pack. Indicator tape is not used inside of a pack, as sterilization strips are preferred. The majority of time indicator tape is used to secure packs wrapped in linens.

A dog owner is considering having a scheduled cesarean section for her dog and would like some more information regarding the risks associated with the procedure. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production B. Performing a cesarean delivery will result in decreased milk production C. Performing a cesarean delivery will result in the dog being unable to have another pregnancy D. Performing a spay at the time of surgery is not recommended as there is a risk that the female will not display maternal instincts

Explanation A It is important to be aware that performing a spay at the time of surgery does not have a detrimental effect on the female. There are no adverse effects on milk production or predictable unwanted behaviors. Similarly, there are no long-term negative effects of performing a cesarean delivery; however, there is a possibility of development of scar tissue at the site of a cesarean which may hinder the ability of a future embryo to attach at that specific location.

In a horse, what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity? A. Ventral midline incision B. Flank incision C. Parasaggital incision D. Transverse incision

Explanation A Similar to small animals, the most common approach performed is a ventral midline incision. This provides excellent exposure of abdominal organs. A flank incision may be preferred in special circumstances but is not performed as routinely. A parasaggital incision is not ideal as it results in trauma to the abdominal musculature. A transverse incision would not provide good visualization as compared to a ventral midline incision

If a break in sterile technique occurs during surgery, what should you do? A. Notify the surgeon immediately B. Send the patient home on at least 10 days of antibiotics C. Abort the surgery to reduce the likelihood of infection D. Ask the surgeon for permission to administer additional intraoperative antibiotics

Explanation A The first thing to do is notify the surgeon that there has been a break in sterility if he or she has not noticed. Although it would be ideal for the surgeon to take full responsibility for maintaining asepsis, the responsibility also lies with the O.R. nurse. The nurse must be meticulous with regard to asepsis; any break in asepsis can expose the patient to a nosocomial infection. If the patient is already receiving perioperative antibiotics, additional dosing will not potentiate their protective effect. Surgery cannot necessarily be aborted as a result of a break in sterility. The surgeon and staff must work together to remedy the situation and eliminate the source of contamination. Depending on the degree of contamination, the surgeon may elect to prophylactically treat with antibiotics after surgery; however, this course of action is not always necessary. Other procedures that may be taken when there is a break in sterile technique include changing instruments, changing gloves, and copious lavage of the surgery site.

Which of the following terms describes an incision into the bladder? A. Cystotomy B. Dystocia C. Cystocentesis D. Cystectomy

Explanation A When a word ends with "-otomy" it means an incision or to cut into organ. For example, an enterotomy is an incision into the intestine just as a cystotomy is an incision into the bladder. Words that end in "-ectomy" mean that they are being removed. So a cystectomy would be the removal of the bladder. Words that end in "-centesis" imply the removal of fluid. A cystocentesis is what would be performed to obtain a urine sample via a needle and syringe inserted into the bladder. Dystocia is a general term used to describe an abnormal or difficult labor. There can be many different causes of dystocia.

251. Which of the following best describes a seroma? A. A fluid pocket at an incision site that is not infected B. A pocket or distribution of air under the skin C. A mass of immune cells that forms due to tissue injury that can occur from trauma or surgery D. A fluid pocket at an incision site containing pus

Explanation A - A seroma is a pocket of fluid that sometimes develops at a surgery site post-op. It is typically a clear or pink serous fluid and is not infected. It often builds up in dead space or from a suture reaction. - An abscess is a pocket of pus (infection). Air under the skin is referred to as subcutaneous emphysema. - A granuloma is a mass of immune cells that forms from tissue injury

The tooth crown is covered with which of the following? A. Enamel B. Cementum C. Pulp D. Dentin

Explanation A Enamel is the hard mineralized surface of the tooth. It is made up of hydroxyapatite, or calcium phosphate. The cementum is the thin calcified layer of tissue that covers the dentin of the tooth root. The tooth itself is made up mostly of dentin. The dentin is covered by the enamel on the crown and by cementum on the roots. The pulp is the center part of a tooth that is made up of living connective tissue and is the softest part containing nerve fibers.

How many upper incisors does a goat have? A. Zero B. One C. Four D. Six E. Two

Explanation A Goats have no upper front teeth (incisors); their upper front mouth is one big gumline. In the back on their mouth they do have both upper and lower teeth. Goats are born with teeth which are replaced by permanent teeth as they age. The dental formula for permanent teeth in the goat is: 2 ( I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) = 32

A patient has sustained a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed. What is the most likely reason this occurred? A. The ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin B. The power level was too high C. The electrocautery unit was inadvertently switched to bipolar mode D. The surgeon used the cut mode for over 30 seconds

Explanation A Poor contact between the ground plate and the skin can result in a burn to the patient. To reduce this risk, conductive gel is spread along the ground plate to help improve the level of contact with the patient's skin. Switching to bipolar mode by accident will result in an inability to use the monopolar hand piece but should not cause a burn. Setting the power level too high may cause excessive tissue trauma to the region where the electrocautery is being used, but this will not affect the interface between the skin and the ground plate. Keeping the cut mode activated for more than the given period of time has no impact on the ground plate-skin interface.

What is the recommended treatment option for a closed pyometra? A. Ovariohysterectomy B. Antibiotic therapy C. PGF 2-alpha D. Estrogen therapy

Explanation A Pyometra occurs secondary to excessive or prolonged progesterone production which causes endometrial hyperplasia. This then sets up an environment conducive to bacterial colonization. The most common culprit is E. coli; however, other organisms have been implicated in pyometra. Antibiotic therapy may effectively treat pyometras which are "open" or draining, however this is only recommended if the patient is stable. PGF 2-alpha, and estrogen therapy is ineffective at treating pyometra

What is the purpose of polishing the teeth after a dental cleaning? A. To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface B. To remove any remaining calculus on the teeth C. To strengthen the enamel D. To prevent cavity formation

Explanation A Scratches or pits on the tooth that can be created by the scaling procedure or from mastication increase the surface area on the tooth, allowing plaque/calculus to build up more quickly. Polishing helps to smooth out any defects. All surfaces of the tooth crown should be polished on slow rotational speed. The polisher should be kept in constant motion to prevent thermal damage to the tooth.

