week 4 quiz nutrition

The nurse is admitting a new client who is a Muslim. The nurse notes this on the client's diet orders. Which of the following is prohibited by Islamic dietary laws? A) Beef B) Poultry C) Pork D) Eggs

C

The client has an active 15-year-old boy. To maintain his weight, how many calories may he need per day? A) 2000 calories B) 2400 calories C) 2800 calories D) 3200 calories

Ans: C Feedback: As per MyPlate, an active 15-year-old boy needs 2800 cal/day to maintain his weight.

There are commercial formulas made specifically for infants born with inborn errors of metabolism. For which of the following is there a special commercial formula? A) Constipation B) Corn syrup urine disease C) Phenylketonuria D) Cystic fibrosis

Ans: C Feedback: There are specialty formulas for infants with inborn errors of metabolism, such as phenylketonuria or maple syrup urine disease.

Because functional foods appear to enhance health or prevent disease, which natural functional food may help to support normal heart function? A) Yogurt B) Green tea C) Garlic D) Purple grape juice

Ans: D Feedback: Purple grape juice contains resveratrol, which helps decrease platelet aggregation.

The nurse is conducting an assessment on a new client who is being admitted to the long-term care facility. The client is a 69-year-old gentleman who is moderately active. What is the recommended calorie per day intake? A) 2000 cal/day B) 2200 cal/day C) 2400 cal/day D) 2600 cal/day

B

The nurse is conducting the assessment on a new client to the hospital unit. The nurse notes that this client is a Seventh-Day Adventist. Which of the following should the nurse verify if the client will want noted for his diet? A) No eating on Saturday B) No meat or meat products C) No eggs D) No dairy

B

Dehydration can be a concern in the elderly population. The modified MyPlate for Older Adults recommends eight glasses of water per day. What is the AI for water for a 65-year-old male? A) 1.7 L/day B) 2.7 L/day C) 3.7 L/day D) 4.7 L/day

C

A family member is concerned that an elderly family member is not eating correctly. Which of the following is a risk factor for undernutrition among the elderly population? A) Eating alone B) Daily Meals on Wheels delivery C) Traveling to a local center for a hot meal D) Having home health assistance three times a week to fix meals

A

A 79-year-old client has been admitted to a long-term care facility that follows a liberal diet approach. The family is concerned that this will hurt the client due to a long history of high cholesterol and desire a low-cholesterol diet. How might the nurse respond? A) Malnutrition is a greater threat than hypercholesterolemia. B) The client is too old to worry about it now. C) The facility does not offer specialized, individual diet options. D) If the cholesterol hasn't gone down yet, it never will.

A

A client is trying to understand where cheese fits into the MyPlate for Older Adults. The nurse explains that according to this plan, cheese is in which section? A) Protein B) Milk C) Dairy D) Fat

A

A group of nurses go out to eat lunch. Which of the following dinner choices is the healthiest? A) Baked chicken breast, salad with dressing on the side, steamed broccoli, and fresh fruit cup B) Lacto-vegetarian pizza C) Breaded fish fillet, creamed corn, steamed spinach, and a small tossed salad with ranch dressing D) Angel hair pasta with Alfredo sauce, steamed broccoli, cauliflower, and carrots, dinner roll with low-fat margarine

A

A nurse is trying to help her clients with their meal trays. The main complaint appears to be that the foods are not seasoned correctly. Understanding that seasonings are cultural, what are the different seasonings recognized as between one culture's foods and another's? A) The distinguishing feature B) The regional identifying mark C) The available taste D) The qualifying characteristic

A

Although Mexican Americans generally eat more fruit than other cultures that live in the United States, they still have health problems associated with diet. What is it that Mexican Americans have a high prevalence of? A) Obesity B) Lactose intolerance C) Pancreatitis D) Vitamin B deficiency

A

An 18-year-old victim of a car accident is being transferred to the unit. The report from the emergency department is that the client is female and a practicing Muslim. In reviewing the orders for this client, what diet orders will be expected? A) No pork products B) A vegetarian diet C) No restrictions D) No meals until after sundown

A

Because of the dietary influences of Buddhism, many Buddhists adhere to which of the following? A) Are lacto-ovo vegetarians B) May avoid garlic and onions C) Fast during Ramadan D) May avoid blood-colored root vegetables

A

Every culture influences the food eaten by its people, but culture is not the only influence on diet. What is the strongest influence on food habits? A) Religion B) Nationality C) Available food D) Region

A

Nutrition therapy in the elderly has different goals than at other times across the lifespan. What is a primary goal of diet intervention for the elderly? A) Maintain quality of life B) Prolong life C) Prevent the development of complications D) Treat chronic disease

A

Over the age of 50 years, the body needs a higher intake of vitamin D. What is a good source of the vitamin D needed by older adults? A) Fortified milk B) Green leafy vegetables C) Lean red meats D) Nuts

A

The 74-year-old client in the nursing home has developed a pressure ulcer on her sacrum. What could be a cause of the development of this ulcer? A) Inadequate food and fluid intake B) Turning freely in bed C) Overhydration D) Lack of vitamins B and C

A

The children of a sedentary 90-year-old ask how to combat malnutrition in their parent. What would be the best response to this question? A) Make meal time as enjoyable as possible. B) Feed the parent only heart-healthy food. C) Give the parent a liquid dietary supplement twice a day. D) Feed the parent before the rest of the family.

A

The client is a healthy 25-year-old Asian American who is 4 months pregnant. In following traditional practices, which foods will this client eat during her pregnancy? A) Fruits and vegetables B) Beef and vegetables C) Chicken and fruit D) Pork and vegetables

A

The nurse is discussing the various food types with a new client. During the discussion, the nurse explains that rice, wheat, and corn are examples of which type? A) Core foods B) Protective foods C) Status foods D) Comfort foods

A

The nurse is doing nutritional screening on older adults at a health fair. What would be an important question to ask while screening an older person for nutritional risk? A) About the use of three or more prescribed or over-the-counter daily medications B) If the person is over 62 years old C) If they had an unintentional weight loss of 3% or more in 60 days D) If they are living in a household with more than one older adult member

A

The nurse is preparing a meal plan for a client who will be assisted by a home health aide. The nurse recognizes the overall goal of nutrition therapy for this older adult is which of the following? A) Maintain or restore maximal independent functioning B) Reduce chronic disease deterioration C) Prevent chronic disease D) Decrease the use of medication

A

The nurse is working with a client to help her choose healthier options when shopping. What is a rule of thumb to look for when choosing a healthy packaged or convenience meal that provides 300 to 400 calories? A) Foods that limit sodium to less than 800 mg B) Foods that limit fat to no more than 15 g C) Foods that limit saturated fat to 5 g per 100 g of food D) Foods that limit portion sizes no greater than 2 oz

A

The nurse is working with a client who has chronic constipation. After evaluating the clients' food intake, it is determined that the client needs to ingest more fiber. What is the recommended daily intake of fiber for this 55-year-old female? A) 21 g/day B) 25 g/day C) 30 g/day D) 38 g/day

A

Traditional "soul food" is eaten by a large portion of the American population. What is the primary protein source in a traditional soul food diet? A) Pork B) Wild game C) Mutton D) Beef

A

For a long-term care resident, a restrictive diet could decrease quality of life. When should restrictive diets be used in long-term care facilities? A) When a resident has decreased intake and weight loss B) For hospice care C) When a significant improvement in health can be expected D) For one week a month

C

It is recognized that food habit is one of the last behaviors people change through acculturation. Children tend to adopt the new ways quickly and easier. What is thought to be one of the reasons for this? A) Economics B) Taste C) Status symbol D) Information

C

The nurse is admitting three new clients to the unit. One is Mexican American, one is Chinese American, and one is African American. Part of the dietary assessment is assessing acculturation. What common questions could be asked of all three clients to determine their level of acculturation? Select all that apply. A) "What traditional foods do you eat?" B) "Do you use herbs or home remedies?" C) "Who in your extended family eats traditional foods?" D) "Will someone be bringing in your food?"

A, B

A family is meeting with the nurse to discuss their concern about their 78-year-old family member who is having difficulty chewing food. The client is refusing a pureed diet. Which of the following are examples of food the family can offer? Select all that apply. A) Ripe bananas B) Soft melon C) Cooked carrots D) Fried potatoes E) Roasted chicken

A, B, C

A liberal diet approach is a holistic approach toward meeting client's nutritional needs. This approach takes into consideration which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Individual personal goals B) Risk/benefit ratio C) Overall prognosis D) Quantity of life E) Family requests

A, B, C

Our American culture has adopted the use of convenience foods in our diet. What are tips for helping a person balance convenience with nutrition? Select all that apply. A) Reading the label B) Adding additional ingredients to stretch a meal C) Adding salt D) Adding healthy side dishes E) Adjusting seasonings

A, B, D, E

Convenience foods are part of the American way of life. Convenience foods have impacted what for Americans? Select all that apply. A) Time B) Budget C) Availability D) Acceptability E) Nutritional value

A, B, E

The client has not been eating well since he was admitted to the long-term care facility. When the advanced practice nurse (APN) comes to the facility to see her clients, the nurse mentions her concerns about the nutritional status of this client. The APN notes that one of the client's orders is for a can of liquid dietary supplement to be given between meals three times a day. What may the client be experiencing as a result of taking this supplement? Select all that apply. A) Loss of appetite B) Increased sugar and fat C) Decreased calcium D) Taste fatigue E) Increased hunger

A, D

The nurse is meeting with the wife of a client who has Alzheimer disease (AD). She is concerned about her husbands' nutritional status. What can the nurse tell her to watch for that would indicate a possible nutritional problem? Select all that apply. A) Forgetting he had eaten and eating again B) Forgetting which are green vegetables C) Forgetting what food category bread is in D) Forgetting what time to eat E) Forgetting how to shop for food

A, E

Magnesium is one of the nutrients that older adults often do not get enough of. What are the recommended sources of magnesium for the elderly? A) Fruit juices B) Carrots C) Yogurt D) Potatoes

C

During a well-child visit, the nurse determines the BMI and reviews the food records to evaluate for which of the following? A) Adequacy of intake B) Progression toward optimal BMI C) Risks of obesity D) Risks of malnutrition

Ans: A Feedback: During each well-child visit the nurse should monitor the growth in height and weight. The food records should also be evaluated to assess adequacy of intake.

