3

A bottle containing 80 tablets of acetaminophen costs the pharmacy $4.88 and sells for $8.99. What is the pharmacy's cost per tablet of acetaminophen?

$0.06 Explanation: Take the pharmacy's cost and divide it by the total number of tablets: $4.88 / 80 = $0.06.

A patient is receiving 250 mg of a drug given in a 50-mL bag over 1 hour. A 10 drop set is being used to deliver the medication. How many milligrams will be in each drop?

0.5 mg/gtt

If 60 mL of 2% viscous lidocaine were added to a 120 mL mixture of cherry syrup and water, what would be the resulting percentage of lidocaine in the compound?

0.67%

Ceftriaxone for injection has been diluted with lidocaine 1% solution to obtain a 350 mg/mL concentration. How many milliliters will be needed for an IM dose of 250 mg?

0.7 mL

At one facility, buffered lidocaine is compounded in batches using 45 mL of lidocaine 1% solution and 5 mL of sodium bicarbonate solution. What is the percentage strength of the buffered lidocaine?

0.9%

Elixirs, tinctures, and liniments are examples of

non aqueous solutions

Muscarinic antagonists relieve asthma symptoms by:

reducing smooth muscle contraction.

All of the following duties may be performed by a pharmacy technician except

selecting an OTC product for a patient

Laminar airflow hoods should be professionally inspected:

semi-annually. Explanation: By law, laminar airflow hoods should be professionally inspected semi-annually or every 6 months. This helps ensure the products prepared in the hood are safe for patient use.

Peri-Colace is a combination medication consisting of docusate and:

sennosides. Explanation: Peri-Colace is a combination stool softener and laxative composed of docusate and sennosides, respectively.

An LVP plastic bag has a protective covering to keep _____ from the bag

dust

The generic name for Lexapro is:

escitalopram.

A patient who requests counseling about a new prescription drug during the busiest time of day in a pharmacy should be:

escorted to a more private area within the pharmacy. Explanation: Retail pharmacies are required by HIPAA to have a private counseling area where the pharmacist may counsel patients while maintaining their privacy and without being overheard. This may be an area off to the side of the main pharmacy counter. Patients are not permitted behind the pharmacy counter.

The generic name for Nexium is:

esomeprazole. Explanation: Esomeprazole is the generic name for Nexium. Though the proton pump inhibitors all end in "-prazole," they can easily get mixed up with other medications that end in "-azole." Metronidazole is an anti-infective and clotrimazole is an antifungal medication. Lansoprazole is the generic name of the proton pump inhibitor, Prevacid.

When making a lotion using the Beaker method, the internal phase is slowly added to the external phase. This is done so that the

external phase will not invert to the internal phase

Chemotherapy IV medications are not generally compounded:

in a horizontal laminar airflow hood. Explanation: Chemotherapy IVs are prepared in a biological safety cabinet, often in a clean room with negative air pressure. The staff must also wear appropriate personal protective equipment to limit exposure.

Paclitaxel IV should be stored:

in the chemotherapy section. Explanation: Paclitaxel IV is a chemotherapy agent and should be stored with other chemotherapy agents. Storing chemotherapy agents in a specified area alerts all pharmacy staff that these medications are highly toxic and special precautions should be taken while working with them. This agent should not be stored in containers made from PVC. It should be stored at 20°C (68°F) and protected from light.

Varicella vaccine is stored:

in the freezer. Explanation: Varicella vaccine should always be stored in the freezer at an average temperature of -15° C. Varicella is a live vaccine. Live vaccines tolerate freezing but deteriorate rapidly after removal from the freezer. Varicella can be stored in the refrigerator for 72 hours, then discarded if not used. Do not refreeze the varicella vaccine.

A pharmacy technician is in a clean room preparing common IV medications. The used needles and syringes should be placed:

in the red sharps bin. Explanation: Most used needles and syringes used for nonchemotherapy agents are placed in the red sharps bin. These items are never placed in the trash bin because they can present a health hazard.

What does sterile mean with regard to an intravenous solution?

it is free from bacteria

The term viscous means:

jellylike.

Drugs that require prescriptions are ___________ drugs

legend

levothyroxine

levothyroxine

A Class I recall indicates that the product:

may cause serious adverse reactions or death if used. Explanation: A Class I recall indicates that the product may cause serious adverse reactions or death due to a major defect in the product. Patients should stop taking the recalled medication immediately and return it to the pharmacy for proper disposal.

A drug that reaches its expiration date:

may never be dispensed to patients. Explanation: Drugs that have expired, or reached their expiration date, must never be dispensed to patients. All drugs have a shelf life and their potency diminishes once that shelf life has been reached. A pharmacy has two options for disposing of expired drugs. They may either return them to the drug manufacturer and possibly receive a credit or rebate toward a future purchase. Or, they may destroy them on site and document the destruction.

The brand name for levalbuterol is:

Xopenex.

The directions on a prescription medication are: i gtt ou hs This medication is

an eye drop

Compounding is the on-demand formulation of a drug preparation according to a physicians prescription for

an individual patient

OxyContin is classified as a(n):

analgesic Explanation: OxyContin (oxycodone) is classified as a pain reliever, or narcotic analgesic. It acts by binding to opioid receptors in the brain to produce sedation. It is a schedule II narcotic, which makes it a controlled substance with a high potential for abuse. Prescriptions for OxyContin must be filled by the pharmacy technician exactly as written by the health care provider, and some states have special prescription forms for schedule II drugs

A raised, blister-like areas on the skin caused from an intradermal injection is called a

wheal

A patient has brought the pharmacy technician a prescription that does not specify a dispense quantity. It states, "Take by mouth 2 tablets before breakfast, 1 before lunch, 2 before dinner and 1 at bedtime." Determine the dispense quantity needed for a 30-day supply.

180 tablets

The technician is instructed to make 500 grams of 3% hydrocortisone cream. In stock is 8% hydrocortisone cream and Eucerin cream base. How much of each ingredient will be used?

187.5 grams of 8% cream and 312.5 grams of Eucerin cream base

If an order is for an IV to be infused from 1:00 P.M. until 5:30 P.M. at a rate of 200 mL/hr, how many 75-mL bags will be needed for the entire infusion?

12 bags

A prescriber has ordered 10% salicylic acid in hydrophilic ointment. How many grams of salicylic acid powder will be required for the compound if the order calls for 4 oz?

12 g

An extemporaneous compound has been ordered containing 5% hydrocortisone qsad 240 mL lubricating lotion. How many grams of hydrocortisone powder are required for this compound?

12 g Explanation: Percentages indicate the number of grams of drug in 100 mL in this problem. Set up a proportion using the percentage strength and total volume to find the number of grams required.

A patient is to receive medication with a dose based on 30 mg/m2 per day, divided into three equal doses. The patient's BSA is 1.2 m2. How much will be needed for each dose?

12 mg

The technician receives an order to provide 60 mL of medication to be infused over 30 minutes. What is the infusion rate in milliliters per hour?

120 mL/hr

Pharmacists were required to offer counseling to Medicaid patients by the

1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

1cc

1mL

30mL

1oz (or 2tbsp)

A prescriber has ordered an ointment to be applied three times weekly. If the patient uses approximately 1 g per application, how many days will a 15 g tube last?

35 days

For the prescription Glucophage XR 500 mg, ii bid X 90 days, how many tables are dispensed?

360

A patient is ordered to take 6 mL of medication that is stocked as 300 mg/5 mL. How many milligrams are contained in one dose?

360 mg

The human body requires how many vitamins for normal growth and development?

13 Explanation: The human body needs 13 vitamins on a regular basis to function and grow normally. These include vitamins A, C, D, E, K, and the eight B vitamins. People who eat a balanced, healthy diet that includes a variety of foods usually get the vitamins they need. Lack of the right amount of a certain vitamin will lead to a deficiency. For example, a vitamin C deficiency will cause a condition called scurvy.

How many TBSPS are there in 195mL?

13 tbsp Explanation: There are 15 milliliters in 1 tablespoon

A technician needs to prepare a 5 mg/5 mL metoclopramide suspension from 10 mg tablets. How many tablets must be triturated to make 60 mL of suspension?

6 tablets

If 30 g of a 10% ointment were diluted to 50 g with white petrolatum, what would be the resulting percentage strength?

6%

A prescription for zolpidem 5 mg tablets was presented to the pharmacy. If the sig states "1-2 tabs po qhs prn," how many tablets should be dispensed for a 30-day supply?

60 tablets

A prescriber has ordered a 2% clotrimazole cream in a hydrocortisone cream base. The pharmacy does not stock powdered clotrimazole but carries 10 mg clotrimazole troches. How many troches must be triturated to make 30 g of cream?

60 troches

A patient is to receive a medication with a dose based on 80 mg/m2. If this patient has a BSA of 0.80 m2, what will his dose be?

64 mg

The pharmacy technician receives an order to add 60 mEq of potassium chloride to an IV bag. In stock, the technician has a 40 mL bottle of potassium chloride with a strength of 4.4 mEq/mL. How many milliliters of concentrate must the technician add to the IV?

13.6 mL

A 7-year-old child is in need of a dose of medication that has a suggested adult dose of 400 mg. Using Young's Rule, what would the appropriate pediatric dose be?

147.4 mg

A popular community pharmacy is open from 08:00 until 20:00 and averages 180 prescriptions per day. What is the average number of prescriptions they process per hour?

15

A 100 mL graduated cylinder cannot accurately measure volumes less than

15 mL

tolterodine

Bladder relaxant

conjugated estrogens

Hormone

levothyroxine

Hormone

Which of the following is not a strategy to prevent medication errors?

Patient should be counseled when the prescription s are dropped off

15. References

-cited articles -Many labels don't include this section

Aricept

Donepezil Cholinesterase inhibitor Alzheimer disease/dementia

ropinirole

Dopamine promoter: Parkinsons, Restless Leg Syndrome

Cosopt

Dorzolamide-timolol Beta-blocker-carbonic- anhydrase inhibitor Glaucoma

Vibramycin

Doxycycline hyclate Tetracycline antibiotic Bacterial infection

What does the abbreviation "gtt" stand for?

Drops Explanation: The abbreviation "gtt" means "drops." It comes from the Latin word guttae. The singular form is written as "gt." However, you may occasionally see the abbreviation written as "gtts." If you are ever unsure about the meaning of a medical abbreviation, you should always check with your supervisor, the prescribing physician, or another authority to avoid making a potentially deadly medical error.

Gianvi

Drospirenone-ethinyl estradiol Monophasic oral contraceptive Oral Contraceptive

Which side effect is common when taking benzodiazepines?

Drowsiness Explanation: Benzodiazepines all are sedative in nature and can cause drowsiness. They are typically used for anxiety disorders but can also be used to treat insomnia.

Which common reference would a pharmacy technician search to compare medications in the same therapeutic class for a patient on a restricted formulary?

Drug Facts and Comparisons

Penicillin VK

Penicillin Penicillin antibiotic Bacterial Infection

Freezer

-20 C to -10 C

1kg

2.2lbs

Arimidex

Anastrazole Hormonal oncologic Cancer

Differin

Adapalene Retinoid Acne Vulgaris

ProAir/Proventil/Ventolin

Albuterol (inhalation) Bronchodilator Asthma

Elavil

Amitriptyline Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) Depression

Coreg

Carvedilol Beta-blocker Hypertension

Which characteristics indicate a good suspension?

Settles slowly and redisperses quickly

escitalopram

Depression

Lexapro

Escitalopram SSRI Depression

Fluzone

Influenza vaccine influenza

Naprosyn

Naproxen NSAID Inflammation

Benicar

Olmesartan ARB Hypertension

esomeprazole

PPI

Which statement is false?

Rectal suppositories are intended to spread around the anal opening

tamsulosin

Shrink Prostate

FDA

Writes, approves , and regulates labeling.

mometasone

corticosteroid

A parenteral route of administration means that the route of administration is

next to or beside the enteral tract

Refrigerator

Between 2C and 8C

Warm

Between 30C and 40C

Cool

Between 8C and 15C

What is the acceptable temperature range for a drug that must be stored cool but does not require refrigeration?

Between 8°C and 15°C Explanation: The acceptable temperature range guidelines for a drug that must be stored cool are between 8°C and 15°C. It is the responsibility of all pharmacy staff, including the pharmacy technician, to ensure that all drugs are stored properly.

Lumigan

Bimatoprost Prostaglandin analogs Glaucoma

Ortho Tri-Cyclen

Birth Control

Ovcon

Birth Control

Sprintec

Birth Control

TriNessa

Birth Control

Yasmin

Birth Control

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is used immediately to treat which condition?

Blood clots Explanation: TPA (Alteplase) is a strong antithrombolytic agent. When administered in a timely fashion, tPA can break up blood clots (thrombi) that may be life threatening in conditions such as stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction and other cardiac disorders associated with coronary artery thrombosis.

digoxin

Blood pressure support and antiarrhythmic

clopidogrel

Blood thinners

warfarin

Blood thinners

risedronate

Bone health

What do emulsions and ointments have in common?

Both have a primary emulsion as the basis of their preparations

Hormonal agents are most often used in the treatment of which types of cancer?

Breast and prostate Explanation: Hormonal agents work by either blocking or mimicking the actions of hormones within the body. In cancer treatment, they are used most frequently to treat breast and prostate cancer. For example, gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists block the testes' production of androgens, while antiestrogens block the production of estrogen.

Combivent

Ipratropium-albuterol Anticholinergic-B2-agonist Asthma

Avapro

Irbesartan ARB Hypertension

Avalide

Irbesartan-hydrochlorothiazide ARB-thiazide combination Hypertension

Which of the following metallic minerals is not typically found in an antacid formulation? A. Iron B. Magnesium C. Aluminum D. Calcium

Iron Explanation: Most antacids contain one or more of the metallic ions such as calcium, magnesium, and aluminum. Though iron is needed in the diet to support oxygen transportation in the blood, it is not useful as an antacid.

Patanol

Olopatadine (eye drop) Ophthalmic antihistamine Allergic conjuctivitis

Lovaza

Omega-3-acid ethyl esters Estrified fish oils Hypertriglyceridemia

Prilosec

Omeprazole PPI GERD

The legislation that mandates that all patients must be offered counseling on any drug that is dispensed by the pharmacy is called the:

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act. Explanation: The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) mandates that all Medicaid patients must be offered counseling on any drug that is dispensed by the pharmacy. Over time, it has become common practice that all patients be offered counseling. Patients have the right to decline counseling, but must sign a waiver that they did so. This act also increased funding for Medicare and Medicaid programs and required pharmacists to provide Drug Utilization Reviews (DURs) for Medicaid patients.

Where should the label for a bulk sterile product be placed on its packaging?

On or toward the top of the container Explanation: The label for a bulk sterile product should be placed on or toward the top of its packaging. Because contaminants tend to sink toward the bottom, they must be clearly visible to the pharmacy staff. A label placed on the side or near the bottom of the container might conceal the problem and lead to serious health consequences for patients who receive the contaminated solution.

_________ contact hour(s) of continuing education in pharmacy law is/are required every two years to main certification

One

The pharmacy recently purchased a TPN compounding machine for $8,958.23. If the equipment is expected to last 6 years, at which time it would be worth $898.55, what is the annual depreciation amount?

$1,343.28 Explanation: Annual depreciation is the amount to allow for an asset to decrease in value over a 1-year period. First, find the difference in the purchase price of the TPN compounder and the amount it would be worth after 6 years: $8,958.23 - $898.55 = $8,059.68. Then, divide this amount by the equipment's expected life to find the annual depreciation: $8,059.68 / 6 years = $1,343.28.

If a patient is charged $18.40 for 80 tablets of metformin, how much would the patient pay if he or she instead requested 50 tablets?

$11.50 Explanation: Begin by dividing the amount charged by the number of tablets for the per tablet price: $18.40 / 80 = $0.23. Then, multiply this amount by the new requested amount: $0.23 * 50 = $11.50.

A patient brings two bottles of the same cough syrup to the register, expecting to pay $16.60 total. She is informed that they are having a sale, where if you buy one at full price, you receive the second at 50% off. What is her new price?

$12.45 Explanation: Begin by calculating the price per bottle of cough syrup by dividing her expected price by 2: $16.60 / 2 = $8.30 per bottle. Next, divide this amount in half in order to calculate how much the second bottle will be at 50% off: $8.30 / 2 = $4.15. Lastly, add this amount to the full price amount per bottle for the new price: $4.15 + $8.30 = $12.45.

A patient purchases two generic products totaling $24.60 and one brand name product for $31.40. If the patient's insurance carrier specifies that the patient pay 10% for generic products and 35% for brand name products, what must the patient pay for all three medications?

$13.45

A patient receives two prescriptions whose average wholesale prices (AWP) are $19.80 and $34.70. The patient's insurance states that the patient must pay 30% of the AWP for all drugs. What will the total cost be for the patient?

$16.35 Explanation: Begin by adding the price of the two drugs together: $19.80 + $34.70 = $54.50. Then, convert 30% into a decimal by dividing by 100: 30 / 100 = 0.3. Finally, multiply this amount by the total of the two drugs to calculate the total cost: 0.3 * $54.50 = $16.35.

Your infusion pharmacy's price formula states that you charge the patient cost multiplied by 1.5 plus an additional $2.00 fee. If you spent 0.5 hours packaging 50 tablets of medication that cost the pharmacy $12.64, how much will the patient be charged?

$20.96 Explanation: According to the pharmacy's price formula, multiply the cost of the medication by 1.5: $12.64 * 1.5 = $18.96. Then, add the additional fee to that amount: $18.96 + $2.00 = $20.96.

The average wholesale price (AWP) of 1 bulk bottle of medication, containing 250 tablets, is $439.80. If a patient's insurance states that the patient must pay 25% of AWP, how much would the patient pay if he or she wishes to purchase 50 tablets?

$21.99

Smith's Drug Store receives a capitation fee of $200.00 per month for their patient Jim Johnson. If Mr. Johnson filled 2 prescriptions for $87.90 per prescription, how much profit is provided by the fee?

$24.20 Explanation: A capitation fee is a monthly fee that covers a patient's medications, regardless of how many are filled for that month. Calculate the total cost for Mr. Johnson's medications by multiplying the price per prescription by the number of fills: $87.90 * 2 = $175.80. Then, subtract that amount from the capitation fee in order to determine the profit: $200.00 - $175.80 = $24.20.

The pharmacy currently has a sale where each customer who purchases 3 or more products totaling at least $20.00 receives a 12% discount. If a customer buys products that are $4.72, $13.65, and $9.88, what would be his or her total after discount?

$24.86

Working first-shift in your pharmacy, your wage is $14.36 per hour. If you work over 40 hours per week, they pay you time and a half for each additional hour. If you work weekend hours, you are paid a shift differential bonus of $40.00. What would your weekly check be if you worked 48 hours, 8 of which were worked over the weekend?

$32.50 Explanation: Begin by converting the markup percentage into a decimal by dividing by 100: 10 / 100 = 0.1. Then, multiply this amount by the AWP to find the markup amount: 0.1 * $25.00 = $2.50. Lastly, add this amount, along with the dispensing fee, to the AWP for the customer's cost: $2.50 + $5.00 + $25.00 = $32.50.

Your pharmacy stocks medication that has an average wholesale price (AWP) of $25.00. If the pharmacy's policy calls for a 10% markup rate, along with a $5.00 dispensing fee, what will the total cost be for the customer?

$32.50 Explanation: Begin by converting the markup percentage into a decimal by dividing by 100: 10 / 100 = 0.1. Then, multiply this amount by the AWP to find the markup amount: 0.1 * $25.00 = $2.50. Lastly, add this amount, along with the dispensing fee, to the AWP for the customer's cost: $2.50 + $5.00 + $25.00 = $32.50.

A pharmacy purchases 6 cases of clotrimazole cream for $69.55 per case. Their wholesaler offers a discount of 20% when accounts are paid on time. What would be the total price after discount if this criteria is met?

$333.84

A large tube of hydrocortisone cream is marked on sale for 40% off. If the original price is $9.55, what is the sale price?

$5.73 Explanation: Begin by converting the percentage into a decimal by dividing by 100: 40 / 100 = 0.4. Then, multiply this by the original price to calculate the discount: 0.4 * $9.55 = $3.82. Last, subtract that amount from the original price to find the sale price: $9.55 - $3.82 = $5.73.

A pharmacy purchases a 1-pint bottle of nystatin from the wholesaler for $11.63. If it sells for $19.95, what is the pharmacy's gross profit?

$8.32 Explanation: To find the gross profit, subtract the purchase price from the selling price: $19.95 - $11.63 = $8.32.

8. Use in Specific Population Renal Impairment (Geriatric/Aging)

- Renal filtration accounts for most drug excretion -Renal drug excretion decreases with age ---ex. At age 80, it is typically reduced 1/2 of what it was at age 30

If 5,000 units of heparin are to be given SC, how many milliliters should be given if the heparin has a concentration of 10,000 units/mL?

0.5 mL

1. Indications and Usage

- in highlights -recommended dose for indications -critical differences among population subsets

17. Patient counseling info/Medication guide

- it is written in patient terms - the grade level is 5th or 6th grade includes -drugs that may cause significant health problems -Given with each NEW & REFILL of targeted drugs

7. Drug interaction

-Hightlight- list of drugs or foods that interact -Post marketing- after taken is VOLUNTARY

12. Clinical Pharmacology

-Brief info about disese pathophysiology -Pharmacodynamics -Pharmacokinetics -Pharmacogenomics

6. Adverse reactions

- undesirable effect due to pharmacological action of a drug -side effect -unknown reason for a side effect - Serious adverse reactions, ie. Death, life threatening experience, Inpatient hospitilization -Report serious problems to fda or manufacture: use Medwatch

13. Nonclinical toxicology

-"Non-clinical"= animal studies -Carcinogenesis --Tumorigenicity -Mutagenesis -Imapirment of fertility -All toxicology is non clinical

8. Pediatric

-18 and under -Children less likely to have been studied during initial trials -Since studies in children are performed less often, many uses of medicines for children are "off-label" -Pediatric exclusivity

4. Contraindictions

-A drug should be contraindicated only in those clinical situations for which the risk from use clearly outweighs any possible therapeutic benefit. Only known hazards, and not theoretical possibilities, can be the basis for a contraindication. If there are no known contraindications for a drug, this section must state "None." -Drug Contraindictioned only in situations of risk - comorbid conditions - demograhic risk factors -Coadministration danger - problems must be cross ref w/ drug interactions or clinical pharmacology -not necessarily an adverse reaction, could be full groups of people

Durham-Humphrey Act of 1951

-Amendment to FDCA 1938 -Required all products include adequate directions unless they contained the federal legend, "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription" or "RX only." -Separated drugs into legend (rx) and non-legend (etc) drugs. -Allowed verbal prescriptions to be called in by prescriber. -Allowed refills to be called in from a physician's office.

Orphan Drug Act of 1974

-An orphan drug is one that treats a rare condition with less than 200,000 cases worldwide. -Gives tax incentives and exclusive rights to encourage development of orphan drugs.

C2 Protocols

-C2's may be partially filled, provided remaining quantity is dispensed to patient within 72 hours; pharmacist must notify prescriber if balance cannot be provided to patient. -C2 emergency fills may be called in by prescriber provided prescription is limited to duration of emergency period. -Pharmacist records prescription in writing. -Physician provides hard copy to pharmacy within 7 days of verbal order. -DEA is notified if pharmacy does not receive hard copy.

Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 2004

-Changed definition of anabolic steroids by eliminating the need to prove muscle growth, increasing the number of anabolic steroids to 59 substances. -Ensured proper registration, security, labeling, packaging, inventory, record maintenance, disposal, import and export, and criminal liability in connection with anabolic steroids.

11. Description

-Chemical name of the drug -Empirical formula of the drug -Chemical structural diagram -Molecular weight -Route of administration -Inactive ingredients -Ingredients-i.e. where you will look to find patient specific allergies, such as food sesnitivities and/or dyes

Clozapine National Registry

-Clozapine (Clozaril) -Treatment for Schizophrenia -Reason for restriction: can cause a severe drop in white blood cell count and production.

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970/Controlled Substances Act

-Created Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) and 5 schedules of drugs based on potential for abuse. -Required any facility dispensing controlled substances to be registered with the DEA using DEA form 224. -Required any schedule 2 substances to be ordered via DEA form 222. -Form valid for only 60 days. -Form allows 1 item per line, maximum 10 items per form. -Number of lines ordered must be totaled on bottom of form to prevent tampering. -Unused forms must be in secured location in pharmacy. -Retained forms and receipts must be retained in a secure location in pharmacy for minimum of 2 years (including defective forms where errors were made).

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

-Created OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) -Ensures safe workplace for all employees. -Restricts air contaminants, flammable/combustible liquids. -Requires eye and skin protection in certain scenarios. -Requires use of Safety Data Sheets (SDS) for hazardous materials.

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005

-Created category of controlled substances known as 'scheduled listed chemical products,' which includes pseudoephedrine, ephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine. -Products containing these ingredients have since been subject to sales restrictions, storage requirements and monitored record-keeping. -Individual purchase limitations enforce a maximum quantity of 3.6g/day, 9.0g/month

Isotretinoin Safety and Risk Management Act of 2004

-Created legislation resulting in iPledge program and all accompanying requirements/restrictions.

Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

-Drugs could no longer be re-imported into the US by anyone other than the manufacturer. -Drug samples only distributed to those licensed to prescribe them. -Following legend required for animal medications: "Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on an order of a licensed veterinarian."

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

-Ensures patient confidentiality is properly maintained by restricting use and disclosure of PHI, requiring a written privacy procedure from each organization, and requiring training for all employees.

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act fo 1990 (OBRA '90)

-Established a three-step process for drug utilization review. -Prospective DUR: Occurs at verification; pharmacist checks for duplicate therapies, interactions, contraindications, etc., and offers consultation. -Retrospective DUR: Ongoing claims and records review to identify fraud, abuse, overuse, or unnecessary treatment. -Educational Programs: Aimed at improving prescribing and dispensing practices.

Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 (FDCA 1938)

-Food and Drug Administration (FDA) created as a result of fatal poisonings from untested drugs. -Required all drug applications to be filed with FDA, and that drugs be proven safe before marketing.

16. How Supplied, Storage and Handling

-How supplied: desciption of each strength, size, NDC -Storage: Temperature -Handling: Vulnerable to damage from heat, light , or moisture -Dosage form appearance (inscribed in tablet etc.)

Federal Privacy Act of 1972

-Identified what information the federal gov't can collect about individuals and how that info can be used. -Guaranteed individuals the right to see what info the gov't has about them (exemptions exist), change or delete incorrect or incomplete information, and sue the gov't for violations of the act.

Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 1990

-Increased penalties for abuse of anabolic steroids (includes use by athletes).

iPledge Program

-Isotetinoin (Accutane, Amnesteem, Claravis, Isotroin, Sotret) -Treatment for severe acne -Reason for Restriction: Can cause birth defects.

Hatch-Waxman Act of 1984

-K.A. "Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act" -Extended patent licenses and made generic drug approval increasingly simple/efficient.

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA '87)

-Long term care residents must have regimens without unnecessary medications. -Antipsychotics only to be used for specific conditions; patient must have documented diagnosis and receive gradual dose tapering. -Required long term care facilities have a consulting pharmacist's services available, label medications adequately, and store medications in locked compartments at proper temperature according to federal/state law.

Prescribing Program for Lotronex (PPL)

-Lotronex (alosteron) -Treatment for Irritable Bowel Syndrome in women. -Reason for restriction: can cause severe GI adverse reactions.

14. Clinical Studies: Describing the Study Design

-Major Design characteristics -treatment arms -concomitant therapy -study population -critical endpoints

12. Clinical Pharm: Pharmacodynamics

-Mechanism of action -What the drug does to the body -Includes "Microbiology" if an anti-infective

5. Warnings and precautions

-Most clin significant safety concerns -Drug interactions -Box warning

8. Pregnancy

-Most drugs consumed by the mother crosses placenta barrier to the fetus -FDA established 5 categories -risk:benefit ratio

8. Lactation

-Physiochemical propeties of drugs allow a prediction of whether or not the drug will be excreted in human milk -Maternal pharmacology- drug dose, frequency, route of admin -Breast-blood flow and pH -Milk-composition(fat, protein, water) pH -Infant- sucking behavior

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

-Prohibited transport and sale of misbranded (labeled with false or misleading information) and adulterated (containing unsafe ingredients or prepared under unsanitary conditions) food and drugs between states. -Required government preapproval for all drugs.

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

-Provided general guidelines for waste management. -Divided hazardous waste into two categories: -Listed wastes: Materials that appear on one of the EPA's four hazardous waste lists... -F-List: Nonspecific source waste -K-List: Source-specific waste -P-List/U-List: Discarded commercial chemicals. -Characteristic wastes: Materials that exhibit one or more of the following traits: Ignitability, corrosively, reactivity, toxicity. -Required pharmacies arrange for disposal of hazardous waste by an outside vendor.

Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003

-Provides for voluntary prescription drug coverage to Medicare beneficiaries. -Created preventative medical benefits for senior citizens.

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

-Reduced accidental poisoning of children by requiring most RX and OTC drugs be packaged in child-proof containers. -"Child proof" cannot be opened by at least 80% of children 5 and younger, but can be opened by 90% of adults. -Prescriber may request one-time dispensing of non-child proof container; patient may issue a blanket request for all prescription items to be issued in non-child proof containers. -One size of OTC (example: Tylenol arthritis) with warning, blister packs (birth control), sublingual nitroglycerin, and unflavored aspirin may be dispensed in non-child proof containers.

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

-Required all medications in the US be safe, pure and effective. -Clearly established procedures for drug applications and investigational drugs -Made manufacturers responsible for 'Good Manufacturing Process.'

Medicaid Tamper-Resistant Prescription Act

-Required all prescriptions covered in any part by Medicaid be resistant to copying and modification, and contain a security feature to verify validity.

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

-Required herbal products be labeled as 'dietary supplements,' identify all ingredients by name and quantity, identify the plant and plant part from which the ingredient was derived, and be produced by a manufacturer following 'good manufacturing practices.'

1914 Harrison Tax Act

-Required licensing and taxing of manufacturers, importers, pharmacists and physicians working with narcotics

Food and Drug Administration Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990

-Required medical devices be tracked, and durable medical equipment be recorded.

9. Drug Abuse and Dependence/ 10. Overdosage

-Summary, interpretation, and discussion of abuse-potential date -This section tells what the results of a large overdose of the medicine are likely to be and how they should be treated

STEPS Program (System or Thalidomide Education and Prescribing Safety)

-Thalidomide -Treatment for multiple myeloma (cancer of the plasma cells) -Reason for restriction: can cause birth defects.

8. Use in Specific Populations Hepatic Impairment

-The liver is the principal site of drug metabolism -Cytochrome P-450- The most improtant enzyme system of phase I metabolism...it catalyzes the oxidation of many drugs, often induced or inhibited, reduced in elderly

Exempt Narcotics

-These are select cough and antidiarrheal prescription items able to be purchased OTC if permitted by state law. -Must be dispensed in original, sealed, stock package w/full quantity not exceeding state law. -Purchaser must be 18 years + and must sign exempt Narcotic book w/ date purchased, name, address, product & quantity and price. -Pharmacist must sign after purchaser provides above info. -Limit to one container of any substance per 48-hour period.

TIPS (Tikosyn in Pharmacy System)

-Tikosyn (dofetilide) -Treatment for arrhythmia -Reason for restriction: can cause irregular heart beats.

TOUCH Prescribing Program Tysabri Outreach: Unified Commitment to Health

-Tysabri (natalizumab) -Treatment for multiple sclerosis -Reason for restriction: can cause rare brain infection.

12. Clinical Pharm: Pharmacogenomics

-Variatins in genes -Dictates drug response -Predicts patients response to a drug

3. Dosage Forms and strenghts

-dose form ex. Tablet, capsule , ointment etc - route of admin -device ex inhaler , patch, ointment

If 400 mcg of folic acid for injection is needed for an IV, how many milliliters will be required if the folic acid comes stocked in a concentration of 1 mg/mL?

0.4 mL

2. Dosing and administration compliances

-explains particularly important dose regimans -frequency of dose Food or nah -way drug is admimistered

14. Demographic and other subgroups

-summary statements about the results of required explorations of treatment effects in: Age, Gender, and Racial subgroups

12. CLinical Pharm: Pharmacokineitics

-what the body does to the drugh -ADME: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion -Factors: Chemical characteristics, Dosage, Route of admin, Pharm formulation

14. Clinical Studies: what to avoid

-word and phrases that r vague or misleading,, ex. --Large or small, well-designed, extensively studied, rapid, trend, potent, pivotal, highly significant

A patient is receiving 25 mEq of NaCl in 250 mL of dextrose. A 20 drop set is being used to administer this medication. How many milliequivalents are in each drop of solution?

0.005 mEq/gtt

The technician is to prepare 40 mEq KCl in 200 mL dextrose 5% with water. If a 20 drop set is being used, how many milliequivalents are in each drop?

0.01 mEq/gtt

A morphine PCA is ordered at 0.5 mg q 20 min prn. What is the maximum amount of medication the patient can receive over 24 hours?

0.036 g

A prescriber has ordered 60 g of a compound containing equal parts triamcinolone 0.1% cream and aquaphillic ointment. What is the final percentage strength of the triamcinolone in this compound?

0.05% Explanation: Since this compound contains equal parts, only half of it will consist of 0.1% triamcinolone cream. 0.5 * 0.1% = 0.05%

The pharmacy technician receives an order for 1 mg of epinephrine. The technician's stock solution is 1:250. How many milliliters will the technician dispense?

0.25 mL

If a patient weighs 170 lb and is receiving 2 mcg/kg q12h of a medication, how many milligrams will the patient receive over 24 hours?

0.3 mg

If 35 units of insulin glargine are given SC qhs, how many milliliters will be used?

0.35 mL

If 2 g of a powdered drug were compounded with Eucerin cream to make 1 lb, what would be the resulting percentage strength?

0.44%

On average, women between the ages of 51 and 70 require how many milligrams of calcium each day?

1,200 mg Explanation: The recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium for women in this age range is 1,200 milligrams. Calcium is a mineral that occurs naturally in many foods such as milk, yogurt, cheese, and other dairy products. Vegetables, such as broccoli and kale, and fish with soft bones, such as canned salmon and sardines, also provide calcium. Calcium maintains the strength and health of the bones and teeth, where it is stored in the body. It also plays an important role in the normal functioning of the blood vessels, muscles, and nerves.

Albuterol MDI is typically administered as:

1-2 puffs q4-6h prn. Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting sympathetic agonist that is commonly inhaled in one or two puffs every 4-6 hours as needed. Because it is short acting, a once- or twice-daily regimen may be insufficient. It should also not be given freely as needed because too many inhalations in a day can cause side effects such as nervousness, sleeplessness, and rapid heart rate.

What is the prescription Process?

1.) A prescription from an authorized prescriber arrives at the pharmacy 2.) The technician enters patient, prescriber, and insurance information into the computer system. 3.) The computer processes insurance/billing information 4.) The label is generated 5.) The technician prepares the prescription 6.) The pharmacist checks the prescription 7.) The patient receives the prescription 8.) The pharmacist provides counseling

A patient weighs 82 kg, and he is to receive a medication of 18 mg/kg/day. What will his daily dose of medication be?

1.5 g

The standard dosing for azithromycin tablets is 500 mg on the first day, then 250 mg each day on the second through fifth days. How many grams will the patient receive after 5 days?

1.5 g

A patient seeks to fill a prescription for 40 tablets of amoxicillin 250 mg with no refills. The signa states: "Take 1 tab PO qid." How many full days will this amount last the patient?

10 days Explanation: Please note that qid stands for 4 times per day. To find the day's supply, divide total number of tablets dispensed by the number of tablets taken per day: 40 tablets / 4 = 10 days.

An 8% v/v bleach solution is to be prepared as a disinfectant. If the pharmacy technician prepares 3785 mL of disinfectant from household bleach solution and distilled water, how many fluid ounces of household bleach is required?

10 fl oz

A TPN order requires the addition of 40 mEq of sodium chloride. How many milliliters should be added if the sodium chloride concentration is 4 mEq/mL?

10 mL

If a 5 mL liquid volume needs to be measured, a ___________ should be used

10 mL oral syringe

A patient is to receive 1,000 units of heparin IV per hour. What will be the infusion rate in mL/h if the IV contains 25,000 units/250 mL of heparin?

10 mL/h

A furosemide 100 mg/100 mL drip is running at 10 mL/h. How many milligrams are being infused per hour?

10 mg

An antibiotic suspension has been reconstituted to yield 50 mg/mL. If the sig states "1 TSP tid X 7 days", how many milliliters will need to be dispensed?

105 mL

A patient is to receive 5 mcg/kg/h of a medication. If the patient weighs 195 lb, how many milligrams will the patient receive over a 24-hour period?

10.6 mg

Abciximab for injection is available in a concentration of 2 mg/mL. If the patient weighs 87 kg and the usual dosage is 0.25 mg/kg, how many milliliters will be needed?

10.9 ml

A formula for a 60 mL suspension that contains 20 g of methylprednisolone and 1 g of diphenhydramine needs to be enlarged to make 300 mL. How many grams of each drug will be required for the enlarged formula?

100 g of methylprednisolone and 5 g of diphenhydramine

If a 50 mL piggyback is to be run over 30 minutes, what is the infusion time in mL/h?

100 mL/h

The technician receives an order to infuse 150 mL over a period of 90 minutes. Calculate the infusion rate in milliliters per hour.

100 mL/hr

1L

1000mL

1mg

1000mcg

A prescriber orders 1 L of D20W. The pharmacy only has D5W and D70W in stock. How many milliliters of each would be required to compound this order?

231 mL D70W and 769 mL D5W

A prescriber orders dopamine IV drip at 5 mcg/kg/min. If the patient weighs 62 kg and dopamine is stocked in a 400 mg/250 mL concentration, what is the infusion rate in mL/h?

11.6 mL/h

A patient said her doctor recommended taking 1.5 g of psyllium fiber capsules daily. If the capsules contain 500 mg of psyllium in each one, how many should she take each day?

3

The pharmacy technician receives an order for 180 mL of dextrose 60% solution. On hand, the technician has dextrose 20% and dextrose 80% solution. How many milliliters of the dextrose 80% solution will the technician need to mix?

120 mL

An IV has a fluid volume of 500 mL and an infusion time of 4 hours. What is the infusion rate in milliliters per hour?

125 mL/hr

A patient uses 30 units of regular insulin tid before meals and 25 units at bedtime. The standard concentration of insulin is 100 units/mL. How long will a 10 mL vial last the patient?

8.7 days

After reconstitution, cefazolin for injection contains 100 mg/mL. If 1.5 g of cefazolin is needed for an IVPB, how many milliliters of cefazolin must be drawn for the dose?

15 mL

The directions of a prescription read "i-ii TSP po tid-qid prn." How many milliliters should be dispensed to last for 5 days?

200 mL

A 1:50 strength solution has been ordered; however, the pharmacy only stocks a 1:10 and 1:200 strengths of that solution. How many milliliters of each strength would be needed to compound 1 L?

158 mL of 1:10 solution and 842 mL of 1:200 solution

A child weighing 70 lb is in need of a dose of medication that has a suggested adult dose of 325 mg. Using Clark's Rule, what would the appropriate pediatric dose be?

151.7 mg

A 1 L banana bag is to run over 5 hours. What is the corresponding infusion rate in mL/h?

200 mL/h

The technician is ordered to infuse cefazolin at a rate of 33 mL/hr. The pharmacy only stocks cefazolin in 50 mL minibags. How many bags must be opened to provide 24 hours' worth of medication?

16 bags

The pharmacy receives a prescription for 150 mg of amoxicillin to be taken bid for 7 days. The pharmacy has a 200 mL bottle 125 mg/mL amoxicillin in stock. How many milliliters of the medication must be dispensed?

16.8 mL

The compounding instructions for Miracle Mouthwash call for equal parts diphenhydramine elixir, aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension, and viscous lidocaine 1%. How many milliliters of each ingredient will be needed for 16 fl oz of mouthwash?

160 mL

If a 250 mL IV was infused over 90 minutes, what is the rate in mL/h?

167 mL/h

Purchases of exempt narcotics must be at least ______ years of age

18

What is the minimum age for purchase of exempt narcotics without a prescription?

18

Because of fatal poisoning from liquid sulfanilamide, the ___________ required new drugs be shown to be safe before marketing

1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

15mL

1tbsp (or 3 tsp)

5mL

1tsp

Dermal formulations can deliver about _______ mg/hr of active drug

2

A medication is available as 6 mg/mL in a 1 mL vial. A prescription is received for 2 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the pharmacy technician add to the vial to make the final desired concentration?

2 mL

The bound paper or electronic logbook required for the sales of products with ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine base must be kept for no less than:

2 years. Explanation: The Controlled Substance Act requires that a bound paper or electronic logbook documenting the sales of all products containing a base of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine must be kept for no less than 2 years.

Inventory of controlled substances must be performed every:

2 years. Explanation: The DEA requires that an inventory of controlled substances be performed at least every 2 years. The pharmacy laws of most states require that controlled inventory be done more often than every 2 years. Pharmacies should follow whatever law is stricter.

50 mL of a 6% solution is diluted with 75 mL distilled water. What is the resulting percentage strength of the diluted solution?

2.4%

If 400 mg of drug is to be administered from a 90 mL IV bag over 45 minutes using a 10 drop set, how many drops per minute will be given?

20 gtts/min

How long will it take a 50 mL piggyback IV to infuse if it is running at 150 mL/h?

20 minutes

What percent of an administered ophthalmic solution is delivered to the eye?

20%

A prescriber has requested that a 10% solution be diluted to 7% with sterile water. How much water should be added to 500 mL of the 10% solution to obtain a 7% concentration?

214 mL

A 2 L TPN is hung at 0200 and is infusing at a rate of 100 mL/h. When will the next bag be due?

2200 that day

The form for ordering Schedule II controlled substances is DEA form

222

The technician receives an order to infuse 100 mL of IV medication at a rate of 250 mL/hr. How many minutes should the infusion last?

24 minutes

The directions for a prescription read "2 gtt OS bid." If the bottle contains 5 mL, how long will the bottle last?

25 days

A physician orders 2,000 mL of normal saline to be given by IV over a period of 20 hours. If the IV set used delivers 15 gtts/mL, what is the rate of infusion in drops per minute?

25 gtts/min

The technician is to prepare 500 mg of medication in a 50 mL minibag infused over 30 minutes using a 15 drop set. What is the infusion rate in drops per minute?