A dog is having his teeth cleaned and has a discolored upper right third premolar. The doctor would like you to take an x-ray of this tooth. Which patient position would make the radiograph easiest to take? A. Sternal recumbency B. Right lateral recumbency C. Left lateral recumbency D. Dorsal recumbency

Explanation A Sternal recumbency is best for the maxilla (upper jaws). Dorsal recumbency is easiest for the anterior mandible. Lateral is best for the premolars and molars of the mandible.

Which of the following forceps is most appropriate for use in reducing a fracture? A. Kern forceps B. Rochester-Oschner forceps C. Rochester-Carmalt forceps D. Kelly forceps

Explanation A The Kern bone-holding forceps have gripping teeth that allow them to manipulate bone fragments without slipping from the bone. Rochester-Oschner forceps are thin in comparison to Kern forceps. They have a "rat-tooth-like" end and are not suitable for manipulating bone. Similarly, Kelly and Rochester-Carmalt forceps are thin and not designed to manipulate bone.

What is the permanent dental formula for a dog? A.2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) B. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1) C. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/4 M1/3) D. 2(I3/3 C1/1 P2/4 M3/3)

Explanation A The correct answer is 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3). Remember the dog has 42 teeth total.

Which of the following terms describes the something that is closer to the root of a tooth relative to another structure? A. Apical B. Caudal C. Coronal D. Distal E. Buccal

Explanation A The following terms are used in veterinary dentistry to describe different positions in the mouth and aspects of the tooth: Rostral - Any structure closer to the front of the head relative to another structure Caudal - Any structure closer to the back of the head relative to another structure Buccal - The tooth surface that faces the cheek Labial- The tooth surface that faces the lips Vestibular- surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal (cheek) and labial (lip) surfaces Facial - The surface of the tooth visible from the front (same as the vestibular surface but applies mainly to the incisor teeth) Lingual - The surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue Palatal - The surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate Mesial - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch Distal - The portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch (the opposite side of mesial) Apical - The portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure Coronal - The portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure

You are going to assist with a patella surgery and are asked to use this instrument (see image). What instrument is this? A. Senn Rake retractor B. Army Navy retractor C. Gelpi retractor D. Balfour retractor

Explanation A The image shows a Senn Rake retractor. Notice that this instrument resembles a fork or a rake. It is a hand held retractor used to hold open an incision. Balfour and Gelpi retractors are self retaining and an Army Navy retractor is another type of hand-held retractor.

Which of the following nerve blocks can be used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for a dental extraction of a maxillary tooth? A. Infraorbital block B. Auriculopalpebral block C. Mental nerve block D. Inferior alveolar block

Explanation A The infraorbital block or maxillary block are local anesthetic techniques used to decrease anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia for procedures involving the maxilla. The inferior alveolar block and mental nerve block are local anesthetic techniques for the mandible.

The small intestine is made up of four layers. Which of the following describes these layers from inside to outside? A. Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa B. Muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, serosa C. Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis D. Serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis

Explanation A The inner most layer of the intestine is the mucosa. It is lined with villi which help to absorb nutrients. The next layers working outward are the submucosa, muscularis, and serosa.

Periodontal pockets are measured by which dental instrument? A. Probe B. Curet C. Elevator D. Scaler

Explanation A The probe is used to check pocket depth. The scaler is used to remove plaque and calculus from the teeth. In dentistry, the curet is a spoon-shaped instrument used for removing necrotic cementum and calculus from the teeth and can be used supragingival and subgingival. The elevator is used to wear down the periodontal ligament to aid in extracting teeth from the oral cavity.

A dog presents for a broken adult canine tooth. The tooth is broken at the tip and a small area of pulp is exposed. Exposure of pulp in a tooth should be treated in which way? A. Endodontic treatment B. Antibiotics and soft food until it heals C. It should be left alone since treatment is not required D. sealant

Explanation A The pulp is the soft pink portion inside the tooth that includes the nerves and blood vessels. If the pulp is exposed, this is painful and may lead to infection. These teeth are treated with a root canal (an endodontic procedure), especially for the larger premolars and canine teeth) or are extracted.

Which of the following is the best description of an epulis? A. A non-malignant oral tumor B. A gingival lesion caused by inflammation C. A gingival lesion caused by trauma D. A developmental tooth disorder

Explanation A An epulis is a non-malignant tumor of the periodontal ligament. These tumors do not metastasize but can be locally invasive. The most aggressive form of this condition, an acanthomatous epulis, can invade and destroy bone.

D2. Which technique is needed to produce quality intra-oral radiographs? A. Bisecting angle technique B. Maxillary angle technique C. Oblique angle technique D. Occlusal angle technique

Explanation A In the bisecting angle technique, the film is placed next to the tooth; the primary x-ray beam is aimed perpendicular to the plane that bisects the angle created by the plane of the central tooth axis to the plane of the dental film.

D4. Which of the following is true regarding dentition in dogs? A. The incisors on the mandible should be palatal to the incisors on the maxilla B. The dog has a total of 6 incisors C. The incisors on the maxilla should rest caudal to the incisors on the mandible D. The lower first molars in the dog are triple-rooted

Explanation A The incisors on the mandible (lower jaw) rest palatal (or behind facing up toward the palate) to the maxilla (upper jaw). If it were opposite, the animal would have an underbite. Also, the mandibular (lower) canine teeth should rest distal to the upper third incisor and mesial to the maxillary (upper) canine tooth. The dog has 6 upper and 6 lower incisors (12 total incisors). The lower first molars (309 and 409) in the dog are double-rooted.