In children, breakfast skipping is an everyday occurrence for 8% to 15% of children ages 6 years to 13 years. What have studies suggested about skipping breakfast? A) It adversely affects cognition and learning. B) It is correlated with obesity. C) It promotes high cholesterol levels. D) It tends to stop when the children become adolescents.

Ans: A Feedback: Eating breakfast is linked to better academic performance and cognition among children

A 6-year-old boy has just come in from school and wants a snack. The mother is trying to maintain a heart-healthy diet for him by following the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. What would be the best snack the mother could give him? A) Peanut butter on crackers B) Low-salt potato chips C) Ice cream D) Cheese-flavored popcorn

Ans: A Feedback: A heart-healthy diet encourages decreasing the intake of fats and sugars. Potato chips, ice cream, and popcorn all contain high amounts of fats and sugars. The peanut butter contains more nutrients that are heart-friendly.

The client has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse is assessing her risk for a high-risk pregnancy. Which of the following is a likely result of a high-risk pregnancy? A) Low birth weight infant B) Diabetes insipidus C) Constipation D) High birth weight infant

Ans: A Feedback: A high-risk pregnancy is likely to produce a low birth weight infant.

Nutritional requirements generally go up during pregnancy. Which nutritional requirement proportionally increases the most during pregnancy? A) Calories B) Protein C) Iron D) Vitamin A

Ans: A Feedback: According to the DRIs, pregnant women do not need additional calories until the second trimester. An extra 340 cal/day is recommended during the second trimester. An extra 452 cal/day is recommended during the third trimester.

The risk of nutritional and health problems is present in all age groups. What is a nutritional risk of adolescence? A) Vitamin A deficiency B) Sodium deficiency C) Vitamin D deficiency D) Protein deficiency

Ans: A Feedback: Adolescents are at risk of consuming inadequate amounts of several nutrients, such as calcium, potassium, magnesium, vitamin A, and fiber, because they are underconsuming several food groups.

It is recognized that some substances are dangerous to the fetus and can cause birth defects. The use of what during pregnancy is potentially most harmful to the fetus? A) Alcohol B) Caffeine C) Aspartame D) Acesulfame-K

Ans: A Feedback: Alcohol is a potent teratogen and a safe level of consumption is not known. Women are advised to completely avoid alcohol before and during pregnancy.

To prevent birth defects, it is very important to correctly assess the woman's nutritional status. Studies have shown a correlation with impaired cognitive development and a deficiency of which nutrient? A) Iodine B) Omega-3 C) Iron D) Calcium

Ans: A Feedback: An iodine deficiency during pregnancy can cause neurologic damage from fetal hypothyroidism. Population studies correlate iodine deficiency with impaired cognitive development in the fetus and in children.

To be awarded the USDA organic seal, a food must adhere to strict national standards. What criterion must organic labeling meet? A) Criterion that define the four official organic categories B) Criterion that define the three official organic categories C) Criterion that define the two official organic categories D) Criterion that define the one official organic category

Ans: A Feedback: As per the USDA, organic labeling must meet criterion that define the four official organic categories.

It is recommended that herbal supplements not be taken during pregnancy or while breastfeeding. Why is that recommendation made? A) They have the potential of crossing the placental barrier. B) They can create nutritional deficiencies in the mother and fetus. C) They are known to cause teratogenic effects in the fetus. D) They have been proven to cause early labor.

Ans: A Feedback: Because little is known about the safety and efficiency of herbal supplements during pregnancy, it is recommended that they are not used during pregnancy and lactation. Because most substances cross the placental barrier, it is not known if the fetus is being exposed to potentially teratogenic effects.

The nurse is doing client education for a 21-year-old pregnant woman in the clinic. She asked why breastfeeding is so highly recommended. What would be the best response? A) Breast milk is specifically designed to support optimal growth and development in the newborn, and its composition makes it uniquely superior for infant feeding. B) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 9 months of life. C) Research in developed and developing countries shows that breastfeeding decreases the incidence and/or severity of infectious diseases. D) You will get down to your prepregnancy weight much faster if you breastfeed your baby.

Ans: A Feedback: Breast milk is specifically designed to support optimal growth and development in the newborn, and its composition makes it uniquely superior for infant feeding.

The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a 21-year-old woman in the clinic area. The nurse is discussing empty calories and explaining empty calories can be used for which of the following? A) Extras to the meal plan B) The fat and sugar in your plan C) To eat an extra slice of toast without counting its calories D) To add servings in any major food group

Ans: A Feedback: Empty calories allow consumers to incorporate small amounts into their eating plan and still meet nutrient needs without exceeding total calorie restraints.

A mother is concerned her 15-year-old daughter is not very active. The mother wants to know how many calories a day should she feed her to keep her from gaining weight. A) 1800 calories B) 900 calories C) 1200 calories D) 1500 calories

Ans: A Feedback: Females between the ages of 12 to 18 need 1800 cal/day to maintain their weight if they are sedentary.

While explaining the irradiation of food to the nutrition class, the nurse gives the students list of foods allowed to be irradiated in the United States. Which of the following foods would be expected on this list? A) Wheat flour B) Sweet potatoes C) Canola oil D) Jelly

Ans: A Feedback: Foods that can be irradiated include wheat, wheat flour, white spuds, pork, fresh produce, iceberg lettuce, spinach, many spices and dry vegetable seasonings, and fresh red meat and poultry.

A supplement taken by many Americans to aid in lowering serum cholesterol levels is garlic. It has a potential herb-drug interaction with what? A) Anticoagulants B) Digitalis C) Vitamin E supplements D) Antidepressants

Ans: A Feedback: Garlic may increase bleeding time when taken with anticoagulants; may decrease the effectiveness of cyclosporine, some calcium channel blockers, chemotherapeutic agents, antifungals, and glucocorticoids; and may interfere with oral contraceptives and antiretroviral drugs.

A nurse has attended a seminar covering the objectives of Healthy People 2020. Upon returning to the clinic, the nurse is asked what the clinic could do differently to meet the objectives. Which of the following would be an appropriate answer? A) Regularly measure BMI at each visit. B) Provide nutritional counseling with each visit. C) Determine food insecurity with each visit. D) Provide clients with food journals to return for evaluation.

Ans: A Feedback: Healthy People 2020 is a set of goals to promote health and reduce chronic disease. One of these goals is to increase the proportion of primary care physicians who regularly measure the body mass index of their clients. The other options are not actual goals to complete at each visit.

The genetic engineering of our food supply has produced varied results. Which foods available in American supermarkets are most likely to have genetically engineered ingredients? A) Soybean oil, cottonseed oil, and corn syrup B) Fortified wheat and oats C) Tomatoes and corn oil D) Milk and dairy products

Ans: A Feedback: In 2010, 165 million acres of biotech crops were planted in the United States. Biotechnology is used to grow 86% of the corn and 93% of all soybeans. From these crops, soybean oil, corn oil, and corn syrup are pervasive in processed foods.

The process of irradiating food enhances food safety. What statement is true about the process of irradiating food? A) Irradiation does not use heat. B) Irradiation decreases the shelf life of a product. C) Irradiation hides spoilage. D) Irradiation eliminates the need for safe food handling.

Ans: A Feedback: Irradiation does not use heat so it is sometimes referred to as "cold pasteurization." Bacteria, mold, fungi, and insects are destroyed as the food is exposed to radiant energy.

A client is discussing the process of irradiation of food with the clinic nurse. The client is concerned that these food products are not safe to eat. The nurse can explain that irradiation has been determined to be safe and is sometimes referred to as what? A) Cold pasteurization B) Heat irradiation C) Beta-ray sterilization D) Proton beam irradiation

Ans: A Feedback: Irradiation is sometimes referred to as cold pasteurization because it does not use heat.

The nurse is doing nutrition counseling with a 21-year-old pregnant woman in the clinic area. What should the nurse explain to the client about caloric intake during the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy? A) She will need approximately 450 cal/day increase during the third trimester. B) She will need approximately 450 cal/day increase during the second trimester. C) She will need approximately 500 cal/day increase during the third trimester. D) She will need approximately 500 cal/day increase during the second trimester.

Ans: A Feedback: It is recommended that a pregnant woman increase her calorie intake by 340 cal/day during the second trimester and 450 cal/day during the third trimester.

Because iron is one nutrient that needs supplementation during pregnancy, what is the recommended dosage for iron during pregnancy? A) 27 mg/day B) 35 mg/day C) 45 mg/day D) 60 mg/day

Ans: A Feedback: It is recommended that pregnant women take an iron supplement of 27 mg of iron daily; women who are anemic may need 60 mg of iron daily until the anemia resolves.

The nurse is doing nutrition counseling for a 21-year-old woman in the clinic area and discussing the credibility of information reported in the media. What would be a red flag to a consumer when getting information from a media report? A) Failure to identify how much or little of a food should be eaten B) How often to eat the food C) Failure to identify a broader population than was actually studied D) Identifying the size of the effect

Ans: A Feedback: Many features or articles fail to identify how much or little of the food should be eaten, how often it should be eaten, or to whom the advice applies. This does not give the consumer enough information to appropriately judge what the study means to them personally.

Mercury occurs naturally in the environment, including waterways. Bacteria in the water convert mercury to methylmercury, which is absorbed by fish low on the food chain and becomes concentrated in larger, longer living predatory fish at the top of the food chain. What can mercury exposure during pregnancy cause? A) Brain and neurologic abnormalities in the fetus B) Stunted fetal growth C) Fetal malformations D) Abortion

Ans: A Feedback: Mercury poisoning in a fetus can result in learning delays in walking or talking to more severe problems such as cerebral palsy, seizures, and mental retardation.

Nutrient deficiencies in young children are generally not a health risk. However, young children who drink too much milk are at risk for what? A) Milk anemia B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypervitaminosis A D) Protein deficiency

Ans: A Feedback: Milk intake should not exceed 2 to 3 cups per day because, in greater amounts, it may displace the intake of iron-rich foods from the diet and promote milk anemia.