25 gtts/min

If an 8 fl oz bottle of nystatin contains 0.6 g of active medication, how many milligrams will be in a 2 tsp dose?

25 mg

How many lidocaine suppositories can be made from 5 g of lidocaine powder with each suppository containing 200 mg of lidocaine?

25 suppositories

The technician receives an order to deliver 100 mL of solution over 45 minutes. The solution contains 500 mg of medication and will be infused using a 20 drop set. How many micrograms of medication will be in each drop?

250 mcg/gtt

The sig on a prescription reads: 1 Tablet po tid prn. How many tablets will be needed to fill a 90-day supply for a mail order?

270 tablets

Your pharmacy's total inventory cost them $87,509.24. If the average amount of inventory sold in a week netted the pharmacy $21,877.31, how many days would the pharmacy need to operate in order to make back their inventory's value?

28 days Explanation: First, find the pharmacy's daily profit by dividing the week's profit by the number of days in a week: $21,877.31 / 7 days = $3,125.33 per day. Then, divide this amount from the total inventory's cost in order to find the days needed: $87,509.24 / $3,125.33 per day = 28 days.

A drug product that requires refrigeration should be kept at:

2° to 8° C. Explanation: The proper temperature range for medications requiring refrigeration is 2° to 8° C.

If a pharmacy has an average inventory value of $40,083.29 and their annual inventory cost is $112,954.47, what is the pharmacy's turnover rate, rounded to the nearest whole number?

3 Explanation: The turnover rate is defined as the number of times an inventory must be sold in order to make back the amount spent on inventory in a year. To calculate it, divide the annual inventory cost by the average inventory value: $112,954.47 / $40,083.29 = 2.82. Round this number up to 3.

A medical order requests D5NS to be run at 125 mL/h. How many 1 L bags will be needed for 24 hours?

3 bags

Based on an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour, how many 1 liter bags of medication would be needed to last an entire day?

3 bags

A patient is taking 2 tbsp of medication every 6 hours. He is dispensed a 12 fl oz bottle of medication. How many days will this medication last?

3 days

The par levels for asthma tablets are a minimum of 150 tablets and a maximum of 400 tablets. At the end of the day, the pharmacy technician notices that there are only 23 tablets in stock. If this medication is only available in 50 tablet packages, how many must be ordered to meet the minimum stock level?

3 packages Explanation: Begin by subtracting the tablets in stock from the minimum inventory level to find the amount needed to reach minimum stock: 150 tablets - 23 tablets = 127 tablets. Then, divide this amount by the number of tablets per package: 127 tablets / 50 tablets per package = 2.54 packages. Round this answer up to the nearest whole package to arrive at 3 packages needed.

A patient comes into the pharmacy with a prescription for 60 tablets of pravastatin 250 mg with 1 refill. The signa states: "Take 1 PO q day." If the patient's insurance states that it will only pay for a 30-day supply, what should the patient's refills be adjusted to?

3 refills Explanation: The patient is to take 1 tablet of medication per day. With the refill, the patient is allowed to receive a total of 120 tablets. If his or her insurance will only cover a 30-day supply at a time, the refills must be adjusted to 3 to account for the other 90 tablets needed.

A formula for a 50 mL solution contains 8 g of Drug A and 5 g of Drug B. How many grams of each drug are required to prepare 20 mL of the formula?

3.2 g of Drug A and 2 g of Drug B

A lansoprazole 15 mg/5 mL suspension needs to be compounded using lansoprazole 30 mg capsules in sodium bicarbonate solution. How many lansoprazole capsules will be required to make 300 mL of suspension?

30 capsules

A technician needs 3,000,000 units of nystatin suspension for a compounded oral suspension. If nystatin suspension is available in 500,000 units/5 mL, how many milliliters will be required for this order?

30 mL

After it has been turned on, a laminar airflow hood should be allowed to run for how long before it is used in the preparation of a sterile product?

30 minutes Explanation: Ideally, a laminar airflow hood should be left running at all times, except during cleaning. If it has been turned off, the LAH needs to run for 30 minutes before it can be used in the preparation of a drug. This provides the HEPA filter with enough time to clean the room air thoroughly. Once the LAH has been running for 30 minutes, it will then need to be cleaned with alcohol before it is ready to use.

If an IV is being infused at a rate of 125 mL/hour and there is only one 4 L bag in stock, how long will it be before the stock is depleted?

32 hours

What is the FDA recommended maximum dose per tablet, capsule, or other dosage unit for prescription acetaminophen products?

325 mg Explanation: A serious side effect of acetaminophen is hepatotoxicity. This means the drug has been found to cause damage to the liver at high or extended doses. The risk is higher for patients who are heavy drinkers or who have liver disease. Acetaminophen is also a common cause of overdoses and resulting death. The FDA has set the recommended maximum amount of acetaminophen in prescription drug products at 325 mg per tablet, capsule, or other dosage unit.

A patient has been advised by his prescriber to take a 5 gr dosage of phenobarbital daily. How much is this in mg?

325 mg Explanation: There are 65 milligrams in 1 grain of phenobarbital

The technician receives an order to provide 0.25 L of medication over a 45-minute period. Calculate the infusion rate in a milliliters per hour basis.

333.33 mL/hr

A prescriber wants a 1.75% lidocaine solution for a procedure. The pharmacy stocks lidocaine in 1% and 2% strengths. How many milliliters of each would the pharmacy technician need to make 50 mL of this compound?

37.5 mL of 2% and 12.5 mL of 1%

The molecular structure of a tetracyclic antidepressant contains how many fused rings?

4 Explanation: Tetracyclic refers to "4 rings," where "tetra-" means "four" and "cyclic" refers to "a chemical structure with a ring of atoms." Tetracyclic antidepressants all have similar structures with these 4 rings. Examples of tetracyclic antidepressants include Asendin, Ludiomil, and Remeron.

A bag with 750 mL of solution is being infused at a rate of 125 mL/hr. How many bags would be needed to last an entire day?

4 bags

A physician orders 60 g of a special compound containing econazole cream and betamethasone 0.1% cream in a 2:1 ratio, respectively. How much of each cream will be needed?

40 g econazole, 20 g betamethasone Explanation: A 2:1 ratio indicates there are three total parts. 2 parts are econazole or two thirds of the total, and 1 part is betamethasone or one third of the total. Multiply the fraction of each by the total weight needed to determine how many grams are needed.

An order to infuse 80 mL of medication at a rate of 120 mL/hour is received. How long will the infusion take in minutes?

40 minutes

A patient takes 4 mg of warfarin on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday and 2 mg of warfarin on Tuesday, Thursday, Saturday, and Sunday. The pharmacy only has 2 mg tablets in stock. How many 2 mg tablets would be needed for the entire 28-day supply?

40 tablets

A technician needs to draw up 40 doses of levofloxacin 250 mg oral solution into syringes. If levofloxacin is available in a concentration of 25 mg/mL, how many milliliters will be needed for all of the doses?

400 mL

If a patient takes 2 TSP of a medication q8h, how many milliliters of medication will be required to last 14 days?

420 mL

A 0.5% diluted sodium hypochlorite (bleach) irrigation solution has been ordered. How many milliliters of sodium hypochlorite will be required for 16 fl oz if the concentration of the sodium hypochlorite is 5.25%?

46 mL

How many 5 mL doses of levetiracetam oral solution can be repackaged from 8 fl oz of product?

48 Explanation:

If a prescription was written for 40 tablets with the directions "1-2 po qid prn", how long will the supply last?

5 days

If a cancer patient takes this cytotoxic drug in conjunction with leucovorin, the patient will require lower doses of this cytotoxic drug. What cytotoxic drug is described?

5-fluorouracil Explanation: Patients receive leucovorin, a folic acid analog, by injection. This drug helps increase the effects of 5-fluorouracil when patients take them together. This means the patient will need a lower dose of 5-fluorouracil to obtain therapeutic effects of this drug. Patients may conversely receive a very high dose of methotrexate and then receive something called a leucovorin rescue in which the leucovorin protects the healthy cells from the damaging effects of the high dose of methotrexate.

Which of these includes a trailing zero?

5.0

The average tear volume in the eyes is 10 uL. The average drop size from an eye dropper is _______ uL.

50

A patient is to receive 200 mg of an antibiotic medication bid for 10 days. The medicine comes in a concentration of 400 mg/5 mL. Which size bottle would provide an adequate supply of medication for the duration?

50 mL

How many milliliters of lidocaine 4% solution can be made with 2 g of lidocaine powder?

50 mL

An IV has a fluid volume of 1.5 L. The time of infusion was ordered for 180 minutes. What is the infusion rate in milliliters per hour?

500 mL/hr

Enoxaparin sodium for injection is dosed at 1 mg/kg q12h SC for 3 days. If the patient weighs 200 lb, how many milligrams will the patient have received by the end of the treatment?

546 mg

A patient's medication comes in a 28 dram bottle. How many 2 milliliter doses are contained in the bottle?

56 Explanation: There are 4 milliliters in 1 dram

The pharmacy's medication refrigerator is malfunctioning and has registered a temperature of 15° Celsius. What is the equivalent in Fahrenheit?

59°F

How many pints are there in 100 fluid ounces?

6 1/4 Explanation: There are 16 fluid ounces in a pint.

A prescriber wants to increase the percentage strength of clindamycin 1% topical lotion to 2.5%. If the clindamycin 1% lotion contains 120 mL, how many 300 mg clindamycin capsules should be emptied into the lotion to obtain the desired concentration?

6 capsules

A patient uses 15 units of regular insulin tid AC. If her insulin pen contains 3 mL of insulin, how many days will the pen last?

6 days

A 1.5 L bag is being infused at a rate of 250 mL/hour. How many hours will the IV bag last?

6 hours

A physician orders 1.8 L of medication to be given by IV over 10 hours using a 20-drop set. What is the infusion rate in drops per minute?

60 gtts/min

If 400 mg of a drug is to be administered from a 100-mL bag over 100 minutes using a 60 drop set, what is the infusion rate in drops per minute?

60 gtts/min

If an IV is being infused at 125 mL/h using tubing calibrated to 30 gtt/mL, what is the infusion rate in gtt/min?

63 gtt/min

If a prescription calls for 2 oz of a 12% cream, how many grams of the active ingredient are required?

7.2 g

When preparing an extemporaneous compound, what is the best product to disinfect the work area and equipment?

70% isopropyl alcohol Explanation: 70% isopropyl alcohol is the best choice for disinfecting a compounding work area and equipment. It reduces surface microbes and evaporates quickly without leaving a residue. Acetone is used in organic chemistry labs for cleaning lab equipment and in nail salons as a nail polish remover, but it is not used in the pharmacy. Bleach is a good disinfectant, but a concentration of 25% is too high and will leave a residue and damage some surfaces. All-purpose cleaning products should not be used on surfaces that will come into contact with medications.

The technician receives an order to give 0.3 L of IV medication over 4 hours using a mini-drip set. What will the infusion rate be in drops per minute?

75 gtts/min

A patient is prescribed cortisone at a dose of 0.4 mg/kg every 8 hours. If the patient weighs 142 lb, what should the patient's daily dose be?

77.5 mg

How many 250 mL IV bags will be needed for a patient for a 24-hour supply if the IV is being infused at 75 mL/h?

8 bags

A 2 liter IV is being infused at a rate of 250 mL/hour. How often will a new bag need to be set up?

8 hours

How many milligrams are in 7 scruples of thyroid medication?

8,400 mg Explanation: There are 20 grains in 1 scruple, and there are 60 milligrams in 1 grain of thyroid medication.

Liver failure can result from an unintentional overdosage of what over the counter pain reliever?

Acetaminophen

A 500 mL IV is being infused at a rate of 60 gtts/min. If standard 60 gtts/mL tubing is used, how many hours will it take to infuse the entire IV?

8.3 hours

The BSA of a patient is 1.7 m2. If a medication order is written as 10 mg/m2/day in 2 divided doses, how many milligrams will the patient receive for 1 dose?

8.5 mg

Tylenol with Codeine (C3)

Acetaminophen with codeine Opioid combination Analgesic

A prescription calls for 2 parts betamethasone cream and 1 part clotrimazole cream. If the prescription calls for 4 oz, how many grams of each will the pharmacy technician need?

80 g betamethasone and 40 g clotrimazole

The pharmacy technician receives a prescription for penicillin 500 mg. The directions state "Take 2 tablets qid for 10 days." How many tablets must the technician dispense?

80 tablets

A patient weighs 102 lb. She is to receive a medication of 0.8 mg/kg/hr. What will her daily dose of medication be?

890.2 mg

A patient is being given medication by IV at a rate of 90 mL/hr. The order is scheduled to be given from 9:00 A.M. until 2:00 P.M. Using 50 mL bags, how many bags will be needed for the order?

9 bags

Cleaning must be performed before disinfection. What percentage of bacteria can be removed from surface just by dry cleaning?

90%

An intramuscular injection should be given at what angle?

90° Explanation: An intramuscular injection should be given at a 90° angle. This is because the needle needs to reach below the dermal layer into the deep muscle tissue. Because muscles contain numerous blood vessels, drug absorption occurs rapidly.

What is the best equipment to weigh pharmaceutical powders?

A balance Explanation: The best equipment is an electronic or Class A torsion balance. A dietary scale is not sensitive enough for these measurements. Beakers and cylinders are used to measure liquids.

Which statement is not a reason to use parenteral routes of administration?

A drug is rapidly adsorbed when orally administered

Since ibuprofen may be purchased without a prescription, who may counsel a patient on its use?

A pharmacist

Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. All prescriptions received electronically by the pharmacy must be transcribed into a hard copy form. B. A medication order is used by a hospital or institutional pharmacy. C. A prescription may be written in ink by the prescriber. D. A pharmacy technician may accept a new prescription that was called in by a provider.

A pharmacy technician may accept a new prescription that was called in by a provider. Explanation: Pharmacy technicians may not receive new prescriptions electronically, including by phone. Instead, such medication orders must be transcribed into hard copy by the pharmacist who can then ensure their accuracy. Once transcribed and approved, the pharmacy technician may then fill the prescription.

What is an elixir?

A solution that contains flavored water and alcohol Explanation: An elixir is a solution that contains flavored water and alcohol in varying percentages. A medicated elixir is sometimes useful for patients who cannot swallow capsules or tablets. An unmedicated elixir does not contain drugs, but can be used in conjunction with medication administration to hide the unpleasant taste of a drug.

Which of the following best describes a tort? A. An implied contract between two people B. A violation of a patient's privacy as a result of negligence C. A wrongful act that results in injury to another person D. A consensual termination of a legally binding contract

A wrongful act that results in injury to another person Explanation: A tort is a legal action that occurs when one person harms another through wrongful conduct. Intentional torts are those in which harm is caused by willful intent; nonintentional torts are those in which harm is caused through negligence.

Which reference would a pharmacy technician choose to research the compatibility of IV cefazolin and heparin running through the same IV line?

King Guide to Parenteral Admixtures

A pharmacy stocks vitamins that were purchased from their wholesaler for $12.85 per bottle. If the pharmacy has a 40% markup rate, what will be the customer's price per bottle?

A. $17.99 Explanation: Begin by converting the percentage into a decimal by dividing by 100: 40 / 100 = 0.4. Next, calculate the profit by multiplying that by the purchased price: 0.4 * $12.85 = $5.14. Then, add this amount to the purchased price for the customer's price: $5.14 + $12.85 = $17.99.

Which of the following is an example of accounts receivable? A. A bill to a patient B. Salaries of pharmacy employees C. Rent for the pharmacy building D. An electricity bill

A. A bill to a patient

Which of the following documents shows the status of outstanding claims from each third-party payer and outstanding payments for each patient? A. Accounts receivable aging report B. Coordination of benefits C. Third-party payer fee schedule D. Electronic remittance advice

A. Accounts receivable aging report Explanation: The accounts receivable aging report can be generated to show outstanding claims that have not been paid by insurance companies or by patients. This document is especially helpful when reporting delinquent claims.

Which of the following drug classes may cause orthostatic hypotension as a side effect? A. Alpha receptor antagonists B. Alpha receptor agonists C. Beta receptor antagonists D. Beta receptor agonists

A. Alpha receptor antagonists Explanation: Alpha receptor antagonists work to lower blood pressure by inhibiting alpha receptors and decreasing vasoconstriction. Examples of drugs in this class include Cardura (doxazosin mesylate) and Minipress (prazosin hydrochloride). A common side effect of these drugs is orthostatic hypotension, also called postural hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when a person stands up after sitting or lying down and may lead to syncope, or fainting.

Which of the following is not an antipsychotic drug? A. Amitriptyline B. Haloperidol C. Clozapine D. Aripiprazole

A. Amitriptyline Explanation: Amitriptyline, which is sold as Elavil, is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant drug that is used mainly for the treatment of depression, although it may also be used for the management of bedwetting in children and adolescents if the problem is related to a physical or psychological disorder. It is administered orally to patients

Which of the following must include information regarding a drug's recommended use on the label? A. An OTC drug B. A generic drug C. A brand name drug D. An herbal supplement

A. An OTC drug Explanation: Because patients self-administer OTC drugs without the supervision of a medical professional, they are required to include clearly stated information on the label, including recommended use, warnings and contraindications, dosing procedures, and preparation instructions. These requirements are part of the Durham-Humphrey Amendments to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).

Albert has been diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. This means he will require hormone replacement therapy with which of the following hormones? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Prolactin C. Insulin D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Explanation: Diabetes insipidus (DI) is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This hormone is produced by the pituitary gland upon stimulation by the hypothalamus in the brain. Its function is to help the body conserve water. Insufficiency of ADH, conversely, causes a person to become extremely thirsty and to lose water through polyuria, or excessive urination. DI is not the same condition as diabetes mellitus (DM).

Which category of antineoplastic drugs affects the production of DNA? A. Antimetabolites B. Alkylating agents C. Antibiotics D. Hormonal agents

A. Antimetabolites Explanation: Antimetabolites are antineoplastic drugs that interfere with the production of DNA, RNA, and proteins the cells need to reproduce in cells that are involved in metabolism. They are most often used to treat malignant tumors and hematologic cancers, like leukemia.

As a group, anticancer drugs are known by which of the following terms? A. Antineoplastics B. Alkylating agents C. Antimetabolites D. Chemotherapeutics

A. Antineoplastics Explanation: Drugs used in cancer treatment have a range of mechanisms of action. As a whole, they are known as antineoplastics, with the prefix "anti-" meaning "against" and the term "neoplasm" meaning "new growth." Thus, antineoplastic drugs are designed to work against malignant (cancerous) neoplasms.

The drug fulvestrant is used to treat which of the following cancers? A. Breast B. Ovarian C. Testicular D. Prostate

A. Breast Explanation: Patients with breast cancer may receive fulvestrant, sold under the trade name Faslodex, by injection. More specifically, this drug is effective in treating hormone receptor positive breast cancer that has not responded well to treatment with antiestrogen drugs. Patients using this medication also need to have completed menopause in order for the drug to be effective.

Which of the following drugs would be considered a mixed or partial agonist/antagonist? A. Butorphanol (Stadol) B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C. Propoxyphene napsylate (Darvon-N) D. Oxycodone (Percocet)

A. Butorphanol (Stadol) Explanation: An analgesic drug that it is classified as a mixed agonist/antagonist acts as both an agonist and an antagonist within the body. Butorphanol has a weak effect against the mu opioid receptor. It is available as a nasal spray for the treatment of moderate pain, such as pain caused by migraine headaches.

A patient is allergic to penicillin and has a new prescription for cephalexin. Which statement is most correct? A. Cephalexin is in the cephalosporin family, which can cause an allergic reaction for some patients who are allergic to penicillin. B. Cephalexin is in the tetracycline family, which can cause an allergic reaction for some patients who are allergic to penicillin. C. Cephalexin is not a member of the penicillin family, so there will be no possible allergic reaction. D. Cephalexin is in the penicillin family, so there could be the potential for an allergic reaction.

A. Cephalexin is in the cephalosporin family, which can cause an allergic reaction for some patients who are allergic to penicillin.

Which of the following has the potential to cause serious injury, illness, or even death if taken by a patient? A. Class I recall B. Misbranded drug C. Expired drug D. Class III recall

A. Class I recall

Cytotoxic drugs are least likely to have a toxic effect on which of the following body tissues? A. Cornea B. Hair follicles C. Bone marrow D. GI epithelium

A. Cornea Explanation: Anticancer drugs cause a range of adverse effects because they harm both healthy and cancerous cells within the body. Certain body tissues are more susceptible to harm than others. These include cells that normally grow more rapidly than others, such as the bone marrow, hair follicles, gastrointestinal epithelium (lining), and cells that make sperm.

A patient's physician has prescribed a narcotic to help relieve the patient's acute pain. Which of the following drugs is classified as a narcotic? A. Demerol B. Vioxx C. Lodine D. Celebrex

A. Demerol Explanation: Drugs that are classified as narcotics are opioid analgesics. This means they are clinically related to morphine, either synthetically or naturally. Meperidine (Demerol) is an example of a narcotic drug because its effects on the body are similar to those of morphine. The term "narcotic" may also be used to refer to illegal drugs such as heroin, amphetamines, and hallucinogens.

Beta blockers can mask the symptoms of what disease?

A. Diabetes

A topical corticosteroid would be used in the treatment of which of the following conditions? A. Eczema B. Lupus C. Tendonitis D. Asthma

A. Eczema Explanation: The topical route of administration involves the application of a drug to the skin. Corticosteroid drugs are synthetic versions of the hormones that are produced by the body's adrenal glands. When used topically, they may treat a number of inflammatory skin conditions. Side effects may include redness, lesions, and acne.

Which of the following agencies may order a drug recall? A. FDA B. USDA C. OSHA D. NDA

A. FDA Explanation: Under the authorization of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) may order a drug or product recall if a product is dangerous to the public and may cause injury, illness, or death.

One patient's asthma symptoms were determined to be caused mainly by inflammation. Which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment? A. Fluticasone B. Aminophylline C. Tiotropium D. Levalbuterol

A. Fluticasone Explanation: Because asthma is primarily caused by inflammation, the prescriber might choose to give an inhaler that is a corticosteroid. Fluticasone (Flovent) is the only corticosteroid medication listed. Levalbuterol is a sympathetic agonist, tiotropium is a bronchodilator, and aminophylline is a methylxanthine.

Which of the following is the most common cause of fatal medication errors according to a report by the Institute of Medicine (IOM)? A. Giving a patient an overdose of a drug B. Giving a patient a generic equivalent C. Giving a patient the incorrect drug D. Giving a patient a drug by the wrong route

A. Giving a patient an overdose of a drug Explanation: The National Coordinating Council for Medication Error Reporting and Prevention defines a medication error as ". . . any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm, while the medication is in control of the healthcare professional, patient, or consumer. . . ." As a pharmacy technician, you have a responsibility to understand the different types of medication errors and their causes and to do your utmost to prevent making them yourself. This includes obtaining the proper training to do your job effectively, staying current regarding changes in pharmacy and healthcare, getting enough sleep, and managing stress, to name only a few things.

Which of the following routes of administration would most likely be used for a patient with a brain tumor? A. Intra-arterial B. Intraperitoneal C. Intramuscular D. Intranasal

A. Intra-arterial Explanation: Drugs that are administered by the intra-arterial route are injected directly into an artery through infusion. This provides for a high concentration of the drug that is close to the site where it is needed. For example, a cytotoxic agent for a brain tumor would likely be administered to the carotid artery where it would be closer to the brain.

A retail pharmacy is less likely than an institutional pharmacy to dispense which of the following? A. Intravenous drugs B. Ophthalmic drugs C. Topical drugs D. Otic drugs

A. Intravenous drugs Explanation: A retail pharmacy dispenses drugs directly to the patient, as opposed to an institutional pharmacy where drugs for a particular patient are dispensed via a nurse or other healthcare provider. Intravenous drugs are administered through injection into a patient's vein and are therefore more likely to be administered in a hospital setting.

A hospital pharmacy receives a stat drug order for deferoxamine for a pediatric patient who ingested adult multivitamins. This drug is an antidote for which of the following? A. Iron B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Vitamin A

A. Iron Explanation: Iron overdose poses the greatest risk to children who ingest adult strength multivitamins, prenatal vitamins, or other standalone iron supplements such as Slow Fe (ferrous sulfate), Fergon (ferrous gluconate), and Feostat (ferrous fumarate). An excess of iron leads to gastrointestinal distress and bloody diarrhea and may progress to shock, coma, and death. Deferoxamine is often used as an antidote for iron poisoning because it inactivates, or chelates, the iron within the body.

Which of the following statements is not true about the patient profile? Which of the following statements is not true about the patient profile? A. It may be shared in its entirety with other pharmacies or institutions without the patient's permission. B. It may be copied and given to the patient upon request under HIPAA regulations. C. Only non-identifiable information contained in the patient profile may be shared with other organizations or institutions. D. It is a legal record of all medications the pharmacy provides to a patient.

A. It may be shared in its entirety with other pharmacies or institutions without the patient's permission.

All of the following medications are used to relieve abdominal pain or discomfort associated with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) except: A. Lomotil. B. Donnatal. C. Levsin. D. Bentyl.

A. Lomotil. Explanation: Donnatal, Bentyl, and Levsin all have antispasmodic properties, which help reduce the symptoms of IBS. IBS affects individuals differently, but some symptoms include relief after bowel movement, variations in bowel movement from straining to urgency, changes in when bowel movements occur, and variation in bowel movement size or consistency. Some experience pain with diarrhea or pain with constipation and most have other nonintestinal symptoms such as anxiety, fatigue, and headache.

A laminar flow hood is not necessary for the preparation of which of the following drugs? A. Medicated stick B. Ophthalmic solution C. IV admixture D. Unit-dose syringe

A. Medicated stick Explanation: Preparing a medication using a laminar flow hood helps create a sterile environment that is free of airborne contaminants. Some drugs, such as IV admixtures and ophthalmic solutions, must be sterile to ensure the patient's safety and are therefore prepared using a laminar flow hood. Other products, like a medicated stick, do not require the same level of sterility.

Which of the following statements about hormones is false? A. Most hormones have a half-life of 45 minutes to an hour in the blood. B. Hormones are mainly excreted from the body through urine. C. Steroid hormones are produced by the adrenal glands and sex glands. D. The negative feedback loop helps control hormone secretion.

A. Most hormones have a half-life of 45 minutes to an hour in the blood. Explanation: The various endocrine glands secrete hormones into the bloodstream where they travel to target organs or cells in different parts of the body to achieve specific effects. Most hormones are inactivated quickly and have short half-lives of 10 to 30 minutes within the blood. A few hormones, such as thyroid hormones, have a half-life that lasts days, but this is less common

If a patient's profile shows that a patient is allergic to NSAIDs, which medication should not be dispensed to the patient? A. Nabumetone B. Minocycline C. Codeine D. Acetaminophen

A. Nabumetone Explanation: Nabumetone is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic/antipyretic, codeine is an opioid pain reliever, and minocycline is an antibiotic in the tetracycline class.

Which of the following drugs is administered by the ophthalmic route? A. Xalatan B. Terazol C. Phenergan D. Catapres

A. Xalatan Explanation: Xalatan is used in the treatment of the eye conditions glaucoma and ocular hypertension and is, therefore, administered as an eye drop via the ophthalmic route. Patients using eye drops or other ophthalmic drugs should be instructed on the proper way to instill eye drops as well as the importance of keeping the medication sterile.

People should not consume cheese or chocolate while taking which of the following drugs? A. Nardil (phenelzine) B. Tofranil (imipramine) C. Remeron (mirtazapine) D. Prozac (fluoxetine)

A. Nardil (phenelzine) Explanation: Nardil (phenelzine) is classified as a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) which means it hinders the metabolism rate of norepinephrine within the neurons. Chocolate, cheese, and wine contain tyramine, which is usually broken down by MAOIs. However, when monoamine oxidase is inhibited, the tyramine is absorbed and can ultimately result in a large release of norepinephrine by the neurons.

A quadriplegic patient takes an opioid analgesic to control the pain related to his condition. The patient's pain would be considered which of the following? A. Neuropathic B. Nociceptive C. Breakthrough D. Acute

A. Neuropathic Explanation: The patient's pain continues unabated, so it is classified as chronic. Chronic pain may be further classified to help identify its source. Because the patient is a quadriplegic and experiences pain related to his condition, his pain is considered neuropathic. This means its cause is a result of damage that has been done to the spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or brain.

Which of the following drugs is ONLY administered by injection? A. Norepinephrine B. Doxazosin mesylate C. Tetrahydrozoline D. Epinephrine

A. Norepinephrine Explanation: Norepinephrine is always administered to patients intravenously because it passes too quickly through the liver to make it effective through an oral route of administration. Norepinephrine is most commonly used during a medical emergency to treat shock. The other drugs listed as answer choices are not limited only to intravenous administration.

A patient who is experiencing intense pain from trigeminal neuralgia arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for the anticonvulsant drug carbamazepine. The use of an anticonvulsant as an analgesic would be considered which of the following? A. Off-label use B. Experimental use C. Unethical use D. Unintended use

A. Off-label use Explanation: Many times, a drug that has received approval from the FDA for one use ends up being beneficial in the treatment of another condition. In this case, the drug carbamazepine (Tegretol) is generally used for the treatment of grand mal and psychomotor seizures. However, it also provides pain relief in certain cases, such as for symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia. Using the drug for this purpose is called off-label use. It is a common medical practice.

Which of the following statements about potential side effects of opiates is false? A. Opiates may cause hyperactivity. B. Opiates may cause euphoria. C. Opiates may cause GI upset. D. Opiates may cause sedation.

A. Opiates may cause hyperactivity. Explanation: Opiates are mainly prescribed for their analgesic, or pain-relieving, properties. However, they may also cause depression of the central nervous system (CNS) which could lead to side effects such as sedation, euphoria, and respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect experienced by patients who are opioid intolerant and take morphine sulfate oral solutions. It also occurs in accidental or intentional overdose. The FDA has required drug companies to make labeling and product packaging changes to ensure that pharmacists, pharmacy technicians, and patients are clear on the product and strength of the specific opiate drug. Pharmacists must also give each patient a drug-specific Medication Guide.

Which of the following medications is not a diuretic? A. Oxybutynin B. Spironolactone C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

A. Oxybutynin Explanation: Oxybutynin is a medication used to treat overactive bladder and other urinary incontinence disorders. The other medications are diuretics.

The vinca alkaloid Oncovin (vincristine) originates from which of the following? A. Periwinkle plant B. Slippery elm bark C. Pacific yew D. May apple

A. Periwinkle plant Explanation: Certain drugs that originate from plant extracts are used to treat cancer. These include the vinca alkaloids, which come from the periwinkle (vinca rosea) plant, and the taxanes, which come from the bark of the Pacific yew tree. These drugs, known as mitotic inhibitors, kill cancer cells by stopping cell division during the M, or mitosis, phase.

A prescription for vitamin B12 would be necessary to treat which of the following conditions? A. Pernicious anemia B. Alcoholism C. Anxiety D. Osteoporosis

A. Pernicious anemia Explanation: Most people who eat meat and other animal products consume enough vitamin B12 as part of their normal diets. Individuals who are pregnant or follow vegan diets may require an over-the-counter (OTC) vitamin B12 supplement to receive an adequate intake of this important vitamin. Other individuals may have difficulty absorbing this vitamin. In such cases, an OTC supplement would be insufficient, and they would require a prescription for vitamin B12. This vitamin is often started as a series of injections and then tapered to a nasal spray that patients may give themselves.

Which of the following contraceptives is available over the counter (OTC)? A. Plan B oral tablet B. Ortho Evra skin patch C. NuvaRing vaginal ring D. Implanon progestin implant

A. Plan B oral tablet Explanation: Levonorgestrel, sold as Plan B or Next Choice, is used as an emergency contraceptive. Its intended use is for women who have had unprotected intercourse and are concerned about possible pregnancy. Examples are cases of rape or contraceptive failure, such as a broken condom. Women who are over the age of 17 may purchase levonorgestrel over the counter. However, this drug is kept behind the pharmacy counter and requires proof of age to purchase.

Which of the following conditions is the generic drug sildenafil used to treat? A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension and erectile dysfunction B. Pulmonary arterial hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia and erectile dysfunction D. Infertility and erectile dysfunction

A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension and erectile dysfunction Explanation: Sildenafil is an example of a phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor. Drugs in this class work by relaxing muscle tissue and increasing blood flow. It is sold under the trade name Viagra for use in the treatment of erectile dysfunction. In this case, its effect is to relax erectile tissue and increase blood flow to the penis. It is also sold under the name Revatio to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension. In this use, it helps increase blood flow to the lungs by relaxing lung tissue.

An inpatient with an ulcer requires an analgesic to relieve his pain. Which of the following drugs would be the best choice for him? A. Sulindac (Clinoril) B. Aspirin (Bayer) C. Ibuprofen (Motrin) D. Ketoprofen (Actron)

A. Sulindac (Clinoril) Explanation: Most NSAIDs are absorbed by the body in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. One possible side effect of this action is that they may cause GI irritation. Sulindac, sold under the brand name Clinoril, is different from other NSAIDs in that it is not converted to an active drug until after the body has absorbed it. This means it does not cause GI irritation and may usually be given to patients with ulcers or other GI conditions.

Which of the following drugs may be used in the long-term treatment of acne? A. Tetracycline B. Gentamicin C. Sulfadiazine D. Phenazopyridine

A. Tetracycline Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. It is one of the medications that may be used to treat acne in some patients because it slows the growth of bacteria that is found in sebum, or the oil produced by the skin.

Which of the following statements is not true about injectable parenteral drugs? A. They are distributed and absorbed within the body more slowly than oral drugs. B. They are more invasive to the patient than most other forms of drug administration. C. They can be very painful when administered, particularly for pediatric and geriatric patients. D. They may be injected into the skin, veins, muscles, or spinal column.

A. They are distributed and absorbed within the body more slowly than oral drugs. Explanation: Parenteral drugs are administered using an injection. The four common subcategories of the parenteral route of administration are subcutaneous, intravenous, intramuscular, and intradermal. Parenteral drugs bypass the gastrointestinal system and are more quickly absorbed and distributed within the body than oral drugs.

Which of the following statements about drugs used in the treatment of central nervous system (CNS) disorders is true? A. They are highly lipid soluble. B. They cannot bypass the blood-brain barrier. C. They tend to cause limited side effects. D. They mainly rely on aqueous solubility.

A. They are highly lipid soluble.

Which of the following is true about cell cycle specific (CCS) drugs? A. They are only effective at a particular phase of the cell cycle. B. They are typically administered to outpatients. C. They do not cause many adverse effects. D. They are most effective during the metaphase of the cell cycle.

A. They are only effective at a particular phase of the cell cycle. Explanation: Cell cycle specific (CCS) drugs are often used in cancer treatment. As their name suggests, they are effective at different parts of the cell cycle. This means, for example, that some CCS drugs may interfere with DNA synthesis while other CCS drugs may prevent mitosis, or cell division.

Which of the following statements about hormonal anticancer drugs is false? A. They have a high level of toxicity to healthy cells. B. They act on specific hormone receptors in body tissues. C. They are frequently used in adjuvant cancer treatment. D. Their effectiveness is not tied to a certain cell cycle phase.

A. They have a high level of toxicity to healthy cells. Explanation: Hormonal agents used to treat cancer target specific hormone receptors in body tissues. This characteristic makes them less toxic to healthy cells than other anticancer drugs that are not specifically targeted to specific hormone receptors. However, this does not mean that anticancer hormonal agents do not cause adverse effects of their own. For example, while the drug tamoxifen may prevent breast cancer, it may also cause endometrial cancer, DVT, and pulmonary embolism.

Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker? A. Verapamil B. Amiodarone C. Acebutolol D. Propranolol

A. Verapamil Explanation: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used in the treatment of hypertension, angina, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. As their name implies, calcium channel blockers inhibit the flow of calcium into the heart and blood vessels. Because the conduction system of the heart requires calcium, a calcium channel blocker is effective in conditions like tachyarrhythmias where the heart is beating too fast. These drugs are also vasodilators, or help expand the walls of the vessels to increase the flow of oxygen.

Which of the following vitamins should a pregnant woman take during pregnancy to reduce the risk of her baby developing a birth defect? A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C

A. Vitamin B Explanation: Folic acid is a B vitamin. Studies by the CDC and other organizations have shown that a deficiency in vitamin B intake while pregnant may cause birth defects such as spina bifida and meningomyelocele in the developing fetus. To prevent birth defects, it is recommended that pregnant women take 400 mcg of folic acid each day. Folic acid may also be found in leafy green vegetables, fruits, dried beans, peas, and nuts as well as enriched foods.

A hospital pharmacy receives a prescription for an injection for a patient with beriberi. The patient is a chronic alcoholic. Based on this information, this patient most likely needs which of the following vitamins? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin E

A. Vitamin B1 Explanation: A severe vitamin B1 deficiency leads to a condition called beriberi. Although this disorder is rare among most of the population in the United States who obtain this vitamin from their diets, it can occur in alcoholics. Babies who are breast fed may also develop this condition. Treatment includes vitamin B1 supplements via injection or as a tablet. Lack of treatment may cause acute heart failure.

A patient who is taking simvastatin (Zocor) would be advised against taking which of the following vitamin supplements? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin D

A. Vitamin E Explanation: Patients who have been diagnosed with a high level of cholesterol may take a statin drug like simvastatin. It works by lowering the level of low density (LDL) cholesterol and increasing the levels of high density (HDL) in the blood circulation. However, studies have shown taking vitamin E while on simvastatin may actually lower HDL levels and is therefore contraindicated.

Which of the following vitamins is considered an antioxidant? A. Vitamins E and C B. Vitamins K and C C. Vitamins E and A D. Vitamins A and K

A. Vitamins E and C Explanation: Free radicals exist both inside and outside the human body. Essentially, free radicals are unstable atoms that cause other atoms within the body to become unstable. This process can lead to negative consequences, such as genetic mutations and cancer, but can also be helpful in fighting off infection. Antioxidants such as vitamins C and E work by protecting the body from the damage caused by free radicals.

Which of the following is considered a trace mineral? A. Zinc B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Phosphorous

A. Zinc Explanation: Zinc is an example of a trace mineral. A trace mineral is a substance that the human body requires in trace, or small, amounts for normal functioning. For example, an adult male needs about 11 mg of zinc each day. Most people consume sufficient zinc in their diet by eating foods such as chicken, beef, beans, nuts, and fortified cereals. Zinc deficiency is rare in the United States.

Refills on Schedule II drugs: A. are not permitted by law. B. require a refill authorization by the prescriber. C. may be dispensed all at once at the discretion of the pharmacist. D. may only be dispensed every 30 days.

A. are not permitted by law. Explanation: By law, Schedule II drugs may not be refilled. Instead, a patient needs to obtain a new, handwritten prescription from a provider each time another dose of the controlled drug is needed. The DEA strictly regulates the dispensing of Schedule II drugs. For example, such prescriptions must be error free and complete when presented, with a valid DEA number. If the pharmacy technician notices anything unusual or erroneous on a prescription for a Schedule II drug, he should notify the pharmacist immediately.

Which of the following is a set of instructions that determines how the computer interacts with the input data? A. computer program B. CAPTCHA system C. biometric detection program D. networked printers

A. computer program

Zoloft is used to treat:

A. depression.

Drugs are exempt from packaging in child-resistant containers in all of the following situations except: A. drugs that are not intended for use by children under age five. B. drugs needed in an emergency situation. C. drugs for elderly patients with limited dexterity. D. drugs for handicapped patients with limited dexterity.

A. drugs that are not intended for use by children under age five. Explanation: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970 was an amendment to the Federal Hazardous Substances Act. Its goal is to prevent the accidental poisoning of children by making drug containers child resistant, meaning a child under the age of five would have some difficulty opening it. Different drugs, like nitroglycerin tablets or other drugs needed quickly in a medical emergency, are exempted from this mandatory packaging, and patients may request that the pharmacy not use it as long as they sign a waiver releasing the pharmacy and pharmacist from liability.

If a prescription for Zestril should be taken by the patient once a day, the prescription should read: A. once daily. B. QID. C. OD. D. o.d.

A. once daily. Explanation: The abbreviations o.d. or OD were formally used by health care providers to mean "once daily," but are now on the Institute for Safe Medical Practices' (ISMP) "Recommended" Do Not Use List because they can easily be mistaken for the abbreviation for "right eye" (OD = oculus dexter) and this confusion could cause medication errors. Pharmacy technicians should become familiar with both the ISMP's and the Joint Commission's Do Not Use lists to ensure the safety of the patients they are serving.

When reviewing a prescription for Ambien, the pharmacy technician notices it is missing the date. The pharmacy technician should: A. refer the patient to the pharmacist because the prescription is incomplete. B. leave the date blank. C. fill the prescription anyway, using that day's date. D. ask the patient when the prescriber issued the prescription and enter that date, then ask the patient to initial the change.

A. refer the patient to the pharmacist because the prescription is incomplete. Explanation: The date a prescription was written, or issued, is an important piece of information that must be included on the prescription. For example, the date helps verify that the prescription is still valid because some prescriptions expire within a year or less of the date they were written by a prescriber. If it is missing, the pharmacy technician should refer the patient to the pharmacist who may then contact the prescriber.

Albuterol is available in all of the following formulations except: A. sublingual spray. B. oral tablet. C. nebulizing solution. D. aerosol.

A. sublingual spray. Explanation: Albuterol is available as a nebulizing solution and an oral inhaler. It is also available by oral tablet, capsule, and solution. It is not available as a sublingual spray. Albuterol is used as a bronchodilator in the treatment of asthma and other breathing disorders.

To treat Helicobacter pylori infection with combination therapy, a proton pump inhibitor is often given with any of the following except: A. sulfasalazine. B. metronidazole. C. amoxicillin. D. clarithromycin.

A. sulfasalazine. Explanation: Sulfasalazine is used to treat ulcerative colitis and rheumatoid arthritis and is never used to treat H. pylori. Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, or metronidazole can be used in combination with proton pump inhibitors. Some treatments may also use tetracycline or bismuth subsalicylate in the combination

A pharmacy technician in a healthcare system pharmacy may use the patient profile to perform the following functions except: A. verify or accept new medication orders. B. credit the patient for discontinued medications. C. input new medication orders. D. refill a missing medication

A. verify or accept new medication orders. Explanation: A pharmacy technician in a healthcare system pharmacy may not verify or accept new medication orders. This function must be performed by a pharmacist. Pharmacy technicians may perform limited billing functions and refill medications. Technicians may also input new medication orders, but the orders must be verified and accepted by a pharmacist before they can be dispensed.

