VTNE Practice Questions
What is the normal amount of gastric reflux obtained from a healthy horse via nasogastric tube placement? 14-18 liters 10-12 liters 5-8 liters 1-3 liters
1-3 liters Normally, a healthy horse will have a small amount of gastric reflux, 1-3 liters. If you get back 8-12 or more liters of reflux, the horse likely has an obstructive intestinal disease or ileus of some sort.
What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken? 107F 98.8F 104F 102F
107F
You make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample and measure the urea nitrogen. The analyzer reads that the concentration of urea nitrogen is 30 mg/dl. What is the urea nitrogen level of the patient's serum? 35 mg/dl 120 mg/dl 6 mg/dl 180 mg/dl 150 mg/dl
150 mg/dl When a dilution is made prior to analyzing a sample, you must multiply that dilution factor with the reported value to obtain the true level in the sample. In this case, the sample was diluted by a factor of 5. Therefore, 30 x 5 = 150
Which of the following suture size is the largest? 1-0 6-0 2 2-0
2 As the number to the left of the "-0" increases, the diameter of the suture decreases. If there is no "-0" following the number, then as the number increases the diameter of the suture increases. In this question, 6-0 is the smallest diameter suture listed.
How many milliliters should be administered to a 100-kg patient that needs 50 mg of a 2.5% solution? 125 ml 2.5 ml 2 ml 25 ml
2 ml Percent is equal to weight (in Grams) / 100 parts volume (in mLs) (This is based on water since 1 mL weighs 1 Gram): Example: A 3% solution: 3 Grams / 100 mL or 3000 mg / 100 mL or 30 mg/mL The easiest way to remember is to just add a zero onto any percentage for the milligrams (i.e. 2% solution = 20 mg/ml; 10% solution = 100 mg/ml, etc.) In this situation a 2.5% solution is equivalent to 25 mg/ml. Therefore: 50 mg / (25 mg/ml) = 2 ml
What is the typical length of time that an incision should be monitored after an uncomplicated surgery? 21 days 48 hours 5 days 2 weeks
2 weeks
Approximately what percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day? 5% 8% 2% 12%
2%
How many milliliters of 25% dextrose should be added to 1 L of 0.9% saline to make a 5% dextrose solution? 200 ml 50 ml 20 ml 100 ml
200 ml C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.25 V(1) = x C(2) = 0.05 V(2) = 1000 ml 0.25x = 0.05(1000) x = 200 ml 200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution.
How long does estrus in the dog typically last? 1-3 days 4-13 days 6 months 14-28 days
4-13 days Estrus typically lasts 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days. The entire estrous cycle in the dog is approximately 6 months.
A dog with hypothyroidism comes in to have his blood drawn to check his thyroid level. He has been on Levothyroxine since he was first diagnosed. How many hours after the thyroid medication is given should the blood be drawn? 1-2 hours 8-10 hours 12 hours just before the next dose is due 4-6 hours 5-7 hours
4-6 hours It is best to draw the blood 4-6 hours after medication is given because that is when the thyroid level is at its highest peak.
The attending veterinarian asks you to administer 120 mg of enrofloxacin (Baytril) IV slow over 20 minutes to a dog that is hospitalized in your clinic. The strength of injectable enrofloxacin is 2.27%, how many milliliters of drug will you administer? There is not enough information available to calculate the dosage 0.53 mls 5.3 ml 52.8 mls
5.3 ml A 2.27% solution is 22.7 mg/ml. 120 mg divided by 22.7 mg/ml = 5.3 mls
The attending veterinarian asks you to administer 120 mg of enrofloxacin (Baytril) IV slow over 20 minutes to a dog that is hospitalized in your clinic. The strength of injectable enrofloxacin is 2.27%, how many milliliters of drug will you administer? 5.3 ml 52.8 mls 0.53 mls There is not enough information available to calculate the dosage
5.3 ml A 2.27% solution is 22.7 mg/ml. 120 mg divided by 22.7 mg/ml = 5.3 mls
You are planning to get some goats out on your ranch property and would like to keep them confined to a certain area to keep the weeds down. How tall of a fence (minimum) would likely be required to keep the goats confined? 6 feet 8 feet 4 feet 3 feet
6 feet
What is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time? 6-8 Liters 1-2 Liters 10-15 Liters 20-25 Liters
6-8 Liters The average size horse (800 to 1200 pounds) has a stomach capacity of only about 4 gallons. It is best to give smaller quantities of fluids more frequently, and no more than 6 to 8 liters should be given at one time
When collecting blood for a blood transfusion, the maximum recommended amount that can be collected from a donor horse (500 kg) is what volume? 12-14 liters 3-6 liters 6-8 liters 10-12 liters
6-8 liters A safe amount of blood to collect from a horse is 15-16 ml/kg, equaling 6-8 liters in a 500 kg horse. Typically, blood is only collected from a donor every 30 days or longer
A dog has recently obtained a fresh superficial linear wound after lacerating its flank on a fence. Within what time period can this wound be optimally repaired by primary closure? 12-24 hours 8 hours 2 hours 3-5 days
8 hours After 8 hours pass, the wound tissue starts to become increasingly compromised, and risk of infection and necrosis increase. Primary closure is used when a wound is classified as clean or clean-contaminated. Closure of these involves immediate lavaging, suturing, and closure of the wound.