The nurse is working with a 23-year-old client to develop a menu plan for a 2000-calorie food plan. After presenting MyPlate options, the client decides on a menu for the day. Which of the following is the best option for this client? A) 1 cup steamed spinach, 3 oz poached salmon with dill, 1 small apple, 1 cup hot tea sweetened with 1 tsp sugar B) 2 slices white bread, 1 tbsp mayo, 2 slices bologna, 1 slice American cheese, 1 tsp mustard C) 1 cup yogurt with fruit, 1 cup spilt pea and ham soup, 1 cup coffee with creamer and sugar D) 2 cups spaghetti with meatball sauce, 2 cups salad with lettuce, carrots, celery, radishes, green peppers, green onions, and 3 tbsp ranch dressing

Ans: A Feedback: MyPlate guidelines encourage a variety of fruit and vegetables without added solid fats and sugars. Refined grains, whole-fat dairy products, and empty calories are not recommended. The meal option of spinach, salmon, apple, and tea best follows the guidelines in variety and portion sizes.

A client is having difficulty with nausea and vomiting. She has been eating small, frequent meals as suggested; however, it is not totally effective. What other suggestions should the nurse make? A) Eat frequent, small snacks of dry carbohydrates. B) Drink green tea with each meal. C) Keep hard candy available. D) Increase fiber intake.

Ans: A Feedback: Nutrition interventions to help with nausea and vomiting include eating easily digested carbohydrate foods before getting out of bed in the morning; eating frequent, small snacks of dry carbohydrates; eating small, frequent meals; avoiding liquids with meals; limiting high-fat foods; and eliminating individual intolerances and foods with strong odor.

A common complaint during pregnancy is heartburn. As the clinic nurse, what should be recommended to decrease the discomfort of heartburn? A) Eat small, frequent meals. B) Drink warm liquids with the meals. C) Eat easily digested carbohydrates. D) Drink liquids immediately before meals.

Ans: A Feedback: Nutritional interventions for heartburn include eating small, frequent meals; eliminating fluids immediately before and after meals; and avoiding coffee, high-fat foods, and spices.

Biotechnology is not without its controversy and its opponents. Which of the following is a major area of concern for the opponents? A) The introduction of a major allergen into a food that does not usually cause an allergic reaction B) The decreased crop yield of genetically modified crops C) The loss of food varieties D) The decreased shelf life of produce

Ans: A Feedback: Opponents to biotechnology cite concern over the risk of allergic reactions based on the idea that a protein from a food identified as a major allergen could be incorporated into a food that typically does not cause an allergic reaction, leaving susceptible consumers vulnerable to an allergic reaction.

The nurse is teaching a class on nutrition in the local nursing program. While discussing organically grown foods, it is mentioned that these foods are produced with what? A) Little or no synthetic fertilizers B) Antibiotic additives C) Manufactured chemicals D) Artificial hormones

Ans: A Feedback: Organic foods are grown without synthetic fertilizers and pesticides. Instead, natural products, such as manure, compost, and other organic wastes, are used.

Parental support for a healthier lifestyle is vital to children. Parents also recognize that setting a good example for their children is important. Why do some parents who are overweight feel they cannot set a good example in diet and nutrition for their children? A) They do not practice what they preach. B) They feel their children are not motivated. C) They feel their children eat fast food too often. D) They feel their children do not listen to them.

Ans: A Feedback: Some parents who are overweight may feel they cannot set a good example because they do not practice what they preach.

Infants who are formula fed do not need added dietary supplements. What do breastfed infants, ranging in age from birth to 1 year, need supplemented? A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin A C) Calcium D) Vitamin B12

Ans: A Feedback: The AAP recommends 400 IU/day of vitamin D beginning at discharge for breastfed and partially breastfed infants.

What, besides diet, do the American Institute for Cancer Research nutrition and lifestyle guidelines recommend to reduce the risk of cancer? A) Manage weight. B) Eat less than 6 g of salt per day. C) Balance the number of calories consumed with the number of calories used daily. D) Choose 100% juice when drinking fruit or vegetable juices.

Ans: A Feedback: The American Institute for Cancer Research recommends for individuals to be as lean as possible without becoming underweight.

The nurse is aware that the Dietary Guidelines for Americans are published every 5 years and are intended for whom? A) Individuals aged 2 years and older B) Children aged 2 to 12 years C) Infants and senior citizens D) Adults aged 18 years and older

Ans: A Feedback: The DGA are designed for Americans aged 2 years and older. The 2010 version is intended not just for healthy individuals but also for people at increased risk of chronic disease.

During pregnancy, most nutritional needs can be consumed in adequate amounts through the diet. What nutrient is the exception to this statement? A) Iron B) Calcium C) Sodium D) Vitamin D

Ans: A Feedback: The DRI for iron increases by 50% during pregnancy to support the increase in maternal blood volume and to provide iron for fetal liver storage.

During the nutrition class, the nurse asks one of the students to describe the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR). What should the student answer? A) EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement of half of healthy people in a lifestyle or gender group. B) EAR is the amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of 98% of all people. C) EAR is the amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of all healthy people in a specific population. D) EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is recommended to prevent chronic illness.

Ans: A Feedback: The EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement of half of healthy people in a lifestyle or gender group.

The school nurse is teaching nutrition to a group of kindergarten students. After presenting MyPlate to the students and discussing their food options, she is glad they understand when she hears which of the following comments? A) Half our plate should be fruits and vegetables. B) We should drink whole milk. C) We should eat twice the grains as protein. D) We should eat a sweet roll instead of candy.

Ans: A Feedback: The MyPlate graphic devotes ½ the plate to fruit and vegetables. Low-fat milk is a better choice as it reduces the amount of fat in the diet.

The nurse is helping the client develop a meal plan based on 2000-calorie MyPlate plan. Which of the following menus shows the client understands the plan? A) 1 cup plain yogurt with fresh strawberry slices, 1 hardboiled egg, 1 cup herbal tea, 1 slice 8-grain toast B) 2 cups Rice Krispies with 1 cup low-fat milk, 1 cup sliced strawberries with 1 tsp sugar, 1 slice whole wheat toast with 1 tsp butter and grape jelly, 1 cup coffee black C) 1 cup raspberry flavored yogurt with 1 tsp flax seeds, 2 sliced toasted sourdough bread with 1 tsp canola margarine, 1 cup coffee with creamer D) 2 cups oatmeal with 2 tbsp brown sugar, ½ cup raisins and 1 cup whole milk, 1 cup hot tea with 1 tsp honey

Ans: A Feedback: The breakfast consisting of plain yogurt with strawberries, egg, toast, and tea best follows the guidelines of MyPlate 2000-calorie diet. The other choices contain a variety of hidden fats, sugars, and refined grains.

The nurse has been emphasizing the importance of reading labels to know the content of foods the client is eating. The client recognizes which of the following as a "safe" fat? A) Sunflower oil B) Palm oil C) Partially hydrogenated oil D) Milk fat

Ans: A Feedback: The decreased consumption of saturated or solid fats is recommended to decrease the risk of chronic disease. Palm oil, partially hydrogenated oil, and milk fat are considered solid fats.

The triage nurse at the local emergency department is triaging a client who arrives complaining of vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, and mild fever. The client states that he attended a clambake about 36 hours ago. What should the nurse suspect as the causative agent? A) Norovirus B) Listeriosis C) Botulism D) Perfringens food poisoning

Ans: A Feedback: The norovirus is responsible for food poisoning. Symptoms include explosive and projectile vomiting, watery diarrhea, cramps, headaches, mild fever, and muscle aches. The onset of symptoms is 24 to 48 hours after exposure.

The parents of a 9-month-old infant ask how to prevent obesity in their child. What would be the best age-appropriate response to their question? A) Infants should be allowed to self-regulate the amount of food they eat. B) Infants should be fed 8 oz of formula per month of age. C) Infants should be fed according to the recommendations of the MyPlate food plan. D) Infants should be fed according to what your family tells you.

Ans: A Feedback: To avoid overfeeding, infants and children should be allowed to self-regulate the amount of food consumed.

The nurse obtains a height and weight at each well-child visit to determine the risk for obesity. All young clients who are not in a healthy weight range should be evaluated for which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Medical risks B) Behavior risks C) Family dynamics D) Child neglect

Ans: A, B Feedback: All children and adolescents who are not in the healthy weight range should undergo further assessment of medical risks, behavior risks, and attitudes.

The clinic nurse is doing client teaching regarding dietary supplements with a high school athlete. The client teaching will include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Read the dietary supplement label. B) Do not give supplements to children younger than 6 years of age. C) Discuss supplement use with your doctor. D) Obtain a prescription from your doctor for the supplement. E) Be sure and take the supplement with any prescribed medication.

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Consumers should always read the label to know what they are taking. They should also discuss this with their health-care provider to ensure there are no contraindications with the current therapy. It is recommended that pregnant, lactating women, and children under 6 years not take supplements.

The nurse is teaching a group how to read the label of supplements. The nurse explains that the label should include some specific facts now required by law. Which of the following are some of those facts? Select all that apply. A) Purity of product B) Quality of product C) Quantity of product D) Expected action of product E) Use of product

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: In June 2007, the FDA announced a final rule establishing current good manufacturing practice requirements for dietary supplements. Identity, purity, quality, and composition of dietary supplements are required to be accurately reflected on the label.

A day care center has contacted the clinic requesting assistance in providing better choices for snacks for their clients. Which of the following are the best choices for these preschool children? Select all that apply. A) Fresh apple slices B) Strawberries C) Oranges D) Saltine crackers E) Whole-grain cookies

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Providing fresh fruit versus crackers and cookies is better option. Crackers and cookies can contain solid fats and extra sugar that are not needed by the children. The fresh fruit will also provide more essential nutrients.

The client is requesting suggestions to help increase her folate intake. Which of the following are good sources for folate/folic acid? Select all that apply. A) Spinach B) Breakfast cereals C) Lentils D) Salmon E) Lean beef

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Sources of folic acid include 100% fortified ready-to-eat breakfast cereals; white breads, rolls, pasta, and crackers (enriched flour is required to be fortified with folic acid); leafy green vegetables, such as spinach; citrus fruits; and dried peas and beans, such as lentils, soybeans, and pinto beans.