When filling a prescription for Fentanyl, the pharmacy technician should do all of the following except: A. verify that the patient has the correct number of refills. B. add an auxiliary label warning against possible drowsiness. C. file the prescription as a Schedule II controlled substance. D. inform the patient that the drug may cause constipation.

A. verify that the patient has the correct number of refills. Explanation: Fentanyl is classified by the DEA as a Schedule II controlled substance, meaning its use poses a high risk for abuse and dependence. By law in most states, prescriptions for Schedule II drugs may not be refilled. Instead, a new prescription is required by the patient each time.

All of the following are common side effects of using inhaled corticosteroids except: A. weight loss. B. dysphonia. C. thrush. D. cough.

A. weight loss. Explanation: Side effects for inhaled corticosteroids are less common than those taken by mouth or given intravenously. Some of the typical side effects one may encounter include dysphonia (hoarseness), sore throat, thrush, or cough. To reduce side effects, it is recommended for patients to use a spacer when using a MDI. This helps the medication to more effectively reach the bronchial passages. In addition, rinsing the mouth after administration can reduce hoarseness and the risk of acquiring a fungal infection in the mouth. Weight loss is not associated with the chronic use of inhaled corticosteroids.

Which of the following receptors are found most prevalently in the lungs? A. β2-adrenergic receptors B. α2-adrenergic receptors C. α1-adrenergic receptors D. β1-adrenergic receptors

A. β2-adrenergic receptors Explanation: β2-adrenergic receptors are found predominantly in the lungs. Sympathetic agonists work on these receptors to relax smooth muscle in the lungs to relieve bronchoconstriction or bronchospasm. Beta receptors can be found in other parts of the body such as the heart. Certain nonspecific sympathetic agonists may affect the heart rate, but most of their action is delivered to the majority of the receptors in the lungs.

Which of the following is a Schedule III drug? A. Anabolic steroids B. Xanax C. Valium D. Durogesic

A. Anabolic steroids Explanation: Anabolic steroids are classified by the DEA as Schedule III drugs. Schedule III drugs have a known therapeutic benefit but may still lead to abuse or dependence.

8. The 5 pregnancy categories

A. Controlled studies in pregnant women fail to show a risk to the fetus in the first trimester w/ no evidence of risk on later trimesters...positives outway negatives B. Either animal reproduction studies haven't shown a fetal risk but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women C. animal studies have shown a risk. Revealed adverse effects on fetus D. Positive human fetal risk, BUT the benefit may outway the negatives X. Fetal abnormalities, will be damage to the fetus and risk of use of the drug clearly outwighs any positive

By which of the following routes of administration is verapamil available? A. Oral and IV B. Oral and topical C. Oral, IV, and IM D. Oral and transdermal patch

A. Oral and IV Explanation: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used in the treatment of arrhythmias. Patients may self-administer verapamil as either a regular tablet or as an extended-release tablet or capsule. This drug is also available as an intravenous injection by hospital personnel only. The pharmacy technician should be familiar with both routes of administration.

Which of the following is not true about keeping an inventory of controlled drugs in the pharmacy? A. The pharmacy may estimate the quantities of Schedules I, II, III, and IV substances. B. All disposals of controlled substances must be reported using DEA Form 41. C. The pharmacy must prepare an inventory every two years of all its controlled substances. D. There are three different approved filing methods for controlled substance prescriptions.

A. The pharmacy may estimate the quantities of Schedules I, II, III, and IV substances. Explanation: A pharmacy may estimate on-hand inventory quantities of controlled substances in Schedules III, IV, and V. However, the DEA requires a pharmacy to report exact quantities of all Schedule I and II substances it has in its inventory. It is also the prerogative of the DEA to perform site inspections to ensure that controlled substances are being stored, reported, dispensed, and secured according to regulations.

The mother of a 3-year-old patient calls the pharmacy to ask for advice on how to get her child to take her bad tasting medicine. Which of the following would be the best advice for this parent? A. To add a small amount of jam or syrup to a full dose of the drug B. To mix the drug with grapefruit juice to overpower its taste C. To add the drug to the child's milk or favorite cereal D. To mix a half dose of the drug with honey or fruit juice

A. To add a small amount of jam or syrup to a full dose of the drug Explanation: Parents and caregivers may have trouble getting small children to comply with their drug treatment because of the drug's bad taste or smell. Sometimes mixing a small amount of jam, honey, syrup, or other sweet-flavored substance that a child likes will help as long as the full dose is given. Parents should also avoid mixing drugs with healthy foods, such as milk or cereals, to avoid developing a negative association with those foods.

Enalapril belongs to which class of medications?

ACE inhibitors Explanation: Enalapril belongs to a class of medication called angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. The angiotensin-converting enzyme is responsible for raising blood pressure, so this class of medication blocks its action, which lowers blood pressure.

This law requires special accommodations for persons with documented disabilities when taking exams

ADA

atomoxetine

ADHD

dextroamphetamine/amphetamine

ADHD

Which pharmacy drug reference would you search for an indication for an off-label medication?

AHFS Drug Information

Schedule 2, 3, 4 and 5 Drugs

Accepted medical use; the lower the number the higher the potential for abuse. Schedule 2 = Narcotics

Which of the following may be performed only by a pharmacist?

Accepting a return call from a prescriber's office clarifying a prescription

(TJC) The Joint Commission

Accredits and certifies more than 20,000 health care organizations and programs in the United States (hospitals, home health care providers, long-term care facilities, community health centers, nursing homes, clinical laboratories, etc.).

Which part of an administration set is used to set the flow rate?

Volume control chamber

Which adsorbent and antidote agent is used to treat many noncorrosive oral poisonings such as overdose?

Activated charcoal Explanation: Activated charcoal is used as an antidote in many orally ingested poisonings. Because of its adsorbent properties, when it is given orally to the patient, it adsorbs the toxin deep into its matrix, preventing the toxin from getting absorbed into systemic circulation.

The practice of repeating what another person has said back to them is part of what process?

Active listening Explanation: Pharmacy technicians need to employ successful communication techniques when interacting with patients, either in-person or on the phone. Repeating back what another person has said is a sign of active listening, as it shows the other person that you have heard and are processing what they are saying to you.

Where are the mineralocorticoids produced in the body?

Adrenal glands Explanation: The adrenal glands located on the top of each kidney produce three hormones, mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens. Mineralocorticoids regulate the levels of sodium and potassium in the blood. Aldosterone is an example of a mineralocorticoid.

Fluticasone and salmeterol can be found in which brand of inhaler?

Advair

(NACDS) National Association of Chain Drug Stores

Advances the interests and objectives of the chain community pharmacy industry by fostering its growth and promoting its role as a provider of healthcare services and consumer products.

When preparing an intravenous chemotherapy agent in the clean room, the pharmacy technician accidentally pokes a hole in the IV bag, spilling 500 mL on the floor and her gown. What should the technician do?

Advise the pharmacist to consult the MSDS to determine the proper method for cleaning up the spill. Explanation: With a spill of that magnitude, the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) must be consulted to determine the appropriate method for cleaning up the spill. The medication and the volume may affect the method of containing the spill. Smaller spills may require the use of a chemo spill kit kept on hand; however, larger spills may require the involvement of the HazMat Emergency Response Team.

Adjusting the pharmacy's inventory occurs at which point after an order has been received?

After the order has been verified Explanation: The pharmacy technician generally adjusts the pharmacy's inventory following the receipt of an order after the order has been verified. The pharmacy technician must compare the purchase order against the packing list, invoice, and physical order to make sure it is accurate and no mistakes have been made. Once the order is verified, the inventory in the pharmacy's computer system may be adjusted with the new information.

Which will not be caused by particulate material in an intravenous injection?

Air emboli

Fosamax

Alendronate Biphosphonate Osteoporosis

Fosamax Plus D

Alendronate w/vitamin D Biphosphonate Osteoporosis

A hospital pharmacy technician receives a drug order for ibuprofen for a patient. The technician notices the patient is already taking Coumadin. What should the technician do?

Alert the pharmacist. Explanation: Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that causes an adverse reaction when taken with NSAIDs such as ibuprofen. When combined, these drugs increase the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage. The technician should alert the hospital pharmacist to this information rather than filling the order as written.

Uroxatral

Alfuzosin Alpha-blocker BPH

Zyloprim

Allopurinal Xanthine oxidase inhibitor Gout

-osin

Alpha-agonist hypotensive agents

Xanax (C4)

Alprazolam Benzodiazepine Anxiety

A pharmacy technician is preparing a prescription for ibandronate (Boniva). The technician should make sure the patient understands which of the following precautions associated with this drug?

Always stand or sit upright for 60 minutes after taking ibandronate. Explanation: Ibandronate (Boniva) is a bisphosphonate that is typically used to treat osteoporosis. Patients who are taking this medication need to know that it has the potential to damage the esophagus or cause mouth sores if they do not wait at least 60 minutes after taking it before they lie down or recline. For this reason, it should not be taken at bedtime or while lying in bed.

Aricept is used to treat:

Alzheimer's disease. Explanation: Alzheimer's disease, the most common and progressive form of dementia, typically occurs in the elderly. Symptoms include memory, language, learning, and fine motor impairment. Symptoms of this disease may be treated with Aricept, but there is currently no cure. Aricept is not used to treat Parkinson's disease, tardive dyskinesia, or bipolar disorder.

Norvasc

Amlodipine besylate Calcium channel blocker Hypertension

Caduet

Amlodipine-atorvistatin CCB-HMG CoA reductase inhibitor combination Hypertension and hyperlipidemia

Amoxil

Amoxicillin Penicillin antibiotic Bacterial infection

What is not an example of a drug name suffix that could be a source of confusion and lead to medication errors?

Amoxicillin 250 mg and Amoxicillin 500 mg

Augmentin

Amoxicillin-clavulanate Penicillin combination antibiotic Bacterial infection

Which is a false statement about ampules?

Ampules should be disposed of in sharps containers

Which is the correct definition of a disinfectant?

An agent that removes or destroys vegetative forms of microorganisms on a surface

Which of the following would be used in the treatment of a parasitic infection? A. An antifungal B. An antiviral C. An aminoglycoside D. An amebicide

An amebicide Explanation: An amebicide is used to treat amebiasis, an infection caused by a protozoan parasite. This infection may occur in the intestinal tract, liver, or other tissue and is most often the result of ingesting water or food contaminated by fecal matter.

What is the term for a drug that lessens or takes away pain?

Analgesic Explanation: An analgesic is a type of drug that alleviates or lessens the intensity of pain. The prefix "an-" means "without," and the root word "algesia" means "pain." Two common OTC examples of nonnarcotic analgesic drugs are ibuprofen and aspirin.

lidocaine

Anesthetic and antiarrhythmic, topical

A patient presents transient symptoms such as severe chest pain and pressure that radiates down his left shoulder and arm. His prescriber gives him a prescription for nitroglycerin. What condition does the patient have?

Angina Explanation: The patient has angina, which is indicated by his symptoms. Stroke often presents with numbness down the shoulder but is not treated with nitroglycerin. Pulmonary embolism and ventricular fibrillation have different symptoms and treatments.

Losartan is an example of which class of medications?

Angiotensin-receptor blockers Explanation: The renin-angiotensin system is an enzymatic pathway that regulates blood pressure. Losartan is an angiotensin-receptor blocker which prevents the angiotensin-converting enzyme from binding to its receptor and increasing blood pressure. This medication reverses this process by lowering blood pressure. Angiotensin-receptor blockers work in a different portion of the same pathway used by ACE inhibitors.

Maalox belongs to which drug class?

Antacids Explanation: Maalox contains aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide, both of which are useful in the treatment of excess stomach acid by neutralizing the acid through their weak basic structure. These alkaline ingredients are commonly found in antacids. Antidiarrheals relieve loose stools, serotonin antagonists are used for severe nausea and vomiting, and histamine2 blockers are used to suppress excess stomach acid through a different mechanism.

levetiracetam

Anticonvulsant

phenytoin

Anticonvulsant

terbinafine

Antifungal

azelastine

Antihistamine

cetirizine

Antihistamine

fexofenadine

Antihistamine

olopatadine

Antihistamine

hydrochlorothiazide/losartan

Antihypertensive

irbesartan

Antihypertensive

irbesartan/hydrochlorothiazide

Antihypertensive

losartan

Antihypertensive

telmisartan

Antihypertensive

valsartan

Antihypertensive

candesartan

Antihypertensive drug

Pharmacy technicians must take extra precautions for their personal safety when handling which type of drugs?

Antineoplastics Explanation: Antineoplastic drugs, also known as chemotherapy, are used in the treatment of cancer. The intended purpose of these drugs is to damage the DNA of cancer cells and stop their growth. However, because it is not possible to isolate these drugs to an exclusive focus on cancer cells, it is possible that exposure to them by others, such as a technician, might be injurious. Pharmacy technicians who are handling antineoplastic drugs need to wear the appropriate personal protective equipment.

aripiprazole

Antipsychotic

olanzapine

Antipsychotic

quetiapine

Antipsychotic

risperidone

Antipsychotic

ziprasidone

Antipsychotic

valacyclovir

Antiviral

Cold

Any temperature not exceeding 8C

Which of the following is not true about a drug that has been dispensed to a patient? A. It was verified by a pharmacist during a final check. B. It is intended for use only by that patient and no one else. C. It may require special instructions or pharmacist counseling. D. Any unused portions may be returned to the pharmacy.

Any unused portions may be returned to the pharmacy. Explanation: Once a drug has been dispensed, or given, to a patient, it may not be returned to the pharmacy for any reason. This is because the pharmacy releases its control of the drug once it has been handed off and can therefore no longer verify its quality or the integrity of its ingredients.

Excessive Heat

Anytime temperature above 40C

Mr. Thomas, an elderly patient, becomes upset when the younger pharmacy technician refers to him by his first name. What should the pharmacy technician do?

Apologize and begin addressing the patient as Mr. Thomas.

Which of the following absorption rate rankings (from fastest to slowest) is correct when considering IM administration?

Aqueous solutions>oleaginous solutions> colloids> suspensions

Abilify

Aripiprazole Antipsychotic Schizophrenia

For what purpose would a patient most likely purchase a melatonin supplement?

As a sleep aid Explanation: Melatonin is a hormone that the body produces naturally in the pineal gland. Studies have linked melatonin with the body's sleep cycle because levels of melatonin are naturally higher in the evening. Many patients take synthetic melatonin supplements as a sleep aid. Another common use is the prevention of jet lag. Examples of brand name, over-the-counter (OTC) melatonin supplements include Accurate Release, Circadin, and Nature's Bounty.

A hospital inpatient has a PRN order for OxyContin (hydrocodone and oxycodone). What does the abbreviation "PRN" mean?

As needed Explanation: The abbreviation "PRN" stands for the Latin phrase pro re nata and means "as needed" or "as necessary." In a hospital setting, a patient may have PRN orders for certain types of drugs, such as pain killers. If a nurse or other healthcare professional assesses the patient and determines that he or she requires that drug, the order will be filled.

Ms. Webb comes to the pharmacy to fill a new prescription. The pharmacy technician happens to be taking the same drug herself. What should the pharmacy technician do?

Ask Ms. Webb if she has any questions for the pharmacist about the new prescription. Explanation: Although the pharmacy technician may know a lot about this particular drug based on personal experience, research, or other sources of information, it would be unprofessional to offer this information to Ms. Webb. The pharmacy technician should treat this transaction as she would any other and refer Ms. Webb to the pharmacist for counseling if necessary.

Aggrenox

Aspirin-dipyridamole Antiplatelet Thrombic stroke prevention

The pharmacy technician is setting up a user account for a new employee in the pharmacy who needs to access the electronic medical record system. The new employee has passed a mandatory background check. Which step should be taken NEXT?

Assign a username and temporary password. Explanation: Each user needs to be assigned a unique username and temporary password before accessing the EMR system. This allows the system administrators to monitor employees' activities within the system. The temporary password should be changed as soon as possible to a secure, unique password created by the user. Users should not share their sign-on credentials with one another.

albuterol/ipratropium

Asthma

fluticasone

Asthma

fluticasone/salmeterol

Asthma

montelukast

Asthma

The prevalence of what childhood respiratory disorder is increasing in the United States?

Asthma Explanation: Asthma is a serious disorder that affects millions of children in the United States. Studies have shown that more children are afflicted with it every year, although the exact cause of this phenomenon is unknown.

budesonide

Asthma, corticosteroid

Tenormin

Atenolol Beta-blocker Hypertension

What is tolnaftate (Tinactin) commonly used in the treatment of?

Athlete's foot Explanation: Tolnaftate (Tinactin) is an antifungal drug that is commonly used in the treatment of fungal skin infections, such as athlete's foot or jock itch. It is available in many topical forms, including cream, powder, gel, and spray. Treatment of superficial fungal infections may be ongoing, requiring treatment over an extended period of time.

Strattera

Atomoxetine Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor ADHD

Lipitor

Atorvastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

Which two active pharmaceutical ingredients are found in Lomotil?

Atropine and diphenoxylate Explanation: Lomotil, a prescription antidiarrheal medication, is composed of atropine and diphenoxylate. It is a C-V scheduled medication. The other combination drugs listed are unavailable in those pairings.

Astelin

Azelastine Histamine-1 receptor inhibitor Respiratory allergies

Zithromax

Azithromycin Macrolide antibiotic Bacterial infection

Which of the following would be considered a misbranded drug? A. A drug that has been exposed to radiation or hazardous materials B. A drug with a label that does not include the generic drug name C. An OTC drug that has not been sold in tamper-resistant packaging D. A drug that contains a color additive that has been proven unsafe

B. A drug with a label that does not include the generic drug name Explanation: The misbranding of a drug focuses on the information about the product that is presented by the drug manufacturer. This generally involves information the manufacturer fails to include on the label or packaging, such as a generic drug name, or information the manufacturer includes that may be incorrect, incomplete, or harmful, such as incomplete directions on how to use a drug.

Which of the following categories of drugs used to treat cancer works by changing the shape of DNA in cancer cells? A. Hormones B. Alkylating agents C. Antitumor antibiotics D. Antimetabolite agents

B. Alkylating agents Explanation: Alkylating agents work by attaching to the DNA strands of cancer cells, which is called alkylation. Once attached, they permanently coordinate to the DNA's structure and make it difficult or impossible for the tumor cells to replicate. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) is the drug prototype for alkylating agents. Patients who are being treated for lymphomas, leukemias, breast cancer, and other types of cancers may have a prescription for this drug.

Which of the following common side effects of cancer chemotherapy is least physically harmful to a patient? A. Anemia B. Alopecia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Neutropenia

B. Alopecia Explanation: Cancer chemotherapy has many serious side effects. While alopecia, or hair loss, is likely one of its most emotionally and psychologically upsetting consequences, it will not cause the patient serious physical harm. As a pharmacy technician and health care professional, you must be mindful of how upsetting alopecia may be for your patients and treat them with consideration.

A patient who has a mild case of Grave's disease will likely need to take which of the following types of drugs? A. Glucocorticoids B. Antithyroids C. Hypoglycemics D. Estrogens

B. Antithyroids Explanation: Grave's disease is caused by an excess production, or hypersecretion, of thyroid hormones. Patients with mild cases of this condition usually take antithyroid drugs like propylthiouracil or radioactive iodide. Those with more severe conditions usually need a thyroidectomy.

Which of the following drugs used to treat cancer is not a cytotoxic drug? A. Antimetabolites B. Aromatase inhibitors C. Mitotic inhibitors D. Alkylating agents

B. Aromatase inhibitors Explanation: Cytotoxic drugs work by killing cancer cells within the body. They also have the unfortunate effect of killing healthy cells as well, which leads to toxic effects in cancer patients and to hazards for healthcare professionals who handle the drugs as part of patient care. Aromatase inhibitors, on the other hand, are an example of hormonal agents that are used to treat some forms of cancer. Instead of killing cells, these drugs either block or mimic specific hormones produced by the body.

All of the following medications treat hyperlipidemia except: A. Lopid. B. Avandia. C. Zocor. D. Vytorin.

B. Avandia. Explanation: Avandia is used to treat diabetes. The other medications all treat high blood cholesterol levels

All of the following medications produce antiemetic effects except: A. Zofran. B. Axid. C. Reglan. D. Compazine.

B. Axid. Explanation: Compazine, Reglan, and Zofran are all used to treat the emetic symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Axid is an H2 blocker that is used to inhibit the secretion of gastric acid.

Roferon-A is an example of an immunostimulant that is used to treat certain types of cancer. Based on this information, this drug most likely belongs to which category of anticancer drugs?

B. Biologic response modifiers Explanation: Roferon-A (interferon alfa-2a) is an immunostimulant that works by stimulating the body's immune response, so it is a biologic response modifier. These drugs work by altering the way a patient's body reacts to cancer. For example, Roferon-A improves the body's immune system response to cancer cells while also preventing cancer cells from spreading, or proliferating, within the body.

Which of the following types of antibiotics is most likely to cause a superinfection in a patient? A. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Bacteriostatic antibiotics D. Bacteriocidal antibiotics

B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics Explanation: Explanation close Broad-spectrum antibiotics are named for their effectiveness in fighting different types of microorganisms. This action is beneficial to a patient in certain cases, depending on the nature of the infection. However, broad-spectrum antibiotics tend to attack all bacteria, even the normal flora within the person's body. Normal flora are actually helpful in fighting infection, and their destruction may cause the patient to develop a superinfection as a result.

Which of the following FDA Pregnancy Risk Categories does the conjugated estrogen Premarin fall into? A. Category B B. Category X C. Category C D. Category D

B. Category X Explanation: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has classified drugs into five safety categories based on their potential to cause harm to both a developing fetus and the mother. Drugs in Category A have not been shown to cause harm, while drugs in Category X have been shown to cause fetal abnormalities. Women may use Premarin as a postmenopausal HRT. While such patients are at little risk of becoming pregnant, they should be advised of this serious contraindication.

Which of the following drugs may be counted using an automatic counting machine? A. Timentin B. Ceclor C. Gantanol D. Trimox

B. Ceclor Explanation: Because many patients have allergies to penicillin and sulfur-based drugs, pharmacies must count these drugs by hand to prevent cross-contamination and potentially life-threatening allergic reactions. For other oral tablets and capsules, however, using counting machines saves time.

Which of the following anticancer drugs is toxic to the kidneys? A. Vincristine B. Cisplatin C. Doxorubicin D. Bleomycin

B. Cisplatin Explanation: While killing cancer cells, anticancer drugs also harm healthy cells within the body. Some drugs have a higher risk of toxicity to specific areas within the body. For example, the platinum compound cisplatin, sold under the trade name Platinol-AQ, is known to cause severe kidney damage, or renal toxicity, as well as hearing loss. For this reason combination drug therapies do not include drugs with overlapping toxicities.

Which of the following is an intravenous medication used to treat arrhythmias? A. Rythmol B. Cordarone C. Dobutamine D. Dopamine

B. Cordarone Explanation: Cordarone is an antiarrhythmic drug that is available by IV or in oral dosage forms. Rythmol is an antiarrhythmic medication as well but only comes in an oral formulation. Dopamine and dobutamine are both vasopressors.

A patient who is taking long-term drug therapy with a corticosteroid is at a higher risk of developing which of the following conditions? A. Addison's disease B. Cushing's syndrome C. Cretinism D. Type 2 diabetes

B. Cushing's syndrome Explanation: Patients may need to take corticosteroid drugs to treat a variety of disorders that cause inflammation, including allergies, rheumatoid arthritis, and some skin disorders to name a few examples. They are a synthetic version of the natural hormone cortisol that is produced by the kidneys' adrenal glands. Prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol may cause Cushing's syndrome in some patients. Another common cause of this condition is a pituitary adenoma, a benign tumor that causes the pituitary gland to secrete extra ACTH, which, in turn, causes the adrenal glands to produce more cortisol than necessary.

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of opiate addiction? A. Demerol B. Dolophine C. Dilaudid D. Roxanol

B. Dolophine Explanation: Dolophine (methadone) is used in the treatment of opiate addiction. Perhaps surprisingly, it is also classified as a C-II opiate, but it does not produce feelings of euphoria in people who use it, so it is not considered psychologically addictive.

Which of the following statements about the relationship between drugs and drug receptors is false? A. Some drugs work by blocking the actions of drug receptors within the body. B. Drugs that target certain receptors can help the body's cells perform new functions. C. Many drugs interact with hormones and neurotransmitters found within the body. D. Drugs need to interact with different receptors found in the body to produce their effects.

B. Drugs that target certain receptors can help the body's cells perform new functions. Explanation: To be effective, drugs must interact with drug receptors inside the body. A drug attaches, or binds, to a receptor, and the resulting interaction causes a specific reaction. Some drugs mimic the action of a receptor, increasing its action; other drugs inhibit or block the action of a receptor, causing it to decrease or stop. It is important to remember that drugs only work with what the body supplies—they cannot cause cells to perform new functions.

Which of the following is an example of a macrolide antibiotic? A. Gentamicin sulfate B. Erythromycin C. Cefadroxil D. Ampicillin

B. Erythromycin Explanation: Erythromycin is an example of a macrolide antibiotic. Macrolide antibiotics are often used to treat patients who have known penicillin allergies because they do not cause the same allergic reactions. These drugs are commonly used to treat respiratory and skin infections.

Which of the following is an example of a nonessential amino acid? A. Valine B. Glutamic acid C. Histidine D. Lysine

B. Glutamic acid Explanation: The human body needs a combination of essential and nonessential amino acids to function normally. While a person relies on diet for intake of essential amino acids, the body produces nonessential amino acids itself. This occurs as part of the digestion of protein. The 4 nonessential amino acids are alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, and glutamic acid.

Which of the following specifically governs the protection all protected health information maintained and/or transmitted in electronic form? A. HIPAA Privacy Rule B. HIPAA Security Rule C. Federal Regulations/Interpretive Guidelines for Hospitals D. Health Care Quality Improvement Program

B. HIPAA Security Rule Explanation: The HIPAA Security Rule covers standards and requirements for the electronic transmission of health information. The standards focus on privacy and security of the health information that is stored in electronic media as well as the safe and secure transmission of the health information. The HIPAA Privacy Rule is not limited to only ePHI but covers all protected health information.

The law that protects a patient's right to privacy is called:

B. HIPAA. Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects a patient's right to privacy and confidentiality in several ways by deeming certain types of information about a patient as "protected health information" (PHI). This would include any information that includes identifiable information about a patient, such as a name, address, social security number, or birth date. It also requires healthcare facilities to protect the privacy of patients when protected health information is discussed. In the pharmacy, this would include patient counseling with the pharmacist or discussions about financial or billing arrangements.

A patient would take an antiretroviral drug for treatment from which of the following conditions? A. Influenza B. HIV-AIDS C. Cryptococcosis D. HSV-type 1

B. HIV-AIDS Explanation: Antiretroviral drugs (ARVs) are approved by the FDA in the treatment of HIV infection. They are called antiretrovirals because they work against (or "anti") HIV by suppressing it. This allows infected individuals to live healthier, longer lives. These drugs do not cure a person of HIV, however. The HIV virus instead remains inactive, or dormant, in the body for an indefinite period of time.

Which of the following would not be considered a carcinogen? A. Arsenic B. Herpes simplex type I C. Tobacco smoke D. UV light

B. Herpes simplex type I Explanation: Many things can cause cancer, including exposure to carcinogens or cancer-causing substances such as UV light, x-rays, tobacco smoke, and even some drugs. Other possible causes of cancer include certain pathogens (bacteria and viruses) and heredity.

Which of the following conditions that may be caused by cytotoxic drugs is not an example of bone marrow suppression? A. Neutropenia B. Hyperuricemia C. Anemia D. Thrombocytopenia

B. Hyperuricemia Bone marrow suppression (BMS) is a serious adverse effect of cancer chemotherapy with cytotoxic drugs. BMS occurs when cytotoxic drugs kill different types of blood cells within the bone marrow. This may lead to anemia, or the loss of red blood cells (erythrocytes). It may also cause excessive bleeding, a condition called thrombocytopenia that is caused by a reduction in platelets. Finally, it may cause neutropenia, or a loss of neutrophils which places a patient at risk for serious infection. Hyperuricemia is a condition caused by excessive uric acid in the blood.

Which of the following statements about influenza is true? A. Influenza is another name for rhinovirus. B. Influenza can cause dangerous secondary conditions. C. Influenza epidemics begin and end gradually. D. Influenza generally only affects human hosts.

B. Influenza can cause dangerous secondary conditions. Explanation: C. Influenza epidemics begin and end gradually. D. Influenza generally only affects human hosts. Explanation Next Question Pharmacology: Antibiotics and Anti-Infectives Tools End Session Questions: 0 of 30 Answered 123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930 Answered Current Unanswered 9 of 30 AnsweredSession Timer: 12:21 Session Score: 44% (4/9) Explanation close Influenza, or the flu, is a group of RNA viruses that cause respiratory infections in humans and are highly contagious. The influenza viruses are further classified as types A, B, and C, with type A being the one most likely to cause a pandemic, or a global spread, of the same strain of flu. Seasonal flu outbreaks in the United States happen in the late fall and early winter.

What does the abbreviation SIG stand for on a prescription? A. Signature B. Write on label C. Refill information D. Instructions for preparation

B. Write on label' Explanation: The abbreviation SIG, or Sig, comes from the Latin word Signa, which means "to write." On a prescription, SIG stands for "write on label" and refers to the directions, or dosage instructions, for the patient that appear on the prescription and must be transferred to the drug label. This information would include the amount of the drug (example: 1 teaspoon), the frequency in which the drug should be taken (example: 1 time per day), and other information, such as PRN (as needed).

A patient who has type 1 diabetes plans to drive across the southern U.S. for a summer vacation. She calls the pharmacy with a question about the best way to store her insulin. The pharmacy technician should provide her with which of the following information? A. Leave unopened insulin in the trunk of the car, stored in a cooler with ice packs. B. Keep the insulin out of direct sunlight, and store it in a cooler with ice packs. C. Freeze the insulin to make it last longer. D. Keep the insulin out of direct sunlight, stored in the trunk of the car.

B. Keep the insulin out of direct sunlight, and store it in a cooler with ice packs. Explanation: Patients who take insulin must follow certain guidelines for storing this medication. These include keeping the medication in the refrigerator, or, if that is not possible, then store it in a cool place away from direct sunlight. It is important for patients to not use insulin that has passed its expiration date and to dispose of all unused insulin properly. Storing in a trunk of a car in a hot climate is not considered a cool place, even though it is out of direct sunlight. The ice packs would quickly melt in such a hot climate.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy to pick up her prescription for Avinza, and she is accompanied by her two teenage children. The pharmacy technician should be sure to instruct the patient about which of the following related to this drug?

B. Keep the medication in a safe place. Explanation: Avinza is an oral form of morphine that is used mainly for the treatment of pain. Because an overdose of this drug poses a high risk of fatality, the technician should caution the patient to store it in a safe location, preferably one that is locked. Addiction is another risk of opiate drugs, including morphine, and may seem attractive to teenagers. Both of these reasons warrant a caution by the technician.

A patient who is under six years old would have the easiest time with compliance when taking a drug in which of the following forms? A. Capsule B. Liquid C. Tablet D. Suppository

B. Liquid Explanation: Since pediatric patients usually have trouble swallowing pills, making liquid preparations for this age group is the preferred dosage form. Liquid medications may also be flavored to improve their taste and facilitate patient compliance.

Which of the following drugs is not teratogenic? A. Cisplatin B. Metoclopramide C. Procarbazine D. Ifosfamide

B. Metoclopramide Explanation: Metoclopramide is classified as a pregnancy Category B drug, which means it has shown no risk to animal fetuses during controlled studies and thus poses no or low risk to a human fetus. Metoclopramide is an antiemetic, and is frequently used in hospitals to treat nausea and vomiting.

Which of the following drugs is not teratogenic? A. Procarbazine B. Metoclopramide C. Ifosfamide D. Cisplatin

B. Metoclopramide Explanation: Metoclopramide is classified as a pregnancy Category B drug, which means it has shown no risk to animal fetuses during controlled studies and thus poses no or low risk to a human fetus. Metoclopramide is an antiemetic, and is frequently used in hospitals to treat nausea and vomiting.

Which of the following medications is a beta blocker? A. Diltiazem B. Metoprolol C. Lisinopril D. Gemfibrozil

B. Metoprolol Explanation: Metoprolol is in a class of medications referred to as beta blockers. They are used to treat high blood pressure, arrhythmias, and other cardiac disorders. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, gemfibrozil is an antihyperlipidemic, and diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker. Beta blockers often end with the -olol suffix.

Which of the following is considered the prototype opioid agonist? A. Meperidine hydrochloride B. Morphine C. Codeine D. Oxycodone

B. Morphine Explanation: Morphine is the prototype opioid agonist. This means it is the original model by which other drugs in its class have been developed and the standard by which they are measured. Morphine is used to treat moderate to severe pain. Its secondary uses include treatment during a myocardial infarction (heart attack) and treatment of pulmonary edema.

A pharmacy technician is preparing a prescription for fluconazole for a patient. Which of the following auxiliary labels should the technician place on this medication's bottle? A. May cause drowsiness B. No alcohol C. Take on an empty stomach D. Take with plenty of water

B. No alcohol Explanation: Fluconazole is an antifungal drug that belongs to the triazole class. It is used to treat different kinds of fungal infections, including yeast and meningitis. Because this drug may cause liver toxicity, patients should avoid drinking alcohol while taking it.

Which of the following healthcare practitioners may not prescribe legend drugs in most states? A. Dentist B. Pharmacist C. Physician assistant D. Nurse practitioner

B. Pharmacist Explanation: Although the FDA is currently reviewing the idea of allowing pharmacists to prescribe certain medications to patients, it is still under review. However, in 2006, the FDA did pass legislation allowing pharmacists to sell emergency contraception to female patients over the age of 18. Other drugs under consideration are drugs that improve cholesterol levels and treat migraine headaches.

Which of the following diseases is not an example of a protozoal infection? A. Malaria B. Pneumonia C. Trichomoniasis D. Dysentery

B. Pneumonia

Which of the following is the source for opioid drugs? A. Marijuana leaves B. Poppy seeds C. Mushrooms D. Vinca plants

B. Poppy seeds Explanation: Opioid drugs are made from opium. This substance is extracted from the poppy plant. The mechanism of action of most opioid drugs, such as morphine, is to cause a response in a receptor cell. This makes them agonists. Patients require a prescription from a physician to use drugs in this class.

A hospital pharmacy receives a drug order for an antiemetic for a cancer patient. The order would be for which of the following drugs? A. Adriamycin (doxorubicin) B. Reglan (metoclopramide) C. VePesid (etoposide) D. Epogen (epoetin alfa)

B. Reglan (metoclopramide) Explanation: Doctors may prescribe the drug Reglan to ease the nausea associated with cancer chemotherapy. This drug is a prokinetic agent which works by making food travel more quickly through the digestive system.

Which of the following medications is a leukotriene antagonist? A. Methylprednisolone B. Zileuton C. Cromolyn D. Theophylline

B. Zileuton Explanation: Zileuton is the generic for Zyflo, which is a leukotriene antagonist/modifier. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid, theophylline is a methylxanthine, and cromolyn is a mast cell inhibitor.

Which concentration term used with parenteral solutions does not use the drug's molecular weight to determine its value?

Percentage weight per volume

Which of the following statements is most correct with regard to federal law? A. Schedule V prescriptions must be handwritten, but all other controlled substance prescriptions may also be accepted by the pharmacy via telephone, fax, or electronic prescription. B. Schedule II prescriptions must be handwritten or submitted as an electronic prescription, but all other controlled substance prescriptions may also be accepted by the pharmacy via telephone or fax. C. Schedule II prescriptions must be handwritten, but all other controlled substance prescriptions may also be accepted by the pharmacy via telephone, fax, or electronic prescription. D. All prescriptions for controlled substances must be handwritten.

B. Schedule II prescriptions must be handwritten or submitted as an electronic prescription, but all other controlled substance prescriptions may also be accepted by the pharmacy via telephone or fax. Explanation: Effective June 1, 2010, the DEA has amended the law requiring all Schedule II prescriptions to be handwritten. Properly registered practitioners may now submit prescriptions to pharmacies for all controlled substances by electronic prescription if they desire. Prescriptions for the lower schedules may still be submitted through oral, fax, electronic prescription, or handwritten means. Handwritten prescriptions for Schedule II medications are still allowed, and this new ruling does not change any other controlled substance regulations. Some states and large pharmacy franchises may impose stricter laws prohibiting electronic filing of Schedule II or other scheduled prescriptions. In those instances, the stricter law is always followed.

A patient brings in two prescriptions from different prescribers. The medications are fluoxetine and escitalopram. What, if any, adverse effects may be expected with this combination?

B. Serotonin syndrome Explanation: Fluoxetine and escitalopram are both selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). When two antidepressants are combined, particularly those that affect serotonin levels, a serious life-threatening drug-drug interaction known as serotonin syndrome may occur. This is caused by an excessive buildup of serotonin in the body. Some symptoms of serotonin syndrome include: heavy sweating, dilated pupils, confusion, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, agitation, shivering, and diarrhea. Severe serotonin syndrome can cause seizures, high fever, irregular heartbeat, and unconsciousness. It is important to point out to the pharmacist if you notice combinations such as this, although other medications or herbal supplements mixed with antidepressants can also cause serotonin syndrome.

A pharmacy technician is preparing a prescription for a liquid preparation of ampicillin. Which of the following auxiliary labels should the technician place on this medication's bottle A. Take with plenty of water. B. Shake well and refrigerate. C. Take with food. D. May cause drowsiness.

B. Shake well and refrigerate. Explanation: The antibiotic ampicillin is available to patients orally as a liquid, capsule, or drops. As a liquid, ampicillin is only stable for seven days at room temperature; therefore, patients are advised to store the drug tightly capped in the refrigerator to ensure its potency. Ampicillin should not be frozen, and patients should discard unused portions after 14 days.

A female patient who is taking over-the-counter (OTC) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for misoprostol (Cytotec). The pharmacist will most likely inform the patient about which of the following considerations related to this drug? A. She may take a double dose if she forgets a pill during the day. B. She should not take misoprostol if she plans to become pregnant. C. She may develop an ulcer following long-term use of misoprostol. D. She should take misoprostol on an empty stomach once a day.

B. She should not take misoprostol if she plans to become pregnant. Explanation: Patients who take NSAIDs regularly often take misoprostol (Cytotec), or a similar cytoprotective medication, in conjunction with the NSAID to prevent the development of an ulcer. Such drugs work by protecting the gastric mucosa from irritation by NSAIDs. However, a serious side effect of misoprostol is its risk for causing miscarriage and birth defects. Female patients of childbearing age should be made aware of this risk by the pharmacist.

The patient comes to the pharmacy with a prescription for Seasonale. It is important for this patient to know which of the following things about this drug? A. She must be off this drug for at least 3 months before trying to get pregnant. B. She will only get her period four times per year while on this drug. C. She must take this drug every day for 365 days without a hormone-free interval. D. She should alert her doctor if she experiences breakthrough bleeding.

B. She will only get her period four times per year while on this drug. Explanation: Seasonale is an example of an extended-dose oral contraceptive. Patients take this drug for 91 consecutive days and then go drug free for 7 days before beginning the next 91-day regimen. This means patients will only menstruate four times per year or during the 7-day, drug-free period when they are not taking Seasonale.

A patient who is over age 35 and taking an oral contraceptive is most likely to increase her chance of developing cardiovascular disease by doing which of the following? A. Exercising infrequently B. Smoking tobacco products C. Drinking alcohol in moderation D. Overeating

B. Smoking tobacco products Explanation: Smokers who are over age 35 and take birth control pills are at a greater risk of developing cardiovascular disease than women in the same age range who do not smoke. This is because oral contraceptives may increase the blood pressure of some women; smoking with high blood pressure exacerbates this effect. Smokers are advised to quit smoking before taking oral contraceptives.

A female patient arrives at the pharmacy to pick up her prescription for birth control pills. Which of the following supplements should this patient not take in combination with oral contraceptives? A. Vitamin K B. St. John's wort C. Echinacea D. Vitamin D

B. St. John's wort Explanation: Some people take the herbal supplement St. John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) to treat depression. However, research has shown that it may interact with drugs, such as oral contraceptives, and reduce their effectiveness. In this case, the patient may become unintentionally pregnant. Studies have also shown that pregnant women who take St. John's wort may increase the risk of having a baby with a birth defect by 3 to 5 percent.

Which of the following is a nonstimulant medication for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A. Focalin B. Strattera C. Vyvanse D. Concerta

B. Strattera

Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated both for children under eight years of age and for pregnant or nursing women? A. Cephalosporins B. Tetracyclines C. Macrolide antibiotics D. Penicillins

B. Tetracyclines

A woman with a family history of breast cancer arrives at the pharmacy with a question for the pharmacist about taking tamoxifen to prevent breast cancer. It is important for the patient to know which of the following? A. That tamoxifen has been removed from the market because it causes DVT B. That tamoxifen may increase a woman's risk of endometrial cancer C. That tamoxifen will only help prevent breast cancer post-menopause D. That tamoxifen is only effective in treatment of HER2 positive cancer cells

B. That tamoxifen may increase a woman's risk of endometrial cancer Explanation: Following clinical trials, the FDA approved tamoxifen, sold as Nolvadex, for cancer prevention in women who are at high risk of developing breast cancer. However, because it poses a risk of causing endometrial cancer, DVT, and pulmonary embolism, this drug is not an appropriate choice for all women. The pharmacist should counsel this patient to discuss her risk level with her doctor.

Herbal products that are sold in the United States are regulated by which of the following laws? A. The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 B. The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 C. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 D. The Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

B. The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 Explanation: The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 (DSHEA) is the law that currently regulates herbal products and dietary supplements. This law defines a dietary supplement as a product that is intended to enhance or supplement the diet. While this law permits the FDA to take an unsafe dietary supplement off the market if it is proven to be unsafe for human use, it does not require the same stringent safety and efficacy testing that pharmaceuticals must undergo.

Which of the following is not considered a valid reason for a pharmacy to return a drug to the manufacturer? A. The drug was recalled by the manufacturer. B. The drug was stored improperly in the pharmacy. C. The drug was incorrectly ordered. D. The drug reached its expiration date.

B. The drug was stored improperly in the pharmacy. Explanation: Unopened, unused drugs may be returned to a manufacturer if they are in their original condition. However, a drug that was stored improperly by a pharmacy is not in its original condition because it may not be resold to another pharmacy or dispensed to patients.