A 12 kg Springer Spaniel has been presented to your hospital for pyometra surgery. The veterinarian would like you to give 20 mls of Unasyn over 20 minutes on a syringe pump before the procedure. How many milliliters per hour will you set the pump to run for? A. 20 B. 60 C. 1 D. 3

Explanation B 20 mls multiplied by 60 (minutes in 1 hour)= 1200 divided by 20 minutes= 60 mls/hr.

Which of the following blades is the most commonly used when incising the skin of an animal? A. No. 12 B. No. 10 C. No. 11 D. No. 20

Explanation B The No. 10 blade is the most commonly used blade, and the technician needs to be familiar with this blade size. The No. 15 blade is also commonly used. This blade is smaller and will be used for more delicate incisions. The No. 11 blade is pointed at the tip and will be used to transect structures such as ligaments. The No. 12 blade is not commonly used but some may use it to lance abscesses.

This retractor is being used to hold open a laryngotomy incision in a horse. Which instrument is this? A. Deaver B. Gelpi C. Balfour D. Senn

Explanation B The gelpi retractor is a self-retaining spreader suitable for small surgical sites. The blades separate as the handles are closed and are held open by a rachet. The blades turn down at right angles at their tips, and bow towards each other so the edges of the incision are pushed apart. Senn and Deaver retractors are hand-held retractors. Balfours are self-retaining retractors used in abdominal surgery to allow visualization of internal organs.

You are sterilizing this retractor for a wound repair surgery. Which retractor is this? (see image) A. Balfour B. Weitlaner C. Gelpi D. Malleable

Explanation B A Weitlaner retractor is a self-retaining instrument. The blades open when the ratcheted handles are closed. The blades have four downward-pointing and curved prongs. It looks similar to a Gelpi, except the Gelpi does not have the prongs and just has a single point on each blade. Balfour is a self-retaining retractor commonly used for abdominal surgery. Malleable retractors are deformable hand-held retractors.

Which is the dental formula for a cat? A. 2 (I 3/2 C 2/2 P 3/3 M 0/1)= 32 B. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 C. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42 D. 2 (I 2/2 C 1/1 P 3/3 M 2/1)= 30

Explanation B Cats have 3 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, and 1 molar on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, and 1 molar on one side of the lower jaw so the dental formula for the cat is: 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 permanent teeth Dogs have 42 teeth, so their dental formula is : 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

A 10 year old male neutered West Highland White Terrier with a history of 1st degree AV block is admitted to the clinic for a routine dentistry. All of his pre-anesthetic lab work has come back normal. Which of the following anesthetic drugs would be most contraindicated in this case? A. Acepromazine B. Dexmedetomidine C. Diazepam D. Butorphanol

Explanation B Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is an alpha 2 agonist of which the major side effect is bradycardia. Patients with 1st degree AV block are often already bradycardic, and the AV block could be made worse by giving an alpha 2 agonist. While diazepam, butorphanol, and acepromazine all cause different degrees of sedation, they do not cause significant changes in heart rate or contractility. Acepromazine causes vasodilation, which can lead to hypotension, but it is anti-arrhythmic and can actually help stabilize the heart.

Which instrument is specifically designed for atraumatically clamping across the intestine? A. Crile forceps B. Doyen forceps C. Kelly forceps D. Rochester-Carmalt E. Halted mosquito forceps

Explanation B Doyen forceps are the only forceps used in veterinary medicine for atraumatically occluding a loop of bowel. All the other forceps mentioned will result in trauma to the intestine and are not recommended for use on either the intestine or any other delicate structure that the surgeon is trying to preserve.

Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth? A. Monkeys B. Horses C. Dogs D. Pigs

Explanation B Hypsodont, or high-crowned teeth, continue to erupt throughout life. All of the permanent teeth of horses and cheek teeth of ruminants are this type, with the roots embedded in the alveolus of the jaw bone. Dogs, cats, monkeys, and pigs have brachydont, or low-crowned teeth in which the root is embedded in the jaw bone.

What percentage of dogs and cats, on average, has periodontal disease? A. 95% B. 75% C. 60% D. 25% E. 40%

Explanation B It is thought that 80% of dogs and 70% of cats have some degree of periodontal disease over the age of 3 years. This is why it is so important to discuss dental care with pet owners.

When scrubbing in for a surgery, the minimum time for a scrub is which of the following? A. 10 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 1 minute

Explanation B One of the most important parts of scrubbing in for surgery is contact time of the scrub on the skin. The minimum time for scrubbing is 5 minutes. Most scrubs take an average of 5 to 8 minutes.

What is the proper terminology to describe a laceration under the right forelimb paw? A. Anterior aspect B. Palmar aspect C. Plantar aspect D. Posterior aspect

Explanation B Palmar is the bottom of the paw of the forelimb. Plantar is the bottom of the paw of the hind limb. Anterior is toward the head and posterior is away from the head. In veterinary medicine, anterior and posterior are usually used only to describe distal extremities or areas of the head. Cranial is toward the head; caudal is toward the tail. Ventral is toward the abdomen; dorsal is toward the backbone. Lateral is away from midline and medial is toward midline. Proximal is close to the spine or body while distal is away; these are typically used when describing limbs (e.g. fracture of the proximal femur vs. fracture of the distal femur).

When are needle teeth in piglets usually clipped? A. At 3 days of age B. Within 24 hours of birth C. At 3 months of age D. At 3 weeks of age

Explanation B Piglets are born with 8 sharp needle or milk teeth. The teeth can lacerate the sow during nursing, and playing or fighting behavior with other piglets may cause trauma. The teeth are most often clipped within the first 24 hours after birth.

One of the most common incisional complications encountered in veterinary surgery is the formation of a seroma. Which of the following is a poor treatment choice for an incision diagnosed with a seroma? A. Exercise restriction B. Antibiotics C. Placement of a drain D. Warm compress

Explanation B Seromas are not infections and do not need to be treated with antibiotics. They consist of serous fluid, which is usually secondary to excessive dissection or "dead-space" that was created during surgery. Excessive activity and motion at the surgical site may predispose to the formation of a seroma. A warm compress will help increase blood flow to the region and thus help the body reabsorb the fluid. Nonetheless, it may take days to weeks for a seroma to completely resolve. Placing a drain at the site of a seroma may help speed up its resolution, as this helps keep the tissues adhered to each other.