A young mother is concerned her 2-year-old daughter is gaining too much weight. Which of the following should the nurse recommend the mother give daily when following a 1000 cal/day diet? Select all that apply. A) 1 cup vegetables B) 2 cups dairy C) 2 oz protein D) 4 oz grain E) 1/2 cup fruit F) 3 cups dairy

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: The recommended intake of a 1000 cal/day diet is 3 oz grains, 1 cup vegetables, 1 cup fruit, 2 cups dairy, and 2 oz protein.

Which pregnant client is at risk for poor nutritional status? Select all that apply. A) Teens and women older than 35 years of age B) Prepartum BMI of less than 18.5 or greater than 25 C) Multiparity D) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels E) Exercise of 30 minutes per day

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: There are various factors associated with high-risk pregnancy. They include teens (15 and younger) and women 35 and older; a prepregnancy BMI of less than 18.5 or greater than 25; and poor obstetric history, high parity, and multiparity.

As children grow, they generally consume more calories, decide if they want to eat, and how much they want to eat. What is the rule-of-thumb guideline to determine an age-appropriate serving size for a 3-year-old? A) 3 teaspoons B) 2 tablespoons C) 3 tablespoons D) Equal to that of an adult

Ans: C Feedback: A rule-of-thumb guideline to determine age-appropriate serving sizes is to provide 1 tablespoon of food per year of age.

A nurse is teaching a class on nutrition and how to determine when a media report is credible by discussing potential terms that fraudulent products might use. What are some of those fraudulent terms? Select all that apply. A) New B) Ancient formula C) Breakthrough D) Time tested E) Research proven

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: There are various red flags or "buzz words" that might signal a health or nutrient claim is fraudulent. They can include breakthrough, easy, enzymatic process, discovered in Europe, new, mysterious, quick, secret, absolutely safe, miraculous cure, ancient formula, and all natural.

The school nurse is discussing nutrition with a group of preteen students. After discussing the various options in the food groups, they discuss the way solid fats and added sugars can be hidden in food and the importance of reading labels. Which of the following are examples of food with hidden solid fats and/or sugar? A) Sweet rolls B) Banana chips C) Salt D) Microwave popcorn E) Plain beef jerky

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Solid fats and sugar are in many foods. The diligent consumer who reads labels and recognizes the various names that are used will be more aware and can make conscious decisions. Banana chips are often coated with sugar and many brands of salt, including major name brands, now have dextrose added to it. Sweet rolls and microwave popcorn have added solid fats.

The nurse is meeting with several pregnant clients to discuss breastfeeding. There are several benefits to breastfeeding for both the mother and the infant. Which of the following statements are true about these benefits that the nurse should point out to the women? Select all that apply. A) Breastfeeding may decrease the risk of food allergies in the infant. B) Breastfeeding may be protective against breast cancer in the mother. C) Breastfeeding provides reliable contraception. D) Breastfeeding can mobilize fat stores to help women lose weight, particularly in the lower body. E) Breastfeeding decreases bone density.

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Breastfeeding offers many benefits to the mother and child. Decreasing food allergies is one for the child, and protection against breast cancer and mobilizing stored fat are beneficial for the mother. Breastfeeding does not provide reliable contraception, and it increases bone density in the mother.

Sometimes children do not want to eat when the parents want them to. What strategies could be used to get a child to eat? Select all that apply. A) Eating with the child B) Limiting snacks C) Offering one food group at a time D) Spacing meal time further apart E) Giving them only what they like

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Some strategies that can be used to help encourage healthy eating include eating with the child, limiting snacks, and spacing meal times further apart.

The nurse is developing a pamphlet for the local public health department. The topic of the pamphlet is preventing foodborne illnesses. What information should be included in the pamphlet about keeping foods safe? Select all that apply. A) Wash your hands and surfaces often. B) Keep foods separated. C) Keep foods warm. D) Cook all foods to the correct temperature. E) Always put food in plastic containers.

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: To prevent foodborne illnesses, handling food and the environment in which it is kept and prepared is very important. Always clean your hands and environment, keep foods separated to prevent cross-contamination, chill food promptly, and cook food to the proper temperature to ensure any pathogens are destroyed.

Most children do not follow the "ideal" of eating breakfast, dinner, and a snack at home along with a healthy brown-bag lunch at school. How do many children eat today? Select all that apply. A) Obtain a significant portion of their calories from sweetened beverages B) Eat less protein than meets their needs C) Get one third of their calories from snacks D) Eat at least two heart-healthy meals per day E) Skip breakfast

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: An estimated 8% to 15% skip breakfast. They also eat large portion sizes, snacking, away-from-home meals, and sugar-sweetened beverages are on the menu.

The nurse has given the nutrition class an assignment to list and designate the most common foodborne illnesses and their symptoms. What symptoms would you expect to see designated by the students? Select all that apply. A) Diarrhea B) Sore throat C) Nausea D) Muscle aches E) Fever

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: The most common symptoms of foodborne illness are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain, and headache. More serious symptoms may include bloody diarrhea, stiff neck with severe headache and fever, and excessive vomiting and diarrhea with dehydration.

The client is learning to read the Nutrition Facts label when shopping for food. Information that appears on the Nutrition Facts label is specific for what? A) Size eaten C) A 1800-calorie diet B) Size listed D) A 2500-calorie diet

Ans: B Feedback: All information that appears on the Nutrition Facts label is specific for the portion size listed.

Most pregnant women are at low risk for nutritional deficiencies because they can meet their daily requirements through diet alone. Folic acid is an exception to this statement and requires what? A) The ingestion of enhanced foods B) The ingestion of fortified foods C) The ingestion of biotech foods D) The ingestion of reinforced foods

Ans: B Feedback: All women of childbearing age who are capable of becoming pregnant are urged to consume 400 μg of synthetic folic acid every day from fortified food or supplements.

Most people eat less-than-healthful foods from time to time. What is one of the key strategies to fitting less-than-healthful foods into a healthier lifestyle? A) Eating them at certain times of the day B) Eating them by conscious decision C) Eating them frequently D) Eating them in large amounts

Ans: B Feedback: An allowance for empty calories allows consumers to incorporate small amounts of empty calories into their eating plans and still meet nutrient needs without exceeding total calorie constraints.

The infant is 6 months old. What feeding skills would be expected for the infant to have developed? A) Swallows liquid but pushes most solid out B) Begins to eat mashed foods C) Experiments with spoon but prefers to eat with hands D) Begins self-spoon feeding

Ans: B Feedback: At 6 months of age, the infant should be drinking small amounts from a cup when held by another person, and they should begin to eat mashed food from a spoon easily.

Gestational diabetes occurs around the 24th week of gestation. When should every woman be screened for gestational diabetes? A) Between 16 and 20 weeks' gestation B) Between 20 and 24 weeks' gestation C) Between 24 and 28 weeks' gestation D) Between 28 and 32 weeks' gestation

Ans: C Feedback: All women should be screened for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation

The nurse is teaching a client about diet changes due to his recent cholecystectomy with emphasis on low-fat choices. Which of the following is an example of a good menu for the client? A) ½ cup sweet potatoes with marshmallows, 1 cup steamed broccoli, 1 cup cornbread dressing, 4 oz ham B) 1 cup sweet potatoes, 1 cup steamed collard greens, 3 oz wild rice, 3 oz ham C) 1 hamburger bun with sesame seeds, 4 oz hamburger patty fried, 1 slice each American cheese, onion, tomato, and lettuce, 1 tbsp ketchup and mayo D) 5 buffalo sauce-coated chicken wings, 1 cup mashed potatoes with 1 tsp butter and sour cream, 2 cups green salad with lettuce, carrots, tomatoes, onions, radishes, bell peppers, and 2 tbsp oil and vinegar dressing

Ans: B Feedback: Following MyPlate suggestions, the meal choice of sweet potatoes, collard greens, wild rice, and ham best fit the recommendations in variety and portion size. The other choices contain added fat, which could lead to gastric upset in this postcholecystectomy client.

While discussing the Nutrition Facts label with a community diet and nutrition class, the nurse talks about the percent daily value. What is the Percent Daily Value (%DV) listed on the Nutrition Facts label based on? A) Percentage of carbohydrate, protein, and fat B) 2000-calorie diet C) 150-pound individual D) Serving size of 1 cup

Ans: B Feedback: For nutrients whose amounts are based on a percentage of total calories, the %DV is calculated on a 2000-calorie diet.

While discussing functional foods with a group of nursing students, the instructor is asked to describe what functional foods are. Which of the following is the best response? A) Functional foods are those that are nutritionally complete. B) Functional foods are those that have components that appear to enhance health. C) Functional foods are those that treat specific health concerns. D) Functional foods are those that have been altered to produce medicinal benefits.

Ans: B Feedback: Functional food is a marketing term, not legal term. It implies the foods or food components that provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition.

Nausea and vomiting are common complaints during pregnancy. What nutritional action can be used to lessen nausea and vomiting? A) Drinking liquids with meals B) Limiting fat intake C) Increasing fluid intake D) Limiting carbohydrate intake

Ans: B Feedback: High-fat foods will delay gastric emptying. By limiting their intake, it should lessen the nausea and vomiting experienced during pregnancy.

The client is considering taking dietary supplements. What would be the best advice the nurse could give this client? A) Be sure to take supplements that complicate each other. B) Check the FDA website for advisories on supplements to avoid. C) Be sure to read the manufacturer's information on the supplement as it is the most factual available. D) Check any studies cited by the different manufacturers for results that tell you how to use the supplement.

Ans: B Feedback: Individuals who choose to use supplements should check with the FDA website first for consumer advisories on supplements to avoid.

The nurse is discussing nutrition labels with a high school health class. What would be an important fact to discuss about the ingredient list? A) Ingredients are listed in descending order by amount. B) Ingredients are listed in descending order by weight. C) Ingredients are listed alphabetically. D) Ingredients are listed by percentage of calories.

Ans: B Feedback: Ingredients are listed in descending order by weight. The further down the list an item appears, the less of that ingredient is in the product.

The client is a 6-month-old infant boy. What is the recommendation for the first solid food that should be introduced into his diet? A) Infant vegetables B) Infant rice cereal C) Strained infant fruits D) Non-citrus fruit juices

Ans: B Feedback: Iron-fortified infant cereal is traditionally the first solid food introduced.