You are asked to start a dog on maintenance fluids. The dog weighs 80 pounds. What fluid rate do you start on this dog? 45 mL/hr 25 mL/hr 90 mL/hr 150 mL/hr
90 mL/hr 80 pounds/2.2= 36 kg 60mL X 36 kg = 2160 mL per day 2160 mL/24 hours in a day = 90 mL per hour
Which of the following medications should be used with caution in cats, as it could cause blindness in some cats? Amoxicillin Enrofloxacin Metacam Clindamycin
Enrofloxacin Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is used in cats at no higher than a 5mg/kg per dose. Higher doses increase the risk for blindness in cats, and in general this drug should be used with caution because of this potential side effect.
What is most common anticoagulant used for hematology? Heparin Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid Sodium citrate Sodium fluoride
Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid The correct answer is Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA). This is the anti-coagulant found in "purple top" tubes. Gray top tubes contain sodium fluoride and are most often used for accurate assessment of glucose levels. Blue top tubes contain sodium citrate and are used for coagulation testing.
Aside from diabetes, what is another cause for glucosuria in a cat? High carbohydrate diet Estrus Excitement Dehydration
Excitement Excitement, stress, and fear increase blood glucose levels. If those levels exceed the renal threshold, glucosuria can occur. The other answer choices do not result in glucosuria.
Which feline disease is most commonly transmitted via saliva sharing, such as through food or water bowls, grooming, etc.? Feline Leukemia Virus Feline Immunodeficiency Virus Toxoplasma Feline Infectious Peritonitis
Feline Leukemia Virus FeLV is shed in saliva and other bodily secretions (from the nose, urine, feces, and milk). Cats can transfer the virus via a bite, through grooming each other, and via sharing food and water dishes/litter boxes, etc. It is also transmitted from an infected mother cat to her kittens either in utero or via nursing. FIV is more commonly transferred via a bite wound and not from casual contact. FIP is caused by a coronavirus which is typically passed in feces, saliva or in utero. The coronavirus mutates in some cats and causes clinical FIP. The Toxoplasma parasite is typically acquired through eating raw meat/prey in cats that hunt.
Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose? For tapeworm infestation For acid reflux For constipation For analgesia
For analgesia Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is a non-narcotic, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to provide analgesia and to reduce inflammation. It may also be used as a fever reducer.
Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose? For analgesia For acid reflux For constipation For tapeworm infestation
For analgesia Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is a non-narcotic, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to provide analgesia and to reduce inflammation. It may also be used as a fever reducer.
When looking at the bottom of a horse's hoof, what is the name of the triangular shaped structure behind the sole of the foot? Bars Frog Laminae White line Secondary sole
Frog
A dog presents with lethargy and coughing. The doctor asks you to take a blood sample to test for Coccidioides immitis, also known as Valley Fever. This disease, most commonly seen in the southwestern United States, is caused by which of the following? Bacteria Rickettsia Mite Fungus
Fungus
Which of the following could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy? Styptic powder Silver nitrate Gelfoam Bone wax
Gelfoam Gelfoam is a sterile compressed sponge that is intended to aid in hemostasis; it allows for absorption of blood and formation of a clot at the bleeding site. It has a very useful application in liver biopsies.