The 4th upper premolars are connected with which structure in dogs? A. Nasal cavity B. Maxillary Sinus C. Frontal Sinus D. Pharynx

Explanation B The 4th upper premolars (carnassial teeth) communicate directly with the maxillary sinus. In the case of a carnassial tooth that becomes infected, an abscess builds up around the affected root just under the skin below and in front of the eye.

A 10 kg Miniature Schnauzer is to receive 22mg/kg cefazolin intravenously following a laceration repair. If the concentration of the cefazolin is 50mg/ml, how many milliliters should be administered? A. 1.5 B. 4.4 C. 3.2 D. 6.0 E. 2.2

Explanation B The answer is 4.4 mL. 10kg x 22mg/kg = 220mg cefazolin. 220mg/ 50mg/ml = 4.4 mL to be administered.

How can a technician determine if a pack was sterilized appropriately? A. The tape on the outside of the pack is not broken B. An indicator strip inside the pack changes color C. The pack is double wrapped prior to autoclaving, ensuring sterility D. The pack is steaming when removed from the autoclave

Explanation B The only way to know for sure if a pack has received appropriate sterilization is if the indicator strip changes color inside the pack.

What is the maximum time that an ultrasonic scaler can be used on a tooth surface? A. 60 seconds B. 10-15 seconds C. 3-5 seconds D. 30 seconds

Explanation B The scaler must be kept in constant motion on the tooth surface and should not be on a tooth for more than 10 to 15 seconds. This is because heat can buildup and cause thermal damage to the tooth. The water from the scaler also helps to prevent heat buildup. The scaler should be held in a modified pen grasp during the procedure.

What is the dental formula for the adult horse (i.e. incisor-canine-premolar-molar)? A. Upper: 4-1-2-3 Lower: 4-1-2-3 B. Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 C. Upper: 3-1-2-3 Lower: 3-1-2-3 D. Upper: 4-1-3-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3

Explanation B The upper quadrant of the horse's dental arcade has 3 incisors, 1 canine (primarily male horses), 4 premolars (including "wolf" tooth) and 3 molars; the lower arcade has 3 incisions, 1 canine, 3 premolars and 3 molars. Not all horses have the 1st upper premolar, the so-called wolf tooth. Generally, females do not have canine teeth.

Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care? A. Using cleaning agents at a pH of approximately 10 B. Using tap water C. Using a brush to scrub the instruments D. Using an ultrasonic cleaner

Explanation B The use of tap water for cleaning surgical instruments is not recommended since it carries a high likelihood of leaving mineral deposits on the instruments; distilled water is preferred. Cleaning agents that have a higher pH (between approximately 9 and 11) are used because these do not promote corrosion. An ultrasonic cleaner is highly recommended as it is much more effective than manual cleaning alone. The use of a brush to scrub the instruments is common practice and facilitates the removal of dry blood or residue.

Which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation? A. Plaster of Paris B. Alginate C. Gel foam D. Casting gel

Explanation B This material is mixed, placed into an impression tray, and placed over the teeth. After it sets, the tray is removed in one motion in the direction of the long axis of the teeth. Plaster of Paris is the classic material that used to be used to make casts; however, nowadays most doctors use fiberglass to make casts. Gel foam is a collagen sponge that surgeons use to help create clots during surgical procedures.

D3. Which of the following species have hypsodont teeth? A. Cats B. Horses C. Dogs D. Pigs

Explanation B Hypsodont teeth have a long crown height and erupt throughout the animal's life, such as in horses and rabbits. Humans, pigs, dogs, and cats have brachyodont teeth, which have a short crown length and do not continue to erupt throughout life.

For which procedure is a celiotomy performed? A. Lung lobectomy B. Hemilaminectomy C. Spay D. Pericardial window

Explanation C A celiotomy is another name for laparotomy and involves making an incision into the abdomen. An ovariohysterectomy requires an incision into the abdomen, or a celiotomy. A pericardial window is a procedure to remove the pericardial sac from the heart and does not require an abdominal incision. A lung lobectomy is removal of a lung lobe and requires a thoracotomy (opening of the chest), not a celiotomy. A hemilaminectomy is a surgery used to relieve spinal cord compression

A thoracotomy procedure would involve an incision made into the: A. Abdomen B. Tympanic membrane C. Chest D. Skull E. Forelimb

Explanation C A thoracotomy is opening of the chest. Thora = thorax (chest), -otomy (opening into)

Accumulations of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria along the teeth are known as which of the following? A. Tartar B. Caries C. Plaque D. Calculus

Explanation C A plaque is an accumulation of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria. Bacterial toxins damage the gingiva and oral mucosa. Dental calculus or tartar is mineralized plaque and can lead to persistent inflammation. Dental caries, also known as cavities or decay, are incidents of demineralization of the teeth.

In general, at what age are puppy teeth (deciduous) considered to be retained? A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 1 year D. 18 months

Explanation C A tooth is considered retained if it is still present after full eruption of the permanent tooth. Teething can begin around 3 1/2 to 4 months, and will continue until about 6 months of age on average, at which point all 42 permanent teeth should be present. If the deciduous teeth are still present after the permanent teeth have come in, they are considered retained and should be extracted (typically at the time of the spay or neuter). The dog in the photo has multiple retained teeth. The most common teeth to be retained are the upper canines, followed by the lower canine teeth and the incisors. Sometimes, the premolar teeth may also be retained.