The client is 24 weeks pregnant. How much have her daily calorie needs increased over her first trimester needs? A) 200 calories B) 300 calories C) 400 calories D) 500 calories

Ans: B Feedback: It is recommended that women increase their daily calorie intake by approximately 340 calories each day during the second trimester.

When are infants developmentally ready for the introduction of solid foods? A) 2 to 3 months of age B) 4 to 6 months of age C) 6 to 9 months of age D) 9 to 12 months of age

Ans: B Feedback: Most infants exhibit readiness to spoon-feed around 4 to 6 months of age.

When safely introducing new foods into an infant's diet, the parents should introduce one food at a time in a simple form. What period of time should they wait between introducing new foods so that allergic reactions can be easily identified? A) 2 to 3 days B) 5 to 7 days C) 7 to 14 days D) 3 weeks

Ans: B Feedback: New foods should be introduced in plain and simple form one at a time for a period of 5 to 7 days to identify allergic reactions.

Food allergies in children can be both frightening and dangerous. Which food is most likely to cause an allergy in children? A) Rice B) Soy C) Corn oil D) Tomatoes

Ans: B Feedback: Ninety percent of food allergies are caused by milk, soy, eggs, peanuts, nuts (cashews, almonds), wheat, fish, and shellfish. Most people who have a food allergy are allergic to only one food.

Infants can be either breastfed or formula fed. What would an infant who is formula fed be at risk for? A) Underfeeding B) Overfeeding C) Dehydration D) Iron overload

Ans: B Feedback: Overfeeding is one of the biggest hazards of formula feeding.

The client is a healthy 19-year-old college student who is interested in maintaining a healthy weight by following a 2000-calorie diet. How many servings of vegetables should he eat on a daily basis? A) 2 cups B) 2½ cups C) 3 cups D) 3½ cups

Ans: B Feedback: The 2000-calorie diet MyPlate diet guidelines recommends that individuals age 6 years and older should eat 2½ cups of a variety of vegetables daily.

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a heart-healthy diet. What ages are these recommendations for? A) 1 year to adult B) 2 years to adult C) 5 years to adult D) 10 years to adult

Ans: B Feedback: The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are intended for individuals who are age 2 years and older.

When would an eating plan provide optimal amounts of all nutrients? A) When the food is fried B) When there are variety and large portion sizes C) When the food has been properly stored and cooked D) When all frozen foods are thawed before cooking

Ans: C Feedback: An eating plan may not provide optimal amounts of all nutrients if the food has been improperly stored or overly processed.

Part of the Dietary Reference Intakes is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). What is it? A) The recommended level of intake for that nutrient B) The highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects C) The nutrient intake amount determined to be most beneficial for preventing chronic disease D) The estimated amount of nutrient that will meet the needs of 90% of a given population

Ans: B Feedback: The UL is the highest level of average daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.

Physiologically and developmentally, an infant will indicate when it is ready and able to have solid foods added to his or her diet. What indication in an infant would tell you that he or she is ready to progress to solid foods? A) When the infant can sit with support B) The eruption of teeth C) The ability to self-feed D) When the infant can turn his or her head

Ans: B Feedback: The eruption of teeth indicates readiness to progress from strained to mashed to chopped fine to regular consistency foods.

Foodborne illnesses affect thousands of people every year. What is the major cause of foodborne illnesses? A) Keeping foods at room temperature B) Unsanitary food handling C) Undercooking D) Obtaining food from outdoor food vendors

Ans: B Feedback: The major cause of foodborne illnesses is unsanitary food handling.

What are the nutritional recommendations for calcium during a normal pregnancy? A) 800 mg/day B) 1000 mg/day C) 1200 mg/day D) 1400 mg/day

Ans: B Feedback: The recommended dosage of calcium is 1000 mg/day throughout the pregnancy.

For a woman who is obese at conception, the recommended total weight gain should be a minimum of what? A) 13 pounds B) 11 pounds C) 15 pounds D) 17 pounds

Ans: B Feedback: The recommended weight gain for women who are obese at the time of conception is 11 to 20 pounds.

The nurse is working with a group of clients who are learning how to read nutritional labels on their favorite foods. The clients are learning the definitions of various terms that are used. The clients show they understand when one makes which of the following comments? A) "Very low means there is not much fat in this product." B) "Reduced means the product has at least a 25% reduction in a nutrient when compared to a regular product." C) "Lean means the meat has less than 6 g of saturated fat." D) "Good source means this product will provide 25% of the daily value for a nutrient."

Ans: B Feedback: There are various terms that have been legally defined so they are reliable indications of the content of the product. "Reduced or less" means the product has at least a 25% reduction. "Very low" refers to only sodium. "Lean" refers to meat or poultry products with less than 10 g fat or less than 4 g saturated fat. "Good source" means the product provides 10% to 19% of the daily value for a nutrient.

Pica is a craving for nonfood items such as laundry starch, clay, or ice. What problem is associated with pica? A) Excessive weight gain B) Iron deficiency C) Lead contamination D) Diarrhea

Ans: B Feedback: There is no evidence that micronutrient deficiencies cause a physiologic craving; however, the eating of soil and clay may displace the intake of iron-rich foods from the diet and may interfere with iron absorption.

The nurse is preparing the client to make the necessary dietary changes from what she has been doing during her pregnancy to what she should do during lactation. What should breastfeeding mothers be advised? A) Thirst is not a reliable indicator of need. B) Even if a mother has adequate fat stores, calorie intake should be increased. C) The intake does not need to be restricted because the caffeine does not enter breast milk. D) If she does not consume enough calcium, her milk will be calcium deficient.

Ans: B Feedback: Women use approximately 500 calories above their normal total daily calorie needs to produce breast milk. An extra 330 cal/day are recommended for the first 6 months and an extra 400 cal/day for the second 6 months. Thirst can be a reliable indicator of need; caffeine can enter the breast milk; and if she does not consume enough calcium, her body will pull it from other areas to ensure the milk has enough.

The client is learning to make healthy choices in the food he eats by using MyPlate. Approximately what portion of the plate should be protein? A) 15% B) 25% C) 35% D) 45%

Ans: B Feedback: MyPlate is the new graphic that was developed to replace MyPyramid. It features a place setting with half of the dinner plate devoted to fruits and vegetables, ¼ to protein, and ¼ to grain, with dairy accompanying the plate.

The nurse has been asked to speak on "Nutrition in the Foods We Eat" at a local town meeting. During the presentation, functional foods are explained. Which foods would be described as natural functional foods? Select all that apply. A) Raspberry tea B) Tomatoes C) Yogurt D) Garlic E) Strawberry jelly

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Functional foods are foods or food components that provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition. This is a marketing term. Tomatoes contain lycopene, yogurt contains probiotics, and garlic contains sulfur compounds.

The nurse asks a member of the nutrition class to state the basic messages of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. What would they include in their answer? Select all that apply. A) Always read the food label. B) Manage weight by calorie balancing. C) Prevent obesity with physical activity. D) Reduce intake of saturated fats, sugars, and alcohol. E) Do not worry about empty calories.

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: The Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2010 have several key recommendations. Several of them include balancing calories to manage weight; reducing obesity through physical activity; and reducing consumption of sodium, empty calories, sugars, saturated fatty acids, and trans fat. Individuals should be aware of empty calories and make conscious decisions when eating them.

A mother is concerned for her 4-year-old daughter putting on too much weight. Which of the following are suggestions the nurse can make to help the mother? Select all that apply. A) Switch the child to a 1000-calorie diet. B) Increase her activity level. C) Switch to sugar-free soda. D) Keep healthy snacks on hand. E) Read labels to reduce sugar intake.

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: The Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2010 recommend decreasing total caloric intake to manage body weight; however, a 1000-calorie diet is not adequate for a 4-year-old who is rapidly growing. A 1200-calorie or 1400-calorie diet would be more appropriate. It is also recommend that physical activity be increased. Keeping healthy snacks on hand instead of junk food will also help encourage proper eating habits. Steps should also be taken to limit empty calories.

The client is now 20 weeks' gestation. At conception her weight was considered "normal." Approximately how much weight should she have gained by this time? A) 6 pounds B) 9 pounds C) 12 pounds D) 15 pounds

Ans: C Feedback: Assuming a 1.1- to 4.4-pound weight gain occurred in the first trimester, normal-weight females are urged to gain approximately 1 pound each week during the second and third trimester. Each trimester is approximately 13 weeks; therefore, 4.4 pounds + 7 pounds = 11.4 pounds.

Whole milk is added to the diet of infants, just like other foods are added to their diet. By what age does whole milk become a major source of nutrients for the child? A) 6 months B) 9 months C) 12 months D) 2 years

Ans: C Feedback: At age 1 year, whole milk becomes a major source of nutrients, including fat.

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a slowly progressive, degenerative, fatal disease affecting the central nervous system of adult cattle. It can be transmitted to humans when the infected flesh of cattle is ingested. What is BSE thought to be caused by? A) Protozoa B) Prisms C) Prions D) Priori

Ans: C Feedback: BSE is believed to be caused by prions, an infectious form of a type of protein.

A 32-year-old client at the clinic asks the nurse why breastfeeding is so highly recommended. What benefit would be named that would affect this client later in life? A) Breastfeeding is associated with a decreased bone density later in life. B) Breastfeeding is associated with an increased risk for hip fracture later in life. C) Breastfeeding is associated with reducing the risk of postpartum depression. D) Breastfeeding is associated with decreased iron stores later in life.

Ans: C Feedback: Breastfeeding offers benefits to the mother. These include conserving iron stores by prolonging amenorrhea, improving bone density and reducing the risk of hip fracture, and reducing the risk of postpartum depression.

The nurse is asked to explain the concept of variety within a major food group. Which would be the best example to give to illustrate the concept of variety within a major food group? A) Orange juice, fresh grapefruit, lemonade B) Hamburger roll, waffle, saltine crackers C) Chicken, black beans, walnuts D) Margarine, butter, mayonnaise

Ans: C Feedback: Chicken, black beans, and walnuts are all found in the protein group. This example shows the greatest variety of choices. Following a variety helps ensure more essential nutrients are consumed.