A pharmacy technician in a hospital pharmacy receives a drug order for radioactive iodine for a patient. Why has the physician most likely prescribed this medication?

B. The patient is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. Explanation: Patients with hyperthyroidism may actually receive drug treatment with radioactive iodine and antithyroid drugs like propylthiouracil (PTU) in an attempt to inactivate or destroy those thyroid cells that are producing the excess thyroid hormones. If this fails, surgical removal of the thyroid gland may be needed and antithyroid drugs are generally prescribed ahead of the surgery to control bleeding later. Potassium iodide (KI), on the other hand, helps protect the thyroid gland from radiation exposure during radiation emergencies.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for Coumadin. It is important to provide this patient with which of the following information related to this drug? A. The patient may drink alcohol in moderation while on this drug. B. The patient should limit his intake of foods rich in vitamin K. C. The patient should not use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) while on Coumadin. D. The patient should limit his intake of herbal beverages.

B. The patient should limit his intake of foods rich in vitamin K. Explanation: Vitamin K is essential in the blood clotting process. The drug Coumadin (warfarin) is a blood thinner and acts by working against the action of vitamin K in the body. Current recommendations for patients taking Coumadin are to keep their intake of vitamin K consistent from day to day. This means limiting their daily servings of food that contain more than 60% of the daily value for vitamin K. Examples of such food include kale, turnip greens, and Swiss chard.

Which of the following terms refers to the measure of a drug's safety? A. Half-life B. Therapeutic index C. Dose-response curve D. Relative potency

B. Therapeutic index Explanation: A drug's therapeutic index refers to how safe the drug is for administration to humans. Drug manufacturers determine this information by testing the drug on laboratory animals. The therapeutic index is a ratio of the drug's lethal dose (LD50) to its average effective dose (ED50). For example, a lethal dose of a drug would be a dose that killed 50% of the animals tested. Conversely, the average effective dose would be the dose of the drug necessary to have a therapeutic effect in 50% of the people who used it during testing.

Which of the following statements about hormonal contraceptives is true? A. They have no known side effects. B. They often contain both estrogen and progestin. C. They prevent implantation of the ovum. D. They help prevent HIV infection.

B. They often contain both estrogen and progestin. Explanation: Combined oral contraceptives, commonly called "birth control pills," contain a low-dose combination of both estrogen and progestin, which is a synthetic version of the natural hormone progesterone. They work by preventing the release of an egg, or ovum, from the ovaries. Combination oral contraceptives are sold under many different brand names. A few examples include Ortho-Novum, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, Triphasil, and Femcon.

Which of the following drugs is not a NSAID? A. Ansaid B. Tylenol C. Clinoril D. Advil

B. Tylenol Explanation: Tylenol (acetaminophen) is not a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, or NSAID, because it does not have any anti-inflammatory properties. Instead, it is classified as a nonsteroidal pain reliever. People who are allergic to NSAIDs as a result of an aspirin allergy can generally take acetaminophen instead for pain relief.

Ascorbic acid is the proper name for which of the following vitamins? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin B1

B. Vitamin C Explanation: Ascorbic acid is the proper name for vitamin C. The body uses this vitamin to make collagen, strengthen the immune system, and absorb iron from foods. The body cannot store vitamin C. People mainly obtain it from eating citrus fruits, tomatoes, red and green peppers, broccoli, or foods fortified with vitamin C. It is also sold as a supplement. Many people believe taking vitamin C will prevent them from getting colds; research has not proven this to be the case, however.

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B12

B. Vitamin D Explanation: Vitamin D is classified as fat soluble, which means it can be stored in the body. If a patient takes an excess of a fat-soluble vitamin, it can build up in his or her body and cause a toxicity.

The patient profile ideally should include: A. a listing of all drugs provided to a patient by the individual pharmacy. B. a listing of all drugs being taken by the patient, including OTC drugs and herbal remedies. C. only the prescription drugs the patient is currently taking. D. a longitudinal record of all of the prescription drugs the patient has taken in the last 10 years.

B. a listing of all drugs being taken by the patient, including OTC drugs and herbal remedies.

Drug products may be stored all the following ways except: A. by route of administration. B. by National Drug Code number. C. in alphabetical order by brand name. D. in alphabetical order by generic name.

B. by National Drug Code number. Explanation: Drug products may be stored in either alphabetical order by generic or proprietary/trade name, which varies between pharmacies. They can also be organized by route of administration. For example, oral medications may be stored in a different section than IVs or inhalers.

Tanja Epps is a patient who decides to wait while her prescription is filled. When it is ready, the pharmacy technician sees Tanja looking at some greeting cards in a nearby aisle. According to HIPAA guidelines, the pharmacy technician could do all of the following except: A. see if Tanja makes eye contact, and then gesture to indicate the order is ready. B. call Tanja's name to let her know her prescription is ready. C. go to Tanja and tell her in person that her prescription is ready. D. wait for Tanja to finish shopping and come back to check on her order.

B. call Tanja's name to let her know her prescription is ready. Explanation: HIPAA prohibits pharmacies from personally identifying patients by calling their names when their prescriptions are ready. In this example, the pharmacy technician could use any of the different strategies to communicate with the patient that her prescription was ready. If the pharmacy was not busy, or if the patient had been waiting a long time, the best choice would be to go to the patient and tell her in person that her order was ready.

When a Class III recall has been issued, the pharmacy staff must do all of the following except: A. return recalled stock to the manufacturer as directed in the recall notice. B. contact all patients who received that medication in the last 6 months. C. determine to whom any recalled stock was dispensed. D. remove all of the affected stock from the inventory.

B. contact all patients who received that medication in the last 6 months. Explanation: Though it may be possible that some patients received medication that was affected by a Class III recall, it is not required to contact all patients who may have taken the drug within a certain time period. It may be possible to narrow down which patients may have received the drug, but mass notification is not required, especially if it is a voluntary Class III recall.

A pharmacy technician may do all the following except: A. take refill prescriptions over the phone from a prescriber. B. explain the potential side effects of a medication to a patient. C. help a patient find a specific OTC medication. D. change insurance information for a patient.

B. explain the potential side effects of a medication to a patient. Explanation: A pharmacy technician may not explain the potential side effects of a medication to a patient. Only a pharmacist is allowed to counsel patients on their medications.

When receiving a pharmaceutical order, the pharmacy technician should do all of the following except: A. stock the refrigerated and frozen products as soon as possible. B. file the purchase order as soon as the order arrives. C. verify with the purchase order that all products ordered have been received. D. verify that the products in the order have not expired.

B. file the purchase order as soon as the order arrives. Explanation: The pharmacy technician should wait to file the purchase order until it has been verified that all stock has been received as ordered.

When preparing intravenous antineoplastic medications, the pharmacy technician is required to wear all of the following personal protective gear except: A. hair bonnet. B. level B half-mask respirator. C. gown. D. gloves.

B. level B half-mask respirator. Explanation: When preparing chemotherapy IVs, a pharmacy technician is required to wear gloves, a gown, a hair bonnet, booties, and a surgical mask. A respirator mask is not required. In some cases, a facility may substitute a lint-free jumpsuit, which replaces the gown, bonnet, and booties.

All of the following are treatments for emphysema except: A. oxygen therapy. B. methylxanthines. C. bronchodilators. D. corticosteroids.

B. methylxanthines. Explanation: Though emphysema is progressive and cannot be cured, symptoms can be controlled and remaining lung function conserved by the use of bronchodilators such as sympathetic agonists, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy. The use of methylxanthines is not typically part of the treatment of emphysema.

Which of the following is an example of an input device? A. printer B. mouse C. monitor D. USB port

B. mouse

The transfer warning statement, "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed" must appear: A. on the label of every Schedule IV and V drug dispensed. B. on the label of every Schedule II, III, and IV drug dispensed. C. on the label of every legend drug dispensed. D. on the label of every Scheduled II, III, IV, and V drug dispensed.

B. on the label of every Schedule II, III, and IV drug dispensed. Explanation: The transfer warning statement is required to be printed on the label of any Schedule II, III, and IV medication dispensed to a patient, except in investigational use where the clinical study is "blind." Some pharmacies choose to put the warning on every prescription, but it is not required.

An example of a "behind-the-counter" medication is: A. chlorpheniramine. B. pseudoephedrine. C. acetaminophen. D. guaifenesin.

B. pseudoephedrine. Explanation: Pseudoephedrine is an example of a "behind-the-counter" drug. It does not require a prescription, but a patient must prove to be 18 years of age with identification and sign an electronic log to acquire it. This newer class of medication may also have quantity restrictions as well.

SSRIs are commonly used to treat all of the following disorders except: A. anxiety disorders. B. schizophrenia. C. obsessive-compulsive disorder. D. depression.

B. schizophrenia. Explanation: Schizophrenia is not typically treated by SSRIs. SSRIs are often used to treat unipolar and bipolar depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Lorazepam is used in the treatment of:

B. seizure disorders Explanation: Lorazepam is classified as a benzodiazepine and is used in the treatment of some types of seizure disorders, as well as the treatment of anxiety and panic-related disorders. Finally, it is occasionally used to treat insomnia, particularly the premature awakening form of insomnia where a person wakes up in the middle of the night and cannot return to sleep.

Which of the following is the abbreviation for three times a day? A. 3xd B. tid C. ttd D. tqd

B. tid Explanation: The abbreviation for three times a day is "tid," which stands for the Latin phrase ter in die. It is important for pharmacy technicians to recognize and correctly interpret all abbreviations that may appear on a prescription or drug order. If you are ever unsure of what an abbreviation means, ask your supervisor or consult a reliable medical reference.

When filling a prescription for amoxicillin, the pharmacy technician should do all of the following except: A. avoid counting the medication if allergic to penicillin. B. use a countertop automated pill counting machine. C. thoroughly clean the counting tray after use. D. double-check the label with the prescription and the medication bottle.

B. use a countertop automated pill counting machine. Explanation: Due to possible allergies, penicillin should never be counted in an automated pill counting machine, such as a Kirby-Lester counting machine.

Types of nonverbal communication involve all of the following except: A. body language. B. volume of speech. C. eye contact. D. speaking distance.

B. volume of speech Explanation: Speaking distance, body language, and eye contact are types of nonverbal communication. Volume of speech is a part of verbal communication because it involves the act of speaking (verbalization).

The pharmacy is preparing to move computers containing patient protected health information (PHI) from one building to another. What is the FIRST action to perform during this move?

Backup the data to a secure, remote site. Explanation: Electronic PHI must be backed up before the computers are moved. It is best to backup the data to a secure, remote site. This will help to ensure that if the hardware is damaged during the move, the data will not be lost. Although the other steps may be taken during the process, they should be performed after the data is secured.

What is the term for an antibiotic that works by slowing the growth of bacteria?

Bacteriostatic Explanation: Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. Antibiotics that are bacteriostatic work by slowing down the growth of bacteria within the body. This means the bacteria are unable to replicate, which gives the body's immune system time to begin fighting the infection. Tetracyclines are an example of bacteriostatic antibiotics

A patient arrives at the pharmacy seeking an OTC drug to treat her 4-year-old daughter's fever. The pharmacist's list of suggestions will not include:

Bayer aspirin. Explanation: The FDA, American Pediatric Association, and other experts do not recommend giving aspirin, also called acetylsalicylic acid, to children under the age of 18 for the treatment of fever. This is because aspirin use in this age group has been linked to a disease called Reye's syndrome. Although rare, this condition affects all organs in the body and can lead to coma and death without prompt treatment

Which of the following is not true about drug storage? A. Because cold temperatures extend their life, all drugs should be refrigerated. B. It is important to seal a drug container properly to keep out oxygen. C. A drug that has been hydrated has a shorter shelf life than a powder drug. D. Drugs should always be kept away from exposure to direct sunlight.

Because cold temperatures extend their life, all drugs should be refrigerated. Explanation: Although colder temperatures generally do extend the life of drugs, not all drugs should be refrigerated. Pharmacy technicians should always check a drug manufacturer's label to find out how the manufacturer recommends storing a drug.

Beconase AQ

Beclomethasone Corticosteroid Allergic rhinitis

A patient has been feeling very anxious for the past few months and has had recurrent panic attacks. A drug prescribed for this condition may likely come from which class of medications?

Benzodiazepines Explanation: To relieve anxiety and reduce panic attacks, one class of medication that a prescriber might consider is benzodiazepine hypnotics. Common benzodiazepines include alprazolam, clonazepam, and lorazepam. These medications are Schedule IV controlled substances, so over time a small risk of dependence and tolerance may develop. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are used mainly in depression, and serotonin antagonists are used for severe nausea and/or vomiting. Antipsychotics are not typically given to treat anxiety alone.

Tessalon Perles

Beonzonatate Antitussive Cough

carvedilol

Beta blocker

propranolol

Beta blocker

What is the drug classification of the drug Serevent (salmeterol) and what is it used to treat?

Beta-adrenergic agonist, asthma Explanation: Serevent (salmeterol) is classified as a beta-adrenergic agonist that is used in the treatment of severe asthma. As a beta-adrenergic agonist, it binds to beta2-adrenergic receptors that are located in the bronchioles of the lungs, causing them to dilate. For this reason, it is also called a bronchodilator.

The drug Evista (raloxifene) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM). Based on this information, which of the following conditions is this drug most likely used to treat? A. Breast cancer and osteoporosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes C. Diabetes and osteoporosis D. Breast cancer and rheumatoid arthritis

Breast cancer and osteoporosis Explanation: A drug that is categorized as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) works by blocking estrogen receptors in some cell tissues and activating them in others. This is why they are called "selective." Because both breast cancer and osteoporosis are related to estrogen production—osteoporosis is related to a lack of estrogen, while estrogen production may cause breast cancer—these two disorders are a logical choice.

Alphagan P

Brimonidine tartrate Alpha-adrenergic agonist Glaucoma

Corticosteroids are used to treat what symptom in asthma?

Bronchial inflammation Explanation: Corticosteroids are given to asthma patients to reduce inflammation in the bronchioles, which contributes to asthmatic symptoms. It does not directly treat bronchospasm, although over time reduced inflammation may reduce the frequency of bronchospasms. Corticosteroids also do not directly treat shortness of breath or increase oxygen flow to the body's tissues.

tiotropium

Bronchodilator

Which route of administration places the drug between the cheek and gum?

Buccal Explanation: The buccal route of drug administration involves placing the drug between the cheek and gum of the mouth where it may dissolve slowly and be absorbed by mucous membranes and into the patient's bloodstream.

Pulmicort Respules

Budesonide (inhalation) Corticosteroid Asthma

Rhinocort AQ

Budesonide (nasal spray) Corticosteroid Allergic Rhinitis

Symbicort

Budesonide-formoterol (inhalation) Corticosteroid/B2 agonist Asthma

Which class of laxative is commonly derived from cellulose and hydrolyzes and swells in the intestinal tract?

Bulk-forming laxatives Explanation:Bulk-forming laxatives contain cellulose and similar ingredients that pull in water and swell in the intestines. This swelling causes a pressure on the intestines, simulating peristalsis and defecation. One example of a bulk-forming laxative is methylcellulose.

Suboxone (C3)

Buprenorphine-naloxone Opioid agonist/antagonist Opioid maintenance

Wellbutrin XL

Bupropion Norepinephrine & dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) Depression

Which antidepressant medication is also indicated for smoking cessation?

Bupropion SR Explanation: Bupropion SR is a sustained-release atypical antidepressant that is also FDA indicated for smoking cessation. Originally comarketed by GlaxoSmithKline to two main consumer groups, bupropion SR was known as Wellbutrin SR for those with mood disorders such as depression and as Zyban for those who desired to quit smoking.

For information on the professional standards regarding the roles and responsibilities of pharmacy technicians, go to the

Bureau of Labor Statistics

A hospital pharmacy receives a drug order for palifermin (Kepivance) for a cancer patient. How is this drug administered?

By injection Explanation: Patients with certain types of cancer may take the drug palifermin (Kepivance) prophylactically to ease the severity of stomatitis, which is the inflammation of the mucous linings of the mouth and throat that is a common side effect of chemotherapy. It is administered by intravenous injection only.

A hospital pharmacy receives a drug order for an epidural analgesic for a patient who will be recovering from surgery. How will this drug be administered to the patient?

By injection Explanation: The epidural space is located in the spinal canal and contains numerous blood vessels. It does not contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). A physician would administer an epidural analgesic by the injection of a small catheter, or tube, into the epidural space. The medication would then be infused through this tube as needed. Epidural analgesics are used to manage acute pain, such as pain related to surgery. Women may receive an epidural during labor to ease pain.

A patient in the emergency department is having an asthma attack that is not being helped by a metered-dose inhaler. How will a bronchodilator most likely be administered?

By nebulizer Explanation: When a metered-dose inhaler is not delivering the medication deeply enough due to constriction and inflammation in the lungs, a nebulizer would be used to deliver the medication.

A person with HSV-type 2 would be most likely to take which of the following drugs as part of his treatment? A. Butoconazole (Femstat) B. Nevirapine (Viramune) C. Acyclovir (Zovirax) D. Terconazole (Terazol)

C. Acyclovir (Zovirax) Explanation: The antiviral drug acyclovir (Zovirax) is used in the treatment of herpes viruses, including HSV-type 1 and HSV-type 2. Although it does not cure a person of herpes, it helps to diminish symptoms caused by outbreaks. It may also help prevent the spread of genital herpes from an infected person to a noninfected partner.

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is commonly treated with which of the following medications? A. Nizoral B. Buspar C. Adderall XR D. Valium

C. Adderall XR Explanation: ADHD is often treated with stimulant medication such as Adderall XR. Adderall XR is a Schedule II controlled substance, so its potential for addiction and tolerance is quite high. Nizoral is an antifungal, and Valium and Buspar are often used in the treatment of anxiety.

Glucocorticoid drugs are used to treat insufficiency of which of the following endocrine glands? A. Pituitary B. Thymus C. Adrenal cortex D. Thyroid

C. Adrenal cortex Explanation: The adrenal glands secrete hormones called glucocorticoids. These hormones have a number of functions, including cell metabolism and acting against the body's inflammatory response. Glucocorticoids may be prescribed for conditions in which the adrenal cortex does not secrete enough of this hormone naturally. An example of this is Addison's disease.

Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic classification for a drug? A. Calcium channel blocker B. Diuretic C. Antidiarrheal D. Vasodilator

C. Antidiarrheal Explanation: Pharmacology categorizes drugs into two main classes: therapeutic and pharmacological. The therapeutic classification indicates how the drug will help a patient. For example, a drug that is called an antidiarrheal will prevent diarrhea. The pharmacological classification indicates how the drug works within the body, or its mechanism of action. For example, a diuretic drug works by lowering the volume of plasma in the blood.

A patient is purchasing the over-the-counter (OTC) medication BENGAY® to relieve her muscular pain following a marathon. BENGAY® is related to which of the following analgesics? A. Ibuprofen B. Acetaminophen C. Aspirin D. Morphine

C. Aspirin Explanation: The chemical name for the OTC product BENGAY® is methyl salicylate, which means it is chemically related to aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid). This product is commonly used to relieve muscle pain caused by strain, overexertion, or arthritis. Although BENGAY® is an OTC product, patients should be aware that improper use may cause harm. For example, this product should not be used for more than 7 days or applied over wounds or broken skin. It is also extremely poisonous when taken internally.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy to fill a prescription for tamsulosin (Flomax). The patient is most likely taking this drug to treat which of the following conditions? A. Prostate cancer B. Hypogonadism C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia D. Erectile dysfunction

C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia Explanation: Tamsulosin (Flomax) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). This common condition is characterized by an enlargement of the prostate gland. It usually occurs in men as they age. As its name implies, it is benign, or harmless, but it may restrict the flow or urine in which case drugs like tamsulosin may be necessary. If drug therapy is ineffective or symptoms worsen, patients may need surgery.

Which of the following is a major side effect of antineoplastic drugs? A. Anaphylaxis B. Hemorrhagic cystitis C. Bone marrow depression D. Hypertension

C. Bone marrow depression Explanation: Bone marrow depression, or dangerously low blood cell level counts, is a major side effect of antineoplastic drugs. This occurs because the drugs cannot discriminate between normal and abnormal cells, so normal bone marrow cells are destroyed as a result of the cancer treatment. Other healthy cells that are typically damaged by antineoplastic drugs include hair follicles, mucous membranes in the GI tract, and germinal epithelial cells, or the cells responsible for reproduction in females and males.

Which of the following drugs is likely to cause a seizure if taken with alcohol? A. Amitriptyline B. Mirtazapine C. Bupropion D. Trazodone

C. Bupropion Explanation: Bupropion, most commonly known as Wellbutrin, is a newer class of antidepressant drugs. One of its known side effects is the high probability that it will cause seizures if taken with alcohol, so the two are contraindicated. Bupropion is also used in smoking cessation when sold as Zyban in the form of sustained-release tablets.

Which of the following is the most common way in which drugs cross a cell membrane? A. By dissolving in the bloodstream B. By passing through a channel between cells C. By directly penetrating the cell membrane D. By using a drug transport system

C. By directly penetrating the cell membrane Explanation: A drug needs to travel from its original site of administration in the body in order to work within the body. This movement requires the drug molecules to cross different types of cell membranes. For example, a drug taken by mouth enters the GI system where it must then pass through membranes in the stomach or small intestine and enter the bloodstream. The most common way for a drug to cross a membrane is by penetrating it. Drugs that are able to penetrate cell membranes are lipid soluble, or lipophilic, which allows them to penetrate the lipid structure of the cell membrane

The drug celecoxib (Celebrex) is an example of which of the following? A. Antipyretic B. Anticonvulsant C. COX-2 inhibitor D. Opioid analgesic

C. COX-2 inhibitor Explanation: Celecoxib, sold by the brand name Celebrex, is an example of an NSAID COX-2 inhibitor. COX-2 stands for cyclooxygenase type two, which is one of the prostaglandins that are released by tissues following injury. COX-2 inhibitors are effective in providing specific pain relief that is related to inflammation.

A patient presents a prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg tablets and calcium carbonate 500 mg tablets. Is there anything the patient should know about taking these two drugs?

C. Calcium binds with the ciprofloxacin, reducing the ciprofloxacin's effectiveness. The pharmacist should advise the patient to take them at least 2 hours apart for full effectiveness of the ciprofloxacin Explanation:In the intestines, calcium binds to the ciprofloxacin, forming a complex, and reduces the effectiveness of the ciprofloxacin. Other metallic minerals such as aluminum and magnesium will also have this effect. The patient should take the calcium supplement either 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin to avoid this interaction.

For what drug class is the drug verapamil the prototype drug and what is its mechanism of action? A. Diuretic to block sodium and chloride reabsorption B. CNS stimulant to increase CNS neuronal activity C. Calcium channel blocker to dilate blood vessels in the heart D. Neuromuscular blocker to relax muscle

C. Calcium channel blocker to dilate blood vessels in the heart Explanation: Verapamil is classified as a calcium channel blocker. It is the prototype drug of this class because it was the first drug available that blocked the calcium channels in the heart and caused blood vessels to widen and relax. This lowers arterial blood pressure, allowing increased perfusion of the heart. Patients who have angina, hypertension, or certain dysrhythmias may take verapamil. Some trade names include Calan, Covera, Isoptin, and Verelan

Which of the following drugs, when prepared as a solution, may be used as an otic anti-infective in the treatment of ear infections? A. Vidarabine B. Norfloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Gentamicin

C. Ciprofloxacin Explanation: Ciprofloxacin is classified as a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. It is usually administered in conjunction with the corticosteroid hydrocortisone for the treatment of ear infections. Together, they are known as ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic and may be sold as the brand name Cipro.

Which of the following drugs that is used in cancer treatment is referred to as a platinum compound? A. Topotecan B. Cyclophosphamide C. Cisplatin D. Bleomycin

C. Cisplatin Explanation: Platinum compounds are anticancer drugs that contain platinum. They destroy cancer cells by altering the structure of DNA cancer cells, similar to alkylating agents. Patients with advanced bladder cancer, testicular cancer, and ovarian cancer may take cisplatin. Examples of platinum compounds include cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxaliplatin. It may be helpful to remember that each of the compound names includes the word "platin."

Which of the following drug classes are used most frequently in the treatment of cancer? A. Hormone agonists B. Hormones C. Cytotoxic agents D. Biologic response modifiers

C. Cytotoxic agents Explanation: While all of these examples may be utilized in cancer treatment, drugs called cytotoxic agents are those most commonly used in the treatment of cancer. The root "cyt/o" means cell and "tox/o" means poison; therefore cytotoxic drugs are toxic to cells within the body. Cancer refers to a series of disorders that damage the body at the cellular level. As a pharmacy technician, you may hear the terms cancer chemotherapy, or simply chemotherapy, used to mean cytotoxic drugs.

Which of the following statements about opioid drug delivery is correct? A. Opiate analgesics are not available as nasal preparations. B. The opiate analgesic morphine is available as a transdermal patch. C. Extended-release opiate analgesics may be administered by mouth. D. Patients generally take opiate analgesics as needed, or PRN.

C. Extended-release opiate analgesics may be administered by mouth. Explanation: Opioid drugs are available in numerous methods of delivery to patients. These include oral, intravenous, nasal, transdermal, intrathecal, buccal, and rectal. Taken by mouth, extended-release tablets, such as Avinza (morphine), slowly release the drug over time, allowing the patient to take it less often. The opiate analgesic fentanyl is also available as a transdermal patch which the patient applies to the skin. This method also gradually releases the drug over time.

A patient who takes aspirin regularly does not increase her risk of developing which of the following conditions? A. Anemia B. Liver problems C. Heart attack D. Ulcers

C. Heart attack Explanation: Although many nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are sold over the counter and are used commonly by many people, they do pose health risks that patients may be unaware of. These generally occur following long-term use or from improper dosing. The FDA notes the following conditions as possible serious side effects of NSAIDs: heart attack, stroke, high blood pressure, kidney problems, and bleeding ulcers. However, aspirin has not been linked to the development of heart attack or stroke.

Which of the following is the most serious adverse effect of insulin therapy? A. Hyperglycemia B. Polyuria C. Hypoglycemia D. Glycosuria

C. Hypoglycemia Explanation: Patients with type 1 diabetes sometimes need to take more than one type of insulin to help control their blood glucose levels. Insulin therapy may result in hypoglycemia, or abnormally low blood glucose levels. For example, this can occur if the person does something as simple as skipping a meal. It may also happen if the person's insulin dose is too high or if the dose is not timed properly to coincide with a meal

Which of the following is true regarding a patient profile for a hospital patient? A. It includes a listing of concurrent medication the patient is taking. B. It includes refill information. C. It includes information such as therapy goals and special dietary restrictions. D. It is generally not computerized.

C. It includes information such as therapy goals and special dietary restrictions. Explanation: The patient profile for a hospital, or institutional, patient includes more details about the patient than the profile for a retail patient. For example, it would include additional information related to the inpatient's treatment goals, dietary restrictions, blood test and laboratory results, and other related information.

Which of the following is not true about an autoclave? A. It destroys all types of microorganisms. B. It must be cleaned after every load. C. It uses heated dry air to achieve sterilization. D. It can kill organisms within 20 minutes.

C. It uses heated dry air to achieve sterilization. Explanation:An autoclave uses pressurized steam heat to kill organisms and achieve sterilization. It is an effective way to kill a variety of disease-causing microorganisms quickly, generally within 20 minutes, using a temperature of 270°F under 30 pounds of pressure.

Which of the following statements about the topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) Flector Patch is false? A. It is mainly used to treat acute pain from strains, sprains, and contusions. B. It should not be worn continuously or while bathing. C. Its secondary use is to treat chronic pain from osteoarthritis. D. It contains the active ingredient diclofenac.

C. Its secondary use is to treat chronic pain from osteoarthritis. Explanation: Flector Patch (diclofenac) is a transdermal NSAID. Patients apply the patch directly to their skin to relieve pain. Patients using transdermal patches should be advised to apply the patch to clean, intact skin and to avoid wearing the patch while showering or bathing. Although oral forms of diclofenac have been approved by the FDA for use in managing osteoarthritis pain, the Flector Patch has not currently been approved for this use. The FDA has also issued a warning about the possibility of liver damage during extended treatment with all diclofenac products.

Which of the following drugs is used in both the treatment of arrhythmias and as a local anesthetic? A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Lidocaine D. Phenytoin

C. Lidocaine Explanation: Lidocaine is a Class I arrhythmic that is used in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and also as a local anesthetic. An arrhythmia is a heartbeat that falls outside of the normal range of 60-100 contractions per minute. For example, this might include a heart that beats too fast, too slow, or skips a beat. A ventricular arrhythmia means the dysfunction originates in one of the heart's ventricles—as opposed to an atrial arrhythmia, which originates in one of the atria of the heart.

Which patient is using positive nonverbal communication? A. Roger Chang folds his arms in front of his body and avoids eye contact. B. Annabelle Mespirida shakes her finger at the pharmacy technician. C. Lois Jones leans forward to listen to the pharmacy technician. D. Ewan Reilley shakes his head and frowns at the pharmacy technician.

C. Lois Jones leans forward to listen to the pharmacy technician. Explanation: Nonverbal communication is communication using body language. Positive, open nonverbal communication includes leaning forward to listen, making eye contact, and smiling. Positive nonverbal communication generally indicates that the patient understands and accepts communication. The other answer choices are examples of negative nonverbal communication and may indicate misunderstanding or conflict.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for the drug sumatriptan (Imitrex). This drug has most likely been prescribed to treat which of the following? A. Labor pains B. Inflammation C. Migraine headaches D. Angina

C. Migraine headaches Explanation: Patients who suffer from migraine headaches may use sumatriptan (Imitrex) to relieve their pain. It is classified as a selective serotonin receptor agonist. It has analgesic properties in relation to migraines because it narrows the blood vessels in the head. This action helps to stop pain signals from going to the brain. Patients may require prescription drugs like sumatriptan when they are unable to obtain relief with OTC analgesics

The drug docetaxel is an example of which of the following cytotoxic drug classes? A. Antimetabolites B. Alkylating agents C. Mitotic inhibitors D. Platinum compounds

C. Mitotic inhibitors Explanation: Docetaxel is an example of a mitotic inhibitor. This drug class is further subdivided into taxanes, including docetaxel, and vinca alkaloids, including vinblastine. Patients receive docetaxel through IV injection. It is used frequently in the treatment of prostate cancer.

Opioid drugs work by binding to specific receptors within the body's central nervous system. Which of the following are considered the primary analgesic receptors for opioids? A. Kappa and sigma B. Mu and delta C. Mu and kappa D. Delta and sigma

C. Mu and kappa Explanation: The mu, kappa, delta, and sigma receptors of the CNS are all considered opioid receptors. However, analgesia is attributed mainly to the mu and kappa receptors. The sigma receptor has been associated with confusion, depression, and hallucinations. Scientists are still learning about the delta receptor.

Which of the following statements about nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is not correct? A. Patients should take NSAIDs exactly as they are prescribed. B. NSAIDs may cause ulcers in patients who drink alcohol and/or smoke. C. NSAIDs are safe for patients to use throughout pregnancy. D. Patients should use the lowest possible dose of NSAIDs during treatment.

C. NSAIDs are safe for patients to use throughout pregnancy. Explanation: According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), women should not take NSAIDs in late pregnancy. This caution is based on studies that have shown the link between this drug class and the premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or a unique structure involved in fetal circulation. Other studies have shown that NSAID use may cause other problems in the developing fetus, such as birth defects and pulmonary hypertension. Always refer patients who have questions about the safety of both OTC and prescription drugs to the pharmacist for more information or advise them to speak with their doctors.

Which of the following is not one of the subcategories of antimetabolite used in cancer treatment? A. Folic acid analogs B. Pyrimidine analogs C. Nucleotide analogs D. Purine analogs

C. Nucleotide analogs Explanation: Antimetabolites are analogs of natural metabolites. This means they are structurally similar to a natural substance, such as folic acid. They are useful in cancer treatment because some of the cancer cells will attach to the antimetabolite drug, instead of to the real metabolite, and be unable to replicate. Folic acid analogs, purine analogs, and pyrimidine analogs are all examples of antimetabolites that are used to treat cancer.

A patient who takes the progestin medroxyprogesterone for longer than 2 years may be at greatest risk for developing which of the following conditions as a result of this drug treatment? A. Diabetes B. Amenorrhea C. Osteoporosis D. Hypertension

C. Osteoporosis Explanation: Studies have shown that medroxyprogesterone causes calcium loss in bone. Long-term use of this drug may therefore cause osteoporosis. For this reason, patients who take this drug are instructed to consume foods that contain vitamin D and calcium or take additional supplements to offset its negative effects. Patients are also advised against taking this drug for more than 2 years.

Which of the following regulations established the term legend drugs? A. The Pure Food and Drug Act B. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment C. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment D. The Controlled Substances Act

C. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment Explanation: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 amended the FDCA by requiring that all prescription drugs clearly displayed the legend on their label that said: "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription." Over time, a shorter version of this legend, "Rx only," was approved as a substitute.

A patient is considering taking hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to relieve some of her menopause symptoms and is weighing the risks of this option. Which of the following conditions is she least at risk of developing as a result of HRT for menopause? A. Breast cancer B. Stroke C. Osteoporosis D. Heart disease

C. Osteoporosis Explanation: ormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the treatment of menopause symptoms has become less common in the last 10 years as its risks to the patient for developing conditions such as breast cancer, heart disease, thromboembolic disease, and stroke have become known. It is important for women who are suffering from menopause symptoms, such as hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness, to consider whether the benefits of HRT outweigh the risks. Refer patients with questions about HRT to the pharmacist.

Which of the following medications is an SSRI? A. Xanax B. Lunesta C. Paxil D. Elavil

C. Paxil Explanation: Paxil is the only selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) listed. Elavil can also be used as an antidepressant, but it belongs to a different class of drugs. Lunesta is used for insomnia, and Xanax is used commonly for anxiety disorders.

A patient has just had a root canal and arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for a short-acting opioid. The patient's oral surgeon has most likely prescribed which of the following drugs for him? A. Avinza (morphine sustained release) B. Duragesic (fentanyl transdermal system) C. Percocet (oxycodone with acetaminophen) D. OxyContin (oxycodone sustained release)

C. Percocet (oxycodone with acetaminophen) Explanation: The pain caused by a root canal procedure would be classified as acute. In such cases, a short-acting opioid would most likely be the drug of choice to relieve the patient's pain. The term "short-acting" means that the drug begins to relieve pain rapidly, or within about 30 minutes following administration, but the overall pain relief (analgesic) effect only lasts about 4 hours. These drugs are also known as immediate-release (IR) opioids.

A patient has a UTI and has just started taking two medications that were prescribed by her doctor. A few hours after taking the prescribed analgesic medication, the patient calls back in panic saying her urine has turned bright orange. Which of the following drugs is the likely cause of this side effect? A. Norfloxacin (Noroxin) B. Cinoxacin (Cinobac) C. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) D. Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin)

C. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) Explanation: The patient's doctor prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium) to alleviate the pain and urgency associated with her UTI. One if its common side effects is to stain the urine an orange-red color. It is not an antibiotic and will not cure the patient's UTI. For this, she will also need to take an antibiotic.

Which of the following is a side effect of sulfa drugs? A. Nausea B. Teratogenicity C. Photosensitivity D. Dizziness or sedation

C. Photosensitivity Explanation: A known side effect of sulfa drugs is photosensitivity, or an increased sensitivity to sunlight. A more serious side effect of sulfa drugs is their potential for causing kidney damage. Patients taking sulfa drugs like sulfasalazine or sulfamethoxazole, for example, must take them with a lot of water. If not, the drugs may crystallize within the kidneys and cause damage

Which of the following is not one of the Rights of Medication Administration in pharmacy practice? A. Right time B. Right route C. Right brand D. Right patient

C. Right brand Explanation: The Rights of Medication Administration used in pharmacy practice include the right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, reason, and response. Adhering to these rights helps ensure that all patients receive the best possible service and care.

A health-system patient profile generally contains the following elements except: A. dietary restrictions. B. date of birth. C. Rx number. D. body surface area.

C. Rx number. Explanation: A health-system patient profile will not contain an Rx number. The Rx number or serial number is used to identify specific outpatient or retail prescriptions in a retail patient profile.

Which of the following is not a common side effect of inhaled β2 agonists? A. Nervousness B. Tremor C. Sedation D. Insomnia

C. Sedation Explanation: Many of the sympathetic agonists like the β2 agonists may cause side effects in patients such as nervousness, trouble sleeping, and tremor. Patients may or may not exhibit these or other side effects such as headache or tachycardia. Sedation is not associated with the use of β2 agonists. The inhaled versions of these medications produce fewer side effects than those taken orally.

Which of the following drugs should be taken with plenty of water to avoid crystallization from occurring in the kidneys? A. Fungizone B. Fulvicin C. Septra D. Amphotec

C. Septra Explanation: Septra is a sulfonamide, also known as a sulfa drug. These antibiotics contain sulfur and are frequently used in the treatment of urinary tract infections. Patients should take sulfonamides with plenty of water to ensure proper absorption.

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Gantrisin for Molly Suarez, a patient with a UTI. Which of the following patient information should the technician provide to Ms. Suarez? A. She should take the Gantrisin until the symptoms of her urinary tract infection resolve. B. She should avoid drinking caffeinated beverages, including coffee, while on the Gantrisin. C. She should use an additional form of birth control if she is also taking an oral contraceptive. D. She may need to take an antacid along with this drug to treat its side effect of heartburn.

C. She should use an additional form of birth control if she is also taking an oral contraceptive. Explanation: Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) is an example of a sulfonamide antibiotic. One side effect of this drug is that it can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. If this patient is currently taking an oral contraceptive and is sexually active, she will need to use an additional form of birth control to avoid pregnancy while taking this drug.

If a patient's profile indicates a patient is currently taking isosorbide dinitrate, which of the following medications is contraindicated? A. Paroxetine B. Glipizide C. Tadalafil D. Atorvastatin

C. Tadalafil Explanation: Tadalafil (Cialis) should not be taken by men who also take organic nitrates such as isosorbide or nitroglycerin. This combination could cause an undesirable drop in blood pressure.

Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for "by mouth"? A. bid B. MR C. PO D. OU

C. PO Explanation: The pharmacy abbreviation for "by mouth" is "PO" or "p.o." This term originates from the Latin phrase per os, which means "by mouth." Drugs intended for oral use are taken PO.

A patient with breast cancer is about to begin adjuvant therapy as part of her treatment plan. This most likely means the patient will do which of the following? A. The patient requires radiation therapy. B. The patient has finished her drug treatment. C. The patient will have postsurgery chemotherapy. D. The patient will have surgery.

C. The patient will have postsurgery chemotherapy. Explanation: Adjuvant therapy refers to a secondary treatment with cancer chemotherapy. Adjuvant therapy begins once the patient has completed his or her primary treatment. For example, surgery to remove the patient's tumor would be the primary treatment; beginning a course of treatment with the drug tamoxifen would be a form of adjuvant therapy.

The drug Alavert D is a combination of the drugs loratadine and pseudoephedrine that patients use to treat symptoms of allergies. Based on this information, which of the following statements is most likely true of these two drugs? A. They are ineffective when used separately. B. They have the same mechanism of action. C. They have different therapeutic effects. D. They are both classified as antihistamines.

C. They have different therapeutic effects. Explanation: Drug combinations are formulated to provide different therapeutic effects when administered to a patient. In the case of Alavert D, loratadine is an antihistamine which blocks the body's production of histamine and causes many allergy symptoms. Pseudoephedrine is classified as a nasal decongestant, which narrows the blood vessels in the nasal airways, helping a patient breathe more easily. Together, they help relieve the symptoms of allergies.

Which of the following is not true of over-the-counter drugs? A. They are taken by patients without medical supervision. B. They have low strengths to prevent accidental overdosing. C. They may not be converted into an abusable substance. D. They have no demonstrated abuse potential on their own.

C. They may not be converted into an abusable substance. Explanation: Although they have no demonstrated abuse potential on their own, some OTC drugs may be separated into individual substances that can be used to make illegal, abusable drugs. For example, some OTC cold or allergy medicines contain ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine which may then be used in the illegal manufacturing of methamphetamine. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 regulates the sale of these OTC products to prevent their use in the illegal drug trade.

Which of the following statements about anticancer drugs is false? A. They are most effective against proliferating cells. B. They are less effective on solid tumors than on leukemias. C. They only target neoplastic cells within the body. D. They may eventually cause drug resistance.

C. They only target neoplastic cells within the body. Explanation: While anticancer drugs are meant to target neoplastic, or cancerous cells, they unfortunately target healthy, normal cells as well. This is because cancerous and noncancerous cells resemble each other, making it impossible for drugs to target only the cancerous cells. Oncologists, physicians, and other medical personnel who treat cancer need to be mindful that the drugs they are prescribing for cancer patients will destroy healthy cells along with malignant ones.

A patient taking erythromycin should be advised about which of the following? A. To take the drug with plenty of water B. To refrain from nursing C. To take the drug with food D. To avoid exposure to sunlight

C. To take the drug with food Explanation: Erythromycin is highly irritating to the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and, therefore, should always be taken with food. Because this macrolide is actually inactivated by stomach acid, it is normally supplied with an enteric coating.

Which of the following is the only FDA-approved therapeutic use of human growth hormone (hGH)? A. Treatment of infertility B. Treatment to improve muscle mass C. Treatment of GH deficiency D. Treatment of impotence

C. Treatment of GH deficiency Explanation: Human growth hormone (hGH) is produced by the pituitary gland. Individuals who produce deficient amounts of GH develop growth failure, which is usually detected in childhood and may be treated with human growth hormone (hGH). It is important for pharmacy technicians to be aware of the illicit use of hGH by athletes or others who believe taking this hormone will improve their performance. Such results have not been proven, and side effects from taking hGH without a prescription range from muscle weakness to cardiomegaly (an enlarged heart)

Which of the following would not be considered a benefit of using a combination of drugs to treat cancer? A. It is less likely that drug resistance will develop when using multiple drugs. B. Using multiple drugs at once will kill more cancer cells than using one drug. C. Using a combination of drugs means that patients will not need surgery. D. Using a combination of drugs ultimately harms fewer healthy cells.

C. Using a combination of drugs means that patients will not need surgery. Explanation: Many cancer patients take more than one anticancer drug at a time during the course of their treatment. However, for this approach to be effective, each drug must have a different mechanism of action, or work against the malignant cells in a different way. This helps kill more cancer cells at a time. It is also important that the different drugs do not share the same toxic effects. For example, administering two drugs that cause neutropenia, or a reduction of white blood cells, to a patient could have serious or deadly consequences.