A 60-lb patient is to go home on Clavamox after his dental cleaning. The dose is 14 mg/kg. What size tablet should the patient be sent home with? A. 250 mg B. 125 mg C. 375 mg D. 62.5 mg

Explanation C After converting the body weight to kilograms the dose needs to be multiplied by the body weight. 60 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 27 kg (Notice the pounds cancel out) 27 kg x 14= 378 mg Many medications are available in different concentrations to accommodate different sized patients. This is particularly the case with oral medications so that owners don't have to worry about trying to halve or quarter medications.

Mineralized debris on the tooth surface is known as which of the following? A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Calculus D. Plaque

Explanation C Calculus is mineralization of plaque on the teeth. Plaque is a mixture of bacteria, saliva, and food parts that cover the tooth in a thin film. Plaque can turn into calculus in as early as a week. Dentin is the hard, white portion of the tooth. Cementum is calcified connective tissue.

Which of the following species have teeth that only grow for a limited time during development and do not continually erupt or grow throughout the life of the animal? A. Rabbits B. Rats C. Pigs D. Horses

Explanation C Cats, pigs, humans and other carnivores have all brachyodont teeth. This means that they have a small crown relative to the size of the roots, and the apex of the each tooth root is only open for a brief period during development and does not continue to erupt. Horses, rodents, and lagomorphs have hypsodont teeth, which means that they have a relatively large amount of crown that is beneath the gingival margin as well as a root structure that allows for continued eruption during most of the animala's lifetime. Hypsodont teeth can be further categorized as radicular hypsodont teeth, such as the cheek teeth of horses. These have apices that eventually close and stop growing, but continued eruption offsets attrition from occlusion. Aradicular hypsodont teeth (such as the incisors of rabbits) lack a true root structure, allowing for lifelong growth of the tooth itself.

An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type? A. Greenstick B. Spiral C. Compound D. Comminuted

Explanation C Fracture types: Oblique - a fracture which goes at an angle to the axis Comminuted - a fracture of many relatively small fragments Spiral - a fracture which runs around the axis of the bone Compound - a fracture which breaks the skin Greenstick - a fracture of soft bone where the bone can bend and be partially broken, seen in young animals

A boxer presents with overgrowth of the gums. This condition is known as which of the following? A. Odontoclastic B. Resorptive Lesions C. Gingival hyperplasia D. Stomatitis E. Faucitis

Explanation C Gingival hyperplasia is overgrowth of the gum tissue characterized by non painful swellings of the gingiva. In some cases, a biopsy may be required to rule out neoplasia. The proliferative tissue can be trimmed away during a dental but dogs with this condition are prone to recurrence. The cause is often unknown, but it may be hereditary or caused by medications such as cyclosporine, phenytoin, or amlodipine.

Which is true regarding umbilical hernias? A. They should not be repaired at the same time as a spay or neuter procedure B. The best treatment for all umbilical hernias is benign neglect C. They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life threatening D. They usually progress until a loop of bowel is strangulated through the defect and should be repaired as an emergency procedure

Explanation C MOST umbilical hernias are stable and consist of a small piece of fat protruding through a body wall defect. Many small dogs with stable hernias do not require repair since they are not life-threatening. Larger dogs with hernias require repair more often since the weight of their abdominal contents on the defect can enlarge it and increase the risk that abdominal contents (such as intestine) could protrude through. The best time to repair these is when they are already under anesthesia for their spay or neuter. The course of action for repair or monitoring depends upon the risk factors (size of hernia, size of dog, etc.).

Typically, when should a dog or cat be offered food following gastrointestinal surgery? A. 48-72 hours after surgery B. 3-5 days after surgery C. 12-24 hours after surgery D. 6-12 hours after surgery

Explanation C Most animals undergoing intestinal surgery should be offered food and water within 12-24 hours after surgery. Further delaying the delivery of nutrition may result in slower healing. Trying to feed a patient within 6-12 hours after major surgery is usually unrewarding because the patient is still recovering from anesthesia and is frequently under the effects of strong pain medications which contribute to inappetence and nausea.

When is generally considered the optimal time to spay a dog? A. Anytime after the third estrus B. Anytime after the second estrus, but before the third C. At approximately 6 months of age D. At 2 years of age

Explanation C Spaying before the first estrus dramatically reduces the lifetime likelihood of developing mammary neoplasia. Dogs that are spayed after the first estrus have an 8% chance of developing mammary neoplasia. Dogs spayed after the second estrus have a 24% chance of developing mammary neoplasia. Performing a spay at the time of estrus can be done but is not recommended, as the uterus is highly vascularized at this time, and the chances of complications or excessive bleeding may be greater. It is usually recommended to perform a spay 3-4 months after estrus (if the dog went into estrus).

Which of the following drugs can cause discoloration of puppy teeth? A. Amoxicillin B. Metronidazole C. Tetracycline D. Enrofloxacin

Explanation C Tetracyclines can cause a discoloration of puppy teeth. Tetracycline binds to calcified tissues (bone, cementum, dentin), gets incorporated into the hydroxyapatite crystals with the calcium, and causes the discoloration. This occurs with puppy teeth because the teeth are still being actively formed. After the adult teeth are present, this should no longer occur.

In small animals, what is the name of the blind-ended pouch that is part of the large intestine and connects the ileum with the colon? A. Gall bladder B. Guttural pouch C. Cecum D. Appendix

Explanation C The cecum attaches the ileum to the colon to form the ileocecal-colic junction. the appendix is a blind-ended tube connected to the cecum in humans. Most small animals do not have an appendix. The gall bladder is located in the liver. The guttural pouch is an air-filled sac that is dorsal to the pharynx in the horse.

You are about to sedate a dog, and the veterinarian would like to use a drug which is reversible. Which one of these is NOT an option? Diazepam Medetomidine Phenobarbital Your Answer Hydromorphone Midazolam

Explanation C The correct answer is phenobarbital. Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist and can be reversed with yohimbine or atipamezole. Diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazepines can both be reversed with flumazenil. Hydromorphone is an opiate and is easily reversible with naloxone. There is no effective reversal agent for phenobarbital at this time.