The client is a 32-year-old female whose prepregnancy weight is considered "normal." She is carrying a single fetus. What is the recommended amount of total weight gain? A) 15 to 20 pounds B) 20 to 25 pounds C) 25 to 35 pounds D) 35 to 40 pounds

Ans: C Feedback: Current recommendation is 25 to 35 pounds gain in women of normal weight.

The nurse is evaluating the client's nutritional status at her prenatal visit. The client is asking if she should take a supplement. What is the basis for recommending a supplement during pregnancy? A) A decrease in eyesight B) The stress of pregnancy C) Individual circumstances D) Increased nutrient needs during pregnancy

Ans: C Feedback: Each individual should receive a complete assessment to determine the risk and/or presence of any conditions that might indicate a concern. The need for supplements will depend on the individual circumstances.

The nurse is discussing with a nutrition class the health risks to infants of women who gain excessive weight during pregnancy. What risks should the nurse discuss with the class? A) High Apgar score B) Small for gestational age C) Seizures D) Hyperglycemia

Ans: C Feedback: Excessive maternal weight gain increases the risk of hypoglycemia, large for gestational size, a low Apgar score, seizures, or polycythemia in the infant.

School-aged children do not generally make food choices that meet the recommendations of all the food groups. This means that some foods are eaten in inadequate amounts. Which foods are these? A) Meat, vegetables, and fats B) Meat and grains C) Fruits, grains, and dairy D) Vegetables and grains

Ans: C Feedback: Few adolescents consume recommended amounts of fruits, vegetables, dairy foods, and whole grains.

During a discussion on diet and nutrition at a local junior league meeting, the nurse is asked for tips on retaining the nutrient value of foods. Which of the following would be the best response? A) Cut produce into small pieces. B) Keep produce at room temperature. C) Do not thaw frozen vegetables before cooking. D) Peel and pare vegetables before cooking.

Ans: C Feedback: Food should be prepared as close to serving time as possible. Thawing food before cooking can decrease its nutritional content.

A client is asking the nurse to explain the Healthy People 2020. What should the nurse say are the overall goals of Healthy People 2020? A) Improve community health B) Increase health disparities among Americans C) Improve quality and years of healthy life D) Increase quantity of health disparities among Americans

Ans: C Feedback: Healthy People 2020 is a program that focuses on improving the health of all Americans and eliminating health disparities.

Numerous health agencies in the United States have issued dietary recommendations so that Americans can choose diets aimed at what? A) Reducing their weight B) Increasing their activity levels C) Reducing their risk of chronic disease D) Reducing the risk of acute heart disease

Ans: C Feedback: Healthy eating and regular exercise are essential for reducing the risk of chronic disease. Many health agencies have published guidelines or recommendations to meet these goals.

One of the major messages conveyed by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans includes the consumption of alcohol. What is the message about alcohol? A) Drink alcohol to ward off heart disease. B) If you drink alcohol, include it in your empty calories. C) If you drink alcohol, drink in moderation. D) Drink alcohol to lessen your risk of colon cancer.

Ans: C Feedback: If alcohol is consumed, it should be consumed in moderation—up to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men—and only by adults of legal drinking age.

The nutrition class is learning about food supplements. The nurse notes that several individuals in the class need more instruction on how food supplements are regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) when which of the following is heard? A) The FDA regulates dietary supplements as herbs. B) The FDA regulates dietary supplements as drugs. C) The FDA regulates dietary supplements as foods. D) The FDA regulates dietary supplements as over-the-counter medications.

Ans: C Feedback: In the United States, dietary supplements are regulated by the FDA as foods.

The nurse is conducting client teaching for a new breastfeeding mother before she leaves the hospital. The client asks about how much fluid she should drink each day. Which of the following is the best answer? A) Drink at least 10 glasses of fluid every 24 hours. B) Drink a glass of fluid at every meal. C) Drink a glass of fluid every time the baby nurses and at every meal. D) Drink a glass of fluid every two hours around the clock.

Ans: C Feedback: It is suggested that breastfeeding mothers drink a glass of fluid every time the baby nurses and with all meals.

At what age does the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommend that juices be introduced into the diets of infants? A) Not before 1 month of age B) Not before 3 months of age C) Not before 6 months of age D) Not before 9 months of age

Ans: C Feedback: The AAP recommends 100% fruit juice be introduced after 6 months of age.

The client is interested in breastfeeding her infant but has to return to work once her maternity leave is over. How long does the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommend exclusive breastfeeding for an infant? A) The first 3 months of age B) The first 4 months of age C) The first 6 months of age D) The first 12 months of age

Ans: C Feedback: The AAP recommends infants be exclusively breastfed for the first 6 months of life and then continued with complementary foods until 1 year of age

The client is adhering to the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs) in his diet. He knows that adhering to the AMDRs has been associated with which of the following? A) A reduced risk of type 1 diabetes mellitus B) Weight loss C) A modest decrease in chronic disease risk D) A reduced rate of breast cancer

Ans: C Feedback: The AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient, expressed as a percentage of total calories consumed. These ranges are associated with reduced risk of chronic disease and are such that an adequate intake of all nutrients can be obtained.

The nurse is doing client teaching for a new mother who is formula feeding her infant. The client asks about the nutritional value of formula. What would be your best response? A) Formulas made in the United States have lower nutritional values than are contained in breast milk. B) Formulas made in the United States need to be supplemented with iron. C) Formulas made in the United States have minimum nutrient requirements that are more than the nutrient amount provided in breast milk. D) Formulas made in the United States have the same nutrient value as breast milk.

Ans: C Feedback: The Infant Formula Act regulates the levels of nutrients in formula, specifying both minimum and maximum amounts of each essential nutrient. The minimum recommended amount is more than the amount provided in breast milk.

Bariatric clinics help clients move toward a healthier lifestyle. Which of the following should the nurse encourage each client to do? A) Follow the preplanned daily menus. B) Read the general healthy eating message. C) Obtain nutrients from food, not supplements. D) Change several lifestyle behaviors at the same time.

Ans: C Feedback: The MyPlate graphic and Dietary Guidelines are based on the philosophy that the nutrient needs, to the greatest extent possible, should be met through food and not supplements.

A nurse is lecturing a class of nursing students about nutrition in children. The students are given an assignment to plan a heart-healthy diet for an 8 year old. Which of the following would be the best breakfast? A) 2 fried eggs, 2 pieces of white toast with 3 teaspoons of butter, 2 pieces of bacon, and 8 oz of orange juice B) 2 pieces of French toast, 1/4 cup of maple syrup, and 6 oz of grape juice C) 1 cup of oatmeal, 8 oz of 2% milk, and 1 piece of wheat toast with 1 teaspoon of butter D) 1 package of toaster pastries and 1 glass of apple juice

Ans: C Feedback: The breakfast consisting of oatmeal, milk, toast, and butter presents the best option for a heart-healthy meal. The other options contain extra fats and sugars that should be avoided.

A client comes into the clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. In reviewing the chart, the nurse notices that the client had been in the clinic approximately 3 weeks ago. At that time, the client was treated for a foodborne illness. Which of the following foodborne illnesses may result in arthritic symptoms 3 to 4 weeks after the onset of the acute illness? A) Shigellosis B) Listeriosis C) Salmonellosis D) Botulism

Ans: C Feedback: The initial symptoms of Salmonella poisoning may occur within 6 to 12 hours; however, arthritic symptoms may occur 3 to 4 weeks later. These symptoms may include arthritic-like symptoms.

When teaching the nutrition class, the nurse explains the old Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and the new Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs). What would the nurse tell the class is the reason for changing from the RDAs to the DRIs? A) The DRIs are expanded versions of the RDAs associated with dietary excesses. B) The DRIs are updated versions of the RDAs associated with dietary excesses. C) The DRIs have an expanded focus of reducing chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses. D) The DRIs have a more limited focus of reducing chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses.

Ans: C Feedback: The old RDAs have been replaced with a new set of standards, the DRIs, which incorporate an expanded focus of reducing the risk of chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses.

The Healthy People 2020 is a program focused on improving the health of all Americans. Which of the following is one of the goals of Healthy People 2020? A) Reduce caloric needs. B) Remove saturated fats from the food supply. C) Eat a variety of nutrient dense foods. D) Encourage decreased consumption of all dairy products.

Ans: C Feedback: The overall objectives of Healthy People 2020 is to encourage eating a variety of nutrient-dense foods in all food groups; limit the intake of saturate fat, trans fat, cholesterol, added sugars, sodium, and alcohol; and balance calorie intake with calorie needs. The guidelines recommend changing to low-fat or fat-free dairy products. They do not advocate eliminating saturated fats.

While learning about the Nutrition Facts label, the client sees the term "very low" on a food label. What does this mean? A) The product contains virtually none of the specified nutrient. B) The product has one-third fewer calories than a comparable product. C) It refers to sodium only. D) It refers to meat and poultry products with less than 10 g of fat.

Ans: C Feedback: The term "very low" refers only to sodium. The product cannot have more than 35 mg of sodium per serving if this is included on the label.

Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disease that predominantly plagues the elderly. What can weight loss do for older people with OA? A) It has no effect on arthritis symptoms. B) It aggravates arthritis symptoms. C) It relieves symptoms in the weight-bearing joints. D) It relieves symptoms throughout the body.

C

The client has a 6-month-old infant. It is part of the infant's bedtime routine to get a bottle of warm milk when he goes down for the night. What is this infant at risk for? A) Consuming too many calories B) Developing diabetes later in life C) Nursing bottle caries D) Gastric reflux

Ans: C Feedback: To avoid nursing bottle caries, infants and children should not be put to bed with a bottle of formula, milk, juice, or other sweetened liquid.

The nurse is presenting a workshop on preventing foodborne illness. Points to cover include proper handwashing, cooking at the proper temperature, and proper storage. Which of the following should also be covered? A) Proper vaccinations for food service personnel B) Quickly freezing meat after purchasing C) Prevent cross-contamination between raw and cooked foods D) Avoiding raw foods

Ans: C Feedback: To keep food safe from bacteria, the Fight BAC! campaign recommends proper cleaning, separating raw and cooked foods to prevent cross-contamination, cooking foods to proper temperature, and chilling foods by refrigerating promptly.