An elevated PCV is considered normal for which of the following breeds? Greyhound Akita Chihuahua Cavalier King Charles Spaniel
Greyhound
A male ferret is also referred to as which of the following? Jack Boar Hob Jill
Hob
Fermentation is a microbial process that uses enzymes to decompose food so that it may be utilized by the animal. In which species is this process most utilized in the hindgut during digestion? Dogs Cows Sheep Horses
Horses Horses are hindgut (large-intestinal) fermenters. They are herbivores, and the cellulose in the plants they consume is difficult to digest. They have a fermentation system which contains specific microflora, that break sdown the plant material, allowing them to access useful nutrients.
Which of the following drugs is a controlled substance? Hydrocodone Acepromazine Propofol Medetomidine
Hydrocodone Hydrocodone (Hycodan, Tussigon) is an opiate agonist and is a controlled narcotic. It is often used for its anti-tussive properties in animals that are coughing.
Several Heinz bodies have been identified on a blood smear of a sick dog. What is this an indication of? Viral hemolysis Carbon monoxide exposure Cyanide poisoning Oxidative damage
Oxidative damage Heinz bodies are seen whenever oxidative damage occurs to the red blood cell. They can be seen with immune mediated hemolytic anemia or ingestion of certain toxins. For example, consumption of onions results in Heinz body anemia. Another example is the administration of methylene blue, which also causes oxidative damage to red blood cells. If a large enough amount is given, this can cause anemia.
What is feline "parvo" virus is known as? Feline Leukemia Panleukopenia Calicivirus Rhinotracheitis
Panleukopenia
Which of the following instruments would be LEAST effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient? Curette Michel trephine Gigli wire Osteotome Periosteal elevator
Periosteal elevator
A bulldog presents for its fourth foreign body surgery. It eats dirt, toys, and other non-food substances on a regular basis. This condition of eating non-food items is known as: Coprophagy Dysphagia Aerophagia Pica
Pica Coprophagy is eating of feces. Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing. Aerophagia is swallowing of air.
Lactose-fermenting bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar? Clear or white Pink or red Blue or green Tan or grey
Pink or red MacConkey agar contains lactose; when lactose-fermenting organisms are grown, they produce acid from lactose that causes them to turn red. Bacteria that do not ferment lactose are typically clear colonies.
Which of the following should never be given in a bolus to a patient? Hetastarch Lidocaine Potassium chloride Mannitol 0.9% Sodium chloride
Potassium chloride Rapid infusion of potassium can cause cardiac arrest. There is never a good reason to bolus potassium chloride; however sometimes it is inadvertently bolused when administering fluids which had potassium chloride added to them. Administration of greater than 0.5 meq/kg of potassium chloride can be deadly. All other choices as long as appropriately dosed may be bolused.
What is the function of a goblet cell? Produce mucus Produce platelets Phagocytize bacteria and viruses Secrete insulin
Produce mucus Goblet cells are glandular, and their sole function is to secrete mucin, which dissolves in water to form mucus. The mucin/mucus helps to protect the epithelium and trap foreign particles (dust, bacteria, etc.).
A dog is very weak in the hindend but is able to stand with support. The dog is being supported under the abdomen, and the paws are individually turned over so that the dorsal paw is touching the ground. The dog is not able to correct this posture. This is an evaluation of: Malalignment of the vertebral column Mentation Proprioception Spinal pain
Proprioception Proprioception is a test to determine if the pet knows where the limbs are in space, or position awareness. The paw is first flipped under so that the dorsal part of the foot is touching the floor, and then the paw is released. The pet should return the paw to the normal positioning. If the paw remains flipped over, this indicates a proprioceptive deficit. It is most often a result of spinal cord disease or spinal cord compression from disk disease, neoplasia, etc.
You are reading a cardiologist report discussing tricuspid valve insufficiency and grade 3 murmur. The mitral valve is said to be normal. If you listened to this patient, where would you expect to hear the murmur the loudest? Sternal Left side cranial portion of the chest Left side caudal portion of the chest Right side
Right side The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle.
Which of the following would you use to induce emesis in cats? Apomorphine Activated charcoal Naltrexone Xylazine
Xylazine
Which of the following would not be an underlying cause for a urine specific gravity of less than 1.020? Hypoadrenocorticism Renal failure Dehydration Diabetes mellitus
Dehydration Dehydration usually results in an elevated urine concentration (USG > 1.050).