D1. Which of the following is the correct dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas? A. 2(I2/2 C0/0 PM 0/0 M 3/3) =20 B. 2(I3/3 C1/1 PM1/1 M2/2) = 28 C. 2(I1/1 C0/0 PM1/1 M3/3) = 20 D. 2(I1/1 C1/1 PM1/1 M2/2) =20

Explanation C The formula is designated as fractions to indicate the upper and lower dental arcades. The 2 at the beginning of the formula is for the left and right upper and lower dental arcades. I stands for incisor teeth. C stands for canine teeth. PM stands for premolar cheek teeth. M stands for molar cheek teeth. Therefore, guinea pigs have 4 incisors total (1 upper and lower on the left and the right), no canine teeth, 4 premolar cheek teeth (1 upper and lower on the left and right), and 12 molar cheek teeth total (3 upper and lower on the left and right).

You are responsible for autoclaving surgical packs in the hospital. You are using a steam sterilizer and heat to a temperature of 250 degrees Fahrenheit (121 degrees Celsius) for 30 minutes. What minimum humidity level is needed in order to provide adequate sterilization? A. 30-35% humidity B. 10-15% humidity C. 97-99% humidity D. 80-85% humidity

Explanation C The relative humidity in the steam sterilizer must reach 97-99% humidity in order to provide proper sterilization.

Which of the following may be seen in a puppy who has had distemper? A. Enamel hyperplasia B. Gingival hyperplasia C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Retained deciduous teeth

Explanation C This dog has enamel hypoplasia, which is an enamel deficiency that causes an abnormal enamel matrix and presents as if the enamel has been eaten away. This may be a finding in adult dogs previously infected with distemper virus as a puppy. Tetracycline antibiotics may also cause this, seen as a permanent brown discoloration of teeth when used in young puppies

Which species has wolf teeth? A. Cats B. Dogs C. Horses D. Cows E. Pigs

Explanation C Wolf teeth are small teeth that are the first premolars in the horse. It is thought they may be deciduous teeth. They are located immediately rostral to the first cheek teeth in horses.

Name this dental instrument A..Luxator B. Polisher C. Probe D. Curette

Explanation C The instrument pictured is a periodontal probe. It is marked and used to measure depth of periodontal pockets.

A dog has torn his cranial cruciate ligament and is having surgery. What area should you clip and aseptically prep? A. Abdomen B. Shoulder C. Elbow D. Stifle E. Hip

Explanation D The correct answer is stifle. An extracapsular repair involves placing a synthetic suture material like heavy gauge fishing line spanning in a similar orientation as the cranial cruciate ligament, except the material is outside the joint. This is a very common surgery performed in small breed dogs with ruptured cranial cruciate ligaments.

A dirty wound has edges and tissue that need to be removed. What is the term for removing questionable tissue? A. Skin scraping B. Grafting C. Incising D. Debridement

Explanation D Debriding is removing tissue or material from a wound to aid in healing. A skin scraping is done by taking a dull blade and mineral oil and scraping the skin in an attempt to find mites such as Demodex or Sarcoptes. A graft is a piece of tissue taken from one part of the body to use in another region of the body. Incising is the simple term for cutting or making an incision.

In which situation would perioperative antibiotics be strongly indicated? A. 3.5 cm lipoma excision B. Ovariohysterectomy C. Orchidectomy D. Arthroscopy

Explanation D Procedures that are considered uncomplicated and clean typically do not require perioperative antibiotic therapy unless there is a break in sterility. Performing arthroscopy carries a very low likelihood of infection; however, because an infection of the joint can be catastrophic, it is recommended that perioperative antibiotics be administered.

Which species does not have canine teeth? A. Horses B. Cows C. Llamas D. Rabbits

Explanation D Rabbits have four incisors-two on the top and two on the bottom. Right behind the top incisor teeth are two small peg-like teeth called auxiliary incisors or "peg teeth". Rabbits have cheek teeth that they use to grind their food. These are the 6 upper premolars, the 4 lower premolars, 6 upper molars and 6 lower molars (and no canines). Cows have 2 lower canines. Horses and llamas both have 4 canine teeth (2 upper and 2 lower).

Which of the following animals develops dental caries? A. Goats and camelids B. Pigs and reptiles C. Cattle and sheep D. Rabbits and chinchillas E. Horses and cats

Explanation D Rabbits, chinchillas, and dogs develop dental caries. Caries are very rare in the other species listed. Caries are cavities.

Which of the following correctly defines the term stomatitis? A. Inflammation of the tongue B. Inflammation of the region housing the tonsils C. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone D. Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces

Explanation D Stomatitis describes inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces. It can be subdivided by region, such as buccal stomatitis (inflammation of the cheek mucosa). Inflammation of the tongue is known as glossitis. Inflammation of the glossopalatine folds around the area housing the tonsil is known as faucitis. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone fall under the category of periodontitis.

You perform a dental prophylaxis on a dog that has all of his teeth. How many adult teeth are in the dog's mouth? A. 32 24 28 D. 42

Explanation D The adult dog has 42 teeth. Cats have 30 teeth. Most cats and dogs have all of their permanent teeth by 6 months of age.

252. While evaluating a post-operative patient, a small amount of serosanguinous fluid is noted oozing from the surgical incision. What is the best course of action? A. Start the patient on antibiotics B. Clean the incision with hydrogen peroxide C. Apply a bandage over the incision D. Notify the veterinarian

Explanation D The first thing you should do is notify the veterinarian in charge. It is possible that this is the beginning of an incisional dehiscence, and a veterinarian should be notified of the situation. Depending on the nature of the surgery as well as the health status of the patient, some mild serosanguinous discharge may be expected; however, this determination should be made by the attending veterinarian.