Which of the following analgesics currently presents the highest risk for illegal use via fraudulent prescriptions? A. Codeine B. Lodine C. Vicodin D. Ambenyl

C. Vicodin Explanation: Hydrocodone, or Vicodin, is currently the most frequently prescribed opiate analgesic in the United States, according to the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). This frequency of use has also made it the most widely abused prescription drug; it is classified as a Schedule II drug for its abuse potential. Pharmacy technicians must be alert for fraudulent prescriptions for hydrocodone and alert the pharmacist when they suspect abuse. This drug is also available under the names Lortab, Lorcet, Hycodan, and Vicoprofen.

The human body uses beta carotene to form which of the following vitamins? A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin A Explanation: Vitamin supplements may offer vitamin A in two different forms. One form of vitamin A is beta carotene, which the body converts to vitamin A as needed. This makes it an inactive form of vitamin A, or a precursor compound. Many colorful fruits and vegetables, such as carrots, apricots, sweet potatoes, spinach, and mangos contain beta carotene. Some multivitamins contain both retinol and beta carotene.

Atacand

Candesartan cilexetil Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) Hypertension

A patient arrives at the pharmacy and tells the pharmacy technician that his doctor recommends that he starts taking a vitamin supplement, but he cannot remember which one. The patient says he has been a vegan for the last 2 months. Which of the following vitamins is the one most likely recommended by the patient's doctor? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin E

C. Vitamin B12 Explanation: Humans require vitamin B12 to produce red blood cells and DNA. It also helps with the normal functions of the nervous system. Unlike many other vitamins, vitamin B12 is only found in animal sources, such as meat, fish, poultry, eggs, and dairy products. Because this patient is a vegan and is not consuming such foods as part of his diet, he may require an over-the-counter vitamin B12 supplement.

An alcoholic patient would be most likely to have a deficiency of which of the following? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C Explanation: Vitamin C is not stored in body fat. Because alcohol has a diuretic effect on the body, causing the loss of fluids through urination, it also causes the loss of vitamin C. People who consume excessive amounts of alcohol may be at risk for vitamin C deficiency.

Which of the following vitamins is water soluble? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C Explanation: Vitamin C is water soluble, which means it is carried in the bloodstream and excreted through the urine. Vitamin C helps protect the body's cells from free radicals, or unstable, oxygen-containing molecules that damage normal cellular function and can lead to things like cancer or cardiovascular disease. Its various therapeutic uses include maintaining the health of skin, bones, and teeth, iron absorption, and boosting the immune system.

Which of the following medications is a benzodiazepine? A. Estrace B. Januvia C. Xanax D. Zoloft

C. Xanax Explanation: Xanax is from a class of antianxiety medications called benzodiazepines. Januvia is used to treat diabetes, Estrace is a female hormone used in replacement therapy, and Zoloft is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

Most pharmaceuticals obtained by a pharmacy for prescription sales come from: A. pharmaceutical representatives. B. a pharmaceutical cooperative. C. a wholesaler. D. individual drug manufacturers.

C. a wholesaler. Explanation: Most pharmaceuticals are ordered through a wholesaler. Frequently, a special wholesaler, who is called the prime vendor, is selected as the pharmacy's main wholesaler. Certain products that are unavailable from the wholesaler or prime vendor may be obtained directly from the drug manufacturer. Pharmaceuticals that are to be sold may not be obtained directly from drug or pharmaceutical representatives.

Stephen, a pharmacy technician at a retail pharmacy, is being blamed by a patient for not notifying him that he has no refills left on his prescription. Stephen should handle the situation by doing all of the following except: A. seeking the assistance of the pharmacy manager when needed. B. nodding his head and making eye contact with the patient. C. agreeing that the refill procedure does not make any sense at all. D. controlling his emotions by maintaining a calm and neutral tone.

C. agreeing that the refill procedure does not make any sense at all. Explanation: Conflict is a common part of human interactions and will occur in the pharmacy between staff and patients and between coworkers. A pharmacy technician should work to resolve conflicts as they occur by not allowing emotions or other strong feelings to interfere. Simply agreeing with a patient that a policy is bad may initially satisfy an angry patient, but it will fail to get to the underlying cause of the conflict, which is confusion about a pharmacy's policies and procedures. This patient will ultimately feel unsatisfied when the situation arises again in the future.

Pharmacy technicians show empathy for patients when they do all of the following except: A. imagine themselves in the patient's situation. B. treat them fairly and nonjudgmentally. C. explain that it is not their job to answer drug questions. D. treat them with dignity and respect.

C. explain that it is not their job to answer drug questions. Explanation: A person who expresses empathy shows that they are concerned about the situation or feelings of another person. A pharmacy technician who tells a patient they cannot help them, regardless of the reason, is not being empathetic. In this situation, the pharmacy technician should tell the patient he will find someone who can help answer the patient's questions.

When dispensing a controlled substance, a pharmacy technician should do all of the following except: A. verify that the prescriber's DEA number is on the script. B. confirm the patient's identity before dispensing. C. explain to the patient the side effects of the medication. D. confirm that the label, script, and stock bottle match.

C. explain to the patient the side effects of the medication. Explanation: A pharmacy technician is not allowed to consult with patients about the effects of a drug.

All the following drugs are xanthine-derivatives except: A. theophylline. B. aminophylline. C. formoterol. D. caffeine.

C. formoterol. Explanation: All of the medications are derivatives of xanthine except formoterol, which is a long-acting β2 agonist. Methylxanthines like aminophylline, caffeine, and theophylline can act as mild bronchodilators and stimulants for the treatment of asthma.

Beta blockers can be used to treat all of the following conditions except: A. arrhythmias. B. migraines. C. hypotension. D. ischemic heart disease.

C. hypotension. Explanation: Though beta blockers are often used to treat hypertension, they can also be used to treat migraines, arrhythmias, ischemic heart disease, and heart failure.

Jennifer Feathers has a penicillin allergy. This means she:

C. will possibly be allergic to cephalosporins as well. Explanation: Because cephalosporins are structurally very close to penicillins, it is likely that Jennifer will have an allergy to them as well and should avoid them. This would be especially true if Jennifer has previously had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction and medical emergency that rapidly progresses from difficulty breathing to shock and death if left untreated.

-ipine

CC blocker & antihypertensive

Diltiazem

CC blocker & antihypertensive

verapamil

CC blocker & antihypertensive

What is the proper name for vitamin D?

Calciferol Explanation: Vitamin D also goes by the name calciferol. Many supplements also subclassify vitamin D into two additional forms. These are vitamin D2, which is also called ergocalciferol or pre-vitamin D, and vitamin D3, which is called cholecalciferol.

Which medication inhibits the secretion of pepsin and binds to gastric and duodenal ulcers to form a protective layer?

Carafate Explanation: Carafate is a protective agent used for short-term treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers. By coating the open ulcer, the ulcer is better able to heal itself. Carafate acts directly at the site of the ulcer; therefore, there is little systemic absorption into the bloodstream.

Soma (C4)

Carisoprodol Muscle relaxant Musculoskeletal pain

Omnicef

Cefdinir Cephalosporin antibiotic Bacterial Infection

Celebrex

Celecoxib COX-2 inhibitor inflammation

Keflex

Cephalexin Cephalosporin antibiotic Bacterial infection

Which USP chapter sets the legal standard for non-sterile compounded preparations?

Chapter <795>

Capsaicin is an ingredient found in some OTC and prescription creams that are used to relieve pain. What is its source?

Chili peppers Explanation: Capsaicin comes from chili peppers. When used topically, such as in a cream, it interferes with the transmission of pain signals that are sent by certain nerve endings to the brain. Some patients use capsaicin to control pain from shingles or osteoarthritis. Some common names of products include Theragen and Zostrix. Patients may experience a side effect of mild burning or tingling.

Tussionex (C3)

Chlorpheniramine-hydrocodone Antihistamine-antitussive combination Upper respiratory symptoms

Antipsychotics are usually given for psychosis and schizophrenia. Which typical antipsychotic is also used to treat chronic hiccups?

Chlorpromazine Explanation: Though chlorpromazine has fallen out of favor as a long-term treatment due to its side effect profile, it can be used as an intravenous infusion to treat chronic hiccups. Haloperidol is the only other typical antipsychotic, and it is not used in the treatment of hiccups. Aripiprazole and risperidone are atypical antipsychotics.

Marissa Skinner, an asthmatic patient taking theophylline, is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which class of drugs would be contraindicated to treat her UTI?

Cipro Explanation: Because the patient is taking theophylline for her asthma, Cipro would be contraindicated in the treatment of her urinary tract infection (UTI). Cipro is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, which has been shown to cause toxic levels of theophylline when the two drugs are taken together. Thus, Marissa will need to take a different drug class, such as a penicillin, to treat her infection.

Cipro

Ciprofloxacin Quinolone antibiotic Bacterial infection

Ciprodex Otic

Ciprofloxacin-dexamethasone Quinolone Corticosteroid Bacterial external ear infection

Celexa

Citalopram Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) Depression

Which FDA recall classification is the most serious?

Class I

____________ drug recalls are issued by manufacturers when there is a strong likelihood that the product will cause serious adverse effects or death

Class I

A replacement heart valve is an example of a:

Class III medical device. Explanation: A medical device is a machine or piece of equipment that is used to diagnose, mitigate, treat, prevent, or cure disease or otherwise affect the structure or function of the body. The FDA has created three classes to categorize medical devices based on their potential to cause harm. Class I devices, like needles, have the lowest potential, and Class III devices have the highest potential. So, in the case of the heart valve, a malfunction would cause serious harm to a patient.

A mislabeled drug would be considered a:

Class III recall. Explanation: A mislabeled drug would be considered a Class III recall based on the three-tier classification system established by the FDA. A Class III recall is the least dangerous type of recall, meaning the product will not cause harm but that it is not in compliance with FDA regulations. A Class II recall has the potential to cause temporary harm, and a Class I recall is reserved for products that will cause serious harm or death.

What is the correct term for an insurance claim that has been successfully submitted without errors?

Clean claim Explanation: The term "clean claim" refers to an insurance claim that has been successfully submitted without errors and that has been sent to the insurance company on time. This results in faster payment on the claim.

Cleocin

Clindamycin Antibacterial Bacterial infection

BenzaClin

Clindamycin-benzoyl peroxide Topical antibiotic Acne

If a person is having asthmatic symptoms and does not have his inhaler with him, what common beverage may help with the symptoms?

Coffee Explanation: Coffee contains about 100 mg of caffeine per cup. Caffeine is a methylxanthine, which can act as a mild bronchodilator. Several cups of coffee may help fight off asthmatic symptoms until the inhaler can be retrieved. Strong tea may provide similar effects.

Klonopin (C4)

Clonazepam Benzodiazepine Seizure

Catapress-TTS

Clonidine Alpha-blocker Hypertension

If a prescriber wants to give a patient an antiplatelet medication following heart surgery, which medication would likely be prescribed?

Clopidogrel

Plavix

Clopidogrel Antiplatelet Thrombotic event prevention

A patient receives a prescription for Lotrisone but the pharmacy is able to substitute a less expensive generic. What information should appear on the label?

Clotrimazole-betamethasone Explanation: Because the pharmacy used the generic version of the drug to fill the patient's prescription, the generic name clotrimazole-betamethasone must appear on the label, not the brand name that was originally prescribed. Some pharmacies may also include additional information on the label, such as "Generic for Lotrisone," but that information is not required.

Due to toxic adverse effects to patients, which antipsychotic medication requires a special registry for patients, prescribers, and pharmacies?

Clozaril Explanation: Patients who are prescribed Clozaril (clozapine) are required to register with the Clozaril National Registry (CNR). Patients, as well as prescribers and pharmacies, must be active participants in the registry in order to prescribe, dispense, or take this drug. This initiative is to provide safety to patients by conducting scheduled laboratory tests, monitoring adverse effects, and adjusting the dose as necessary. It is an effective atypical antipsychotic medication for many schizophrenics, but patients must be carefully monitored while being treated with Clozaril.

A patient has an insurance policy that will pay 80% for prescriptions after the deductible has been met. What is the term for the remaining 20% that the patient is responsible to pay?

Co-insurance Explanation: After a deductible has been met by a subscriber, insurance companies often institute a co-insurance split, where the insurance company will pay the majority of the percentage and the patient will pay the minority of the percentage.

Most health systems use which code to indicate respiratory or cardiac arrest?

Code Blue Explanation: Code Blue is most frequently used to indicate that a patient is having respiratory or cardiac arrest.

Cheratussin AC (C5)

Codeine-guaifenesin Antitussive and expectorant combination Expectorant and cough suppressant

donepezil

Cognition-enhancing medication: Alzheimer's disease

(PDR) Physician's Desk Reference

Commercially published compilation of manufacturers' prescribing information (package inserts) on prescription drugs, updated annually; widely available in libraries and bookstores, and used by various specialists throughout the medical community.

The documentation that provides the actual ingredients and procedures used to compound a preparation is the

Compounding Record

CPOE stands for ___________.

Computerized Prescriber Order Entry.

(MERF) Medication Error Reporting Form

Confidential form submitted to ISMP that results in expert analysis of system-based causes of medication and vaccine errors in an attempt to improve medication safety.

Premarin

Conjugated estrogens Estrogen Vasomotor Symptoms

A patient who presents at the pharmacy with a prescription for Dolophine should be counseled about which possible adverse reaction?

Constipation

Which law established the Food and Drug Administration?

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act Explanation: The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, which was passed by Congress in 1938, established the FDA.

According to the U.D Food and Drug Administration, finasteride is in pregnancy category X. This Classification is an example of what type of warning?

Contraindication

A patient is covered by more than one health insurance plan. Which document establishes the order in which the pharmacy should file claims for this patient?

Coordination of benefits Explanation: The coordination of benefits document requires that all health plans and other payers coordinate benefits to eliminate duplication of payment and to ensure that providers receive their entitled maximum benefit.

Flexeril

Cyclobenzaprine Muscle Relaxant Musculoskeletal pain

Restasis

Cyclosporine Calcineunin inhibitor immunosuppressant Ocular dryness

Which medication is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor that is FDA-approved for the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome?

Cymbalta Explanation: Cymbalta is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor used to treat various mood disorders as well as fibromyalgia syndrome. Celexa and Prozac are both SSRIs. Although Lyrica also can be used for fibromyalgia, it is in a different class of medications typically used for seizure disorders.

Jane Benson is eight weeks pregnant and has recently been diagnosed with an ulcer. Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in the treatment of her condition? A. Zantac B. Carafate C. Cytotec D. Magnesium carbonate

Cytotec Explanation: Cytotec (misoprostol) is a pregnancy Category X drug as it has been shown to cause uterine contractions and result in abortion, especially during the first trimester of pregnancy. It has also been shown to cause fetal abnormalities like cleft palate and limb and skull deformities.

Neurontin

Gabapentin Neurologic Seizure

Which of the following is most important when preparing cytotoxic drugs? A. A horizontal laminar flow work bench B. A clutter-free compounding area C. A room with a HEPA filter D. A class II laminar flow biological safety cabinet

D. A class II laminar flow biological safety cabinet Explanation: A class II laminar flow biological safety cabinet is necessary during the preparation of cytotoxic drugs because it ensures the sterility of the product while at the same time protecting the pharmacist or pharmacy technician from contact with the drug. It works by containing the drug and filtering incoming and exhaust air through a HEPA filter which is vented outside. In addition to protecting pharmacy personnel from accidental splashes, it also prevents them from inhaling an aerosolized drug.

Which of the following scenarios would result in a credit balance? A. The pharmacy purchases supplies from a vendor. B. A patient refuses to accept a filled prescription. C. The insurance company refuses to pay a claim. D. A patient overpays for prescriptions in advance.

D. A patient overpays for prescriptions in advance. Explanation: A credit balance is money owed to a patient by the pharmacy. If a patient pays $150 for prescriptions in advance but only receives $130 in prescriptions, then the patient has a $20 credit balance.

Which of the following group of antibiotics requires a black box warning label regarding its nephrotoxicity on its packaging? A. Penicillins B. Cephalosporins C. Fluoroquinolones D. Aminoglycosides

D. Aminoglycosides Explanation: Aminoglycosides are generally used to treat serious bacterial infections that do not respond to other drugs. Because these antibiotics are known to cause possible damage to both the kidneys (nephrotoxicity) and the ears (ototoxicity), the FDA mandates that manufacturers must affix a black box warning label on their packaging to alert healthcare providers of the risks associated with their use. Examples of aminoglycosides include amikacin, gentamicin, and neomycin.

The drug methotrexate is categorized as which of the following? A. Antitumor antibiotic B. Hormone C. Alkylating agent D. Antimetabolite

D. Antimetabolite Explanation: Methotrexate is an antimetabolite. Its mechanism of action is to interfere with cancer cells' ability to synthesize DNA, which disrupts their metabolic pathways and ultimately destroys them. Methotrexate specifically interferes with the cancer cells' synthesis of folic acid; it is therefore called a folic acid analog. Patients with certain types of cancers, such as lung, breast, or lymphoma may take methotrexate. This drug may also be used to treat severe cases of both rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis.

Doxorubicin may be categorized as belonging to which of the following groups? A. Antimetabolites B. Alkylating agents C. Mitotic inhibitors D. Antitumor antibiotics

D. Antitumor antibiotics Explanation: Doxorubicin is an example of an antitumor antibiotic. Drugs in this group work by altering the DNA structure of cancer cells, preventing them from replicating. Patients receive this drug through IV infusion. Some brand names for doxorubicin are Adriamycin PFS, Adriamycin, Doxil, and Rubex.

Which of the following is now required by the FDA to appear on all prescription drug products? A. Unit price B. ISBN C. DEA number D. Bar code

D. Bar code

Which of the following is available as an orally inhaled corticosteroid? A. Methylprednisolone B. Chlorpheniramine C. Ephedrine D. Beclomethasone

D. Beclomethasone Explanation: Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid that can be found in the oral inhaler Qvar. Methylprednisolone is also a steroid, but it is not available for inhalation. Ephedrine can be found in behind-the-counter inhalers such as Primatene Mist, but it works as an alpha and beta agonist and is not a steroid. Chlorpheniramine is found in many OTC allergy medications and is an antihistamine.

Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to patients with Parkinson's disease? A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Donepezil D. Carbidopa-levodopa

D. Carbidopa-levodopa Explanation: Carbidopa-levodopa is a drug combination frequently given to Parkinson's patients. Carbidopa enhances the effect of levodopa and these two medications are frequently given together in one formulation. Donepezil is used in the treatment of dementia associated with Alzheimer's disease, and phenytoin and carbamazepine treat seizure disorders such as epilepsy.

A patient who suffers from arthritis arrives at the pharmacy to have her prescription for pain medication filled. This patient's pain could best be characterized by which of the following terms? A. Acute B. Radiating C. Intense D. Chronic

D. Chronic Explanation: Pain is usually characterized as chronic or acute. Chronic pain, such as that attributed to conditions like arthritis, is long term. Patients who suffer chronic pain usually seek drugs and other therapies to relieve their persistent, dull pain. Acute pain, on the other hand, is sharp, intense, and short term. A trauma, such as breaking a bone, would cause acute pain which would eventually abate. Each type of pain requires different drug therapy.

Pernicious anemia can often be reversed using which of the following dietary supplements? A. Folic acid B. Ascorbic acid C. Ferrous sulfate D. Cyanocobalamin

D. Cyanocobalamin Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in intake or metabolism of vitamin B12, also known as cyanocobalamin. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia, folic acid can prevent neural tube birth defects in pregnant women, and ascorbic acid can prevent scurvy.

If a patient is too weak to perform a physical stress test for his heart, which of the following medications can be used for a pharmacologic stress test? A. Norepinephrine B. Propranolol C. Verapamil D. Dobutamine

D. Dobutamine Explanation: A pharmacological stress test can be done with drugs alone or with a combination of drugs and radioactive tracers to help view the pathway of blood to the heart. The medication increases blood pressure and heart rate to simulate the effects of exercise or higher activity. Dobutamine is a common drug used for stress tests, as well as dipyridamole and adenosine.

A patient has brought in a new prescription for desloratadine to the grocery store pharmacy. With the medication, the patient is also purchasing fresh spinach and broccoli. The pharmacy technician notices that the patient also has a prescription in the profile for cetirizine and is allergic to sulfa. What type of reaction does the pharmacy technician suspect could occur? A. There is no indication for any type of allergy or interaction. B. Allergic reaction C. Drug-food interaction D. Drug-drug interaction

D. Drug-drug interaction Explanation: Desloratadine and cetirizine are both antihistamines, which are used for allergies. The pharmacist should verify with the patient if both medications are being taken before dispensing. This drug duplication could cause excessive sedation and other health problems. There is no potential for allergy or diet interaction indicated.

A person taking which of the following drugs should exercise caution while driving or operating machinery? A. Remeron B. Nardil C. Imitrex D. Elavil

D. Elavil Explanation: Elavil (amitriptyline) is a tricyclic antidepressant. Because one known side effect of this drug class is its possibility to cause sedation, people taking this drug should be careful while driving or performing other activities that require concentration or fine motor control.

Which of the following medications is a vasopressor that is also used to treat anaphylaxis? A. Diphenhydramine B. Lidocaine C. Dopamine D. Epinephrine

D. Epinephrine Explanation: Epinephrine can be found in the Epi-Pen® as a treatment for anaphylaxis. Dopamine is a vasopressor but is not typically used for anaphylaxis. Diphenhydramine can treat mild to moderate allergic reactions that could lead to anaphylaxis, but it is an antihistamine. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic agent and is used topically as an anesthetic.

The drugs fluconazole and butoconazole are used in the treatment of which of the following? A. Bacterial infections B. Parasitic infections C. Viral infections D. Fungal infections

D. Fungal infections

Which of the following drugs is an example of an oral hypoglycemic? A. Propylthiouracil (Propacil) B. Methimazole (Tapazole) C. Insulin lispro (Humalog) D. Glipizide (Glucotrol)

D. Glipizide (Glucotrol) Explanation: Oral hypoglycemic drugs work by lowering a person's blood glucose levels. They are prescribed for people with type 2 diabetes; this may occur when the person has been unable to lower blood sugar levels using diet control and exercise exclusively.

A patient in the emergency department requires the opioid antagonist Naloxone. This drug is most likely needed to treat which of the following conditions? A. Emergency cesarean section B. Myocardial infarction C. Anaphylactic shock D. Heroin overdose

D. Heroin overdose Explanation: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist. This means it works by binding to opioid receptors within the central nervous system (CNS) and blocking the main opioid receptors. It is useful in managing an overdose of the opioid narcotic drug heroin because it helps to block the receptors from the effects of that drug.

Antitumor antibiotics are administered to patients through which of the following routes? A. IM B. IV and PO C. IM and TD D. IV

D. IV Explanation: Because antitumor antibiotics are poorly absorbed by the gastrointestinal (GI) system, they are administered to patients by IV. Antibiotic drugs in this category are more toxic than regular antibiotics, so their use is restricted to treating both solid tumors and some disseminated cancers, such as leukemias.

Which of the following routes of administration does the abbreviation IM stand for? A. Intraosseous B. Intrathecal C. Intradermal D. Intramuscular

D. Intramuscular Explanation: The abbreviation IM stands for intramuscular. Drugs that are administered through the intramuscular route are injected into the layers of muscle below the skin. IM injections are deeper than those that only reach the superficial layers of the skin.

A patient is taking OTC ibuprofen to treat a tension headache. Which of the following side effects would be considered serious enough for her to call her physician? A. Diarrhea B. Nausea C. Dizziness D. Itching

D. Itching Explanation: A potential side effect of NSAIDs such as ibuprofen is itching. While uncommon, this reaction may be a sign of an allergic reaction to the drug. Patients who experience itching should stop taking the drug immediately and contact their doctor. Other examples of allergic reactions to NSAIDs include an asthma attack and hives.

Which medication treats seizure disorders? A. Effexor B. Invega C. Sinemet D. Keppra

D. Keppra Explanation: Keppra is used to treat partial onset seizures in those who have epilepsy. Sinemet treats Parkinson's disease, Effexor treats depression and other mood disorders, and Invega primarily treats psychosis and schizophrenia.

Which of the following drugs is an opiate? A. Cytotec B. Prevacid C. Prilosec D. Lomotil

D. Lomotil Explanation: Lomotil is an opiate, diphenoxylate, that is combined with atropine to make it less attractive for addiction since the atropine causes side effects like dry mouth and tachycardia. The diphenoxylate makes it a Schedule V drug that requires a prescription, but it has a low potential for abuse. It is used therapeutically as an antidiarrheal.

Which of the following classes of anti-infective drugs works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria? A. Macrolides B. Tetracyclines C. Aminoglycosides D. Penicillins

D. Penicillins Explanation: Penicillins work by damaging the cell walls of bacteria. Their chemical structure contains a beta-lactam ring that binds to the cell wall of the bacteria, damaging it and causing it to die. However, bacteria that contain a substance called penicillinase are resistant to penicillin because they can break the beta-lactam ring before it does damage. These microbes require treatment with penicillinase-resistant penicillins.

Mrs. Giametto has type I diabetes. Which of the following drugs would be ineffective on its own in the treatment of her condition? A. Humulin N B. Humalog C. Insulin glargine D. Pioglitazone

D. Pioglitazone Explanation: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione, which makes the body's insulin receptors more sensitive to insulin. Because type I diabetes is caused by an insulin deficiency, this drug on its own would not be a good choice for Mrs. Giametto. Instead, she would need to take insulin in addition to pioglitazone to manage her condition successfully.

Janice Wallis is taking Synthroid to treat her hypothyroidism. The use of this synthetic hormone would be an example of which of the following? A. Therapeutic effect B. Prophylaxis C. Antineoplastic therapy D. Replacement therapy

D. Replacement therapy Explanation: Hormones are given to patients pharmacologically for several different reasons. In many cases, a person is unable to secrete enough of a specific hormone, such as thyroid hormones T3 or T4, and needs more of it. This is called hormone replacement therapy.

A patient's profile indicates a patient was admitted to the hospital due to depression. Which of the following drugs would be most likely found on the patient's profile? A. Simvastatin B. Fexofenadine C. Glyburide D. Sertraline

D. Sertraline Explanation: Sertraline (Zoloft), a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is commonly prescribed for depression.

A patient has been undergoing chemotherapy to treat her breast cancer. She stops by the pharmacy, seeking a recommendation for a supplement that will help boost her immune system and help her regain her strength as she undergoes this treatment. The pharmacist should offer which of the following advice? A. She should take a multivitamin designed specifically for women. B. She should increase her daily dose of vitamin E to 20 mg per day. C. She should begin taking a vitamin A supplement. D. She should not take antioxidants while on chemotherapy.

D. She should not take antioxidants while on chemotherapy. Explanation: Patients who are undergoing chemotherapy should avoid taking antioxidants such as vitamins C and E unless they are specifically advised to do so by their oncologist. Antioxidants, which work by protecting the body from free radicals, may interfere with the intended effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. In this case, it would be best for the patient to speak with her physicians about their suggestions for complementary therapies that would not interfere with her cancer treatment.

A pharmacy technician who is preparing a cytotoxic drug has accidentally spilled some of it on her skin. She should do which of the following? A. Wash the area with soap, then use isopropyl alcohol to further clean the area. B. Use a scrub brush to abrade the area, then clean the area with isopropyl alcohol. C. Use a scrub brush to abrade the area, then see her physician. D. Wash the area with soap and water, then see her physician.

D. Wash the area with soap and water, then see her physician. Explanation: Pharmacy personnel, physicians, nurses, and anyone else who comes into contact with hazardous cytotoxic drugs must follow strict precautions to avoid injury. Remember, these drugs are intended to kill cells. In the example above, the pharmacy technician should first wash the affected area with soap and water and then seek an evaluation by her doctor. Abrading the area is not recommended because it could cause further injury to the tissue.

The 25-year-old wife of a patient arrives at the pharmacy to pick up her husband's new prescription for finasteride (Proscar). The pharmacy technician should be sure to tell the patient's wife which of the following? A. Her husband may initially experience extreme mood swings. B. Her husband must pick up the prescription because it is a Schedule V drug. C. She should place the finasteride in the refrigerator as soon as possible. D. She should not touch crushed or broken finasteride tablets.

D. She should not touch crushed or broken finasteride tablets. Explanation: Finasteride (Proscar) is typically used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and male pattern baldness in men. Studies have shown that this drug may cause harm to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women of childbearing age or who are pregnant should not handle crushed or broken finasteride tablets. The pharmacy technician should advise the patient's wife about this risk and then offer further counseling with the pharmacist if she has additional questions.

Which of the following statements about capsules is false? A. Some capsules are not meant to be swallowed by a patient. B. Many hard shell capsules do not come apart. C. The larger half of a capsule is called the body. D. Size 000 is the smallest available capsule size.

D. Size 000 is the smallest available capsule size. Explanation: Many oral prescription and OTC drugs are available as capsules, which are small containers made of gelatin that hold the drug particles. Capsules come in eight different sizes, with the smallest being size 5 (0.13 mL) and the largest being size 000 (1.37 mL).

Which of the following is not an example of a liquid drug formulation? A. Elixir B. Solution C. Syrup D. Spray

D. Spray Explanation: Drugs require a method, or formulation, to enter the body. The main drug formulations are loosely categorized as solids, liquids, and gases. Examples of solid formulations include tablets, capsules, and suppositories. All must first dissolve inside the body before they can be absorbed. Liquid forms include elixirs, solutions, syrups, and creams. While the body does not need to dissolve liquids, the drug molecules still need to cross cell membranes to be used by the body. Finally, gases include inhalants, sprays, and aerosols. Drugs in this form reach their target tissues quickly. Asthma drugs, for example, are frequently administered as inhalations.

An infection with MRSA is caused by which of the following organisms? A. Rickettsia rickettsii B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Salmonella typhi D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus Explanation: The abbreviation MRSA stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. This organism has developed resistance to some antibiotics, including methicillin, oxacillin, penicillin, and amoxicillin. Because of its resistance to common antibiotics, MRSA can be difficult to treat. Vancomycin is often used to treat MRSA.

Insulin is not available in which of the following dosage forms? A. Cartridge pen B. Pump C. Injection D. Tablet

D. Tablet Explanation: Patients with type 1 diabetes do not produce enough insulin on their own and require long-term drug therapy. Insulin must be administered through an injection. This may be done in several ways, including an insulin syringe, a cartridge pen, an insulin pump, and an insulin jet injector. In each example, the insulin is injected subcutaneously into the patient's body. Patients generally discuss the dosing method that will work best for them with their doctors. Insulin cannot be taken orally because digestive enzymes in saliva break down the proteins in insulin.

Which of the following is an anti-estrogen drug used in the treatment of breast cancer? A. Flutamide B. Estropipate C. Medroxyprogesterone acetate D. Tamoxifen

D. Tamoxifen Explanation: Tamoxifen, sold as the trade name Nolvadex, is an anti-estrogen drug. It is commonly used to treat breast cancer that has spread to other parts of the body, or as an adjuvant therapy following surgery. Patients take this drug as a tablet by mouth. The FDA has also approved its use to prevent breast cancer in women with a family history of the disease.

A patient selects Tylenol PM from the pharmacy shelf, and he tells the pharmacist, "Tylenol is just another name for acetaminophen, so this is what I need." The pharmacist will most likely do which of the following? A. Suggest an herbal alternative to the patient because Tylenol PM has many side effects. B. Explain the situation to the patient's physician so he or she can intervene immediately and help the patient. C. Find out more information about the patient's specific condition and prescribe the correct drug. D. Tell the patient to check the ingredients on the Tylenol PM to make sure it's what he needs.

D. Tell the patient to check the ingredients on the Tylenol PM to make sure it's what he needs. Explanation: Patients often confuse the brand name of a drug with its active ingredients. For example, many patients think of Tylenol as the analgesic acetaminophen. However, the Tylenol brand name offers many formulations of drugs, some of which contain both acetaminophen and other ingredients. In this scenario, the pharmacist will most likely assist the patient by having him check the ingredients carefully.

Which of the following is not overseen by the Consumer Product Safety Commission? A. Oversight of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act B. The investigation of product-related injuries or deaths C. The development of safety standard for consumer products D. The development and release of new drugs to the market

D. The development and release of new drugs to the market Explanation: The FDA is responsible for regulating the development and release of new drugs to the U.S. market. The Consumer Product Safety Commission is responsible for protecting the public against unreasonable risks resulting from consumer products. This includes setting consumer safety standards and investigating injuries, illnesses, or deaths related to consumer products.

A 70-year-old man has lymphoma. Based on this patient's age, which of the following statements is true? A. The patient is unlikely to comply with his drug therapy. B. The patient cannot receive anticancer drugs through a central line. C. The patient will require higher doses of anticancer drugs. D. The patient most likely has at least one other unrelated condition.

D. The patient most likely has at least one other unrelated condition. Explanation: Older adults are more likely than younger adults or children to have more than one medical condition as a simple consequence of aging. This means that a patient may be taking several drugs at a time to treat different conditions. It is important for doctors to know which drugs a patient is taking to prevent drug-drug interactions.

Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is correct? A. The United States requires manufacturers to standardize their production. B. They are not regulated by the Food and Drug Administration. C. Their labels may claim to prevent a disease or condition. D. They do not require proof of their effectiveness.

D. They do not require proof of their effectiveness. Explanation: A dietary supplement is a product that supplements, or complements, a person's diet. It must contain one or more of the following ingredients: vitamins, minerals, herbs or other botanicals, or amino acids and their constituents. While drug manufacturers must undergo rigorous testing of new products to determine both their safety and effectiveness prior to releasing them to the market, these same FDA regulations do not apply to dietary supplements. A manufacturer who sells a new dietary ingredient in the United States after October 15, 1994 must prove it is safe for human use. However, the manufacturer does not need to prove the product's effectiveness.

The drug Alavert D is a combination of the drugs loratadine and pseudoephedrine that patients use to treat symptoms of allergies. Based on this information, which of the following statements is most likely true of these two drugs? A. They are both classified as antihistamines. B. They are ineffective when used separately. C. They have the same mechanism of action. D. They have different therapeutic effects.

D. They have different therapeutic effects. Explanation: Drug combinations are formulated to provide different therapeutic effects when administered to a patient. In the case of Alavert D, loratadine is an antihistamine which blocks the body's production of histamine and causes many allergy symptoms. Pseudoephedrine is classified as a nasal decongestant, which narrows the blood vessels in the nasal airways, helping a patient breathe more easily. Together, they help relieve the symptoms of allergies

Which of the following information about vitamin supplements is important for patients to know? A. Most people need a daily multivitamin in order to remain healthy. B. The FDA regulates their safety and effectiveness. C. They are natural products and will not cause harm. D. They may interact with prescription or over-the-counter (OTC) drugs.

D. They may interact with prescription or over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Explanation: People who consume a healthy, varied diet generally obtain most of the vitamins and minerals they need without the need for an additional vitamin supplement. Many patients wrongly assume that vitamins are harmless because they are sold without a prescription and are marketed as "natural." Pharmacy personnel should maintain accurate records of all of the medications their patients are taking, including OTC drugs and dietary supplements, as a way to prevent adverse consequences from interactions.

A patient who is breast feeding her baby wants to begin using oral contraceptives again to prevent pregnancy. Which of the following options would work best for this patient? A. This patient should not resume oral contraceptives while nursing. B. This patient should take an estrogen-only oral contraceptive. C. This patient should take a combined oral contraceptive. D. This patient should take the progestin-only minipill.

D. This patient should take the progestin-only minipill. Explanation: The minipill only contains progestin, so it may be used by women who are breast feeding and would like to prevent pregnancy using an oral contraceptive. Unlike estrogen, the progestin, a synthetic form of progesterone, does not interfere with milk production by the mammary glands. Women who are sensitive to estrogen may also choose to use progestin-only contraceptives.

Which of the following is a goal of a facility's hazard communication plan? A. To decrease the chances of exposure to infectious materials and blood-borne pathogens B. To provide information regarding escape routes and emergency procedures during a fire C. To communicate the risks and dangers posed by certain pieces of equipment used on site D. To educate employees about the types and associated risks of chemicals used on site

D. To educate employees about the types and associated risks of chemicals used on site Explanation: A pharmacy must have a hazard communication plan in place to inform its employees about the types of hazardous chemicals used in the facility and their potential risks. For example, hazardous chemicals must bear a warning label and a hazard identification symbol coded to indicate flammability, health, and reactivity hazards.

A hospital pharmacy receives a drug order for an IV tocolytic for a patient. Which of the following is the most likely reason a drug with these properties has been ordered? A. To prevent thyroid storm B. To induce labor C. To reduce hemorrhage following delivery D. To terminate premature labor

D. To terminate premature labor Explanation: Tocolytic drugs, such as magnesium sulfate, are used to slow uterine contractions and prevent premature labor in pregnant patients. Drugs that have this effect come from all different classes. For example, in addition to magnesium sulfate, the calcium channel blocker nifedipine and the prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors indomethacin, ketorolac, and sulindac all have tocolytic effects and may be used for this purpose, depending on the needs of the patient.

A person with which of the following endocrine conditions will most likely require drug therapy with insulin? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Hypoglycemia C. Type 2 diabetes D. Type 1 diabetes

D. Type 1 diabetes Explanation: People who have type 1 diabetes are unable to produce insulin. The body needs this hormone to convert blood glucose into energy. Typically, patients with type 1 diabetes control their condition by eating meals on a regular schedule, controlling their diet, exercising, and taking insulin replacement therapy such as Humulin R or Humalog. Such measures help control the level of glucose in the blood and allow them to lead more normal lives.

Which of the following vitamins is produced by the human body in response to exposure to sunlight? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin D Explanation: The human body produces small amounts of both vitamin D and vitamin K. Exposure to sunlight on the skin causes the body to make vitamin D from cholesterol. For this reason, vitamin D is sometimes called "the sunshine vitamin." However, people intake the majority of vitamin D through fish, egg yolk, and fortified foods such as milk. Technically, bacteria that live in the human digestive system, not the body itself, produce a small amount of vitamin K. Most vitamin K comes from food, such as dark, leafy green vegetables like spinach, kale, and Swiss chard.

Which of the following is used in the management of a warfarin overdose? A. Protamine sulfate B. Furosemide C. Aspirin D. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin K Explanation: Because warfarin acts to inhibit the vitamin K clotting factors in the blood, the first choice of treatment for a warfarin overdose is a high dose of vitamin K administered intravenously. However, if this fails, or the patient is critical, a transfusion of human plasma may be necessary.

A patient has been having frequent bouts of insomnia for over 2 months. Which medication might her prescriber recommend? A. Paroxetine B. Modafinil C. Methylphenidate D. Zolpidem

D. Zolpidem Explanation: Zolpidem is the generic name for Ambien. Ambien is prescribed for the treatment of sleep disorders. Modafinil is used to treat narcolepsy, and methylphenidate is typically used to treat ADHD.

Hard copy prescriptions in a community pharmacy are typically filed in the following ways except: A. in two different series: one drawer for CII and another drawer for CIII-CV and legend drugs. B. in three different series: one drawer each for legend, CIII-CV, and CII. C. by serial or Rx number in a file drawer. D. alphabetically by patient name in a file drawer.

D. alphabetically by patient name in a file drawer Explanation: Though methods may vary, hard copy prescriptions are commonly filed chronologically by serial or Rx number and also by type or series: CII, CIII-CV, and legend. They may also be maintained with CII prescriptions in one drawer with all other prescriptions in a second drawer, as long as CIII-CV prescriptions are either marked with a red "C" or are also filed electronically.

Reclast is used in the treatment of:

D. osteoporosis. Explanation: Reclast is used in the treatment of osteoporosis exclusively in post-menopausal women. Patients receive the drug via a yearly intravenous injection. Its therapeutic effect is to bind to the bones and help protect them from fractures.

The over-the-counter product Pepcid Complete contains all of the following ingredients except: A. calcium carbonate. B. magnesium hydroxide. C. famotidine. D. simethicone.

D. simethicone. Explanation: Pepcid Complete contains two immediate-acting antacids and an H2 antagonist. The antacids included in this formulation are calcium carbonate and magnesium hydroxide. Famotidine is an H2 antagonist with effects lasting about 12 hours. It helps reduce the amount of gastric acid secreted but requires 30-60 minutes to take effect. This product is for those who want immediate and long-lasting relief from heartburn symptoms. Simethicone is an antiflatulant medication and is not found in this product.

A physician might write a prescription for an extemporaneous compound for the following reasons except: A. the medication is not manufactured in a dosage form suitable for the patient. B. the medication is not manufactured in a strength suitable for the patient. C. the medication is not manufactured commercially. D. the patient needs a less costly alternative product.

D. the patient needs a less costly alternative product. Explanation: Many compounds will cost as much as or more than manufactured products due to the time put into specially preparing them.

When compounding a special topical ointment, the pharmacy technician should do all of the following except: A. wear gloves. B. make sure the compounding equipment is clean. C. make sure the work area is clean. D. wear a mask.

D. wear a mask. Explanation: When compounding a topical nonsterile product, it is not necessary to wear a mask. The technician should ensure that the work area and equipment is clean and wear gloves.

A physician's order form in a hospital setting contains: A. only the prescriber's orders for diet and medication. B. all of the prescriber's orders, with the exception of procedures and dietary restrictions. C. only the prescriber's orders for medication. D. all of the prescriber's orders, including medication, lab, procedures, and dietary orders.

D. all of the prescriber's orders, including medication, lab, procedures, and dietary orders

Enablex

Darifenacin GU antispasmodic Overactive Bladder

(FAERS) FDA Adverse Event Reporting System

Database that contains information on adverse event and medication error reports submitted to the FDA; designed to support the FDA's post-marketing safety surveillance program.

sertraline

Depression

Kariva

Desogestrel-ethinyl estradiol Monophasic oral contraceptive Oral Contraceptive

(NCPDP) National Council for Prescription Drug Programs

Develops and promotes industry standards and business solutions that improve patient safety and health outcomes, while also decreasing costs.

(ISMP) Institute for Safe Medication Practices

Devoted entirely to medication error prevention and safe medication use.

Focalin XR (C2)

Dexmethylphenidate CNS Stimulant ADHD

Adderal XR (C2)

Dextroamphetamine-amphetamine Amphetamine ADHD

exenatide

Diabetes

Zyprexa can greatly increase a patient's risk of developing which chronic disease?

Diabetes Explanation: Those taking Zyprexa are at a greater risk of developing diabetes than if they had not taken the medication. Hyperglycemia can occur, which could lead to ketoacidosis (buildup of acid in the blood due to abnormal production of ketones), coma, or death. Those taking this medication should be aware of the symptoms of diabetes such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, excessive hunger, confusion, or weakness.