These parasites are potential zoonotic pathogens EXCEPT for which of the following? Cryptosporidium parvum Giardia spp. Toxoplasma gondii Toxacara canis Demodex canis
Demodex canis Toxoplasma can cause birth defects in humans. Cryptosporidium and Giardia can cause severe diarrhea. Toxocara canis can cause visceral larva migrans. Demodex is a mite that commonly lives in the hair follicles. It is not contagious to humans.
What is the average gestation length of a horse? Approximately 290 days Approximately 400 days Approximately 230 days Approximately 340 days
Approximately 340 days
The natural ovulatory season for mares in the northern hemisphere occurs during approximately which months? September - November December - February March - May April - August
April - August s
An "FHO" would most likely be performed on a patient with which of the following problems? Incontinence Arthritic hip Blindness from glaucoma Ovarian cysts
Arthritic hip
In which situation would perioperative antibiotics be strongly indicated? Orchidectomy 3.5 cm lipoma excision Ovariohysterectomy Arthroscopy
Arthroscopy Procedures that are considered uncomplicated and clean typically do not require perioperative antibiotic therapy unless there is a break in sterility. Performing arthroscopy carries a very low likelihood of infection; however, because an infection of the joint can be catastrophic, it is recommended that perioperative antibiotics be administered.
What is a sarcolemma? A calcium storage unit in the muscle A contractile cell in the muscle Connective tissue putting muscle fibers into groups The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber
The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber `
Which of these drugs should be used with great caution in stallions due to the risk of causing paraphimosis or priapism? Ketamine Atropine Acepromazine Trimethoprim-sulfa
Acepromazine The correct answer is acepromazine. Phenothiazine tranquilizers can cause relaxation of smooth muscles and engorgement of the corpus cavernosum with blood, leading to an inability to withdraw the penis into the sheath, or paraphimosis. While this drug side effect is very rare, veterinarians should be cautious in the use of acepromazine in stallions and should consider another sedative such as xylazine or detomidine when sedation is necessary.
A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive: Diet with low protein Alkalinizing diet Diet with low fat Acidifying diet
Acidifying diet
Which of the following instruments is the least traumatic to use on the intestine? Brown-Adson forceps Curved mosquito forceps Debakey forceps Rat-toothed forceps
Debakey forceps The Debakey forceps are thumb forceps designed to be atraumatic. The other thumb forceps listed are traumatic and should not be used when handling delicate organs. Curved mosquito forceps are great for controlling bleeding vessels, but they are traumatic and should not be used to clamp on intestines.
Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type I hypersensitivity where chemical mediators are released from mast cells after encountering an antigen? Glomerulonephritis Atopy Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Poison ivy allergy
Atopy There are 4 types of hypersensitivity: Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).
A 3-month old kitten presents for mucoid diarrhea and anemia. The clinic where you work has recently seen several other puppies and kittens with similar clinical signs that were infected with Strongyloides stercoralis. You look up and find that this parasite is passed in the feces in the L1 larval form. What is the best way to recover and identify this parasite? Fecal sedimentation Fecal flotation Direct fecal smear Baermann fecal technique
Baermann fecal technique
Assessing which of the following on serum chemistry is most appropriate in the assessment of liver function? Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) Bilirubin Creatinine Glucose
Bilirubin
Which of the following over-the-counter medications is sometimes given for diarrhea? Diphenhydramine Famotidine Bismuth subsalicylate Simethicone
Bismuth subsalicylate
Which of the following is the best method for killing Parvovirus? Bleach Alcohol Hydrogen peroxide Direct sunlight
Bleach A 1:30 (1 parts bleach to 30 parts water) will destroy parvovirus.
Which of the following drugs is NOT useful in the treatment of seizures? Potassium bromide Butorphanol Phenobarbital Propofol Diazepam
Butorphanol Butorphanol is an opiate partial agonist and is mostly used as an antitussive, analgesic, or sedative.
What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called? Choana Patagium Carapace Cloaca Plastron Scute
Carapace
Where is the standard tuburculosis test administered in the bovine species? Caudal tail fold Ear pinna Eye lid Proximal axilla
Caudal tail fold The TB test in cows is given intradermally in the caudal tail fold. This area is used because it is easy to give the injection at this location and a reaction can be easily seen. The eye lid is used in primates.
