3. A3 Unit 5 Chapter 62: Management of Patients with Cerebrovascular Disorders (Study)
Which term will the nurse use when referring to blindness in the right or left half of the visual field in both eyes?
2032 Homonymous hemianopsia Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors. Scotoma refers to a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Diplopia refers to double vision or the awareness of two images of the same object occurring in one or both eyes. Nystagmus refers to rhythmic, involuntary movements or oscillations of the eyes.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a stroke. Imaging studies indicate an embolus partially obstructing the right carotid artery. What type of stroke does the nurse know this client has?
2032 Ischemic Explanation: Ischemic strokes occur when a thrombus or embolus obstructs an artery carrying blood to the brain; about 80% of strokes are the ischemic variety. The other options are incorrect.
Which is the initial diagnostic test for a stroke?
2032 Noncontrast computed tomography Explanation: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is nonconstrast computed tomography performed emergently to determine whether the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic. Further diagnostics include a carotid Doppler, electrocardiogram, and transcranial Doppler.
A patient had a carotid endarterectomy yesterday and when the nurse arrived in the room to perform an assessment, the patient states, "All of a sudden, I am having trouble moving my right side." What concern should the nurse have about this complaint?
2032 A thrombus formation at the site of the endarterectomy Explanation: Formation of a thrombus at the site of the endarterectomy is suspected if there is a sudden new onset of neurologic deficits, such as weakness on one side of the body.
The provider diagnoses the patient as having had an ischemic stroke. The etiology of an ischemic stroke would include which of the following?
2032 Cardiogenic emboli Explanation: Aneurysms, hemorrhages, and malformations are all examples of a hemorrhagic stroke. An embolism can block blood flow, leading to ischemia.
A client diagnosed with a stroke is ordered to receive warfarin. Later, the nurse learns that the warfarin is contraindicated and the order is canceled. The nurse knows that the best alternative medication to give is
2032 aspirin. Explanation: If warfarin is contraindicated, aspirin is the best option, although other medications may be used if both are contraindicated.
The nurse is participating in a health fair for stroke prevention. Which will the nurse say is a modifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke?
4032 Smoking Explanation: Modifiable risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA) and ischemic stroke include hypertension, type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, smoking, and chronic alcoholism. Advanced age, gender, and race are nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke.
A healthcare provider orders several drugs for a client with hemorrhagic stroke. Which drug order should the nurse question?
Heparin sodium Explanation: Administering heparin, an anticoagulant, could increase the bleeding associated with hemorrhagic stroke. Therefore, the nurse should question this order to prevent additional hemorrhage in the brain. In a client with hemorrhagic stroke, the healthcare provider may use dexamethasone (Decadron) to decrease cerebral edema and pressure, methyldopa (Aldomet) to reduce blood pressure, and phenytoin (Dilantin) to prevent seizures.
An emergency department nurse is interviewing a client who is presenting with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 2 hours ago. The client reports a history of a cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago and is taking digoxin, warfarin, and labetalol. What factor poses a threat to the client for thrombolytic therapy?
International normalized ratio greater than 2 Explanation: The client is at risk for further bleeding if the international normalized ratio is greater than 2. Thrombolytic therapy must be initiated within 3 hours in clients with ischemic stroke. The client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy if she has had surgery within 14 days. Digoxin and labetalol do not prohibit thrombolytic therapy.
A client is admitted with weakness, expressive aphasia, and right hemianopia. The brain MRI reveals an infarct. The nurse understands these symptoms to be suggestive of which of the following findings?
Left-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Explanation: When the infarct is on the left side of the brain, the symptoms are likely to be on the right, and the speech is more likely to be involved. If the MRI reveals an infarct, TIA is no longer the diagnosis. There is not enough information to determine if the stroke is still evolving or is complete.
Which clinical manifestation would be exhibited by a client following a hemorrhagic stroke of the right hemisphere?
Neglect of the left side Explanation: This client would have deficits on the left side. Expressive aphasia typically occurs with left-hemisphere stroke.
A client is suspected of having had a stroke. Which is the initial diagnostic test for a stroke?
Page 2032-2035 Noncontrast computed tomography Explanation: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is usually a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan. This should be performed within 25 minutes or less from the time the client presents to the ED to determine whether the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic (the category of stroke determines treatment). Further diagnostics include a carotid Doppler, electrocardiogram, and transcranial Doppler.
How often should neurologic assessments and vital signs be taken initially for the patient receiving tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Page 2037 Every 15 minutes Explanation: Neurological assessment and vital signs (except temperature) should be taken every 15 minutes initially while the patient is receiving tPA infusion.
A client undergoes cerebral angiography for evaluation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which findings indicate spasm or occlusion of a cerebral vessel by a clot?