Valium (C4)

Diazepam Benzodiazepine Anxiety

Lanoxin

Digoxin Cardiac glycoside Arrythmia; myocardial infarction

Phenytoin is the generic name for:

Dilantin.

A formula calls for 4 g hydrocortisone, 2 g lidocaine, and 1 g diphenhydramine for its active ingredients. In what order should the ingredients be added when mixing this compound?

Diphenhydramine, lidocaine, hydrocortisone Explanation: The clue is in the quantities. A pharmacy technician should practice geometric dilution, starting with the active ingredient with the smallest quantity. Ingredients are then added by doubling the quantity by adding ingredients in order of increasing quantity until the compound is fully mixed. The technician should start with 1 g of diphenhydramine and add 2 g of lidocaine. After those ingredients are mixed, 4 g of hydrocortisone can be added until completely mixed. The technician should start with the active ingredient with the smallest quantity and then add ingredients of increasing quantity. This ensures a proper mixture.

Identify the purchasing method where a pharmacy buys drugs, medical devices, and other products from a single pharmaceutical company.

Direct purchase Explanation: In the purchasing direct system, a pharmacy places separate orders with an individual pharmaceutical company for the drugs or other products it requires. The two other commonly used purchasing systems are wholesalers and primary vendors.

Which of the following terms refers to an insurance claim that is denied or rejected due to missing information? A. Resubmitted claim B. Pending claim C. Appealed claim D. Dirty claim

Dirty claim Explanation: A dirty claim is denied or rejected due to errors or incomplete/missing information and requires manual processing. Many of these claims result in delayed or denied reimbursement.

Which of the following terms refers to a payment of funds? A. Adjustment B. Inventory C. Disbursement D. Audit

Disbursement Explanation: A disbursement occurs when a pharmacy makes a payment to another entity. Paying a utility bill, invoice, or salary are examples of disbursements.

Depakote ER

Divaloprex Sodium Neurologic Bipolar disorder; migraine; seizure disorder

What patient information should a pharmacy technician provide to a patient who is taking an oral prescription for Cipro?

Do not take antacids or iron supplements at the same time as this drug.

A pharmacy technician is preparing a prescription for tetracycline HCl for the treatment of Lyme disease. What patient information should the technician provide to the patient?

Do not take this drug with milk products. Explanation: Patients who have been prescribed a tetracycline drug should avoid taking it with milk or calcium-rich products, such as ice cream or cheese. This is because the tetracyclines bond with calcium molecules, reducing their absorption rate and effectiveness by about 50%. Tetracyclines should also be taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour after a meal.

Which of the following medications is a stool softener? A. Loperamide B. Milk of magnesia C. Docusate D. Bisacodyl

Docusate Explanation: Docusate is a medication used to soften stools. It is not a stimulant laxative like bisacodyl; instead, it hydrates bowel movements to make them easier to pass. Milk of magnesia is used as an antacid and laxative. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal.

What common adverse effect may occur when taking ACE inhibitors?

Dry cough

Cymbalta

Duloxetine Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) Depression

Combivent has the same active ingredients as:

DuoNeb. Explanation: Combivent and DuoNeb both contain albuterol, a sympathetic agonist, and ipratropium, an antimuscarinic agent. Advair contains salmeterol and fluticasone, Symbicort contains budesonide and formoterol, and Dulera contains mometasone and formoterol. The last three combinations all include a corticosteroid and an antimuscarinic agent.

Avodart

Dutasteride 5-alpha reductase inhibitor Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Training requirements for pharmacy technicians are determined by

Each state

Where would an over-the-counter (OTC) cold medicine that contains ephedrine be located in a retail pharmacy?

Either behind the pharmacy counter or in a locked cabinet Explanation: The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 regulates the sale of over-the-counter products that contain ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine because all three of these substances have been used in the illegal manufacturing methamphetamine, an addictive street drug. In addition to keeping products containing these substances out of reach, pharmacies are required to verify a person's identity and track the sale of each drug, among other things.

The types of protected health information covered by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act include

Electronic Paper Orally communicated

Relpax

Eletriptan 5HT receptor agonist Migraine headache

Vasotec

Enalapril ACE inhibitor Hypertension

A female patient who is purchasing an OTC pain medication asks the pharmacy technician to recommend alternative therapies to treat her lower back pain. How should the technician respond?

Encourage the patient to speak with the pharmacist or her physician. Explanation: Many alternatives exist in the treatment of pain, including alternative therapies such as acupuncture, massage, and meditation. Research is also underway in the use of herbal therapies to treat pain. However, it is not the role of the pharmacy technician to recommend specific treatments to a patient. In this situation, the best course of action would be to advise the patient to speak with either the pharmacist or her physician.

Lovenox

Enoxaparin Low-molecular heparin Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis

What is the name of the process by which the liver eliminates drugs from the body?

Enterohepatic recirculation

The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act Requires that OTC cold and allergy medications containing which of the following drugs be kept behind the counter?

Ephedrine and pseudo ephedrine

Which disease state might be treated with valproic acid?

Epilepsy Explanation: Valproic acid belongs to a class of drugs known as anticonvulsant or antiseizure medications. Valproic acid can be used to treat epilepsy or other seizure disorders. It can also be used to treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and in the prophylaxis of chronic migraine headaches. Valproic acid is closely related to valproate sodium and divalproex sodium.

Which injectable medication is commonly used in respiratory distress associated with allergy-induced anaphylaxis?

Epinephrine Explanation: Epinephrine, commonly known as its trade name EpiPen®, is used in cases of severe bronchoconstriction or anaphylaxis due to allergic reactions or other causes. It works by affecting both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Through the alpha receptors, blood pressure and volume is maintained, and through the beta receptors, bronchioles are dilated. This combination quickly works to restore normal breathing. Prednisone, pirbuterol, and montelukast are used for allergies or breathing disorders but are not administered by injection for respiratory distress.

EpiPen

Epinephrine Catecholamine Anaphylaxis

Vitamin D

Ergocalciferol Vitamin Vitamin D Deficiency

Nexium

Esomeprazole Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) GERD

(PSTAC) Pharmacist Services Technical Advisory Coalition

Established in order to improve the coding infrastructure necessary to support billing for pharmacists' professional services.

Vagifem

Estradiol Estrogen Vulvovaginal atrophy

raloxifene

Estrogen modulator and bone health

Lunesta (C4)

Eszopiclone Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic Insomnia

Ortho-Tri-Cyclen Lo

Ethinyl estradiol-norgestimate Triphasic oral contraceptive Oral Contraceptive

Nuvaring

Etonogestrel-ethinyl-estradiol Estrogen and progestin Contraceptive

Byetta

Exenatide GLP-1 Receptor agonist Type 2 Diabetes

Zetia

Ezetimibe Cholesterol absorption inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

Vytorin

Ezetimibe-simvastatin HMG-CoA reductase combination Hypercholesterolemia

Both domestic and imported drugs require approval by (a/the) before they can be marketed in the United States

FDA

Which federal agency is responsible for inspecting drug manufacturing sites?

FDA Explanation: The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for regulating the manufacture of drugs and medical devices. Part of its jurisdiction includes inspecting drug manufacturing sites to make sure they meet standards for cleanliness and purity of ingredients as well as preventing the cross contamination of drugs.

Pepcid

Famotidine H2 Blocker GERD

What is the chemical symbol for iron?

Fe Explanation: The chemical symbol for iron is Fe. It is one of the many minerals that is essential for the health of the body. Iron is critical to the formation of red blood cells. People intake iron through their diets in one of two forms: heme, which comes from animal-derived foods, and nonheme, which comes from plant-based foods such as beans, spinach, and fortified cereals.

Tricor

Fenofribrate Fibrate Hyperlipidemia

Propecia

Finasteride 5 alpha reductase inhibitor Male pattern baldness

Cephalexin is classified as belonging to which generation of cephalosporins?

First generation Explanation: Cephalexin is considered a first-generation cephalosporin. This means it was one of the first drugs in the cephalosporin class to be developed and shares similar characteristics with other first-generation cephalosporins. For example, these drugs are commonly used to treat minor skin and soft tissue infections. As new, more potent cephalosporins are developed, they are added to different generations. A physician would use a fifth-generation cephalosporin, on the other hand, to treat a more serious or complicated skin infection, such as one caused by MRSA.

By federal law, a Schedule III medication is allowed how many refills within 6 months from the date the prescription was written?

Five refills are allowed.

Which drug distribution system that is used in health-system pharmacies keeps medications close at hand for delivery to nearby patients?

Floor stock Explanation: The floor stock distribution system stores drugs in bulk inside medication units on each floor of the hospital where patients reside so the medication is close at hand for distribution to patients. It is the responsibility of the pharmacy technician to refill the drug supplies when they are low. Unless it is computerized, the floor stock system can be difficult to monitor and maintain.

Diflucan

Fluconazole Antifungal Fungal infection

Prozac

Fluoxetine SSRI Depression

Flonase

Fluticasone (Spray) Corticosteroid Allergic rhinitis

Flovent HFA

Fluticasone (inhalation) Corticosteroid Asthma

Advair Diskus

Fluticasone-salmeterol Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)/Corticosteroid Asthma/COPD

Lescol XL

Fluvastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

The law that guarantees the purity and proper labeling of all drug products is called the:

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. Explanation: The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) was passed in 1938 to ensure the purity and proper labeling of all drugs, both prescription and over the counter (OTC). This important regulation is enforced by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). It mandates that drugs sold to the public are safe, effective, labeled properly, and pure. It also requires that food and food products are safe and labeled properly.

Which DEA form is used to order schedule II controlled substances?

Form 222

Lasix

Furosemide Loop diuretic Hypertension

Which technique will not reduce the particle size of a powder?

Geometric dilution

travoprost

Glaucoma & hypertension (eye)

bimatoprost

Glaucoma medication

brimonidine

Glaucoma medication

dorzolamide/timolol

Glaucoma medication

Glucotrol

Glipizide Sulfonylurea Type 2 Diabetes

What is the term for a sugar that is found in the bloodstream and provides the body with its main source of energy for bodily functions?

Glucose Explanation: Glucose is a form of sugar found in the blood. When stored in the liver and muscles, glucose takes the form of glycogen. Insulin is a hormone that is secreted by the pancreas that enables glucose to be used for cellular respiration. Finally, sucrose is a sweetener made of glucose and fructose.

Micronase/DiaBeta

Glyburide Sulfonylurea Type 2 Diabetes

Which suppository base would be preferable for vaginal suppositories?

Glycerinated gelatin

Patients taking Coumadin should avoid eating which type of food?

Green and leafy vegetables Explanation: Though green and leafy vegetables are normally good for patients' health, they contain high amounts of vitamin K. Vitamin K has natural clotting mechanisms and can interact with the effectiveness of the Coumadin. Other conditions may warrant limiting the other food categories.

Which bacterium is responsible for many cases of peptic and duodenal ulcers?

H. pylori Explanation: H. pylori or Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative bacteria that can survive in the stomach. It can cause inflammation of the stomach lining which results in gastric or duodenal ulcers in some individuals. Treatments usually include the use of antibiotics and proton pump inhibitors.

The first-line therapy for chronic heartburn is which class of medication?

H2 antagonists Explanation: The first-line therapy in chronic heartburn is the class of medications known as histamine2 antagonists or blockers. They work by reducing the amount of histamine that influences parietal cells in the stomach to produce acid. For chronic heartburn, antacids would need to be taken constantly, so H2 blockers used twice daily can prevent heartburn from occurring. Though available in prescription strengths, H2 antagonists can be found over the counter. Most H2 blockers end in the suffix "-tidine," as in famotidine.

Which of the following specifically governs the protection of electronic protected health information (ePHI), which is defined as all PHI maintained and/or transmitted in electronic form? A. Health Care Quality Improvement Program B. HIPAA Privacy Rule C. HIPAA Security Rule D. Federal Regulations/Interpretive Guidelines for Hospitals

HIPAA Security Rule Explanation: The HIPAA Security Rule covers standards and requirements for the electronic transmission of health information. The standards focus on privacy and security of the health information that is stored in electronic media as well as the safe and secure transmission of the health information. The HIPAA Privacy Rule is not limited to only ePHI but covers all protected health information.

A vertical laminar airflow hood is necessary for the compounding of which of the following? A. Ophthalmic preparations B. Nonhazardous sterile products C. Otic drugs D. Hazardous agents

Hazardous agents Explanation: A vertical laminar airflow hood (LAH) is necessary for the compounding of hazardous agents, such as chemotherapy drugs. They are also known as biological safety cabinets. In addition to filtering the room air through a HEPA filter like a horizontal LAH, the vertical LAH also filters the air from inside the work area within the cabinet, then draws it down, filters it again, and exhausts it away from the cabinet. This helps ensure the safety of the technician who is handling the hazardous agents in addition to ensuring the sterility of the preparation itself.

Which federal law is associated with protecting patient privacy?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

OSHA requires that all healthcare workers receive which immunization?

Hepatitis B Explanation: OSHA regulations require that all healthcare workers who are at risk of exposure to blood-borne pathogens be immunized against hepatitis B (HBV), a viral form of hepatitis that is transmitted through infected blood. Pharmacy technicians, particularly those who work in the hospital setting, are potentially at risk of exposure to HBV. Employers are required to offer the immunization free of charge to their employees. Employees who refuse immunization must sign a form which is then kept on file.

metoprolol

High blood pressure

captopril

High blood pressure, ACE inhibitor

enalapril

High blood pressure, ACE inhibitor

lisinopril

High blood pressure, ACE inhibitor

ramipril

High blood pressure, ACE inhibitor

amlodipine

High blood pressure, CC blocker

amlodipine/ benazepril

High blood pressure, CC blocker +

atorvastatin

High cholesterol

ezetimibe/simvastatin

High cholesterol

pravastatin

High cholesterol

rosuvastatin

High cholesterol

simvastatin

High cholesterol

fenofibrate

High cholesterol, high triglycerides

Esidri

Hydrochlorothiazide Thiazide diuretic Hypertension

Vicodin (C2)

Hydrocodone and acetaminophen Opioid combination Analgesic

What is the hormone testosterone primarily used to treat in male patients?

Hypogonadism Explanation: Testosterone is a male sex hormone that is secreted by the testes. Therapeutically, this hormone is used most commonly to treat delayed puberty in young males, a condition called hypogonadism. Treatment with drugs like Andro 100 or Histerone helps stimulate the development of male secondary sex characteristics.

Amphetamines, opium, cocaine, and methadone are in DEA schedule _______ because they have accepted medical use, but have a high potential for abuse and may lead to physical or psychological dependence

II

Which organization is devoted entirely to medication safety and error prevention?

ISMP

Which resource would a technician use to find a list of high alert medications?

ISMP

Which must be used to create and maintain a low particle environment?

ISO Clas 5 laminar airflow

Boniva

Ibandronate Bisphosphonate Osteoporosis

What is an example of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug?

Ibuprofen

Motrin

Ibuprofen NSAID Inflammation

A patient arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for Norvasc (amlodipine) and wonders if he can have a generic equivalent instead. What is this patient asking?

If another drug manufacturer makes amlodipine Explanation: A drug company, such as Pfizer, that develops a new drug, such as Norvasc (amlodipine), has the legal right to market its drug under a trade name for 17 years, per FDA regulations. However, once the company's patent has expired, other manufacturers may begin producing the drug under different names. These are called generic equivalent drugs. Typically, they cost less than the original.

Schedule 1 Drugs

No accepted medical use and high potential for abuse. (ex. cocaine, crystal meth, ecstasy, heroin, opium etc.).

A nurse prepares a compounded sterile preparation on a counter in the Emergency Departments nursing station. Which category should apply when assigning a beyond-use date for this preparation?

Immediate Use

immunosupressant

Immunosuppressive drug and chemotherapy

An OTC antidiarrheal agent is:

Imodium A-D. Explanation: Imodium A-D is an effective OTC treatment for diarrhea. Lomotil is also an antidiarrheal, but it is a Schedule V controlled substance that is available by prescription only. Emetrol is an OTC antiemetic, and Metamucil is a bulk-forming laxative.

(NABP) National Association of Boards of Pharmacy

Impartial professional organization that supports the state boards of pharmacy in creating uniform regulations to protect public health through pharmacist licensure and accreditation; composed of all state boards of pharmacy.

How would a prescription for a topical solution typically be packaged?

In a bottle with a dropper cap Explanation: A prescription for a topical solution typically is packaged in a bottle with a dropper cap to make it easier for the patient to self-administer the drug. It is important for pharmacy technicians to be familiar with the different types of containers that are available for dispensing drugs to patients and subsequently choose the right container when filling a prescription.

How should nitroglycerin be packaged?

In glass Explanation: Nitroglycerin should always be packaged in glass because it reacts chemically with most types of plastic. It should also be stored in a cool, dry place and away from direct light.

If a medication is to be used buccally, what is the appropriate route of administration?

In the cheek

14. Clinical Studies

Include: -Studies that provide primary support for effectiveness -Studies that prospectively evaluate a safety endpoint Does not include: -studies with results that imply effectiveness of an unapproved indication, use , or dosing regimen -studies that are not adequate and well-contolled

Boxed warning

Included in highlights Serious adverse reaction Restricted

How is the contraceptive Depo-Provera administered to patients?

Injection Explanation: Medroxyprogesterone, which is sold by trade names such as Depo-Provera and Depo-SubQ Provera 104, is administered to female patients by injection. Injections may be either subcutaneous (under the skin) or intramuscular (into a muscle). In addition to its effectiveness as a contraceptive, medroxyprogesterone is also used to treat endometriosis.

How is nitrous oxide typically administered to patients who are undergoing surgery?

Inhalation Explanation: Nitrous oxide is a gas that is administered via inhalation to induce a state of relaxation in patients who are undergoing surgery. It is generally used in conjunction with a local anesthetic that will numb the pain in the specific area that is being operated on. Also called "laughing gas," nitrous oxide is most commonly used in the dental setting.

Flovent belongs to which class of medications?

Inhaled corticosteroids Explanation: Flovent, the brand name for fluticasone, is a member of the corticosteroid family. It is an oral inhaler used to treat inflammation and mucus production associated with asthma or other inflammatory lung conditions. Like most corticosteroids, the suffix "-one" in fluticasone indicates that it is a steroid.

Humulin N

Insulin NPH insulin (intermediate-acting) Type 1 Diabetes (IDDM)

Lantus

Insulin glargine Insulin (Long-acting) Type 1 diabetes (IDDM)

Humalog

Insulin lispro Insulin (fast-acting) Type 1 Diabetes (IDDM)

How would an intraperitoneal drug be delivered to a patient?

Into the abdominal cavity Explanation: Patients receive intraperitoneal drugs via injection into the abdominal cavity. The peritoneum is the sac that lines the abdomen. In many cases, patients who require drugs through this route of administration are given a peritoneal port, which is a small reservoir that is surgically implanted beneath the skin. This port makes it easier to insert a needle into this cavity on a regular basis and causes the patient less pain.

What route of administration will give the highest blood concentration in the shortest time?

Intravenous

A bolus is used in which type of drug administration?

Intravenous Explanation: A bolus is administered via intravenous injection to give a patient a single, large dose of a drug rapidly. It is often used in emergency situations when a drug is needed quickly, or to administer drugs that cannot be diluted with water, such as chemotherapeutic agents.

What is the route of administration for Ofirmev (acetaminophen)?

Intravenous Explanation: Ofirmev is an intravenous (IV) form of acetaminophen that was approved by the FDA in 2010. It is used in an inpatient setting to manage pain and reduce fever. Patients cannot self-administer this drug because of its route of administration.

Which of the following minerals is an essential component of thyroid hormones? A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Iodine

Iodine Explanation: Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones which help regulate the body's metabolism. People typically ingest all of the iodine they need from foods such as dairy products and eggs. Some fruits and vegetables also contain iodine, yet the amounts vary depending on how much iodine was present in the soil in which they were grown. Many countries around the world, including the United States, also have voluntary iodized salt programs where salt manufacturers add potassium iodide to the table salt. This has helped prevent iodine deficiency, which may manifest as hypothyroidism or goiter in extreme cases.

Which of the following medications is a muscarinic antagonist? A. Levalbuterol B. Ipratropium C. Prednisolone D. Aminophylline

Ipratropium Explanation: Ipratropium belongs to a class of drugs known as muscarinic antagonists or antimuscarinics. This class of medications works by blocking one effect of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter. Acetylcholine (ACh) causes smooth muscle to contract, so antimuscarinics prevent ACh from contracting the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. Levalbuterol also relaxes smooth muscle but is a beta-adrenergic agonist. Aminophylline is a methylxanthine, and prednisolone is a corticosteroid.

Which drug has a REMS?

Isotretinoin

Which is not a true statement about vaginal administration and/or formulations?

It cannot provide long term absorption

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?

It inhibits bacterial cell-wall synthesis. Explanation: Vancomycin, sold as the brand name Vancocin, works by destroying bacterial cell walls. This action kills the bacteria, which classifies this drug as bacteriocidal. Doctors prescribe oral vancomycin for bacterial infections in the intestines, such as colitis. It is particularly effective against enterococci.

Which of the following is not true about a laminar airflow hood HEPA filter? A. It is located at the back of the work area. B. It removes microorganisms from the air. C. It may be cleaned and reused when dirty. D. It requires replacement within three to five years.

It may be cleaned and reused when dirty. Explanation: High-efficiency particulate, or HEPA, filters may not be cleaned or recycled when they become worn out. Instead, they need to be replaced about every three to five years, and the prefilters require monthly replacement. They effectively remove microorganisms and bacteria from the room air and create a sterile environment inside the hood.

Which statement us not true about any balance used in prescription compounding?

It must have a sensitivity requirement of 6 mg or less

Randy Williams suffers from heartburn and has been given a prescription for Prilosec by his primary care physician. What instructions should Mr. Williams receive from the pharmacy about taking this drug?

It needs to be taken on an empty stomach. Explanation: Randy Williams should know that Prilosec must be taken on an empty stomach in order to work. Prilosec is classified as a proton pump inhibitor, which means it needs to be in an acid environment, like an empty stomach, to activate, or work. A stomach full of food would not contain sufficient acid to make Prilosec effective. This drug is also taken once a day in either delayed release capsules or suspensions, making it ineffective as an immediate aid to heartburn. Prilosec OTC is also available in tablet form.

If a mannitol IV solution becomes crystallized, what should be done with the product?

It should be placed in a warmer to melt the crystals before dispensing. Explanation: If a mannitol IV solution becomes crystallized, it may be placed in a warmer to melt the crystals. Once the solution is clear and free of crystals, it may be dispensed.

The antibiotic tetracycline is considered a possible teratogen. What does this term mean?

It will harm a developing fetus or embryo. Explanation: The term teratogen literally means "something that produces severe deformity." A drug that is labeled a teratogen would be contraindicated for use in women who are pregnant or nursing because that drug may harm the developing fetus, the infant, or the woman herself. The FDA tests all drugs to determine their safety for use, assigning every drug a Pregnancy Category. Drugs classified as Category A are the safest, while those classified as Category X have been shown to pose a significant risk

Which of the following is not appropriate for clean room attire?

Jewelry on the hands or wrists

The organization that establishes and enforces standards for healthcare organizations is called the:

Joint Commission. Explanation: The Joint Commission, formerly known as the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) creates standards for hospitals. Joint Commission representatives also perform regular site visits to review a hospital's records and policies and survey patient care to make sure it is conforming to expected standards.

What is the primary input device on a computer?

Keyboard

Granisetron is the generic name for:

Kytril. Explanation: Granisetron is the generic name for Kytril. Keppra is the brand name of levetiracetam, Zofran is the brand for ondansetron, and Zomig is brand for zolmitriptan. Granisetron and ondansetron both belong to a class of medications called serotonin antagonists, which are primarily used to treat severe nausea and vomiting.

A new patient arrives at a chain retail pharmacy with a prescription. Because the patient has had prescriptions filled at another store that is part of the same chain, the pharmacy should be able to access the patient's profile using the:

LAN

Which of the following is not a strategy to prevent medication errors?

Label should be read only twice

Which carbohydrate is often used as a bulk filler in molded tablet triturates?

Lactose

Compounding of CSPs is to occur in an ISO Class 5 environment. Which PEC can provide such an air quality environment?

Laminar airflow workstations Class II biological safety cabinets Compounding aseptic isolator

Lamictal

Lamotrigine Antiepileptic Bipolar disorder

Prevacid

Lansoprozole PPI GERD

Xalatan

Latanoprost (eye drop) Prostaglandin analog Glaucoma

Xopenex HFA

Levabuterol (inhalation) B2-Agonist Bronchospasm

Keppra

Levetiracetam Antiepileptic Seizure

_____________ is the term for triturating a powder with a solvent in which it is insoluble to reduce its particle size

Levigation

Levaquin

Levofloxacin Quinolone antibiotic Bacterial infection

Synthroid

Levothyroxine sodium Thyroid Hypothyroidism

Lidoderm

Lidocaine Analgesic Neuralgia

Vyvanse (C2)

Lisdexamfetamine CNS stimulant ADHD

Zestril/Prinivil

Lisinopril ACE inhibitor Hypertension

Zestoretic

Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide ACE inhibitor-thiazide combination Hypertension

(NF) National Formulary

List of all prescriptions and otc medicines and health care products in the United States, all of which must follow standards set in the USP (United States Pharmacopeia)

Which is not an example of protected health information? (PHI)

Location of pharmacy

Serevent belongs to which drug class?

Long-acting β2 agonists Explanation: Serevent is a long-acting β2 agonist, which is a type of sympathetic agonist. Serevent inhaler is typically prescribed for asthma only twice daily due to its long-lasting effects. Muscarinic antagonists, methylxanthines, and corticosteroids are also used to treat asthma and other breathing disorders but work on different mechanisms than Serevent.

Ativan (C4)

Lorazepam Benzodiazepine Anxiety

Cozaar

Losartan ARB Hypertension

Hyzaar

Losartan-hydrochlorothiazide ARB-thiazide combination Hypertension

Mevacor

Lovastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

Due to multiple drug-drug interactions, which class of medications given for depression is only used when other therapies have failed?

MAOIs Explanation: MAOIs, or monoamine oxidase inhibitors, use the same metabolic pathway as many other drugs and can interfere with their action. This class of medication is usually reserved for extreme cases when all other therapies have failed and the patient is not taking other medications that use the same metabolic pathway.

What are the primary practitioners that order prescription drugs?

MDs, DOs, DDSs, and DVM

All hazardous chemicals that are in use or stored in the pharmacy are required to have a(n):

MSDS Explanation: All hazardous chemicals that are in use or stored in the pharmacy are required to have a MSDS, or material safety data sheet. This OSHA-mandated document includes information about a specific hazardous chemical, such as its chemical name, manufacturer, hazardous ingredients, health hazard, and protection.

Which activity would be considered compounding?

Making a 3% hydrocortisone ointment for a patient

Clinical Pharmacology

Manufacturers provide information on the drug's mechanism of action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination, and administration. May include notes relevant to specific patient populations, such as pediatric patients.

Schedules 3-5

May be ordered by any method, but invoice must be dated, signed, stamped with a red 'C' and kept on file for a minimum of 2 years.

Which would not be a proper method for measuring a specified volume of liquid?

Measure the volume of liquid in a graduated cylinder reading the top of the meniscus

An adverse drug event can be reported to the FDA through (the)

MedWatch

The FDA reporting system for adverse effects that occur from use of approved drugs is called

MedWatch

Medications on the REMS list require one or a combination of the following: a ________, a __________, elements to ensure safe use, and/or an implementation plan

Medication Guide, communication plan

These FDA approved paper handouts are required by the FDA with certain prescription products:

Medication Guides (MedGuides)

Mobic

Meloxicam NSAID Osteoarthritis

Namenda

Memantine N-Methyl-D-Aspartate (NMDA) receptor agonist Alzheimer disease

(ASHP) American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

Membership organization that works on behalf of pharmacists who practice in hospitals and health systems to improve medication use and enhance patient safety.

Which agent is used to treat gastrointestinal inflammation associated with ulcerative colitis?

Mesalamine Explanation: Mesalamine, a derivative of salicylic acid, works specifically in the intestinal tract to reduce inflammation in ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. It will produce little systemic effects. Naproxen is a general anti-inflammatory but is not specific enough to treat GI inflammation. Sucralfate protects ulcers of the stomach and duodenum, and pancrelipase consists of enzymes used in the treatment of pancreatic insufficiency.

Asacol

Mesalamine Gastrointestinal anti-inflammatory Ulcerative Colitis/IBD

Skelaxin

Metaxalone Muscle relaxant Musculoskeletal pain

A prescription for Alupent (metaproterenol sulfate) states the following: MDI, 2-3 inhalations q3—4h. What do the abbreviations mean?

Metered dose inhaler; every 3 to 4 hours Explanation: Prescriptions often include abbreviations which serve as shortcuts for healthcare personnel. In this example, MDI stands for metered dose inhaler, which is the method of administration used for Alupent, a bronchodilator. The abbreviation "q" means "every," and the abbreviation "h" stands for "hour."

Glucophage

Metformin Biguanide Type 2 Diabetes

Which of the following compounding products is used to make a gel? A. Cetyl alcohol B. Methylcellulose C. Glycerin D. Sodium bicarbonate

Methylcellulose Explanation: Methylcellulose is a synthetic product of cellulose, a soluble fiber. Pharmaceutical methylcellulose comes in a white, dry powder that forms a gel-like appearance when mixed with cold water. It is used in making gels and emulsions, and it is also used orally as a bulk-forming laxative.

Concerta (C2)

Methylphenidate Central nervous system stimulant ADHD

Medrol

Methylpredisolone Corticosteroid Inflammation

Toprol XL

Metoprolol succinate Beta-blocker Hypertension

Lopressor

Metoprolol tartrate Beta-blocker Hypertension

potassium chloride

Minerals and electrolytes

Which prostaglandin analog is used to reduce the risk of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced gastric ulcers?

Misoprostol Explanation: Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic prostaglandin that acts as a gastric antisecretion agent that protects the mucosa of the stomach and duodenum. Misoprostol is used for people taking NSAIDs who are at risk for getting an NSAID-induced ulcer. Other medications are more commonly given for ulcers not caused by NSAIDs. Misoprostol is in Pregnancy Category X, so women of childbearing age should use caution handling it. Because of this risk, a controversial off-label use for this medication is medical/chemical abortion.

Provigil (C4)

Modafinil Sympathomimetic-like amine/stimulant Narcolepsy

Asmanex Twisthaler

Mometasone Corticosteroid Asthma

Nasonex

Mometasone fiorate (nasal spray) Corticosteroid Allergic rhinitis

Singulair

Montelukast Leukotriene receptor agonist Asthma

Morphine is the prototype drug for the opiate analgesics drug class. What does this mean?

Morphine was the first drug to be discovered in this drug class. Explanation: A prototype drug is the original model drug within a class. This means all drugs within that class have been derived from the prototype. The newer drugs may often be more effective than the original. For example, newer generations of antibiotics may be more effective on certain organisms that have developed resistance to prototype drugs.

What equipment would a pharmacy technician need to triturate tablets?

Mortar and pestle Explanation: Trituration involves grinding tablets to a fine powder. This can be best done with a traditional mortar and pestle, either glass or porcelain. Though using a spatula and compounding slab will break down the tablets, it is inefficient and may not reduce particle size sufficiently. Trituration does not involve dissolving in a beaker or warming on a hot plate.

Avelox

Moxifloxacin Quinolone antibiotic Bacterial Infection

Vigamox

Moxifloxacin (eye drop) Quinolone antibiotic Bacterial Conjuctivitis

Which of the following is a small volume parenteral? (SVP)

Multivitamins two 5 mL vials

Bactroban

Mupirocin Topical antibacterial Skin infection

metaxalone

Muscle relaxant

The unique identifying number of a drug is the

NDC

celecoxib

NSAID

meloxicam

NSAID

Aspirin and ibuprofen are both:

NSAIDs. Explanation: Aspirin and ibuprofen are both nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or NSAIDs. These drugs work to reduce both pain and inflammation by slowing down the process of prostanoid production, which occurs as a byproduct of arachidonic acid metabolism within the cell membranes. Different prostanoids are responsible for various functions within the body, such as blood clot formation, vasodilation, inflammation, and increased pain sensitivity.

What is the generic name for the over-the-counter (OTC) analgesic Aleve?

Naproxen Explanation: The generic name for Aleve is naproxen. This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) is available over the counter for the treatment of pain that is usually related to either osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis. It is also available in prescription strength under the names Anaprox, EC-Naprosyn, Naprelan, and Naprosyn.

hydrocodone/acetaminophen

Narcotic

(DEA) Drug Enforcement Administration

National agency responsible for enforcing the controlled substance laws and regulations of the United States by enforcing penalties for illicit activity and reducing the availability of controlled substances on domestic and international markets.

Bystolic

Nebivolol Beta-blocker Hypertension

pregabalin

Nerve pain medication

topiramate

Nerve pain medication & anticonvulsant

duloxetine

Nerve pain medication and antidepressant

venlafaxine

Nerve pain medication and antidepressant

Niaspan

Niacin Nicotonic acid Hyperlipidemia

Sular

Nisoldipine Calcium channel blocker Hypertension

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a LAFW?

No work should be done within 6-inches from the front of the workstation

Loestrin Fe24

Norethindrone-ethinyl estradiol Monophasic oral contraceptive Oral contraceptive

Tri-Sprintec

Norgestimate-ethinyl estradiol Triphasic oral contraceptive Oral Contraceptive

TriNessa

Norgestimate-ethinyl estradiol Triphasic oral contraceptive Oral contraceptive

What is the proprietary (trade or brand) name for amlodipine?

Norvasc Explanation: The proprietary (trade or brand name) for amlodipine is Norvasc. It is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and other disorders. Imdur is the brand name for isosorbide mononitrate. Hytrin is the brand name for terazosin, and Zestril is a brand name for lisinopril.

Oral preparations containing water

Not later than 14 days stored at a controlled cold temperature

Topical, dermal, mucosal liquid and semisolid preparations containing water

Not later than 30 days

If a drug expires November 2012, it can no longer be dispensed after:

November 30, 2012. Explanation: When drug expiration is given by month and year, the last day a medication can be dispensed is the last day of the given month. In a community setting when monthly supplies are typically given, it should not be dispensed if it will expire before the patient uses up the supply.

Which drug is most likely to aid a person with type I diabetes who is in a diabetic coma?

NovoLog Explanation: A person in a diabetic coma, a medical emergency, requires a rapid acting insulin, like NovoLog (insulin aspart) or human insulin. The rapid action of this drug will help body tissues absorb glucose again. Other forms of insulin are complexed, or mixed with ingredients like zinc or protamine, to help increase the duration of its action within the body. However, the longer acting forms of insulin are not effective in a crisis situation.

Benicar HCT

Olmesartan-hydrochlorothiazide ARB-thiazide combination Hypertension

Which of the following technologies allows the pharmacy technician to scan a document and save it as a text file? A. encryption programs B. OCR programs C. CAPTCHA D. speech recognition

OCR programs Explanation: Scanned documents can be saved as either digital images or text files. Optical character recognition (OCR) programs convert scanned images into machine-encoded text. Saving a document as a text file allows the user to search for text within the document, a feature which cannot be used on digital images.

A pharmacy can obtain SDS from the local area _________ office

OSHA

The federal regulatory agency that requires the use of Material Safety Data Sheets is:

OSHA Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) mandates the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for all products that may be hazardous to human health.

What references are needed if a pharmacy compounds cytotoxic products?

OSHA Technical Manual (OTM) Section VI: Chapter 2 Controlling Occupational Exposure ASHP Technical Assistance Bulletin on Handling Cytotoxic and Hazardous Drugs

Drugs that do not require a prescription are _________ drugs

OTC

Legislation that was passed to ensure worker and workplace safety is called the:

Occupational Safety and Health Act. Explanation: Congress passed the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 to ensure the safety of workers in the workplace. The act created an administrative body called the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to oversee its regulations. Workplaces, like pharmacies, are visited periodically by OSHA officials to make sure they are following required standards related to safety and hygiene.

(USP) United States Pharmacopeia

Official pharmacopeia of the United States, which sets standards for all prescription and OTC medications marketed in the US, as well as food ingredients and dietary supplements; creates standards for quality, purity, strength and consistency of these products - critical to public health.

Zyprexa

Olanzapine Antipsychotic Schizophrenia/bipolar disease

(APHA) American Pharmacists Association

Oldest and largest pharmacist member organization; Group includes over 62,000 practicing members of the pharmacy community and encourages a focus on patient care.

What are look-alike/sound-alike drugs?

Ones with similar sounding or looking names, but very different properties.

A drug order for Astramorph/PF (morphine sulfate) reads: PO; 10-30 mg q4h PRN. How often should the patient take this drug?

Only as needed Explanation: This patient should take a dose of morphine sulfate only as needed, based on his or her pain level, as indicated by the abbreviation "PRN." One way to avoid medication errors is to give patients the right drug at the right dose and the right time. In this case, a patient who receives more morphine than he or she needs may develop physical and psychological drug dependence.

Which of the following statements about pain medication is true? A. Symptoms of an allergy to an OTC pain medication will always develop immediately. B. Opioid analgesics are universally effective in providing pain relief. C. All OTC pain medications can be taken along with herbal supplements. D. Opioid analgesics are one of the leading causes of death in adults due to poisoning.

Opioid analgesics are one of the leading causes of death in adults due to poisoning. Explanation: A recent report by the HHS, CDC, and National Center for Health Statistics has reported that opioid analgesics are the second leading cause of death by poisoning in adults who are between 35 to 54 years old. From 1999 to 2006, the number of poisoning from these drugs went from 4,000 to 13,800 deaths. It is the responsibility of pharmacists and pharmacy technicians to ensure that patients who have prescriptions for these drugs receive a Medication Guide for the specific drug they are taking. This information is required by the FDA and explains that specific drug's risks, including adverse drug interactions.

Sertraline is administered to patients through which route of administration?

Oral Explanation: Sertraline, or Zoloft, is administered to patients orally. It is available as both a tablet and liquid concentrate. Classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), Zoloft is used in the treatment of depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), panic disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), social anxiety disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD).

A patient package insert should be provided with which of the following types of medications?

Oral contraceptives

Cephalexin is available in which dosage forms?

Oral only Explanation: Cephalexin is a cephalosporin antibiotic that may be administered to patients orally. It is available to patients as a tablet or a capsule. It is also available as a powder that is then reconstituted for oral use.

How is penicillin V normally administered to a patient?

Orally Explanation: Patients take penicillin V by mouth, or orally, as either a liquid or a tablet. Doctors may prescribe it to treat certain bacterial infections, such as pneumonia or scarlet fever. Patients who are taking this drug should be advised to take it at least an hour after eating a meal.

A technician looking for therapeutic equivalence information on a brand or generic drug should consult which reference?

Orange Book

The common name for the FDA's Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalent Evaluations is the

Orange Book

What source should be used to determine therapeutic equivalence?

Orange book

Trileptal

Oxcarbazepine Antiepileptic Seizure

OxyContin (C2)

Oxycodone Opiod Analgesic

lansoprazole

PPI

omeprazole

PPI

pantoprazole

PPI

rabeprazole

PPI

A pharmacy technician searching for PTCE information, a practice exam, and guidebook to help prepare for the PTCE should contact the

PTCB

Two organizations that performs pharmacy technician certification in the United States are the

PTCB and NHA

A patient has recently been diagnosed with pancreatic insufficiency with malabsorption syndrome. What treatment might the prescriber recommend?

Pancreatic enzyme replacement Explanation: The pancreas acts as both an endocrine organ and a digestive organ. When the pancreas does not produce and secrete the appropriate enzyme for the breakdown of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates, that person will not be able to absorb the nutrients needed from the diet. Replacement enzymes such as lipase, amylase, and protease are given with meals to assist in the breakdown of food. The pancreas does secrete insulin, but insulin is not related to the digestive enzymes. Sulfonamides are common sulfa drugs used in diabetic patients to regulate blood sugar.

Protonix

Pantoprazole PPI GERD

Paxil

Paroxetine SSRI Depression

Which Medicare benefit would cover the cost of prescriptions?

Part D Explanation: Medicare Part D covers prescriptions. It is important to note that Part D is voluntary, and patients must enroll in an approved plan. Part A is used solely for hospital and hospital-related services. Part B covers physician services, and Part C allows the subscriber to choose to receive healthcare through a provider organization.

Which phase of clinical trials involved healthy patients without the disease or condition?

Phase 1

Dilantin

Phenytoin Hydantoin Status epilepticus

To what pharmacy reference would you direct a physician who is looking for prescription information on a major pharmaceuticals similar to drug package inserts?

Physicians Desk Reference

Compounders of non sterile preparations must be knowledgeable about Chapter <795>. Which individual would not be considered a compounder?

Physiologist

Actos

Pioglitazone Thiazolidinedione Type 2 Diabetes

Actoplus Met

Pioglitazone-metformin Biguanide/thiazolidinedione Type 2 Diabetes

Where is follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) produced in the human body?

Pituitary gland Explanation: The anterior pituitary gland, located in the brain, produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which is classified as a gonadotropin. This hormone stimulates the sex glands in both females and males. In females, it regulates the production of ovarian follicles, or eggs; in males, it regulates the production and growth of sperm.

What is the proper way to dispose of a cytotoxic substance in the pharmacy?

Place it inside a yellow biohazard bin. Explanation: Toxic substances used in the pharmacy should always be placed inside a biohazard bin or bag where they will be disposed of properly by trained professionals. Never pour toxic substances down the drain or place them in the regular trash. In both cases they will contaminate the water supply or landfill and cause harm to the environment.

What is an example of an acute medical condition?

Pneumonia (requiring short-term therapy)

GlycoLax

Polyethylene glycol 3350 Osmotic laxative Constipation

A patient who is taking furosemide (Lasix) may be at risk of developing hypokalemia, which is a deficiency of what substance?

Potassium Explanation: Hypokalemia is a condition caused by a deficiency of the mineral potassium in the body. Diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix) cause the body to rid itself of excess water and salt via increased urination. The kidneys regulate the body's balance of potassium, excreting what is not needed. The increased urination effects of diuretics may deplete the body's needed reserves of potassium and lead to this condition. Conversely, hyperkalemia is the condition of excess potassium in the body.