The nurse is discussing weight gain with a group of pregnant women at the clinic. One woman is very thin, and her prepregnancy weight falls below the normal weight range for her height. What is her recommended weight gain during her pregnancy? A) 40 to 50 pounds B) 30 to 50 pounds C) 28 to 40 pounds D) 20 to 30 pounds

Ans: C Feedback: Women with a BMI less than 18.5 are recommended to gain 28 to 40 pounds during their pregnancy.

The client is learning to make healthy choices in the food she serves her family. Based on a 1800 calorie diet, how many servings of dairy products should she plan for her two teenagers, her husband, and herself on a daily basis? A) 2 cups B) 2½ cups C) 3 cups D) 3½ cups

Ans: C Feedback: Based on MyPlate guidelines, individuals 9 years old and older should consume 3 cups of dairy products daily when following a 1800 calorie diet plan.

The American Cancer Society (ACS) and American Institute of Cancer Research (AICR) have both made recommendations for eating properly to prevent cancer. Which of the following are true for both guidelines? Select all that apply. A) Do not use supplements to protect against cancer. B) Choose whole grains instead of refined grains. C) Eat a variety of food with emphasis on plant sources. D) Limit the intake of red meats.

Ans: C, D Feedback: Both ACS and AICR recommend to eat a variety of plant source foods and limit the intake of red meats. Only the AICR recommends not using supplements and only the ACS recommends whole-grain consumption.

The nurse is providing client education for a client going home on a cardiac diet. The client voices concern about the nutritional value of the foods he is supposed to eat. To help retain the nutritional value of vegetables, what would the nurse teach the client? A) Thaw frozen vegetables before cooking. B) Deep-fry, steam, microwave, or bake vegetables. C) Cook to the mush stage of doneness. D) Cook only as many vegetables as are needed for one meal.

Ans: D Feedback: Because reheating food can cause considerable loss of vitamins, individuals should only cook as many vegetables as are needed for one meal.

The regulation of dietary supplements falls to the FDA. Because dietary supplements are regulated as food, there is a vast difference between the regulation of supplements and the regulation of drugs. What is one major difference? A) There is scientific proof of an optimum dosage. B) There is scientific proof of the efficacy of the product. C) Dosage is standardized among manufacturers. D) There is no premarket testing to determine maximum safe dosage.

Ans: D Feedback: Dietary supplement manufacturers do not have to prove their product is safe. They submit information to the FDA that supports their conclusion that reasonable evidence exists that the product is safe.

One vitamin has been identified as helping to prevent neural tube defects when consumed in adequate amounts before conception through the early weeks of pregnancy. Which vitamin is it? A) Vitamin B6 B) Riboflavin C) Niacin D) Folic acid

Ans: D Feedback: Folic acid is a necessary nutrient in the development phase of the neural tubes. If the mother is deficient, the developing fetus may suffer a birth defect of the neural tubes.

During lactation, many of the nutrient values go either up or down. Compared with those of pregnancy, what are the Recommended Dietary Allowances during lactation? A) Lower for vitamin D B) Lower for protein C) Higher for calcium D) Lower for iron

Ans: D Feedback: In a healthy woman, the recommendation for iron decreases during lactation (9 mg) from pregnancy (27 mg). There is no change in the recommendation for vitamin D, protein, and calcium.

The client is concerned that her milk may not be providing adequate nutrition for her infant. The nurse recognizes that an inadequate maternal diet generally decreases what in the breast milk of a lactating mother? A) Protein B) Fat C) Calcium D) Vitamins

Ans: D Feedback: In general, an inadequate maternal diet decreases the quantity of milk produced, not the quality. The exceptions are thiamin, riboflavin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, vitamin A, and iodine. Prolonged inadequate maternal intake reduces their amount in breast milk.

Calcium deficiency is a nutrition risk for adolescents. What is a contributing factor to the risk for calcium deficiency in adolescents? A) An increased intake of fast foods B) Iron deficiency C) The adolescent growth spurt D) The substitution of soft drinks for milk

Ans: D Feedback: Milk intake has decreased while the intake of soda and fruit juices has increased. Milk is a primary source of calcium.

One of the students in the nutrition class is 8 months pregnant and asks the nurse to give her a recommendation to decrease her pregnancy-related constipation. What would be the best response? A) Drink prune juice with every meal. B) Eat vitamin-enriched white bread three times a day. C) Eat iron-fortified cereal. D) Try drinking hot water with lemon juice upon waking.

Ans: D Feedback: Nutritional interventions to try for improving constipation include increase drinking at least 64 oz of liquid daily, increase fiber intake, and drinking hot water with lemon or prune juice first thing in the morning.

A student in a nutrition class is giving a report on "Adolescent Obesity." One of the topics in the report is health risks increased by obesity. What health risk would you expect to be included in the report? A) Hypercalcemia B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus C) Hypercholesterolemia D) Hyperlipidemia

Ans: D Feedback: Obese children and adolescents are developing complications of excess weight seen in adults, such as prediabetes, diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.

The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling at the clinic. A client who is at risk for prostate cancer asks what he can do to reduce his risk. Which of the following is an appropriate suggestion? A) Eat a vegan diet. B) Engage in physical activity at least 60 minutes a day. C) Eat at least 2 cups of refined grains a week. D) Eat at least 2½ cups of vegetables and fruits every day.

Ans: D Feedback: The ACS and AICR both recommend that individuals to engage in regular exercise at least 30 minutes each day, to limit the consumption of red meats, to eat whole grains instead of refined grains, and to eat at least 2½ cups of vegetables and fruits every day to decrease the risk of developing cancer.

One of the students in a nutrition class asks the nurse to explain the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs). Which of the following is the best answer? A) AMDRs are specific ranges for essential nutrients. B) AMDRs are specific ranges for trace minerals. C) AMDRs are nonspecific broad ranges for major nutrients. D) AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient.

Ans: D Feedback: The AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient, expressed as a percentage of total calories consumed.

The diet is influenced by all foods and drinks consumed, which includes alcohol. What is the current recommendation for alcohol consumption according to the various published guidelines? A) One drink each day for men and women B) One drink each day for men, two drinks each day for women C) Two drinks each day for men and women D) Two drinks each day for men, one drink each day for women

Ans: D Feedback: The American Heart Association, the American Cancer Society, and the American Institute for Cancer Research recommended that alcohol consumption be limited to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men.

The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are a set of standards that include reference values that are based on what? A) The concepts of dietary-related chronic diseases B) The concepts of preventing nutritional deficiencies C) The concepts of balance and need D) The concepts of probability and risk

Ans: D Feedback: The DRIs is a group name that includes four separate reference values that are based on the concepts of probability and risk. They include updated RDAs, EAR, AI, and UL.

While teaching about the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs), the nurse has included which of the following points in the discussion? A) RDAs have been established for all essential nutrients. B) RDAs represent requirements of specific nutrients. C) RDAs meet the needs of all healthy people. D) RDAs are not appropriate for people who have acute or chronic illness.

Ans: D Feedback: The RDAs represent the average daily recommended intake to meet the nutrient requirements of 97% to 98% of healthy individuals. Health professionals use the RDAs as a starting point and adjust them according to the individual's needs.

The nurse is discussing organic labeling with the nutrition class when one of the participants asked about the criterion for labeling organic foods. What would be the best response? A) It's based on what natural pesticides are used in the growing of the foods. B) It's based on whether the farm that produces the food has been certified organic. C) It's based on the number of natural fertilizers used to produce the food. D) It's based on whether it meets criterion that defines the four official organic categories.

Ans: D Feedback: The USDA ensures that the production, processing, and certification of organically grown foods adhere to strict national standards and that organic labeling meets criterion that define the four official organic categories.

The nurse has been counseling a group of pregnant women concerning appropriate food choices. Which of the following lunch menus indicates the women understand a recommended diet for a pregnant woman? A) 2-oz prime rib; a medium-baked potato with 2 tbsp of sour cream, 2 tbsp of butter, and 2 oz of grated cheese; 1 cup of creamed corn; 6 oz of green tea; ¾ cup of ice cream B) 6 pieces of sushi, 2 cups of saki, 4 oz of steamed vegetables C) 6 oz of swordfish, ¼ cup tartar sauce, 2 slices of French bread with 1½ teaspoons of butter on each, ¾ cup of sweet peas, 1 4-in slice of apple pie with 1 scoop of vanilla ice cream D) 3 oz of tuna-stuffed tomato, 1 small apple, 8 oz of sugar-free orange drink

Ans: D Feedback: The basic principles of healthy eating that apply to healthy people are also appropriate before, during, and after pregnancy. As with the general public, sodium, solid fats, added sugars, and refined grains should be limited. Fish that is known to be high in methylmercury should be limited in intake should also be avoided.

Which lunch is best for a 10-year-old who is active? A) 6 oz of chicken noodle soup, 6 saltine crackers with 2 tablespoons of butter, 3/4 cup of ice cream, and 12 oz of diet soda B) 3 oz of hamburger, lettuce leaf, tomato slice, 1 slice of onion, 1 oz of processed cheese, 1 hamburger bun, 6 oz of French fries, and one 8-oz strawberry milkshake C) 6 chicken nuggets, 1/4 cup of ketchup, 4 oz cup of applesauce, and one 4-inch slice of pumpkin pie with whipped cream D) 3 oz of tuna on whole wheat bread, 1 medium apple, and 8 oz of 2% milk

Ans: D Feedback: The lunch of tuna, whole wheat bread, apple, and milk are more nutrient-dense than the other menu choices. The others contain items that contain empty calories, excessive fats, and sugars.

The nurse has been asked to speak on diet and nutrition at a local town meeting. During the presentation, the nurse explains to the attendees about "Adequate Intake" and its primary purpose. What should the nurse say on this subject? A) The primary purpose of the Adequate Intake is to provide the highest level of daily nutrient intake. B) The primary purpose of the Adequate Intake is to provide an estimate of the amount of nutrients required by individuals. C) The primary purpose of the Adequate Intake is to provide a value comparable with the RDA. D) The primary purpose of the Adequate Intake is to provide a goal for the nutrient intake of individuals.

Ans: D Feedback: The primary purpose of the adequate intake is as a goal for the nutrient intake of individuals. It is the recommended average daily intake thought to meet or exceed the needs of individuals.