What is the best construction form for a tortoise outdoor enclosure? Pressure treated wood Cement blocks Chain link fence Chicken wire Stacked rocks or pavers
Cement blocks Cement blocks mortared together will prevent falling as tortoise digs, and is sturdy enough for even the biggest tortoise.
Pyrethrin (which is used to kill fleas) is derived or extracted from which of the following plants? Chrysanthemum Hibiscus Stargazer lily Bougainvillea
Chrysanthemum
Some bacteria produce beta-lacatamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins. What beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent this from occurring? Chloride Sulfamethoxazole Clavulanic acid Procaine
Clavulanic acid
A method of castration in cattle that is performed without incising the skin is known as: Occult castration Cryptic castration Inguinal castration Closed castration
Closed castration Closed castration is a method sometimes used in cattle or small ruminants which involves use of an emasculatome, which crushes the cord within the scrotum without cutting the scrotal skin. It is also referred to as a "bloodless" castration. Incisions are more likely to attract insects and cause disease susceptibility in a field situation. A "closed" castration may also refer to castrations when an incision is made in the skin, but the vaginal tunic is not entered.
A proliferative honeycomb beak (as seen in the image below) along with scaly crusty lesions on the legs and feet of a bird can be a sign of which of the following? Chlamydophila psittaci Mycobacterium avium Avian pox Cnemidocoptes pilae
Cnemidocoptes pilae The correct answer is Cnemidocoptes pilae. Cnemidocoptes pilae, is also known as "scaly face" or "scaly leg." This mite can be treated with topical or oral ivermectin. It is more common in birds that are immunocompromised, and beak deformity may be permanent even after the mite is cleared.
Sulfasalazine is sometimes used in veterinary medicine to treat which chronic condition? Bronchitis Colitis Hepatitis Pancreatitis
Colitis
You are performing a urinalysis and identify this six-sided crystal (see image). What type of crystal is this? Calcium oxalate Cystine Urate Struvite
Cystine You will know cystine crystals by their hexagon shape. They are caused by a renal tubular amino acid reabsorption defect which appears to occur due to a genetic abnormality.
Where is the thymus located? Ventral neck region In the cranial mediastinum in the chest In the brain In the abdomen just above the kidneys
In the cranial mediastinum in the chest The thymus is an immune organ located in the mediastinum. It extends from the thoracic inlet to the pericardium upon which it is molded.
Which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug? Increase in cardiac contractility Dramatic decrease blood pressure Decrease in adrenal gland stimulation Prevention of arrhythmias
Increase in cardiac contractility
A 2-year old male Golden Retriever has been brought to your facility in cardiac arrest. Obtaining intravenous access will be extremely difficult due to degloving injuries on all legs and additional trauma to the head and neck. What alternate route would be the first choice for atropine and epinephrine administration? Subcutaneous Intratracheal Intramuscular Rectal Intracardiac
Intratracheal
How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administered? Jejunostomy tube PEG tube Esophagostomy tube
Intravenous Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is feeding exclusively intravenously, bypassing the GI tract. It is very useful in cases when animals are unable to eat or will not eat for an extended time period.
Which is NOT true of cytology? It is read under the microscope It evaluates tissue architecture It can be useful to help differentiate a tumor from inflammatory tissue One method of sample collection is a fine needle aspirate
It evaluates tissue architecture
The doctor hands you a written prescription for spironolactone and asks you to give it to a client while they are checking out. The client asks you to remind her what this medication is for again, and you reply that: It is a steroid inhibitor used for treating Cushing's disease It is a diuretic for her pet's congestive heart failure It is an anti-inflammatory for her pet's post-operative pain It is a corticosteroid used for treating Addison's disease
It is a diuretic for her pet's congestive heart failure Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist and a potassium sparing diuretic used as an adjunctive treatment for heart failure. If furosemide is not enough to control the pulmonary edema, sometimes spironolactone is added on as an additional diuretic to keep fluid out of the lungs.