K-Dur/Kloro-Con/Klor-Con M

Potassium chloride Electrolyte Potassium supplement

Mirapex

Pramipexole Dopamine Agonist Parkinson disease

Pravachol

Pravastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

Deltasone

Prednisone Corticosteroid Inflammation

Lyrica (C5)

Pregabalin Neurologic Neuropathic pain

8. Use in specific populations

Pregnancy, lactation, pediatric,geraitric, hepatic impairment, renal impairment

According to the NCCMERP recommendations for preventing dispensing errors

Prescriptions/orders should always be reviewed by a pharmacist prior to dispensing

Ephedrine is available as a behind-the-counter oral inhaler called:

Primatene Mist. Explanation: Ephedrine is available behind-the-counter with certain purchasing restrictions as Primatene Mist. It is a fast-acting bronchodilator that works on both alpha and beta receptors. Because ephedrine has been moved to behind-the-counter status in recent years, it does not require a prescription. It can only be sold to someone 18 years of age or older with appropriate identification and has quantity restrictions.

Prometrium

Progesterone Progestin Amenorrhea

Phenergan

Promethazine Antihistamine Antiemetic

A patient arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for flutamide. What is this drug used to treat?

Prostate cancer Explanation: Flutamide is an example of a hormonal agent that is used to treat prostate cancer. Patients usually take this drug, which comes as a capsule, in conjunction with a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist, or LHRH.

Why is the drug Cervarix prescribed?

Protection against genital human papillomavirus (HPV) Explanation: Female patients may be vaccinated with Cervarix to protect them against the genital human papillomavirus (HPV). This virus causes cervical cancer in about 10,000 women in the U.S. according to the National Institutes of Health (NIH). This vaccine stimulates the body's immune system to fight off HPV. Gardasil is another vaccine that works in a similar way to Cervarix.

Rabeprazole is a member of what class of medications?

Proton pump inhibitors Explanation: Rabeprazole belongs to a class of medications known as proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). PPIs are potent medications that are mainly used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcers, H. pylori, and duodenal ulcers. These medications block the final step in acid production by preventing the proton pumps in the parietal cells of the stomach from secreting acid.

(ACCP) American College of Clinical Pharmacy

Provides education to optimize research, development and utilization of medication.

Narcolepsy is often treated with:

Provigil Explanation: Narcolepsy is a disorder characterized by sudden and excessive daytime drowsiness and uncontrolled, brief periods of deep sleep. Provigil, a Schedule IV controlled substance, improves wakefulness in patients with narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, or shift work sleep disorders

When garbing to compound CSPs, which is the first step you should take?

Put on shoe covers and hair bonnet

The TJC "Do not use" list includes

Q.D

Seroquel

Quetiapine fumarate Antipsychotic Schizophrenia

Which of the following is the primary data storage, or memory, of a computer? A. RAM B. optical disk drive C. external hard drive D. CPU

RAM

Where would a technician look for nationally recognized AWPs, WACs, and NDCs for FDA approved drugs?

RED BOOK

Aciphex

Rabeprazole Proton-Pump Inhibitor GERD

Evista

Raloxifene Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) Osteoporosis

Altace

Ramipril ACE inhibitor Hypertension

Zantac

Ranitidine H2 Blocker GERD

A patient who has been vomiting but requires medication would benefit from which form of drug administration?

Rectal Explanation: When a patient is vomiting and unable to keep anything down, the rectal route of drug administration is often used as an alternative. Drugs are administered rectally using suppositories and enemas. Suppositories are made of a solid base, like cocoa butter, combined with the drug, which is either mixed with the base or suspended. Enemas administer a drug as a solution.

The most comprehensive text covering pharmaceutical sciences is (the)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

When delivering medication to a unit of a hospital, a pharmacy technician accidentally gets poked by a needle that was inappropriately placed in the trash. What should the technician do?

Report the incident to the employment health department immediately. Explanation: It is best to report to the employment health department immediately in this scenario. Due to the possibility of infection due to contact with blood on the needle, it is best to have the employee health nurse evaluate the situation and determine if prophylactic medication is required.

(NCPA) National Community Pharmacists Association

Represents the pharmacist owners, managers, and employees of independent community pharmacies in the United States.

Drug Listing Act of 1972

Required individual, 11-digit NDC number for each drug. -NDC Format: #####-####-## -First 5 digits represent manufacturer. -Middle 4 digits represent drug name, strength and form. -Final 2 digits represent package size.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Requires health-care providers to be responsible for the privacy and security of a patients protected health information

(FDA) Food and Drug Administration

Responsible for protecting public health by assuring the safety, efficacy and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, medical devices, national food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation.

What is the brand name of the topical drug tretinoin and why is it prescribed?

Retin-A, which is prescribed for acne Explanation: The drug tretinoin is used to treat acne and is available under various brand names, including Retin-A, Avita, Refissa, and Renova. It is considered a retinoid because it is derived from vitamin A. Patients apply it topically to areas affected by acne; it facilitates skin peeling, thus unclogging pores. The pharmacist will advise patients who are taking this medication that it may cause redness, tingling, or crusting of the skin.

What is the proper name of vitamin B2?

Riboflavin Explanation: Vitamin B2 is one of the water-soluble B vitamins. It is probably better known by its proper name riboflavin. The body uses this vitamin to maintain healthy nerve functioning and connective tissue. A person with a riboflavin deficiency may have cracked or fissured lips (cheilosis). Milk, eggs, liver, and enriched grain products are all good sources of riboflavin.

Which of the following anti-infective medications is used to treat tuberculosis (TB)? A. Rifampin B. Tiotropium C. Montelukast D. Fluticasone

Rifampin Explanation: One of the main anti-infective tuberculosis agents is rifampin. It is often given in combination with ethambutol, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. TB is a contagious, airborne, and potentially fatal disease caused by various strains of mycobacteria that generally attack the lungs. Some of the symptoms of TB include chronic cough, blood in the sputum, fever, chills, and weight loss. It is difficult to treat, and patients must be compliant with their drug regimen to prevent relapse and the development of drug-resistant strains of TB.

Risperdal

Risperidone Antipsychotic Schizophrenia

Requip

Ropinirole Dopamine agonist Parkinson disease

Crestor

Rosuvastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

Although no Federal law mandates pharmacies to maintain any specific pharmacy literature, OSHA requires pharmacies to have _______ on hand

SDSs

paroxetine

SSRI

Which class of drugs is the drug of choice for the treatment of depression?

SSRIs Explanation: Serotonin reuptake inhibitors, or SSRIs, are the current drug of choice in the treatment of depression. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter in the brain. A serotonin deficiency has been identified as a main cause of depression. SSRIs prevent the reabsorption of serotonin by the neurons, thus increasing its levels during the nerve synapse.

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires pharmacies to have this literature on hand:

Safety Data Sheets

What is the term for a type of cancer that is found in bone or muscle tissue?

Sarcoma Explanation: Cancer that is found in bone or muscle tissue is referred to as a sarcoma. The word root "sarc/o" means flesh, and the suffix "-oma" means tumor. Medical professionals name cancerous tumors based on their location in the body. For example, chondrosarcoma is cancer of the cartilage

Which controlled substance category has the highest potential for abuse?

Schedule I Explanation: Drugs that have the highest potential for abuse, like heroin or LSD, are classified by law as Schedule I drugs. Currently, most Schedule I drugs do not have a confirmed or accepted medical use in the United States. Possible medical uses of some Schedule I drugs, like marijuana for example, are the source of debate among patients, practitioners, and law enforcement.

A transfer warning is required on labels for:

Schedule II controlled substances. Explanation: A transfer warning is required by law on drug labels for Schedule II controlled substances per the DEA. The transfer warning makes it clear that the prescription for the controlled substance is only intended for use by the patient on the label and that it is a crime to transfer the drug to any person other than the patient.

The Anabolic Steroid Control Act placed anabolic steroids in which drug category?

Schedule III Explanation: The Anabolic Steroid Control Act amended the Controlled Substances Act by adding anabolic steroids to the Schedule III class of controlled substances. Anabolic steroids are hormones related to testosterone that may be legally prescribed to treat conditions like delayed puberty in boys. However, they are also used illegally by athletes and other individuals who want to enhance their muscle growth. They are also addictive and damaging to the body, hence their designation as a Schedule III controlled substance.

Robitussin AC is classified as a:

Schedule V drug. Explanation: Robitussin AC is classified as a Schedule V drug because it contains 200 mg/100 mL or 0.2 g of codeine, a controlled substance, and therefore poses some risk potential for abuse. As a Schedule V drug, it has the lowest abuse risk; a Schedule I drug poses the highest risk.

eszopiclone

Sedative

zolpidem

Sedative

Benzodiazepines

Sedatives, hypnotics

Zoloft

Sertraline SSRI Depression

(CMS) Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services

Sets standards for government funded health care programs by coordinating better patient care, lower costs and encouraging disease prevention through education.

(ACPE) Accrediting Council of Pharmacy Education

Sets standards for the education of pharmacists.

All oral suspensions that are prepared in the pharmacy require the auxiliary label:

Shake Well Before Use. Explanation: All suspensions need to be shaken well before each use to ensure that each dose has the proper amount of drug. Not all suspensions require refrigeration or need to be taken with food.

Although the patient does not have cancer, she has a prescription for methotrexate. Why would this patient have a prescription for this drug?

She has severe rheumatoid arthritis. Explanation: While methotrexate treats certain types of cancer, it is also effective for severe cases of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). When used for the treatment of RA, this drug is considered a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). Patients generally receive a dose of Rheumatrex (methotrexate) once a week, either by mouth or by injection.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy seeking a vitamin D supplement because she is concerned that she is not getting enough of this vitamin. What advice should this patient receive?

She should request a vitamin D blood test from her doctor. Explanation: Research has shown that many people throughout the world do not get enough vitamin D as part of their regular diets. People who may be in a higher risk group include those who live in a northern climate, have darker skin, or spend most of their time indoors. Although the Institute of Medicine recommends a daily vitamin D intake of 600 IU, studies have shown this may not be high enough. However, because some vitamins may be harmful at high doses, a vitamin D blood test is the best way to determine if this patient really requires more vitamin D.

Zocor

Simvastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Hyperlipidemia

Off label

Since studies in children r less often many users of med are off label

Based on CDC guidelines, what is the best order for a pharmacy technician to don personal protective equipment?

Shoe covers, hair cover, gown, face mask, goggles, gloves Explanation: According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, PPE should be donned in this sequence: shoe covers, hair cover, gown, face mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, and gloves.

If a patient is experiencing uncomfortable flatulence, what would the pharmacist recommend to the patient?

Simethicone Explanation: To relieve flatulence (intestinal gas) and bloating, simethicone is the safest and most effective product. It is used after the gas has formed, not as a preventative measure. Lactobacillus is used to treat diarrhea and help regulate digestion, so is ineffective for immediate treatment of flatulence. Methylcellulose is a laxative, and it may produce gaseous effects in some individuals. Loperamide is used as an antidiarrheal and is ineffective for gas symptoms.

The brand name for montelukast is:

Singulair. Explanation: Montelukast is the generic for Singulair. Montelukast is a leukotriene modifier that inhibits the production of leukotrienes that can cause allergy and asthma symptoms. Accolate is also a leukotriene modifier, but it is the brand name for zafirlukast. Ventolin is a brand name for albuterol, and Orapred is a brand name for prednisolone.

Januvia

Sitagliptin DPP-4 inhibitor Type 2 diabetes

The dose of a powder to be placed in a capsule is 325 mg, and the powder has a density similar to aspirin. What would be the appropriate size of a hard gelatin capsule to use?

Size 1

Viagra

Slidenafil PDE5 inhibitor Erectile dysfunction

What is the main source of trace minerals such as selenium and iodine?

Soil Explanation: Soil is the source of many trace minerals that the human body requires in small amounts to maintain healthy functioning. If people eat plants that are grown in soils rich in a certain trace mineral, they will have a higher intake of that mineral than people who live in other areas. For example, the states of Nebraska, North Dakota, and South Dakota have selenium-rich soil, while the soils in certain agricultural areas in Russia and China lack selenium.

Vesicare

Solifenacin Antispasmodic Overactive bladder

All of the following are reasons to give medications by the IV route except

Some medications cause pain at the injection site

modafinil

Stimulant

Which class of medication uses surfactants to emulsify and add fluids to fecal matter, making stools easier to pass?

Stool softeners Explanation: Stool softeners such as docusate sodium use surfactants to bring fluids into fecal matter, making stools easier to pass. They are used clinically for people with hard stools or those taking opiate narcotics, which produce constipation as a side effect. Stool softeners are often used prophylactically in surgical patients to prevent constipation due to the administration of narcotic pain relievers.

Protect from Freezing

Store above 0C

In which type of parenteral administration is the drug injected into adipose tissue below the skin?

Subcutaneous Explanation: A subcutaneous injection is administered right below the skin and into the fatty, or adipose tissue. Common body sites for subcutaneous injections are the upper arm and anterior thigh because they have a greater supply of adipose tissue and fewer blood vessels than other body areas.

Which statement is not true about intranasal and inhalation administration?

Subjects the active drug to degradation in the gastrointestinal tract

How is nitroglycerin usually self-administered by a patient in an emergency situation?

Sublingually Explanation: When patients with angina experience chest pain, they generally use the sublingual route to self-administer nitroglycerin as either a tablet or metered-dose aerosol spray under the tongue. Because the mucous membranes under the tongue are highly vascular, or have a ready blood supply, the drug is quickly absorbed by the bloodstream. The buccal route is also effective for the same reasons.

Imitrex

Sumatriptan Serotonin 5-HT1 receptor Migraine headache

What compounding product would involve the use of a hot plate?

Suppositories Explanation: Formulas for suppositories involve heating the products to a certain temperature. This hot liquid can then be poured into molds to cool and form suppositories.

A patient has nausea and vomiting but does not require hospitalization. The prescriber writes a script for metoclopramide. Which dosage form would the prescriber most likely give?

Suppository Explanation: A person who has nausea and vomiting is unlikely to keep any food down, let alone any oral medication. Because the patient is recovering at home, the injectable form is inappropriate. Using the suppository dosage form would be best. Medication will be absorbed in the colon and bypass the problems of vomiting up the medication.

β2-adrenergic agonists affect which part of the nervous system?

Sympathetic Explanation: β2-adrenergic agonists work on specific receptors along the sympathetic nervous system. In the lungs, these sympathetic agonists relax smooth muscle in the bronchioles, which cause them to dilate. This bronchodilation helps stop the asthma attack and allows the patient to breathe easier. Some sympathetic agonists will also work on the heart due to similar receptors located in the heart. As a side effect, this may cause an increase in heart rate in some patients.

Phenylephrine given intravenously affects which part of the autonomic nervous system?

Sympathetic nervous system Explanation: Phenylephrine and other vasopressors will stimulate the sympathetic nervous system or "fight-or-flight" mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system is another division of the autonomic nervous system but is not stimulated by vasopressors. The autonomic nervous system is one of two divisions of the peripheral nervous system. The central nervous system is generally considered to be the brain and spinal cord.

Which drug form is likely to retain its potency the longest when stored?

Tablet Explanation: A drug in tablet form is likely to retain its potency longer than other drug forms. This is because the active ingredients are contained inside the tablet where they are relatively protected from moisture and air. Drugs mixed with water, such as a solution, tend to lose their potency the most quickly because the water speeds up the drug's breakdown.

Cialis

Tadalagil PDE5 inhibitor Erectile dysfunction

Which of the following drugs may interfere with the absorption of aspirin? A. Lomotil B. Nexium C. Prilosec D. Tagamet

Tagamet Explanation: Because Tagamet (cimetidine) works to reduce the acidity in the stomach, it may interfere with absorption of aspirin or other drugs that are absorbed there. Tagamet is classified as a histamine receptor agonist, or an H2 blocker. This means it reduces the secretion of gastric acid.

Which H2 antagonist is known for having many drug-drug interactions?

Tagamet Explanation: When patients with chronic heartburn and other stomach acid disorders take other medications, it is likely that the prescriber will not give the patient Tagamet. It was the first histamine2 blocker of its kind; however, it follows the cytochrome P450 pathway, which many medications use in drug metabolism in the body. When different drugs use the same pathway, they can negatively interact with one another, increasing or decreasing the effectiveness of each other.

Which of the following is not a precaution for a patient when taking medications?

Take with food

A new prescription for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim tablets has been added to a patient's outpatient profile. What auxiliary warning label would the profile indicate to use for this drug?

Take with plenty of water and avoid sunlight. Explanation: Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim works best when taken with plenty of water and if the patient avoids sunlight due to photosensitivity. Exposure to the sun while taking this medication can increase the risk of sunburn.

Flomax

Tamsulosin Alpha-blocker BPH

Typical antipsychotics can cause what irreversible side effect?

Tardive dyskinesia Explanation: Typical antipsychotics can cause tardive dyskinesia (TD) even if given over a short time. Tardive dyskinesia is a specific disorder caused only by antipsychotic use. Those who develop TD have constant chewing movements of the mouth, jaw, and cheeks, as well as involuntary muscle spasms and other uncontrolled movements in voluntary muscles.

Micardis

Telmisartan ARB Hypertension

Micardis HCT

Telmisartan-hydrochlorothiazide Potassium-sparing thiazide diuretic Hypertension

Room Temperature

Temperature in the work area

Androgel (C3)

Testosterone (topical) Androgen Hypogonadism

The pharmacy at All Saints' Hospital is experiencing problems with its electronic medical record system. Which of the following indicates a problem with the EMR software? A. The hard drive is filled to capacity. B. The Internet browser has frozen. C. The printer jams and tears a printed prescription label. D. The computer monitor will not turn on.

The Internet browser has frozen.

Which of the following is not true when performing aseptic technique?

The LAFW is only cleaned at the beginning and end of a shift

Which pharmacy reference would a pharmacy technician compounding a product consult to find the solubility properties of a chemical in water?

The Merck Index

Mrs. Fry received the wrong medication from her local pharmacy. To whom may she file a complaint?

The State Board of Pharmacy Explanation: Mrs. Fry should file a complaint to her State Board of Pharmacy. This state agency is responsible for handling consumer complaints related to pharmacy professionals within the state and taking disciplinary action against them if necessary.

What are two organizations that work on medication safety?

The TJC & ISMP.

Which of the following agencies/organizations is responsible for setting standards for compounding practice?

The United States Pharmacopeia

An aqueous solution of water soluble ingredients is added to an alcoholic solution of alcohol soluble ingredients and the resulting solution turns cloudy or "milky" What is happening?

The alcoholic components are coming out of the solution

A female patient in her mid-fifties is confused about the new recommendations for daily calcium intake to help prevent osteoporosis. What should the pharmacist tell this patient?

The daily recommendations include both calcium and vitamin D. Explanation: Research shows that a combination of both calcium and vitamin D may help prevent the development of osteoporosis, which is a brittle bone disease that primarily affects women after menopause. While some people may be able to obtain adequate levels through diet alone, other people, including those with a family history of osteoporosis, may need supplementation. Patients should speak with their physician(s) for more information.

Which of the following best describes the basic mechanism of a drug-drug pharmacokinetic interaction within the body? A. The drug interaction ends up making both drugs inactive. B. The drug interaction increases the overall toxic effects on an organ. C. The drug interaction causes one drug to inhibit the other drug at the receptor site. D. The drug interaction decreases the absorption of one of the drugs.

The drug interaction decreases the absorption of one of the drugs. Explanation: A drug-drug interaction may occur when a patient takes two or more drugs. This interaction may result in different effects within the body. Pharmacokinetics includes four main processes: drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. For example, if a patient takes a laxative, this would decrease the body's absorption of other drugs the patient has taken because the laxative speeds up the drugs' time within the small and large intestines. Drug-drug interactions may also increase a drug's absorption rate.

Which differentiates a solution from a suspension or emulsion?

The drug is a molecular dispersion in a solution

What does the first segment of the NDC number identify?

The drug manufacturer's identification code Explanation: The first segment of the NDC number identifies the drug manufacturer's identification code. All drug manufacturers must be registered with the FDA at which time they receive a unique identifying number that they must display by law on their drug labels. NDC stands for National Drug Code number, a ten-digit number that facilitates order fulfillment and quality assurance.

A hospital pharmacy receives a STAT order for a drug. What does this mean?

The drug order should be filled immediately. Explanation: The abbreviation "STAT" means immediately; it has its origins in the Latin word statim. If a hospital pharmacy receives a STAT order for a drug, it should be filled immediately. A patient should receive a STAT drug within 5 minutes or less of the drug being ordered.

Non aqueous preparations

The earliest expiration date of any ingredient (API) or 6 months, whichever is earlier

What is a major disadvantage of using a solution or tincture for dermal applications?

The formulation will not remain on the skin for an extended period of time

Which of the following statements about amino acids is false?

The human body produces essential amino acids. Explanation: The human body needs amino acids to grow and function normally. When different amino acids are combined, they make protein. When the body digests protein, it converts the protein back into amino acids. The body is unable to produce essential amino acids, such as cysteine, lysine, and tryptophan, on its own. Instead, people must consume these 9 essential compounds from foods like cheese, nuts, vegetables, and some kinds of meat.

You have received a prescription for a sublingual tablet for risperadol, but you only have the immediate release tablets of the same strength in stock. You are questioning whether you can substitute the immediate release tablet for the SL tablet. Which statement is false?

The immediate release tablet can only be swallowed

A Class III recall notice has been given on a drug product from the manufacturer. Besides the NDC number, which identifier will the manufacturer most likely give to indicate the product in question?

The lot number Explanation: Most drug companies indicate the drug and strength, its NDC number, and the specific lot number(s) that are affected. Often, only particular lots, rather than the entire stock of the drug, are affected.

What does the first set of numbers in the national drug code indicate?

The manufacturer

What law should be followed when federal and state laws don't agree?

The more strict law must be followed

What is meant by the term days supply?

The number of days a drug that has been dispensed to a patient will last

A patient has chronic kidney disease and has been recently diagnosed with secondary hyperparathyroidism. What does this condition mean?

The patient is producing too much calcium Explanation: Hyperparathyroidism is an endocrine system condition caused by the body's production of too much parathyroid hormone (PTH). The body requires this hormone to control the amount of calcium in the extracellular fluid. PTH also helps the bones use calcium. To treat this condition, the patient will most likely need a prescription for cinacalcet (Sensipar).

What is a medication order?

The patient prescription used in a health-system pharmacy Explanation: A medication order is the patient prescription used in a health-system pharmacy, in contrast to the prescription pad healthcare providers use for prescribing drugs to patients which are then filled by retail pharmacies. In addition to drug orders, the medication order includes additional information related to an inpatient's care, such as lab or x-ray results and special diets or restrictions.

An insurance claim is denied because the patient has other primary insurance on file. What is the first action to take?

The patient should provide correct insurance information to the pharmacy. Explanation: A claim denial may occur due to insurance coverage issues, including the patient having other primary insurance on file. The pharmacy should first contact the patient to obtain the correct insurance information before proceeding in the appeals process.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. The pharmacy technician may verify if a prescription is new or a refill. B. Only a pharmacist may provide counseling to a patient. C. Once a drug has been dispensed, it may not be returned to the pharmacy. D. The pharmacy technician may perform the final check of a prescription in a retail setting

The pharmacy technician may perform the final check of a prescription in a retail setting. Explanation: It is beyond the scope of the pharmacy technician to perform the final check of a prescription. This task is the responsibility of the pharmacist and must be done before a prescription may be dispensed to the patient.

According to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act, who can request containers that are not child-proofed?

The physician The patient

What does "the biotransformation of drugs" mean?

The process through which a drug is converted to metabolic derivatives Explanation: The biotransformation of drugs refers to the process through which a drug is converted to metabolic derivatives by body enzymes once it has entered the body. It is also called drug metabolism. The liver is the main location for biotransformation in the body.

In extemporaneous compounding, what is the formula?

The recipe for the product that needs to be compounded Explanation: A formula is a term for the recipe for products that can be compounded in a pharmacy. A formulary is a list of drugs that are covered by insurance or carried by a pharmacy. An antidote is used to counteract a poisoning.

Some routes of administration are selected because the active drug will provide a localized effect. But oftentimes, a systemic effect is also seen. How can this happen?

The route of administration has a large blood supply and some of the active drug is absorbed into the systemic circulation

When administering ophthalmic drops, why is instilling two drops at a time not recommended?

The second drop will be lost in spillage

Licensure requirements are determined by

The state

A pregnant pharmacy technician is filling prescriptions during her shift. A prescription comes through for dutasteride. What action should this technician take?

The technician must avoid touching or filling this medication. Explanation: Dutasteride is Pregnancy Category X, so a pregnant technician should not be allowed to touch or fill this medication.

Controlled Room Temperature

Thermostatically controlled at 20C to 25C

The anticancer drugs vincristine and mitomycin are known as vesicants. What does this mean?

They cause severe skin injury. Explanation: Vesicant drugs cause severe skin injury. The actual definition is an agent that causes blistering. Because of this extreme adverse effect, patients receive vesicant drugs through IV. However, it is important for nurses or other healthcare professionals to monitor the site of IV administration for extravasation, or leakage of the drug into the surrounding tissue, because this would lead to injury.

How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) reduce inflammation in the body?

They hinder the production of prostaglandins. Explanation: NSAIDs are often the first choice in the treatment of inflammation because they are readily available over the counter and are inexpensive. They work by inhibiting the body's production of prostaglandins, which are chemicals released by the body following an injury that ultimately trigger pain and inflammation. An NSAID such as aspirin, for example, inhibits the two enzymes (COX-1 and COX-2) that work to produce prostaglandins. The release of fewer prostaglandins results in less pain and inflammation.

Tablets generally contain ingredients in addition to the active drug. Which statement is not true?

They increase the dissolution time of the active drug

The drug bethanechol is a prototype muscarinic agonist. What does this mean?

This is a cholinergic drug that binds to muscarinic receptors, causing their activation.

Adverse Reactions

This section covers reactions that are unexpected & potentially life-threatening.

How Supplied

This section describes how the medication is supplied, including strengths, dosage formats, and storage requirements.

Indications & Usage

This section describes the specific conditions or symptoms that the drug has been approved by the FDA to prevent or treat.

Warnings

This section details the serious side effects that can be caused by the medication & instructions on what the patient should do if these effects are experienced.

Dosage

This section includes the recommended dosage of medication; dosages are typically categorized by patient age and/or weight.

Precautions

This section lists all of the remaining possible, or potential side effects that the patient should be aware of.

Contraindications

This section lists the types of patients who shouldn't use the medication, whether that is a class of patients (diabetics) or individuals taking another specific class of drug.

Description

This section provides a written description of the visual elements of the drug and packaging; as well as chemical structure of the drug.

Drug Abuse & Dependence

This sections provides notification if the medication has shown signs of a potential for abuse or dependence.

How many checks should be done when the Pyxis machine is restocked?

Three

Which class of medications is used to break up blood clots that have already formed?

Thrombolytics Explanation: Thrombolytics are used to break up thrombi or blood clots that have already formed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Antiplatelet medications also prevent clots from forming by preventing platelet aggregation. Vasodilators relax smooth muscle in blood vessels, allowing blood to flow more easily.

Armour Thyroid

Thyroid Thyroid Hypothyroidism

Spiriva Handihaler

Tiotropium (inhalation) Anticholinergic COPD

According to the Pharmacy Technician Code of Ethics, what is the first consideration of a pharmacy technician?

To ensure the health and safety of patients Explanation: According to the Pharmacy Technician Code of Ethics, the first consideration of a pharmacy technician is to ensure the health and safety of patients. This involves using knowledge and skills to the best of his or her ability.

Why would a drug preparation have an enteric coating?

To prevent it from dissolving in the stomach

The patient has plans to travel abroad and arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for Lariam. Why has his doctor prescribed this medication?

To prevent malaria Explanation: Lariam (mefloquine) is classified as an antimalarial drug. It may be prescribed prophylactically for individuals who plan to travel in areas of the world where malaria outbreaks are common. It is also used to treat malarial infections. Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium protozoan, which is transmitted to humans via the Anopheles mosquito.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for niacin. Why would this patient most likely have a prescription for this vitamin?

To reduce high blood cholesterol Explanation: Some patients may take niacin as a tablet either several times a day or once daily in an extended-release form. It helps lower serum lipid, or cholesterol, levels in patients who have been diagnosed with high cholesterol. You may see it sold under the brand names Niacor, Niaspan, or Slo-Niacin to name only a few. It is also sold in combination with cholesterol-lowering statin drugs such as Simcor, which contains both niacin and simvastatin, or Advicor, which contains both niacin and lovastatin.

Detrol LA

Tolterodine GU antispasmodic Incontinence

A hospital pharmacy technician is filling a drug order for oxytocin for a patient. Why has this drug been ordered?

To stimulate labor Explanation: Oxytocin, a hormone produced by the hypothalamus, is frequently used to stimulate uterine contractions and cause labor in pregnant women. Or, it may be used to increase the intensity of contractions in a woman who is already laboring. A third use is to help patients expel the placenta and control bleeding following delivery. Oxytocin may be administered via an intramuscular injection or by an intravenous drip.

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription that includes the abbreviation "ac." What information about this drug does the technician need to tell the patient?

To take the drug before meals Explanation: The abbreviation "ac" stands for "before meals." It is derived from the Latin phrase ante cibum. Many pharmacy and other medical terms have Latin origins. It is important for you as a pharmacy technician to learn the terms and abbreviations that are commonly used. This will help you avoid mistakes and provide your patients with the best care possible.

A cancer patient with Hodgkin's disease arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for Compazine (prochlorperazine). Why would the patient be taking this drug?

To treat nausea related to chemotherapy Explanation: Chemotherapy may cause a number of side effects in patients, including nausea and vomiting. While Compazine (prochlorperazine) is categorized by the FDA as an antipsychotic, it is also used as an antiemetic in cancer treatment because it is helpful in preventing the side effect of severe nausea and vomiting. Patients who take an antiemetic while on chemotherapy may be more likely to comply with their drug treatment because the antiemetic eases the debilitating effects of cytotoxic drugs.

A patient comes to the pharmacy to fill a prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Why is the patient most likely taking this drug?

To treat osteoporosis Explanation: Patients may take bisphosphonates, such as alendronate (Fosamax) and risedronate (Actonel), to treat or prevent osteoporosis, which is a structural deterioration of bone tissue that occurs most commonly in women during and after menopause when the normal bone breakdown process tends to accelerate. Bisphosphonates work by slowing down this process and preserving the existing bone.

Which of the following is not a purpose for the signature log in a retail pharmacy? A. To prove that the patient was offered counseling B. To record that a patient received a prescription C. To assist in the conduction of pharmacy audits D. To verify a patient's name and address

To verify a patient's name and address Explanation: The pharmacy signature log serves as a record that verifies a prescription was dispensed for a particular patient. It also indicates whether a patient accepted or declined counseling by the pharmacist about a new prescription. Third-party payers may also conduct periodic audits of pharmacies and use the signature log to verify that prescriptions were dispensed and when they were dispensed.

A patient presents at the pharmacy with a prescription from his psychiatrist for Tofranil. The pharmacy technician notices that this patient is also taking Propylthiouracil for hyperthyroidism. The technician knows that:

Tofranil is contraindicated for patients with hyperthyroidism. Explanation: Patients with hyperthyroidism should not take tricyclic antidepressants, such as Tofranil, because they cause an adverse drug reaction by increasing the sensitivity to catecholamines. The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist at once.

A patient arrives at the pharmacy for a prescription for Cipro HC (ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone) in an otic preparation. What is the route of administration for this drug?

Topical onto the membranes of the ear Explanation: The term "otic" refers to the ear. Otic drug preparations may be either liquids or ointments, or occasionally powders. Patients will apply otic ointments to the external ear to treat inflammation or itching, while they will place (or instill) liquids inside the ear to treat conditions such as bacterial infections.

Topamax

Topiramate Antiepileptic Seizure

Ultram (C4)

Tramadol Opioid Analgesic

What is the dosage form for the pain medication Duragesic (fentanyl)?

Transdermal patch Explanation: Explanation close Patients who experience chronic pain may use Duragesic, or fentanyl transdermal, which is available as a transdermal patch. A transdermal patch is a piece of material that attaches to a patient's bare skin with an adhesive. This allows a small amount of a drug to be absorbed by the skin and reach the bloodstream over time. Patients may wear transdermal patches for different lengths of time, depending on the drug. For example, patients usually apply a new Duragesic patch every 72 hours.

A patient has a vaginal yeast infection and purchases the drug clotrimazole from the pharmacy. This drug would be considered which of the following? A. Transdermal B. Subcutaneous C. Transmucosal D. Rectal

Transmucosal Explanation: To treat her vaginal yeast infection, the patient would use a vaginal tablet or cream form of clotrimazole. This drug would be administered to the body through the vaginal mucosa, making it a transmucosal method of delivery.

Travatan

Travoprost (eye drop) Prostaglandin analog Glaucoma

Which atypical antidepressant is often prescribed at bedtime due to its sedating effect?

Trazodone Explanation: Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, is often given at bedtime. Aside from treating unipolar and bipolar depression, it also has anxiolytic and hypnotic effects, making it also a suitable treatment for insomnia.

Desyrel

Trazodone Serotonin reuptake inhibitor Insomnia; depression

Trivaris/Triesence

Triamcinolone (eye ointment) Corticosteroid Ocular inflammation

Nasacort AQ

Triamcinolone (nasal spray) Corticosteroid Allergic rhinitis

Dyazide

Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide Potassium-sparing thiazide combination Hypertension

Maxzide

Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide Potassium-sparing thiazide diuretic Hypertension

Imipramine is an example of which class of medication?

Tricyclic antidepressant Explanation: Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that can be used for a variety of disorders including depression, anxiety, insomnia, and bed-wetting in children.

Bactrim/Septra

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole Sulfa antibiotic Bacterial infection

sumatriptan

Triptan: migrane cluster headaches

Prior to employment in the hospital setting, pharmacy technicians must be screened using the Mantoux test for which disease?

Tuberculosis Explanation: The Mantoux test is used to screen potential employees of healthcare institutions for tuberculosis (TB). TB is a contagious disease that can easily be spread through droplets in the air from a cough or sneeze of an infected person. The test involves giving the employee an intradermal injection on the forearm that creates a wheal. After the injection, the employee returns to have it read within a window of 48-72 hours. If the wheal has dissipated and there is no raised bump, then the employee has tested negative for TB. This test will give a false positive if the employee has had a TB (BCG) vaccination.

Certification must be renewed every

Two years

insulin detemir

Type 2 diabetes

insulin glargine

Type 2 diabetes

metformin

Type 2 diabetes

rosiglitazone

Type 2 diabetes

A cytotoxic reaction to a drug is considered a:

Type II drug reaction

Which of the following is a storage device that is plugged into a port on the computer in order to access saved files? A. scanner B. floppy disk C. USB drive D. CD-ROM

USB drive

Sterile Compounding processes can be reviewed in

USP-NF Chapter <795>

A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for buprenorphine which the patient will take by the SL route. How will the patient take this drug?

Under the tongue Explanation: The abbreviation SL stands for sublingual. This means the patient will place the drug under his or her tongue where it will dissolve quickly and reach the bloodstream faster than if the patient swallowed the drug and it was absorbed in the stomach or small intestine.

Mr. Diaz comes to the pharmacy to pick up his new prescription, and the pharmacy technician realizes immediately that Spanish is Mr. Diaz's native language. He does not speak English. What can the pharmacy technician do to assist Mr. Diaz?

Use a Spanish-English glossary as a communication aid. Explanation: Providing courteous patient care to all patients is the priority of the pharmacy technician. Ideally, pharmacies should have bilingual staff who can assist patients who do not speak English as their primary language. If that is not possible, the pharmacy should have quick references available that will help staff communicate and direct patients toward the services they need.

Which is the correct statement when weighing a powder on a class III torsion balance?

Use a clean weigh boat with each new powder

While preparing a solution for a patient, the pharmacy technician splashes some liquid into her eyes. What should the technician do next?

Use the eyewash station to flush the chemical out of her eyes. Explanation: Both retail and hospital pharmacies are required by law to have eyewash stations available to employees who are handling chemicals or body fluids in the work place. As a precaution, the first thing the pharmacy technician should do is flush the solution out of her eyes using the eyewash station. Following that, she should inform a pharmacist about the incident and learn more about the potential risks the solution may pose to her eyes.

Diovan

Valsartan ARB Hypertension

Diovan HCT

Valsartan-hydrochlorothiazide ARB-thiazide combination Hypertension

Levitra

Vardenafil PDE5 Inhibitor Erectile dysfunction

Chantix

Varenicline Partial cholinergic nicotine agonist Smoking cessation

sildenafil

Vasodilator: ED

vardenafil

Vasodilator: ED

tadalafil

Vasodilator: ED & Englarged Prostate

vasodilator

Vasodilators

Effexor

Venlafaxine SNRI Depression

Retinol is the primary component of which vitamin?

Vitamin A Explanation: Vitamin A is primarily composed of retinol and is found in spinach, carrots, squash, pumpkins, and other orange, yellow, and leafy green vegetables as well as in fish liver oil and beef liver. This fat soluble vitamin is used by the body for vision and the production of epithelial tissue. As a fat soluble vitamin, it is stored mainly in the liver. Large doses can lead to toxicity.

Which of the B vitamins is also known as niacin?

Vitamin B3 Explanation: The proper name for vitamin B3 is niacin. It is one of the eight B vitamins, which also include B1, B2, B5 , B6, B7, B12, and folic acid. As a group, the B vitamins help the body make red blood cells and assist with making energy from food.

Folic Acid

Vitamin B9 Vitamin Dietary Supplement

An elderly patient arrives at the pharmacy with a prescription for Coumadin. Which of the over-the-counter (OTC) products would be safe for this patient to take while on Coumadin?

Vitamin C Explanation: Of these four choices, only vitamin C would be safe for the patient to take in conjunction with Coumadin. Research has shown that aspirin, ginkgo biloba, and vitamin E also work to thin the blood. If taken with the blood thinner Coumadin, they may cause a serious risk of internal bleeding or stroke.

Coumadin

Warfarin Vitamin k agonist Anticoagulation

What is Class III Recall Classification?

Where a product is not likely to cause adverse effects

What is Class II Recall Classification?

Where a product may cause temporary but reversible adverse effects, or in which there is little likelihood of serious adverse effects

What is class I Recall Classification?

Where there is a strong likelihood that the product will cause serious adverse effects or death

What factor(s) affect(s) the beyond-use date of a compounded preparation?

Whether it contains water

How does a drug manufacturer inform a prescriber about the possibility of a medical complication associated with a particular drug?

With a black box warning Explanation: Drug manufacturers are required by the FDA to include a black box warning to the labeling of any drug that has been shown to cause possible medical complications or side effects. This information helps inform the prescriber who can then weigh the risks and benefits of a drug before prescribing it to a patient. Black box warnings are considered the most serious form of warning associated with a drug. In addition to informing the prescriber about the dangers of a drug, drug companies must also make this information available to patients, or consumers, through information sheets and other formats. All antidepressant drugs, Depo-Provera Contraceptive Injection, and some thiazolidinediones, or antidiabetic drugs, are examples of drugs that currently require a black box warning.

Ranitidine is the generic name for:

Zantac Explanation: Ranitidine is the generic name for Zantac, an H2 antagonist used for chronic heartburn and gastroesophageal reflux. Pepcid is also an H2 blocker, but this is the trade name for famotidine. Nexium is also used for chronic acid production, but it is a proton pump inhibitor. Citrucel is the brand for methylcellulose, which is commonly used as a bulk laxative.

Geodon

Ziprasidone Antipsychotic Schizophrenia

The FDA has issued a "black-box warning" on which class of medication that may cause suicidal ideation in children?

Zoloft Explanation: Zoloft, as well as most antidepressants, have a black-box warning when administered to children due the possibility of children developing suicidal thoughts or behavior. Xanax has no black-box warnings associated with it. Ritalin has a black-box warning pertaining to substance abuse but not specifically for children or suicidal ideation. Risperdal has a black-box warning for dementia, also not specifically for children or suicidal ideation.

he FDA has issued a "black-box warning" on which class of medication that may cause suicidal ideation in children?

Zoloft Explanation: Zoloft, as well as most antidepressants, have a black-box warning when administered to children due the possibility of children developing suicidal thoughts or behavior. Xanax has no black-box warnings associated with it. Ritalin has a black-box warning pertaining to substance abuse but not specifically for children or suicidal ideation. Risperdal has a black-box warning for dementia, also not specifically for children or suicidal ideation.

Ambien (C4)

Zolpidem Gamma-aminobutyric acid-ergic agonist Insomnia

A person who is lactose intolerant should not take:

Zyprexa Explanation: Zyprexa (olanzapine) tablets include lactose which makes them contraindicated for people who are lactose intolerant. Zyprexa is an antipsychotic drug used in the treatment of schizophrenia.

What is the trade name for the drug cetirizine and to what drug class does it belong?

Zyrtec, antihistamine Explanation: The trade name for cetirizine is Zyrtec, and it belongs to a drug class called antihistamines. These drugs work in the body by blocking the release of histamine, a substance that causes inflammation and exacerbates the symptoms of allergies.

A gel is characterized by

a 3-D network of particles

A prescriber would order a compounded item for any of the following reasons except:

a compounded product is less expensive for the patient. Explanation: All of the above options are good reasons for a prescriber to choose a compounded product except cost. Compounding takes time, so there may be no cost savings for the patient. Often a prescriber wants certain medications that are not manufactured in the same product. In addition, patients may need a special formulation like a suspension or ointment that is not manufactured commercially.

To treat bronchospasm and bronchial inflammation, a prescriber would most likely give:

a corticosteroid and a sympathetic agonist. Explanation: Corticosteroids are frequently used to treat inflammation associated with asthma and other breathing disorders. To relieve bronchospasm, the treatment of choice is a sympathetic agonist. Often two inhalers would be prescribed—a corticosteroid daily for maintenance and a sympathetic agonist as needed for bronchospasm or asthma attacks. Methylxanthines are not typically given as first-line treatment of asthma symptoms.

An analytical report that shows which users have access to high-risk drugs and can alert administrators to potential theft of drugs is:

a diversion report. Explanation: Diversion is the term used for theft of drugs in the pharmacy. A diversion report uses data gathered from the pharmacy computer system to show which users have access to high-risk drugs and to track patterns that may be indications of diversion.

In order to comply with the Controlled Substances Act, schedule II drugs should ideally be stored in

a locked cabinet. Explanation: According to the Controlled Substance Act, the pharmacy is required to guard against theft or diversion of controlled substances. To prevent drug diversion, most pharmacies keep schedule II drugs in a locked cabinet or a safe.