A young child, until the age of 4 years, is at risk of choking. To decrease this risk, what should young children not be given? A) Cubes of cheese B) Noodles C) Soda crackers D) Grapes

Ans: D Feedback: Until the age of 4 years, young children are at risk of choking. To decrease the risk, foods that are difficult to chew and swallow should be avoided. Grapes, nuts, raw carrots, and popcorn are examples.

People who come to the United States from other countries bring their culture with them. Why may they retain their own comfort foods? A) Familiarity B) Comfort C) Link with the past D) Tradition

C

A student in the nutrition class is reporting on the availability of nutrition information. According to the student's report, where do most Americans get their information on nutrition? A) Internet B) Doctors C) Friends and family D) News media

Ans: D Feedback: When asked to identify their top two or three sources of information about nutrition, 71% cited the news media as their top source.

A client has come to the clinic with the repeat complaint of constipation. The nurse is aware that the diet may be the reason. People who eat a lot of convenience products may have a problem with constipation because their diet is consistently low in what? A) Vitamin C B) Fiber C) Sodium D) Protein

B

A client in the unit believes the pneumonia he has is due to fate. The nurse overhears him asking his family to bring him home remedies for respiratory illnesses. What culture would you expect him to be a part of? A) Christian B) African American C) Hindu D) Mexican American

B

Arthritis is a leading cause of functional limitation among older adults. Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common form of arthritis. What is the greatest known modifiable risk factor of OA of the knee? A) Nutritional deficiency of folic acid B) Overweight C) Moderately inactive lifestyle D) Inadequate intakes of calcium

B

In the United States, horsemeat, insects, and dog meat are not considered food items, even though they meet the criteria for what is considered "food." What dictates what is acceptable as a food item and what is not? A) Availability B) Culture C) Flavor D) Preference

B

Quality-of-life issues are a priority in the elderly, especially in residents of long-term care facilities. What are the key components in meeting quality-of-life standards among older adults who are residents of long-term care facilities? A) Prevention of depression and diabetes B) Prevention of unintentional weight loss and pressure ulcers C) Prevention of weight gain and hyperlipidemia D) Prevention of low albumin and anorexia

B

Sarcopenia is the loss of muscle mass and strength. It is related to a sedentary lifestyle and less than optimal diet. It is a process that begins in the fourth and fifth decades of life. This loss of muscle mass can be halted or reversed with which of the following? A) Aerobic exercise B) Strength-training exercises C) A high-protein diet D) A high-protein diet, high-calorie diet

B

The elderly population has a mean intake below the dietary reference intake (DRI) for several nutrients. Which of the following falls into that classification? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Chloride D) Manganese

B

The intake of adequate nutrients is a recommendation to reduce the risk of nutrition-related concerns across the lifespan. Obesity impacts quality of life in the elderly. Along with weight reduction, what vitamins are recommended to help with bone health? A) Vitamin B12 B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin B6 D) Vitamin E

B

The nurse is doing client education for a 71-year-old woman who is a resident of a long-term care facility. The assessment indicates that she is at a high risk for malnutrition. What is one reason she could give you for this risk of malnutrition? A) "I eat most of my meals with friends." B) "I just don't have an appetite." C) "I take two different medicines every day." D) "I chew quite well with my dentures."

B

The nurse is taking a report of the assigned clients for the day. One client is a 27-year-old practicing Hindu. When the breakfast tray is delivered, it is noted that there is bacon on it. What would be the most culturally sensitive action to take? A) Take the tray to the client and do not worry about it. B) Send the tray back to the kitchen and ask for a lacto-ovo vegetarian diet tray. C) Take the tray into the client's room and ask what he wants to do. D) Remove the bacon from the plate and serve the tray to the client

B

The nurse is teaching a class of aides at a long-term care facility how to assess and document a client's nutritional intake. What mandates the documentation of nutritional intake for the residents of long-term care facilities? A) Maximum Data Set (MDS) B) Minimum Data Set (MDS) C) Regulatory Data Set (RDS) D) Maximum Regulatory Set (MRS)

B

The nurse is teaching a nutrition class. The assignment given to the students is to pick the healthiest meal from the following choices. Which meal would be the best one to choose? A) Cheese ravioli with meat sauce B) Baked veal cutlets with masala sauce C) Breaded chicken parmesan with marinara sauce D) Pasta with meat sauce

B

While learning about different cultures, a student asks what "pareve" means. What would be the best answer? A) Kosher B) Dairy-free C) Egg free D) Free of animal products

B

Religious proscription in dietary laws is not uncommon. What is it that Orthodox Jews do not eat? A) Animal flesh B) Beef C) Pork D) Shellfish

C

Acculturation changes the eating habits of most people from cultures other than American. What statements are true regarding acculturation? Select all that apply. A) Adults tend to change their eating habits quicker than children. B) First-generation Americans tend to adhere more closely to traditional eating patterns than subsequent generations. C) People with higher education tend to change their eating habits more quickly than people with less education. D) American food undergoes change in response to the influx of groups from other cultures. E) Second-generation Americans may give up ethnic foods and the traditional ways of preparing them.

B, C, D

Convenience foods can be ingredients which are used to create home-cooked meals in a shorter amount of time and still have a positive impact on nutrition. Which of the following are examples of nutritious convenience foods? Select all that apply. A) Frozen spaghetti sauce B) Fully cooked roasted chickens C) Bagged salad mixes D) Prewashed and cut vegetables E) Frozen pizza

B, C, D

The nurse has given the nutrition class the assignment of creating a list of strategies for enhancing food intake in long-term care residents. What strategies would you expect to find on this list? Select all that apply. A) Let residents eat in their rooms. B) Honor food preferences. C) Make sure the diet is heart healthy. D) Involve the family in mealtime. E) Encourage independence in eating.

B, D, E

"Soul food" consists of traditional southern African American food and cooking techniques. What is tradition soul food high in? A) Protein B) Protein and fat C) Fat and cholesterol D) Fiber

C

Acculturation changes the diet of most cultures. How could Mexican American cooking methods be made healthier? A) Decrease the use of whole milk. B) Decrease the use of chili peppers. C) Decrease the use of oil or lard. D) Decrease the use of margarine.

C

Acculturation occurs at different rates. When are people of different cultures who move to the United States most likely to eat traditional foods? A) Breakfast B) Lunch C) Dinner D) Bedtime snacks

C

Culture profoundly affects what and when we eat. As each culture has it owns customs, there is a common element that all share. What do all cultures do? A) Eat three or more times daily. B) View slimness as attractive and desirable. C) Use food as part of celebration. D) Rely on meat to attain their protein requirements.

C

The nurse is caring for a client in a long-term care facility who is 77 years of age and overweight. The nurse is considering putting this client on a low-calorie diet. Some experts recommend that strict therapeutic diets be used in older adults only when a significant improvement in health can be expected. Which elderly clients would a restrictive diet be recommended for? A) Those with high cholesterol levels B) Those with high potassium levels C) Those with ascites D) Those with mild hypertension

C

The nurse is discussing with the nutrition class which dietary supplements older adults need to take. Which supplement is needed by older adults? A) Vitamin B6 B) Vitamin K C) Vitamin D D) Niacin

C

A 71-year-old female client has functional limitations, in part caused by obesity. The nurse is discussing the need to lose weight with this client but she is not receptive to the idea. What is one reason this woman might have for not agreeing with the suggestion to lose weight? A) The client feels that losing weight can cause a strain on the body. B) The client feels that she would feel worse if she lost weight. C) The client does not feel that her weight impedes her functionality. D) The client does not feel the need to make changes at this point in her life.

D

A Vietnamese mother comes to the clinic with a sick child. She states that she tried giving the child hot oregano tea seasoned with salt, but it was not effective. What is the child complaining of? A) A headache B) A cold or respiratory infection C) Hypertension D) An upset stomach

D

A nurse is attending a large Chinese American gathering in which a meal is to be served. What foods would be expected to be absent at this meal? A) Fruits and vegetables B) Poultry C) Grain products D) Milk and dairy products

D

Acculturation of Mexican Americans may result in changes in their diet. Acculturation tends to cause a decrease in what? A) Fruit intake B) Milk intake C) Sugar intake D) Protein intake

D

African Americans have several nutrition-related health risks. The incidence of what chronic diet-related disease is almost double in African Americans than in Whites? A) Cancer B) Diabetes C) Heart disease D) Hypertension

D

It has been established that many people over 50 years have low serum levels of vitamin B12. Where is it recommended that older adults get most of their vitamin B12 from? A) Citrus fruits and juices B) Red meats C) Milk and dairy products D) Fortified cereals

D

Most recommended levels of intake for vitamins and minerals do not change with aging. An exception to this is the recommended dietary allowances of vitamin D, which are higher in adults over age 50 years. What causes the body's need for vitamin D to increase over the age of 50 years? A) The ability to absorb calcium, which decreases with age B) The potential risk for coronary heart disease, which uses vitamin D C) The increased consumption of coffee and tea interferes with vitamin D synthesis D) The ability to synthesize vitamin D from sunlight, which decreases with age

D

Older adults need adequate protein in their diet. What are the approximate protein needs per day for an older adult weighting 132 pounds (60 kg)? A) 24 g/day B) 36 g/day C) 44 g/day D) 48 g/day

D

The client is a 65-year-old male. Approximately, how much longer can he expect to live? A) 15.8 years B) 16.5 years C) 17.3 years D) 19.2 years

D

The nurse is aware that there are different categories for food. While conducting an assessment with a new client, it is explained that peripheral foods are eaten sporadically. What are these foods typically based on? A) Cultural norms B) Religious dietary laws C) Regional availability D) Personal preference

D

Which lunch is best for a healthy 65-year-old who lives independently? A) 6 oz of chicken noodle soup, 6 saltine crackers with 2 tablespoons of butter, 3/4 cup of ice cream, and 12 oz of diet soda B) 3 oz of hamburger, lettuce leaf, tomato slice, 1 slice of onion, 1 oz of processed cheese, 1 hamburger bun, 6 oz of French fries, and one 8-oz strawberry milkshake C) 6 chicken nuggets, 1/4 cup of ketchup, 4 oz cup of applesauce, and one 4-inch slice pumpkin pie with whipped cream D) 3 oz of tuna on whole wheat bread, 1 medium apple, and 8 oz of 2% milk

D