Of the choices below, which tick is correctly matched with the corresponding disease transmitted? Ixodes, Lyme disease Rhiphacephalus, Lyme disease Ixodes, Ehrlichia Dermacentor, Ehrlichia
Ixodes, Lyme disease The correct tick to rickettsial disease pairs: Rhiphacephalus (brown dog tick), Ehrlichia Ixodes (deer tick), Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) Dermacentor, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
Which disease may be transmitted to humans through aerosolization or direct handling of urine from an infected patient? Leptospirosis Rabies West Nile Virus Cystoisospora
Leptospirosis Leptospirosis is caused by a spirochete bacterium and is most often transmitted through direct contact with infected urine or infected fetus/vaginal discharge. It most commonly causes kidney and liver disease and is one of the most important zoonotic diseases of concern nationwide. It tends to be diagnosed most frequently in areas of high rainfall or where there are lakes or water sources, because the organism may survive in water. Rodents and wildlife are the most common reservoir hosts.
What type of diet should a cat or dog in renal failure should be fed? Low in carbohydrates and high in protein Low in phosphorus and high in protein High in phosphorus and low in protein Low in phosphorus and protein
Low in phosphorus and protein A low-protein diet helps to decrease workload on the kidneys. This is because protein (when metabolized by the liver) leads to production of the waste product urea. The kidneys excrete urea. If the kidneys are not functioning properly, then urea is not excreted efficiently and begins to build up in the peripheral blood and causes the pet to feel sick clinically. Phosphorus is removed from the body via the kidneys. If filtration is impaired, then the phosphorus begins to climb higher in the peripheral blood. Therefore, a diet low in phosphorus is ideal. A low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet would be more ideal for a diabetic patient and is not good for a patient in renal failure.
Which hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum? Luteinizing hormone (LH) Progesterone Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Testosterone
Luteinizing hormone (LH) Luteinizing hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. The LH surge is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum. Progesterone levels increase after ovulation has already occurred.
Which drug could be used to decrease intracranial pressure? Mitotane Ivermectin Mannitol Phenobarbital
Mannitol Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It can reduce intraocular and intracerebral pressures. It can also help to reduce edema and enhance urinary excretion of some toxins
Which type of cell is rich in histamine and heparin? Mast cell Neutrophil Platelet Erythrocyte
Mast cell Mast cells contain histamine and heparin. They play a role in inflammation and are thus involved in wound healing. They are mostly known for their involvement in allergies and anaphylaxis.
Which of the following will cause a false positive fecal occult blood test? Steroid administration Meat based diet Dairy in the diet Diarrhea
Meat based diet Meat but not dairy in the diet will result in a false positive fecal occult blood test. Therefore, the test should be administered after a patient has been on a meat-free diet such as cottage cheese and rice for at least 3 days.
Which of the following is a diagnostic stage of Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm, in dogs? Microfilarial stage Larval stage 3 (L3) Larval stage 1 (L1) Nymphal stage
Microfilarial stage
A kitten presents with hair loss over the top of the head and you take a sample for DTM culture. The culture begins to turn red within two days and grows some white fuzz on the surface. You use a tape preparation to identify the organisms growing and see the following under the microscope (see image). What is this? Microsporum Malassezia Pollen, a normal contaminant Trichophyton
Microsporum This is Microsporum canis, a common cause of dermatophytosis (ringworm). Trichophyton is also a cause of ringworm, though the macroconidia are much longer and more narrow. Malassezia is yeast and often appears budding or looks like bowling pins. Contaminant hyphae are commonly seen on cytology, making it necessary to confirm a positive DTM culture as ringworm by identifying the causative macroconidia microscopically.
72 hours have passed since performing and exploratory laparotomy. It is important to evaluate the incision on a daily basis to help detect any complications early. Which of the following would you not expect to find on a 3-day-old incision? Moderate swelling Moderate pain Mild serosanguinous discharge Moderate redness
Mild serosanguinous discharge n incision will demonstrate all the classic signs of inflammation (redness, swelling, pain, and heat). Occasionally, there may be mild serosanguinous discharge from an incision, but this usually resolves in 24-48 hours. Persistence of discharge is worrisome as this may perpetuate bacterial colonization and subsequent incisional failure.
Most distemper-parvo vaccinations are of which type? Killed virus Cellular antigen extract Modified live virus Canarypox
Modified live virus Most distemper and parvo vaccinations are modified live virus vaccinations. Rabies is a killed virus vaccination in general. There is a feline-only rabies vaccination that is a canarypox vaccine. The injectable form of Bordetella vaccine is a cellular antigen extract vaccine.