What procedure performed in horses includes filing and smoothing their teeth? A. Raking B. Cribbing C. Quidding D. Floating

Explanation D Horses' teeth grow throughout their lives. When a horse eats normally, grinding food between the back teeth, the abrasives wear the teeth down to keep them even and smooth. However, when a horse eats a softer diet like one containing a lot of alfalfa and grains, the teeth do not wear evenly and can form sharp, painful points. A horse with overgrown or sharp teeth may have difficulty eating, may hypersalivate, may start dropping food from its mouth, and can begin losing weight. Floating entails filing down the teeth using a dental rasp, or float, to make the teeth even and smooth again. Cribbing is the act of swallowing air or "wind sucking" and is thought to be behavioral. Sometimes cribbers will chew or suck on fences or other fixed objects so they can actually draw in air. Quidding is when a horse stores a bolus of food inside its mouth and spits it out or drops food from its mouth. The most common cause is bad teeth; the horse may need to have its teeth floated.

D5. Which of the following are triple rooted teeth in dogs? A. Lower 1st molars B. Lower 2nd premolars C. Upper 1st premolars D. Upper 4th premolars

Explanation D In the dog, the upper 4th premolars (also known as carnassial teeth), have three roots. The upper 1st and 2nd molars also have 3 roots. A dog has 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 2 molars on one side of the upper jaw and 3 incisors, 1 canine, 4 premolars and 3 molars on one side of the lower jaw, so the dental formula for the dog is: 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42

What is the carnassial tooth? A. This is another name for the canine tooth B. The tooth with the deepest root in each dental arcade C. This is another term for a missing tooth D. This is another term for a supernumerary tooth E. The largest shearing tooth of each dental arcade

Explanation E "Carnassial" literally means tearing of flesh but is used in veterinary dentistry to describe the largest shearing tooth of the mandible and maxilla in carnivores. This is the tooth that does the most work during mastication. In dogs and cats, the carnassial teeth are the maxillary fourth premolar and the mandibular first molar.

Cats do not have first and second premolars on the mandible. Therefore, what is the number in the Triadan system for the premolar that is closest to the canine on the left mandible? A. 407 B. 305 C. 404 D. 405 E. 307

Explanation E In the Triadan system, each tooth has a predictable number, even with teeth missing. Therefore, even though cats do not have PM 1 and 2 (numbered 305 and 306 on the left mandible), the third premolar which is the tooth closest to the canine is 307. In all species, the canine tooth ends in 04 and the first molar ends with 09.

The Triadan numbering system is commonly used in human and veterinary dentistry to specify a tooth. What is the correct number of the permanent right maxillary canine tooth of a dog or cat? A. 301 B. 404 C. 501 D. 201 E. 104

Explanation E In this system, the first numeral denotes the quadrant of the tooth and if it is permanent or deciduous. They are numbered starting at the right maxilla and moving counter-clockwise: 1 = Right maxilla (5 = deciduous) 2 = Left maxilla (6 = deciduous) 3 = Left mandible (7 = deciduous) 4 = Right mandible (8 = deciduous) The next two digits indicate how many teeth over from the midline. For example, in the dog: 701 is the deciduous mandibular left first incisor. 104 is the permanent right maxillary canine. 409 is the permanent mandibular right first molar.

12. Which of the following is NOT true about recombinant human erythropoietin (rh-EPO)? a. rh-EPO is indicated in canine and feline patients with renal disease and a PCV of 25% or less. b. There is a high incidence of antibody formation to rh-EPO in dogs and cats. c. rh-EPO should be given to dogs and cats three times weekly until the target PCV is reached. d. The maximum dose of rh-EPO that should be given to a dog or cat is 100 U/kg.

The maximum dose of rh-EPO that should be given to a dog or cat is 100 U/kg. rh-EPO is a therapy for anemia associated with chronic renal disease in people and animals. It is indicated when the PCV drops to 25% or less, and is given at doses of 50-100 U/kg 3 times weekly subcutaneously until the target PCV is reached. Patient PDV should be measured twice weekly to monitor response. When the target PCV is reached, rh-EPO may be given twice weekly. Non-responsive patients may be given a higher dose of rh-EPO. The dose can be increased in 25-50 U/kg increments. No maximum dose has been established but weekly doses up to 1050 U/kg have been reported. Responsive patients have reticulocytosis and a 0.5%-1.0% daily increase in PCV. There is a high incidence of antibody formation in dogs and cats.

A 10-year old male intact Rottweiler is currently undergoing surgery for removal of a prostatic mass. Which term best describes the procedure? A. Prostatectomy B. Cholecystectomy C. Prostatitis D. Onychectomy E. Orchidectomy

There are a few basic rules that will allow you to comprehend a majority of the medical terms. Any term that ends with "-ectomy" infers to removal of that organ. Onychectomy is another word declawing or removal of the distal phalanx. Orchidectomy is the removal of a testicle. A cholecystectomy is removal of the gall bladder. The ending "-itis" means inflammation. In this case, prostatitis would be inflammation of the prostate.

175. Lacrimation refers to a. type of motion. b. aural discharge. c. tearing. d. panting.

175. C: Tearing

90. The bovine fetal bladder attaches to the placental sac by the a. urachus. b. umbilical cord. c. ureter. d. vesiculosus.

90. A: Urachus

183. When walking up stairs, the load is on the a. right limbs. b. left limbs. c. forelimbs. d. hind limbs.

183. D: Hind limbs Ground reaction force patterns can be used to evaluate gait and assess the pressures on each limb through a gait pattern. When an animal climbs stairs, force shifts from a standing distribution, 60% of force on forelimbs and 40% on hind limbs, to being primarily on the hind limbs.

192. Misdirected canine syndrome is a. abnormal behavior based on poor and ineffective training. b. canine aggression where the dog retaliates against a justifiable source by acting aggressively toward an innocent source. c. a congenital disorder in which the cecum opens in an abnormal location in the bowel. d. a bite abnormality where a retained deciduous tooth tilts the erupting permanent canine into an abnormal location.

192. D: A bite abnormality where a retained deciduous tooth tilts the erupting permanent canine into an abnormal location When a canine tooth has been misdirected in this fashion, opposing canines may not occlude properly. Secondary abnormal wear and periodontal disease can result. Puppies must have their dentition evaluated at every visit to evaluate retained deciduous teeth and abnormal eruption, and allow for early intervention.