Drug interaction questions must be answered by

a pharmacist

The most efficient inventory system a pharmacy may use is:

a point-of-sale inventory system. Explanation: Depending on the technology employed in the pharmacy, all of these methods are used to determine what inventory needs to be acquired for the next business day except an estimation system. Though some pharmacies may determine a change in inventory turnover by comparing last month's inventory, it is not used to order daily inventory. A point-of-sale system is a computerized inventory system that keeps track of all inventory being sold. When a medication falls below a certain par level, the computer automatically orders more of that product. This process is very efficient and requires less time and effort from the pharmacy staff to maintain the proper amount of inventory.

Amiodarone, human insulin, lorazepam, and nitroglycerin IV solutions require

a polyolefin plastic bag to prevent adsoprtion

An example of an output device used for computers is:

a printer.

A pharmacy technician who is working inside a laminar airflow hood should not wear:

a regular lab coat. Explanation: A pharmacy technician who is working inside a laminar airflow hood should not wear a regular lab coat with open cuffs, but should instead wear a gown with a knit cuff. The knit cuff helps to prevent the flow of air between the technician's wrists and arms and resulting in contamination.

At Community Hospital, data from electronic medical records is transmitted from computer to computer within the facility using infrared light waves. This is made possible through the use of:

a wireless local area network. Explanation: Computers are connected with other computers through networks. A wireless local area network allows data transmission without the need for cables or telephone lines. WLANs can be used within a facility to transmit EHR data from computer to computer using radio waves, microwaves, or infrared light waves.

Most patients want their flavor experience to have

acceptable mouth feel

A transdermal route of drug administration means the drug enters the body:

across or through the skin. Explanation: In the transdermal route of drug administration, the drug enters the body across or through the skin. The prefix trans- means "across," and dermal means "skin." Transdermal drugs are generally applied as patches to the skin and deliver the drug to the bloodstream. The nicotine patch used in smoking cessation is an example. Percutaneous is another term for transdermal.

Intramuscular

administered into muscle tissue

Directions for use should start with a/an

adverb

The most commonly dispensed oral rescue inhaler for asthma is:

albuterol Explanation: Albuterol is the most commonly dispensed oral rescue inhaler. It is a short-acting bronchodilator that works quickly and can be used as needed for asthma symptoms every 4 to 6 hours. Albuterol can be used alone or in combination with other maintenance inhalers that may contain bronchodilators and/or corticosteroids. Corticosteroids such as fluticasone are used for maintenance therapy, not immediate relief. Salmeterol is a bronchodilator, but the onset of action and duration is longer than that of albuterol. A combination drug such as albuterol/ipratropium is also maintenance therapy and is typically dosed four times daily

An example of a short-acting β2-adrenergic agonist is:

albuterol. Explanation: Albuterol is an example of a short-acting β2-adrenergic agonist, which can be used several times a day to control bronchoconstriction. β2-adrenergic agonists target certain receptors in the lungs that cause the airways to relax and dilate, making it easier to breathe. Tiotropium is an antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) medication that works on different receptors to relax smooth muscles in the airway. Phenylephrine is an α1-adrenergic agonist that can be used as a decongestant or to increase heart rate. Dextromethorphan is used as a cough suppressant.

Scott Rios, an 18-year-old patient, comes to the pharmacy with a prescription for amoxicillin. The pharmacy technician notices that Scott has also been prescribed a long-term regimen of tetracycline by his dermatologist. The technician should:

alert the pharmacist as tetracycline may reduce the effectiveness of penicillin. Explanation: Studies have shown that tetracyclines may reduce the effectiveness of penicillins, like amoxicillin, when used concurrently. In this case, the pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist who will then make a decision about an alternate drug for Scott.

Leukotriene antagonists are used to treat asthma and:

allergic rhinitis Explanation: Leukotriene antagonists work by blocking the action of leukotrienes. Leukotrienes are chemicals that are released after coming in contact with a trigger or allergen. Excess leukotrienes are responsible for runny nose, itchy eyes, sneezing, excess mucus production, and tightening of the airways. Leukotriene modifiers (antagonists) can help manage the symptoms of allergies and asthma.

The role of an inhalation spacer is to

allow the patient to separate actuation from inhalation by seconds

The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1986:

allows the continuation of group-health insurance for a limited time to those who have lost their jobs. Explanation: COBRA 1986 allows those who have lost their jobs to keep their group-health insurance coverage for a limited amount of time. This act helps workers to keep their insurance plan temporarily until another job and insurance plan is found.

In a retail pharmacy, prescriptions that have been filled are usually stored:

alphabetically by the patient's last name. Explanation: In a retail pharmacy, prescriptions that have been filled and are awaiting pick-up are usually stored alphabetically by the patient's last name. An individual pharmacy will have its own system for storing filled prescriptions. For example, some may use shelving units and others may use bins. Patients must pick up all prescriptions at the pharmacy counter or window.

To clarify a prescription dose strength

always place a zero in front of a decimal point

A prescription may be legally written by

an MD, DDS, DO or DVM

A facility tracks each pharmacy technician's actions as they access information in electronic medical records. System administrators review these actions to identify existing and potential security breaches. This is known as:

an audit trail. Explanation: Audit trails are used to track employees' activities within the electronic medical record system. An audit trail can detect any suspicious activity by users, which can lead to corrective action appropriate for the violation.

An oral liquid formation in which one non-miscible liquid is dispersed throughout another in the form of small droplets is called

an emulsion

A drug that neutralizes stomach acid directly without systemic circulation is a(n):

antacid. Explanation: Antacids work by using slightly base active ingredients that neutralize acid directly in the stomach. There is no first-pass metabolism because it works quickly in the stomach. The activity is short term, so those with chronic heartburn or related illnesses may do better with a longer-acting, systemic medication such as a histamine2 blocker or proton pump inhibitor. Laxatives do nothing to help with excess stomach acid.

cefdinir

antibiotic, cephalosporin

cefuroxime

antibiotic, cephalosporin

cephalexin

antibiotic, cephalosporin

ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone

antibiotic, ear drops

levofloxacin

antibiotic, fluoroquinolone

moxifloxacin

antibiotic, fluoroquinolone

azithromycin

antibiotic, macrolide

clarithromycin

antibiotic, macrolide

amoxicillin

antibiotic, penicillin

Agents that inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system are called:

anticholinergic agents Explanation: Anticholinergic agents inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system by suppressing the effects of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By blocking the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system, anticholinergics induce symptoms of the "fight-or-flight" response. Vasopressors and amphetamines use the sympathetic pathway of the autonomic nervous system. Autoimmune agents stimulate the body's immune system.

divalproex

anticonvulsant

amitriptyline

antidepressant

bupropion

antidepressant

citalopram

antidepressant

mirtazapine

antidepressant

A medication used to prevent atherosclerosis is called a(n):

antihyperlipidemic agent. Explanation: Atherosclerosis is the buildup of plaque in blood vessels due to elevated levels of cholesterol in the blood. The prefix "anti" means against; the prefix "hyper" means excessive or above; the word "lipid" refers to fats or cholesterol. Antihyperlipidemics are used to treat high cholesterol to prevent or slow down the development of these plaques.

olmesartan

antihypertensive, angiotensin II receptor antagonist

Methotrexate is classified as an:

antineoplastic. Explanation: Methotrexate (MXT) is an antineoplastic agent. This means it is used in the treatment of cancers, or malignant tumors (neoplasms). This particular drug may be used in the treatment of a number of cancers, including breast, bladder, and uterine. It may also be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. It is sold under the brand names Trexall, Methotrex, and Rheumatrex DP

A pharmacy technician who is pregnant, breastfeeding, or planning to become pregnant should not prepare:

antineoplastics Explanation: A technician who is pregnant, planning to become pregnant soon, or breastfeeding should not handle or prepare antineoplastic or chemotherapy medications. Antineoplastics can damage DNA and harm the fetus or baby.

A software program that allows a pharmacy technician to create and manage a database of patient information is an example of a(n):

application. Explanation: A computer application is a software program that is designed to accomplish specific tasks. Word processors, email programs, and database programs are all examples of computer applications.

Intravenous

are administered directly into veins

Subcutaneous

are administered into the subcutaneous tissue of the skin

Intradermal

are administered into the top layer of the skin at a slight angle using short needles

The drug Coumadin is available:

as a tablet or as an injection. Explanation: Coumadin (warfarin) is an anticoagulant drug that helps prevent blood from clotting and leading to serious conditions like heart attack, transient ischemic attack, or stroke. It is available as both a tablet for patients to self-administer and as a solution for injection for hospital use.

To better serve patients with language barriers or special needs, a pharmacy technician should:

ask open-ended questions to determine if the patient comprehends. Explanation: When communicating with patients who have language barriers or special needs, it is best to always ask open-ended questions to determine that the patient understands. Asking open-ended questions requires the patient to respond with an answer other than "yes" or "no." Patients who do not understand the question may answer "yes" without truly understanding what is being asked of them. Pharmacy technicians may need to take extra time with these patients and refer these patients to the pharmacist if counseling is needed.

When the directions for a prescription are unclear, the pharmacy technician should

ask the pharmacist

An oral MDI would be most likely to be prescribed to someone with:

asthma Explanation: An oral MDI is a metered-dose inhaler and is a common delivery system for medications for asthma and other lung disorders. The patient breathes in the contents through the mouth to disperse the particles into the lungs. Patients with allergic rhinitis may use a nasal MDI to treat nasal congestion. The other conditions would not warrant the use of an MDI.

If a manufacturer's drug label does not include specific instructions on how a drug should be stored, the pharmacy should store the drug:

at room temperature. Explanation: Pharmacies should store all drugs that do not include specific manufacturer's recommendations on storage at room temperature on a pharmacy shelf. Pharmacy technicians should also keep the drug away from direct light and excessive humidity.

Laminar airflow hoods should be cleaned and disinfected:

at the beginning of every shift and as needed. Explanation: Laminar airflow hoods should be cleaned and disinfected at the beginning of every shift per USP Chapter 797 guidelines for the preparation of sterile products. Laminar hood should also be cleaned when there is a spill or a change in medications.

Medication orders in institutional settings may

be administered by nursing staff

Tall man lettering is used to

better distinguish between two drugs with similar names

A compounded cream shows that the emulsion has broken after 35 days. So a conservative ______ date would be 30 days.

beyond-use

Many medications used to treat seizure disorders are also used to treat:

bipolar disorder. Explanation: Many anticonvulsant medications used to treat epilepsy and other seizure disorders have been effective in treating bipolar disorder. Many antiseizure medications act as mood stabilizers and, depending on the medication, may either treat the manic or depressive phase of bipolar disorder.

Which of the following is a digit in the binary number system that is the smallest unit of storage in computing and telecommunications? A. megabyte B. byte C. kilobyte D. bit

bit

When administering a nasal spray

breathe through the the nostril whole spraying the solution

Sympathetic agonists are used frequently to treat:

bronchospasm. Explanation: Sympathetic agonists treat bronchospasms by targeting specific receptors in the lungs, causing the smooth muscle to relax. This muscle relaxation causes the airways to open up, correcting the spasm in the bronchioles. Sympathetic agonists are not used to treat inflammation or embolism. Some sympathetic agonists actually may increase blood pressure, so those with asthma and high blood pressure should consult their prescriber or pharmacist when using sympathetic agonists with blood pressure medication.

Citrucel is an example of a(n):

bulk laxative Explanation: Citrucel is an example of an over-the-counter bulk laxative that is sold for the treatment of constipation. Bulk laxatives, like the citrus fiber found in Citrucel, pass through the body undigested. They absorb water inside the intestine to form a soft stool which helps to stimulate the colon. Bulk laxatives must be taken with plenty of water.

Psyllium is often used as a(n):

bulk-forming laxative. Explanation: Psyllium is made of a natural plant fiber that can easily absorb water, making it an effective bulk laxative. It is often given as a fiber supplement because of these properties.

Coring

can occur only with LVP vials

Serotonin antagonists are frequently prescribed to:

cancer chemotherapy patients. Explanation: Serotonin antagonists are potent antiemetics used to treat severe nausea and vomiting, which is a common side effect in many chemotherapy treatments.

The primary computer chip responsible for interpreting and executing programs is the:

central processing unit.

The chemical structure of corticosteroids is similar to that of:

cholesterol. Explanation: Corticosteroids have a multicyclic structure very similar to those found in cholesterol. Many steroids in the body are derived from cholesterol.

COPD is a combination of emphysema and:

chronic bronchitis. Explanation: In the United States, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is classified as causing concurrent symptoms of chronic bronchitis and emphysema. COPD is a progressive disease that involves shortness of breath, a chronic productive cough, and deterioration of the lungs over a period of time. Although some patients with COPD have only one of the two main conditions mentioned, most patients have symptoms of both diseases.

Methylxanthines are used to treat:

chronic bronchospasm. Explanation: Methylxanthines work as mild bronchodilators and stimulants to treat chronic bronchospasm in asthma. The methylxanthines are not as commonly used in the treatment of asthma when compared to sympathetic agonists. These xanthine derivatives are metabolized using a common pathway that many other drugs use, which can cause drug-drug interactions. They are not used to treat dysphonia, COPD, or sleep apnea.

The primary disease treated with Spiriva is:

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Explanation: Spiriva is FDA-approved for the treatment of COPD, a progressive lung disease. Spiriva comes in capsules that are used with a specially designed inhaler so that the contents are inhaled, not swallowed. Spiriva is not used to treat asthma, allergies, or acute bronchitis.

Laminar airflow hoods used for aseptic compounding should be:

cleaned every eight hours at minimum. Explanation: Laminar airflow hoods should be cleaned and disinfected at least every eight hours when they are being used for aseptic compounding to maintain a sterile environment. Pharmacy technicians must be familiar with the procedure for properly cleaning a laminar airflow hood when working with sterile products.

Electronic prescribing, or e-prescribing, refers to: A. prescriptions received by a pharmacy from a prescriber via e-mail. B. computer-to-computer transmission of prescription information using certified software between prescribers, pharmacies, and pharmacy benefits managers. C. prescriptions received by a pharmacy from a prescriber via fax. D. computer-to-computer transmission of prescription information using certified email or fax between prescribers, pharmacies, and pharmacy benefits managers.

computer-to-computer transmission of prescription information using certified software between prescribers, pharmacies, and pharmacy benefits managers.

Lanoxin is most commonly prescribed for patients with:

congestive heart failure. Explanation: Lanoxin, or digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside which is derived from the foxglove plant as digitalis. It is commonly used to treat congestive heart failure and also atrial fibrillation. It is not used to treat any of the other conditions listed.

The Ryan Haight Act, which amended the Controlled Substance Act, makes it illegal to deliver, distribute, or dispense:

controlled substances by means of the Internet. Explanation: The Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, which was signed into law on October 15, 2008, makes it illegal to deliver, distribute, or dispense any controlled substance by means of the Internet.

corticosteroids

corticosteroids

Most antidepressants have a similar molecular structure that is:

cyclic. Explanation: Antidepressants tend to have a cyclic chemical structure. They may be heterocyclic, containing a single ring formed by carbon atoms, or they may contain several independent or fused rings. Tricyclic antidepressants have three fused rings in their molecular structure. Though the ring structure is common throughout most antidepressants, modern classes of antidepressants are generally named after their action rather than after their specific ringed structure.

In a healthcare system setting when patient medications are dispensed in 24-hour increments and kept in individual patient drawers on each unit, this medication filling system is called: A. drawer fill. B. unit-dose fill. C. floor stock. D. cart fill.

d. cart fill. Explanation: When medications are filled in patient drawers for a 24-hour period in a health-system pharmacy, this process is typically known as cart fill. Due to the high number of patient drawers, they are usually kept on carts which are used to exchange the drawers with those on the unit that need to be replenished. Pharmacy technicians usually fill and exchange the drawers, but in larger facilities, robotic cart fill systems are sometimes employed.

To ensure that drug products that need to be refrigerated or frozen are kept at the proper temperature, the pharmacy technician may document the temperature on a:

daily log or monitor an automated digital thermometer for fluctuations. Explanation: To ensure that refrigerators and freezers are maintained at a proper temperature, a technician may either document the temperature of this equipment on a daily log or monitor an automated digital thermometer which will alert the staff if the temperature is out of range.

insulin lispro

diabetes

Camphorated opium tincture is used for the symptomatic treatment of:

diarrhea. Explanation: Camphorated opium tincture (Paregoric) is a C-III scheduled medication that is sometimes used to treat diarrhea. This is due to the constipating effect of the opium, which helps negate the diarrhea.

The process of destroying microorganisms on the surface of something, such as a countertop, is called:

disinfection Explanation: Disinfection is the process of destroying microorganisms that are on the surface of something, like a counter or large piece of equipment. Many pharmacies use a solution of bleach and water as a disinfectant. Disinfecting may also be done through boiling, which would be appropriate for smaller items like instruments.

"Dispense as Written" means

dispense only the brand name drug written on the prescription

Mrs. Spencer arrives at the pharmacy to pick up a prescription for herself. The pharmacy technician notices that her husband, Mr. Spencer, also has a prescription waiting for pick up. The pharmacy technician should:

dispense the prescription for the patient, Mrs. Spencer, only. Explanation: To protect patient confidentiality, the pharmacy technician should only dispense the prescription drug to the patient, Mrs. Spencer, unless she specifically requests the prescription for her husband as well. HIPAA allows members of the pharmacy staff to use their professional judgment when dispensing prescriptions to someone other than the patient, such as a spouse, parent, or friend, for example. The pharmacy technician, however, should not offer this information voluntarily.

Lasix is classified as a(n):

diuretic Explanation: Lasix, or furosemide, is classified as a diuretic, which means it causes the body to produce more urine. Diuretics hinder the kidney's ability to reabsorb sodium and chloride, which increases the output of urine. Diuretics are used to treat conditions like hypertension and edema.

Drugs that work to increase the amount of sodium excreted by the body are called:

diuretics Explanation: Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of sodium the body excretes. They are used in the treatment of hypertension, or high blood pressure, because they help to decrease blood fluid volumes resulting in less strain on the heart. They also increase urine output. Thiazide diuretics are the class typically used in the treatment of hypertension.

A patient comes to the pharmacy with a prescription for Naprosyn. When reviewing her patient profile, the pharmacy technician notices she is also taking Aleve. This is an example of a(n):

drug duplication.

The proprietary name of a drug on a drug label refers to the:

drug's trade or brand name. Explanation: The proprietary name of a drug refers to the drug's brand or trade name. The proprietary name will appear on the drug label if the drug is a trade name drug. The generic name of the drug would then appear below the trade name.

Routine infection control should include

dry cleaning before disinfection washing with soaps or detergents disinfection

The drug Cortisporin Otic is administered to a patient via:

ear drops. Explanation: Cortisporin Otic is an antibacterial otic preparation commonly used in the treatment of ear infections. It also contains the steroid hydrocortisone which helps reduce inflammation and pain while the antibiotic heals the infection. Patients who are self-administering ear drops should be taught the proper instillation technique by their healthcare provider or pharmacist. Once the drops have been instilled, patients should be encouraged to lie on the side opposite the affected ear for at least five minutes to allow the drug to penetrate.

The main purpose of phase 2 clinical trails is

effectiveness

A progressive lung disease caused primarily by smoking or long-term exposure to air pollution that causes shortness of breath and a breakdown of supporting lung tissue is called:

emphysema. Explanation: Emphysema is characterized by shortness of breath and breakdown of the tissues that support proper lung inflation. Asthma is a lung condition caused by inflammation and bronchoconstriction. Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus or secondary bacterial infection and is easily treated with antibiotics. Dysphonia is a disorder of the voice, such as hoarseness or laryngitis.

If you need to compound a liquid preparation containing a water-based vehicle and an active drug that is an oil, the appropriate dosage form would be a/an

emulsion

Before transmitting an electronic medical record to another facility, the pharmacy technician runs a program that automatically converts the data into a secure format that cannot be read unless the user converts it to a readable format using a special key. This is known as:

encryption. Explanation: Encryption is a process by which electronic data is converted to an unreadable, secure format. The recipient may decrypt the data and convert it to readable text by using a special key.

tall man lettering

error prevention technique used to differentiate look alike medication names

Estrace is used for:

estrogen replacement Explanation: Estrace is used for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen may be used in the treatment of a variety of conditions, including amenorrhea, abnormal uterine cycles, conditions associated with menopause, and the prevention of osteoporosis, to name a few.

Modified release tablets might be called

extended release prolonged action long acting

Both amoxicillin and ticarcillin are:

extended spectrum penicillins. Explanation: Both amoxicillin and ticarcillin are known as extended spectrum penicillins. This means they have been chemically altered to make them more effective against a wider spectrum of bacteria.

tobramycin/dexamethasone

eye infections

Vitamin D is responsible for:

facilitating the absorption of calcium from the intestine. Explanation: Vitamin D facilitates the absorption of calcium from the intestine. It is also necessary for the formation of bone, as well as the bone's ability to store calcium. Vitamin D is stored in the skin but requires the help of sunlight to become activated. People with little exposure to sunlight may present with soft bones, a condition called osteomalacia or rickets.

An antipyretic is used to treat:

fever.

To ensure that a syringe and needle will deliver a correct volume of liquid

fill the syringe with liquid, making sure no liquid is in the hub and needle

Prescriptions are considered valid: A. indefinitely. B. for only one year after being written. C. for up to two years. D. for only six months after being written

for only one year after being written. Explanation: According to federal law, prescriptions are considered valid for only one year after being written by a prescriber. Individual state laws may allow exceptions to this rule, and prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedules II-IV are excluded from this rule and are usually valid for six months, or even less.

In a healthcare system, the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is responsible for establishing the hospital's:

formulary.

After a patent has expired for a medication, other manufacturers may copy the drug and release it under the ______ name

generic

latanoprost

glaucoma medication

The single most important way to prevent the spread of infection is:

hand washing Explanation: All healthcare professionals, including pharmacy technicians, should practice proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection. This includes washing hands and wrists thoroughly in warm water with an antimicrobial soap, using gentle friction.

The central processing unit, video card, and DVD drive are all examples of a computer's:

hardware. Explanation: The processor, video card, and DVD drive are examples of a computer's hardware. Hardware is any part of the computer that can be physically touched.

Do not use an ophthalmic solution if it

has particles is discovered has developed gas bubbles

A pregnant customer presents at the pharmacy with a prescription for Ritalin. The technician discovers that this is a Category C drug. This means the drug:

has shown adverse affects on animals but has not been tested on humans. Explanation: Ritalin is a pregnancy Category C drug, which means that animal studies have shown that it may pose some risk to humans, but this risk has not been verified by actual testing on humans. The five pregnancy drug categories are A, B, C, D and X. Category A poses no risk to either the woman or the fetus. Drugs in Category X have demonstrated that they cause harm to the fetus, the mother, or both, and are contraindicated during pregnancy. For example, isotretinoin, used in the treatment of acne, is a Category X drug and should be avoided during pregnancy.

Air is generally injecting into a vial before a volume of solution is removed to

help withdraw the solution by pressurizing the vial

Propylthiouracil is used in the treatment of:

hyperthyroidism Explanation: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism, a condition caused by overproduction of thyroid hormone. PTU is considered an "antithyroid" drug because it inhibits the absorption of iodine into tyrosine, an amino acid. This ultimately prevents the formation of thyroid hormone and manages the condition.

Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of:

hypothyroidism Explanation: Levothyroxine is the generic name for synthetic thyroid hormone that is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the body produces an insufficient amount of thyroid hormone. It is also known as an "underactive thyroid." Some signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism may include fatigue, weight gain, depression, increased sensitivity to cold, and constipation.

Xalatan ophthalmic solution in the pharmacy must be stored:

in the refrigerator. Explanation: Xalatan ophthalmic solution should be stored in the refrigerator while at the pharmacy. Once open, it is stable for 6 weeks at room temperature. Refrigeration prolongs the stability of the medication.

A vasopressor is used to:

increase blood pressure. Explanation: Vasopressors are commonly found on emergency "crash" carts and are used in a cardiac emergency when the patient's blood pressure is too low. Some vasopressors can also be used to treat anaphylaxis in a respiratory emergency. These medications do not influence the viscosity of the blood.

Proventil would be given to a patient using:

inhalation administration. Explanation: Proventil is used in the treatment of asthma and is therefore administered to a patient through inhalation using an inhaler device. The drug travels from the patient's mouth and down into the lungs where it is rapidly absorbed.

All of the following pharmacies can fill prescriptions except: A.ambulatory pharmacies. B.mail order pharmacies. C.inpatient pharmacies. D.community pharmacies

inpatient pharmacies. Explanation: Prescriptions are medication orders traditionally written on prescription blanks for presentation to ambulatory (community) and mail order pharmacies. Inpatient hospital pharmacies use physician order sheets for medication orders

Drugs used in the treatment of status epilepticus are administered:

intravenously. Explanation: Drugs used to treat status epilepticus are administered intravenously. This serious condition can be fatal if not treated immediately, making an intravenous administration the route of choice. Diazepam or lorazepam are generally administered.

The two drug names Accupril 40 mg and Accutance 40 mg exemplify

look-alike names

bumetanide

loop diruetic

furosemide

loop diruetic

torsemide

loop diruetic

Bumex is a(n):

loop diuretic. Explanation: Bumex is a loop diuretic that is used mainly in the treatment of edema related to heart failure, or from liver or kidney disease. Of the five classes of diuretics, loop diuretics are most effective in causing rapid diuresis that lasts for at least two hours. Because of their potency, loop diuretics are often administered once per day.

Statin drugs are used to:

lower blood cholesterol levels. Explanation: Statin drugs are used to lower blood cholesterol levels and are therefore called antihyperlipidemic drugs (hyperlipidemia is high cholesterol). These drugs work by blocking the production of HMG-CoA, an enzyme responsible for cholesterol production. Lipitor, Lescol, and Mevacor are some examples of commonly prescribed statin antihyperlipidemic drugs.

Oral administration of mineral oil acts as a(n):

lubricant laxative. Explanation: Mineral oil is formed as a byproduct in the distillation of petroleum. Taken orally, it can be used as a laxative that helps lubricate the intestinal tract, making bowel movements easier to pass. It can be given plain, but it is more palatable to some patients when emulsified.

The generic name for Asmanex is:

mometasone Explanation: Asmanex is the brand name for mometasone, a type of corticosteroid inhaler in the treatment of asthma. Triamcinolone is also a corticosteroid associated with the brand name Azmacort. Corticosteroids treat inflammation associated with asthma. Salmeterol is the generic name for Serevent, and formoterol is the generic name for foradil. Both salmeterol and formoterol are long-acting β2 adrenergic agonists, a subclass of sympathetic agonists.

The walls, ceiling, and shelving units in an ISO Class 5 clean room should be cleaned and disinfected:

monthly Explanation: The walls, ceiling, and shelving units in an ISO Class 5 clean room should be cleaned and disinfected monthly in accordance to the USP Chapter 797 guidelines.

Scopolamine is often administered as a transdermal patch for the treatment of:

motion sickness. Explanation: Scopolamine transdermal patches are frequently used in the treatment of motion sickness and vertigo. Studies have shown it to be ineffective when used to treat cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting when compared to placebo.

A patient would like to order their medications online. To which website would a pharmacy technician direct them?

nabp.org

The second set of digits in an NDC represents the

name of drug and strength

oxycodone/acetaminophen

narcotic

The drug fluticasone is administered:

nasally. Explanation: Fluticasone, sold under the trade name Flonase, is available as a nasal spray. It is used in the treatment of rhinitis and other nasal symptoms related to seasonal and other allergies. Drugs are administered intranasally to either produce a local effect, such as treatment of rhinitis, or to accelerate their absorption into the bloodstream. The opioid analgesic Stadol (butorphanol tartrate), for example, is available as a nasal spray for faster absorption. Note that fluticasone is also sold as Flovent and is available as an oral inhaler for the treatment of asthma.

An antiemetic is used in the treatment of:

nausea and vomiting Explanation: Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and vomiting, which may be caused by various things, including disorders, infections of the GI tract, and even certain drugs like chemotherapy. Some commonly used antiemetics include Zofran, Phenergan, and Dramamine.

An example of a mast cell stabilizer is:

nedocromil. Explanation: Nedocromil, generic for Tilade, is a mast cell stabilizer/inhibitor. Mast cells release histamine and other chemicals when stimulated by allergens. This histamine release causes inflammation and other allergy/asthmatic symptoms. Mast cell stabilizers like nedocromil prevent the release of this histamine, thereby reducing allergy and asthmatic symptoms. They are not used as frequently as leukotriene modifiers, which have a similar mechanism of action.

Angina is commonly treated with:

nitrates Explanation: Nitrates, such as nitroglycerin or isosorbide, are often used to treat symptoms of angina.

All of these medications should be kept in the refrigerator except:

nystatin Explanation: All of the listed medications require refrigeration except nystatin. Insulin is a protein, so keeping it in the refrigerator helps it last longer. Once dispensed to patients, insulin can be kept at room temperature for 28 days. After this, the insulin should be discarded because it may no longer be effective. Filgrastim and epoetin are preservative free, so storing in the refrigerator helps extend the shelf life of the medications.

Orlistat is used in the treatment of:

obesity. Explanation: When combined with exercise and diet modification, orlistat is used in the treatment of obesity in some individuals. It reduces the absorption of fats from the diet by inhibiting certain enzymes that metabolize fats. This allows fats to remain undigested and be eliminated through the colon. Due to these excess undigested fats, side effects include oily stools, flatulence with spotting, fecal urgency, and fecal incontinence.

A pharmacy must use childproof caps:

on all prescriptions, unless a patient has signed a waiver. Explanation: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 mandates that all drugs, with a few exceptions, must be dispensed to patients using childproof caps unless the patient signs a waiver releasing the pharmacy from liability should an accidental poisoning happen. Some exceptions to this law include contraceptives, some emergency medications, and sublingual nitroglycerin, to name a few.

A dissolution step would to be necessary for drug absorption from a/an

oral syrup

The three main methods of medication administration are:

oral, topical, and parenteral. Explanation: The three main methods of medication administration are oral, topical, and parenteral. Oral drugs are administered by mouth. Topical drugs are applied to the skin and mucous membranes. Finally, parenteral drugs are administered to patients via an injection with a needle and syringe.

The DEA Form 222 is used to:

order schedule II substances. Explanation: DEA Form 222 is used to order schedule II substances. A pharmacy may also use the online DEA Controlled Substance Ordering System (CSOS). Because they pose less abuse potential, drugs in Schedules III, IV, and V do not require using the federal form to order.

Capsules can contain

other capsules bulk powder liquids that do not dissolve gelatin

Visual inspection of parenteral solutions can show the presence of ________ and __________

particle contamination, precipitation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act primarily ensures:

patient confidentiality and privacy regarding health care. Explanation: HIPAA ensures patients' rights to confidentiality and privacy regarding their health information.

The following items should be included on a compounding worksheet except the:

patient's name and room number. Explanation: When compounding a prescription, a worksheet helps the pharmacy technician and pharmacist to determine that the correct ingredients and quantities were used to make the formula. The expiration date, lot number, and manufacturer are also listed so a proper expiration date for the product can be determined and so there is a reference in the event of a recall on any of the products used.

The financial manager of a pharmacy reports that 17 paper insurance claims have been lost in the mail since January 2013. These claims are classified as

pending. Explanation: Claims for which payment is overdue are considered pending, or delinquent. Paper claims may be lost in the mail, and electronic claims may be lost due to computer problems or power outages. When a claim is pending, the payer should be contacted by phone, email, or insurance claim tracer form.

In order to provide competence in aseptic technique, a pharmacy technician is required to:

perform an annual media-fill test. Explanation: In order to provide competence in aseptic technique, the USP Chapter 797 requires personnel who compound sterile products to perform an annual media-fill test. This test, which uses a microbial growth medium, simulates sterile compounding and will indicate improper technique.

Counseling as required by OBRA 90 is provided by

pharmacists

The primary reason to use a vaginal applicator is to

place the formulation high in the vaginal tract

When restocking medications, the pharmacy technician should do all of the following except:

place the opened products at the back of the shelf for easier access. Explanation: All of the answer choices are proper procedures to follow when restocking medications except placing opened products at the back of the shelf. Open products should remain in the front, and products with the longest expiration dates should be placed in the back.

To remain current on changes that are happening within the pharmacy profession, a pharmacy technician would read a(n):

professional practice journal. Explanation: Professional practice journals are the best source of current information on changes or developments within the pharmacy profession. They are "official" publications of pharmacy organizations like the National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA) or the American Association of Pharmacy Technicians (AAPT).

Non aqueous solutions often contain glycerin, alcohol, and

propylene glycol

The antidote for a heparin overdose is:

protamine. Explanation: Protamine is the antidote used for heparin overdose. Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic that is used for acetaminophen overdose. Enoxaparin is not an antidote but is a low-molecular-weight heparin.

A patient who is illiterate may have difficulty:

reading instructions and warnings on drug labels. Explanation: A patient who is illiterate is unable or has difficulty reading printed words. This means an illiterate patient may not be able to read a drug label, monograph, or other information related to a prescription. Because illiteracy is often a source of embarrassment to many people, pharmacy technicians should be tactful if they suspect a patient cannot read. For example, the pharmacy technician should ask the patient if he or she has any questions about a drug, even if he or she is refilling a prescription.

A pharmacy technician may support patients by:

recommending a reliable Web site where patients may find information. Explanation: It is the job of a pharmacy technician to offer patients support. This includes answering general questions about specific drugs and dosing as long as the answers do not require the pharmacy technician to make professional judgments. It is beyond the scope of the pharmacy technician to offer treatment advice to patients or to counsel patients on what to do. If a pharmacy technician is in doubt about something, he or she should always consult with the pharmacist.

A lyophilized drug packaged in a vial is added to an LVP solution by

reconstituting the lyophilized drug in the vial and adding it to the LVP

After checking in a new inventory order, the pharmacy technician should always:

rotate stock, placing the stock with the longest expiration date at the back of the shelves. Explanation: It is best to always rotate stock, placing stock with the longest expiration date at the back of the shelves and stock with the shortest expiration date at the front of the shelves. Often new stock will have the longest expiration, but that is not always the case. Pharmacy technicians most frequently are required to put inventory away, but some pharmacies may require pharmacists to handle certain controlled substances.

The process of reducing the number of microorganisms on the surface of an instrument or other piece of equipment is called:

sanitization Explanation: Sanitization is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms on the surface of an instrument or other piece of equipment to a safe level. For example, if an instrument has dirt or debris stuck to it, it must be sanitized by soaking it in a solution and then rinsing it in cold running water to remove the material. After this step, the instrument may then be disinfected or sterilized.

When repackaging oral medications for unit-dose, the expiration date given on the unit-dose packaging will most often be:

shorter than the expiration date on the bulk bottle due to handling and transfer to untested packaging. Explanation: When repackaging medications from a bulk bottle to unit-dose, the expiration date given on the unit-dose packaging is most often shorter than the expiration on the bulk bottle. This is due to handling, exposure to air, and transfer to packaging that has not been tested by the manufacturer for stability. Dating may vary according to facility, medication, and original shelf life.

Fluvoxamine and phenelzine:

should not be taken together. Explanation: Fluvoxamine and phenelzine should not be taken together. Fluvoxamine is a serotonin reuptake inhibitor, or SSRI, while phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. A person who takes these two drugs together, or even within two weeks of each other, could experience a hypertensive crisis, or an extreme elevation of blood pressure that could lead to a stroke.

An example of a potassium-sparing diuretic is:

spironolactone. Explanation: Spironolactone is a type of diuretic that does not cause the body to release excess potassium in the urine. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, and bumetanide and furosemide are loop diuretics. The thiazide and loop diuretics increase the secretion of water and salts such as potassium and sodium into the urine. This side effect may cause some patients to develop a deficiency of potassium called hypokalemia.

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are commonly known as:

statins Explanation: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are known as statins. HMG-CoA reductase is a key enzyme in a metabolic pathway in the liver and prevents the liver from forming cholesterol.

The final step in the drug ordering process is:

submitting the order. Explanation: The final step in the process for ordering drugs is submitting the order to the supplier either by telephone or the Internet. The first step on this process is generating the order using either an automated or manual system. The second and third steps are reviewing and confirming the order to make sure it is complete and accurate.

The blue diamond in the NFPA Diamond Hazard Sign indicates that a:

substance that may present a health risk is present. Explanation: The blue diamond in the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Diamond Sign indicates a substance is present that may be a health risk. The red diamond indicates flammability, the yellow indicates reactivity, and the white indicates a special hazard. Each diamond is assigned with a number from 0 to 5, with 0 having no hazard to 5 being the most hazardous.

Long-term use of Reglan in geriatric patients greatly increases the risk of developing:

tardive dyskinesia Explanation: It is well documented in the geriatric population that long-term use of Reglan can significantly increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia. This irreversible disorder is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, particularly in the mouth and jaw. Tardive dyskinesia can occur in any age group but is more pronounced in the elderly. Many antipsychotic medications can also produce tardive dyskinesia in patients.

The Federal Hazardous Substances Act is regulated by:

the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission. Explanation: The Federal Hazardous Substances Act is regulated by the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission. This act requires precautionary labeling on potentially hazardous substances.

The half-life of a drug is considered:

the amount of time it takes one half of the drug dose to clear the body.

The Controlled Substance Act requires a Schedule IV prescription to contain all of the following except:

the prescriber's NPI number. Explanation: The prescriber's National Provider Identification (NPI) number is not required by the Controlled Substance Act. The Controlled Substance Act requires that a prescription should have the patient's full name and address, as well as the DEA number of the prescriber.

In subcutaneous administration

the site of injection is often rotated

Consideration in determining the stability of compounded preparations include all of the following except

the time of day when the preparation is prepared

A medication error may involve

the wrong dosage form the wrong directions the wrong patient

The proper name for Vitamin B1 is:

thiamine. Explanation: Thiamine is the proper name for Vitamin B1. This water soluble vitamin is used in the metabolism of carbohydrates and can be found in foods like egg yolk, beef liver, beans, and fortified cereals and breads. The daily dietary reference intake (DRI) is 1.2 mg/day for men and 1.1 mg/day for women.

To help prevent medication errors, the NCCMERP recommends labels be read at least ____ times

three

A keratolytic drug would be administered:

topically. Explanation: Keratolytic drugs are applied topically to the skin and work by softening and destroying the outer layers of the skin, which contain the most keratin, and make the skin water repellent. For example, many over-the-counter wart removal and dandruff and acne treatment products contain salicylic acid, a keratolytic agent.

memantine

treat dementia associated with Alzheimer's disease

alendronate

treat or prevent osteoporosis

ibandronate

treat or prevent osteoporosis

The fine grinding of a powder is called

trituration

pioglitazone

type 2 diabetes

A hearing-impaired patient comes to the busy pharmacy to pick up a prescription. The pharmacy technician may enhance communication with this patient by doing all of the following except: A. write down questions or other information for the patient. B. use exaggerated gestures as an aid to verbal communication. C. speak in a slightly louder voice than usual. D. look directly at the patient while speaking to him.

use exaggerated gestures as an aid to verbal communication. Explanation: It is important to be respectful of the unique needs of all patients. Unless a pharmacy technician knows American Sign Language and can use it effectively, it may be considered offensive to use exaggerated gestures to augment communication.

Fluconazole is frequently used in the treatment of:

vaginal yeast infections. Explanation: Fluconazole, which is sold under the brand name Diflucan, is successful in the treatment of vaginal yeast infections caused by Candida. It is an antifungal drug that inhibits fungal cell cytochrome P450 enzymes which are required by fungal cells to produce ergosterol. Without ergosterol, fungal cells cannot metabolize, and they die.

Nitrostat is considered a(n):

vasodilator Explanation: Nitrostat, also known by the generic name nitroglycerin, is a vasodilator because it works to relax, or dilate, the smooth muscle walls of the blood vessel, allowing the flow of more oxygen. Patients who suffer from angina use nitroglycerin to ease pain or to prevent an attack from occurring. The usual route of administration is sublingual.

If a health-system pharmacy technician needs to deliver a stat IV to a room with posted airborne precautions, the technician should:

wait outside the room until the nurse can see the technician. Explanation: Airborne precautions are serious precautions that indicate an airborne pathogen, like tuberculosis, is in the room. Only those personnel who are properly trained and fitted for special respirator masks should enter the room. Surgical masks, gloves, and gowns are not effective by themselves in preventing exposure to airborne pathogens.

In relation to drug storage, a temperature that is between 30°C to 40°C is considered:

warm. Explanation: A temperature that ranges between 30°C to 40°C is considered warm. This range translates into 86°F to 104°F. Many drugs will lose their effectiveness of potency when stored in a room that is considered warm. Pharmacy technicians must be aware of the accepted guidelines for temperature ranges so they may store all drugs properly.

scope of practice

what individuals may and may not do in their jobs

A Schedule III medication must be ordered:

with all the other legend and OTC drugs. Explanation: Schedule III, IV, and V medications can be ordered as usual with the rest of the pharmacy drug stock without the use of any special forms. CII medications must be ordered using a DEA Form 222.

A retail pharmacy may file prescriptions for Schedule III drugs:

with regular prescriptions. Explanation: Unlike prescriptions for Schedule II drugs, prescriptions for Schedule III drugs do not have special filing restrictions and may be filed along with regular prescriptions. The pharmacy will generally mark them as controlled substances by writing a red "C" on the prescription form. Many pharmacies, however, decide to file all prescriptions for controlled substances together to expedite an audit should one occur.

Filter needles should be used when

withdrawing solution from an ampule

A pharmacy technician has just received a call from a prescriber's office that wishes to authorize refills on a patient's medication. The pharmacy is located in a state that allows technicians to contact prescribers to obtain refill authorization. The best action is to: A. take note of the prescription number and how many refills were authorized by the prescriber, then enter the information into the computer system. B. write down all the pertinent information regarding the patient, the prescription, and refills, then read back and confirm with the prescriber's office that the information is correct before ending the call. C. record the name and number of the prescriber, the prescriber's phone number, and the patient's name and prescription information, so a pharmacist may return the call when he or she is available. D. immediately transfer the call to a pharmacist because pharmacy technicians are never allowed to accept refill authorizations.

write down all the pertinent information regarding the patient, the prescription, and refills, then read back and confirm with the prescriber's office that the information is correct before ending the call. Explanation: Some, but not all, states allow a technician to take refill authorizations from a prescriber's office. It is important to take down all the information necessary, such as patient's name and date of birth, drug and strength, directions, any refills, and the prescriber's name and representative to whom you are speaking. Always read back and confirm all the information with the office before ending the call. Some states may forbid refill authorization by pharmacy technicians, so the technician must check all applicable laws before taking action.