You are helping the neurologist with a Tensilon test in a dog. Tensilon is the trade name for edrophonium chloride. By administering this drug, you are testing for which disease? Diskospondylitis Old dog vestibular disease Myasthenia gravis Meningitis Hydrocephalus
Myasthenia gravis
A dog presents with a 1-week old wound on her side. The wound is foul-smelling and has dead tissue. What term best describes this wound? Ulcerated Fistulated Fluctuant Necrotic
Necrotic Necrosis is the death of living tissues and is used to describe lesions such as this. An ulcer is an erosion of the skin or mucous membranes. A fistula is a connection or passageway in between two areas (a hole). Fluctuant means movable or compressible (i.e. a fluctuant mass)
What is the proper name for the "third eyelid"? Nictitating membrane Tympanic membrane Frenulum Ranula
Nictitating membrane
A dog presents for stumbling, has a head tilt, and you notice his eyes are moving back and forth rapidly in a horizontal motion. What is the term for this type of eye movement? Nystagmus Ataxia Miosis Hypermetria Mydriasis
Nystagmus
The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America adopting a code of ethics is an example of which branch of ethics? Descriptive ethics Normal ethics Administrative ethics Official ethics
Official ethics
What species, if overworked, is most at risk for hyperthermia? Rats Cows Sheep Horses Cats
Sheep Sheep are at risk for hyperthermia due to their thick coat. A sheep's normal body temperature is around 102-103F. Pigs are also at risk for hyperthermia due their increased amount of body fat.
Which organ can be completely removed and is not required to sustain life? Intestines Spleen Heart Liver
Spleen
How are bladder stone types identified? Submit to lab for analysis Gross examination Check the urine pH Look for crystals on the urinalysis
Submit to lab for analysis
A dog is being referred to the neurologist for a cervical disk compression that is causing forelimb paresis. Where will the surgical incision likely be made? Between the shoulder blades Inside the mouth The dorsal neck region The ventral side of the neck
The ventral side of the neck A cervical disk surgery typically requires an incision made on the underside of the neck. This surgery is referred to as a "ventral slot".
The fetus does most of its growing during which time period? First trimester Second trimester Third trimester It grows at the same rate throughout gestation
Third trimester
What is the purpose of the condenser of a microscope? To focus light on the object being viewed To filter out wavelengths of light before they reach the object being viewed To focus the lens on the object being viewed To adjust the intensity of light reaching the object being viewed
To focus light on the object being viewed
Which of the following is a chelonian? Rabbit Bird Goat Tortoise
Tortoise
Schnauzers are notorious for having hyperlipidemia, and when their blood is spun down, the serum often appears milky. This is due to a high level of what in the serum? Triglycerides Lymph Chyme Leukocytes
Triglycerides Hyperlipidemia is the term for elevated triglycerides or cholesterol.
Which of these forms of chocolate contains the highest concentration of theobromine? Unsweetened baking chocolate White chocolate Semi-sweet chocolate Milk chocolate
Unsweetened baking chocolate The correct answer is unsweetened baking chocolate. This contains about 7 times more theobromine than milk chocolate. White chocolate has very little methylxanthines. Semi-sweet chocolate rates in between. Theobromine per oz. of milk chocolate= 44-60 mg/oz Baker's chocolate has 390-450 mg/oz, Semi-sweet chocolate has about half as much as Baker's or dark chocolate.
The dog's abdominal region may also be referred to as which of the following? Dorsal region Proximal region Ventral region Anterior region
Ventral region
A dog presenting with a head tilt and loss of balance most likely has disease associated with which nerve? Optic Vagus Vestibulocochlear Trigeminal
Vestibulocochlear Head tilt and loss of balance are symptoms of vestibular syndrome, which is most often assoiated with damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII). Other symptoms may include nausea and nystagmus.
The Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics contains which of the following statements? Veterinary technicians should care for all animals equally. Veterinary technicians shall keep the health of the animals they treat their priority. Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients. Veterinary technicians must never put a client's needs above an animal's needs.
Veterinary technicians shall protect confidential information provided by clients.
What is a pulse deficit? When some heart beats do not result in a palpable pulse When an extra pulse occurs sporadically When no pulses are palpable in a patient When a pulse is synchronous with a heartbeat
When some heart beats do not result in a palpable pulse A pulse deficit is the condition in which a peripheral pulse rate is less than the ventricular contraction rate because some heart beats do not create a palpable pulse. This can be indicative of a lack of peripheral perfusion.