193. A patient has a serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL. The patient's serum albumin level is 3.2 g/dL. What is the patient's corrected calcium level? a. 7.2 b. 7.6 c. 8.2 d. 8.6

193. D: 8.6 Because calcium is protein-bound, when the serum albumin level is elevated, so is the serum calcium level. When the patient has hypoalbuminemia, the patient will not be able to bind as much calcium, and the serum calcium level will appear low even as normal calcium levels exist. To assess the true body calcium level, the serum albumin levels must be assessed, and the calcium levels properly adjusted. The formula to correct measured calcium levels for assessment is: Corrected Ca = [0.8 x (normal albumin - patient's albumin)] + serum Ca In this instance the corrected Ca = [0.8 x (4 - 3.2)] + 8 = 8.6 mg/dL

238. Large hemostatic forceps with longitudinal grooves along the opposing blade surfaces and transverse grooves at the tip are called: a. Kelly forceps b. Rochester-Carmalt forceps c. Mosquito forceps d. Crile forceps

238. B: Rochester-Carmalt forceps Rochester-Carmalt forceps are large, crushing, hemostatic forceps that are used to secure tissue bundles containing blood vessels such as uterine stumps or ovarian pedicles.

239. What is the function of surgical milk on instruments? a. Lubrication b. Sterilization c. Anti-corrosive d. Both a and c

239. D: Both a and c Instruments are placed in surgical milk following ultrasonic cleaning to keep the instruments lubricated as well as to help prevent the formation of rust. It has no cleaning or sterilizing properties.

20. When considering the dietary needs of a dog or cat with liver disease, which of the following is true? a. Protein must be restricted. b. Normal amounts of protein are fed. c. A high fat diet is recommended. d. High amounts of sugar are fed.

20. B: Normal amounts of dietary protein are fed. Historically, recommended dietary therapy for dogs and cats with liver disease included limits on protein intake. Experts now recommend that normal amounts of protein be fed. Additionally, cats and dogs with liver disease should be fed a high-quality, highly digestible diet in frequent, small amounts. High-fat diets should be avoided; the diet should include normal fat levels.

201. Rattlesnake envenomation produces this type of poikilocyte: a. Spherocytes b. Echinocytes c. Acanthocytes d. Schistocytes

201. B: Echinocytes Echinocytes are small, crenated (shrunken) erythrocytes characterized by the presence of 10-30 spikes or spicules on their outer membrane. Normally they are most numerous within the first 24 hours of envenomation, before the development of clinical signs, and will affect almost 100% of the red blood cells. After 2-3 days, the echinocytes steadily decrease in number and eventually become absent on a blood smear. It is important to note, however, that in some animals echinocytes do not appear at all following envenomation and that appropriate medical therapy will still need to be implemented.

249. Stay sutures are used to a. Elevate and stabilize hollow organs. b. Separate muscle layers. c. Secure a chest tube to the skin. d. Prevent recurrence of a rectal prolapse.

249. A: Elevate and stabilize hollow organs. Stay sutures are an invaluable tool for isolating and elevating hollow organs that need to be incised, such as the bladder, intestine, or stomach. They are placed in the serosal surface of these organs on either side of the incision linearly and then secured with mosquito forceps. The organ is then gently elevated out of the abdominal cavity and placed over laparotomy pads, which will catch or reduce any spillage of urine or intestinal material that would otherwise contaminate the surgical area. They allow for better visualization and control over the surgical site.

87. Based on the oxygenation curve, a measured O2 value should be concerning if it is below what percent? a. 60% b. 75% c. 85% d. 95%

87. D: 95% Due to the sigmoidal shape of the oxygen saturation curve, once hemoglobin saturation drops below 95%, the PaO2 falls precipitously. Patients monitored with pulse oximetry may be at the edge of a dangerous drop in oxygen concentration when their values fall to 95%.

98. A 50-pound dog ingests 8 sticks of gum, each containing 0.17g of xylitol. Has the dog eaten a potentially toxic dose? a. Yes b. No c. Depends on the breed d. Depends on the dog's age

98. B: No Xylitol is a sugar substitute found in gum and other foods. A toxic dose results in hypoglycemia and, in high quantities, liver failure. The toxic dose for dogs is 75-100 mg/ kg. To determine whether this dog received a potentially toxic dose, calculate the quantity of xylitol ingested and the weight of the dog in kg. A 50 pound dog weighs 22.7 kg (50/2.2 = 22.7). The toxic dose for a dog starts at 75 mg/kg. The minimum toxic dose for this 22.7 kg dog is 1,704 mg xylitol or 1.7 g xylitol (22.7 x 75 = 1704). The dog ate 8 sticks of gum, each containing 0.17g of xylitol for a total of 1.36g xylitol (0.17 x 8 = 1.36). As 1.36 is below the threshold of 1.7, this dog is not considered to have eaten a toxic dose.

99. Which position of the anesthetized horse results in the greatest V/Q mismatch? a. Left lateral recumbency b. Right lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Sternal recumbency

99. C: Dorsal recumbency Alveolar ventilation and pulmonary perfusion are optimal in awake, standing horses. A ventilation/perfusion mismatch, or V/Q mismatch, occurs in anesthetized horses. Ventilation/perfusion is most dramatically affected when an anesthetized horse is in dorsal recumbency, and often results in low arterial oxygen tension.

In normal occlusion, what is the proper position of the incisors and canine teeth when the mouth is closed? A. Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine B. Mandibular incisors are buccal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine C. Mandibular incisors are buccal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine D. Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine.

D.In normal occlusion, the mandibular incisors are palatal (behind) the maxillary incisors, and the coronal third of the mandibular incisors rests on a smooth convex bulge on the maxillary incisors known as the cingulum. The mandibular canines should be centered between the maxillary third incisor and the maxillary canine (mesial to the maxillary canine), without touching either tooth.