2052 Hemiplegia, seizures, and decreased level of consciousness Explanation: Spasm or occlusion of a cerebral vessel by a clot causes signs and symptoms similar to those of a stroke: hemiplegia, seizures, decreased level of consciousness, aphasia, hemiparesis, and increased focal symptoms. Nausea, vomiting, and profuse sweating suggest a delayed reaction to the contrast medium used in cerebral angiography. Difficulty breathing or swallowing may signal a hematoma in the neck. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension suggest internal hemorrhage.
The nurse is caring for a patient having a hemorrhagic stroke. What position in the bed will the nurse maintain this patient?
2052 Semi-Fowler's Explanation: The head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees (semi-Fowler's position) to promote venous drainage and decrease intracranial pressure.
The nurse practitioner advises a patient who is at high risk for a stroke to be vigilant in his medication regimen, to maintain a healthy weight, and to adopt a reasonable exercise program. This advice is based on research data that shows the most important risk factor for stroke is:
Hypertension Explanation: Hypertension is the most modifiable risk factor for either ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. Unfortunately, it remains under-recognized and undertreated in most communities.
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the lower motor neurons of the brain. Which of the following deficits would the nurse expect during assessment?
Lack of deep tendon reflexes Explanation: Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia. If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and lack of motivation. Damage to the lower motor neurons may cause decreased muscle tone, flaccid muscle paralysis, and a decrease in or loss of reflexes.
Thrombolytic therapy should be initiated within what time frame of an ischemic stroke to achieve the best functional outcome?
p. 2032. 3 hours Explanation: Rapid diagnosis of stroke and initiation of thrombolytic therapy (within 3 hours) in clients with ischemic stroke lead to a decrease in the size of the stroke and an overall improvement in functional outcome after 3 months.
The nurse recognizes health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle, including
2032 a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet and increased exercise. Explanation: Health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle, including a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet and increased exercise. Recent evidence suggests that eating fish two or more times per week reduces the risk of thrombotic stroke for women.
A patient is admitted via ambulance to the emergency room of a stroke center at 1:30 p.m. with symptoms that the patient said began at 1:00 p.m. Within 1 hour, an ischemic stroke had been confirmed and the doctor ordered tPA. The nurse knows to give this drug no later than what time?
2032 4:00 p.m. Explanation: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be given within 3 hours after symptom onset. Therefore, since symptom onset was 1:00 pm, the window of opportunity ends at 4:00 pm.
While providing information to a community group, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are:
2032 Severe headache and early change in level of consciousness Explanation: The main presenting symptoms for ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body, confusion or change in mental status, and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Foot drop and external hip rotation can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly.
A nurse is teaching a community class that those experiencing symptoms of ischemic stroke need to enter the medical system early. The primary reason for this is which of the following?
2032 Thrombolytic therapy has a time window of only 3 hours. Explanation: Currently approved thrombolytic therapy for ischemic strokes has a treatment window of only 3 hours after the onset of symptoms. Urgency is needed on the part of the public for rapid entry into the medical system. The other three choices are related to hemorrhagic strokes.
A nurse is reading a journal article about stroke and the underlying causes associated with this condition. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the information when identifying which subtype of stroke as being due to atrial fibrillation?
2032 cardio embolic Explanation: Ischemic strokes are further divided into five subtypes, according to a mechanism-based classification system: large-artery thrombotic strokes (representing 20% of ischemic strokes); small, penetrating artery thrombotic strokes (25%); cardio embolic strokes (20%); cryptogenic strokes (strokes that cannot be attributed to any specific cause) (30%); and "other" (5%). Large-artery thrombotic strokes are caused by atherosclerotic plaques in the large blood vessels of the brain. Thrombus formation and occlusion can occur at the site of the atherosclerosis and result in ischemia and infarction (tissue death). Small, penetrating artery thrombotic strokes that affect one or more vessels and cause reduced blood flow are the most common type of ischemic stroke, typically caused by longstanding hypertension, hyperlipidemia, or diabetes. Cardio embolic strokes are associated with cardiac dysrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, but can also be associated with valvular heart disease or left ventricular thrombus. The last two classifications of ischemic strokes are cryptogenic strokes, which have no identified cause, and strokes from other causes, such as illicit drug use (cocaine), coagulopathies, migraine, or spontaneous dissection of the carotid or vertebral arteries.
A client has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the client will be unable to perform which action?
2032-2033 Form words that are understandable or comprehend spoken words Explanation: Global aphasia is a combination of expressive and receptive aphasia and presents a tremendous challenge to the nurse to effectively communicate with the client. In receptive and expressive aphasia, the client is unable to form words that are understandable. The client who is unable to speak at all is referred to as mute.
Which term refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis?
2032-2033 Apraxia Explanation: Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact. Agnosia is a failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity or word or phrase that is no longer appropriate.
Which term refers to the failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses?
2032-2033 Agnosia Explanation: Auditory agnosia is failure to recognize significance of sounds. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Apraxia refers to an inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity, word, or phrase that is no longer appropriate.
The nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia. Which intervention would be contraindicated while caring for this client?
2032-2034 Placing food on the affected side of the mouth Explanation: Interventions for dysphagia include placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth, allowing ample time to eat, assisting the client with meals, and testing the client's gag reflex before offering food or fluids.
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the frontal lobe of his brain. Which of the following deficits does the nurse expect to observe during assessment?
2033 Limited attention span and forgetfulness Explanation: Damage to the frontal lobe may impair learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and a lack of motivation. Damage to the motor neurons may cause hemiparesis, hemiplegia, and a change in reflexes. Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia.
A family member brings the client to the clinic for a follow-up visit after a stroke. The family member asks the nurse what he can do to decrease his chance of having another stroke. What would be the nurse's best answer?
2035 "Stop smoking as soon as possible." Explanation: Smoking is a modifiable and highly significant risk factor for stroke. The significance of smoking, and the potential benefits of quitting, exceed the roles of sodium, diet, and regular medical assessments.
What clinical manifestations does the nurse recognize when a patient has had a right hemispheric stroke?
2035 Left visual field deficit Explanation: A left visual field deficit is a common clinical manifestation of a right hemispheric stroke. Aphasia, slow, cautious behavior, and altered intellectual ability are all clinical manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke.
Which of the following is the initial diagnostic in suspected stroke?
2035 Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) Explanation: An initial head CT scan will determine whether or not the patient is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke. An ischemic infarction will not be readily visible on initial CT scan if it is performed within the first few hours after symptoms onset; however, evidence of bleeding will almost always be visible.
A client is hospitalized when presenting to the emergency department with right-sided weakness. Within 6 hours of being admitted, the neurologic deficits had resolved and the client was back to his presymptomatic state. The nurse caring for the client knows that the probable cause of the neurologic deficit was what?
2035 Transient ischemic attack Explanation: A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a sudden, brief attack of neurologic impairment caused by a temporary interruption in cerebral blood flow. Symptoms may disappear within 1 hour; some continue for as long as 1 day. When the symptoms terminate, the client resumes his or her presymptomatic state. The symptoms do not describe a left- or right-sided stroke or a cerebral aneurysm.
A client who has experienced an initial transient ischemic attack (TIA) states: "I'm glad it wasn't anything serious." Which is the best nursing response to this statement?
2035 "TIA is a warning sign. Let's talk about lowering your risks." Explanation: TIA is a warning sign and can be used to empower clients to make life changes to lower the risks. Sensing the client is happy is a psychotherapeutic response but does not lead to teaching and learning for health promotion. TIAs can lead to a stroke for approximately one third of the clients but is not a definitive result and presents as a frightening statement without empowering change. TIA symptoms are short-lived, but this is a factual statement that does not provide additional information to the client.
A 154-pound woman has been prescribed tPA (0.9 mg/kg) for an ischemic stroke. The nurse knows to give how many mg initially?
2037 6.3 mg Explanation: A person who weighs 154 lbs weighs 70 kg. To calculate total dosage, multiply 70 × 0.9 mg/kg = 63 mg. Ten percent of the calculated dose is given as an IV bolus over 1 minute. The remaining dose (90%) is given IV over 1 hour via an infusion pump. So initially the nurse gives 10% (6.3 mg) over 1 minute.
Which of the following is the most common side effect of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
2037 Bleeding Explanation: Bleeding is the most common side effect of tPA. The patient is closely monitored for bleeding (at IV insertion sites, gums, urine/stools, and intracranially by assessing changes in level of consciousness). Headache, increased ICP, and hypertension are not side effects of tPA
A client is receiving an IV infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To confirm that this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?
2037 Increased urine output Explanation: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.
A diagnostic test has determined that the appropriate diet for the client with a left cerebrovascular accident (CVA) should include thickened liquids. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
2041 Impaired Swallowing was evident on the video fluoroscopy. Aspiration, Malnutrition, and Decreased Fluid Volume Risk can occur but are not the primary diagnosis at this point in time.
When should the nurse plan the rehabilitation of a patient who is having an ischemic stroke?
2041 The day the patient has the stroke Explanation: Although rehabilitation begins on the day the patient has the stroke, the process is intensified during convalescence and requires a coordinated team effort.
A patient is in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke. How long does the nurse know that this phase may last?
2044 1 to 3 days Explanation: The acute phase of an ischemic stroke may last 1 to 3 days, but ongoing monitoring of all body systems is essential as long as the patient requires care.
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
2045 Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time." Explanation: This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
2045 "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time." Explanation: This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
A nurse in a rehabilitation facility is coordinating the discharge of a client who is tetraplegic. The client, who is married and has two children in high school, is being discharged to home and will require much assistance. Who would the discharge planner recognize as being the most important member of this client's care team?
2047 spouse Explanation: The client's spouse and family would need to be involved in the everyday care of the client; without their support, it is unlikely that the client would be able to manage at home.
Which is a contraindication for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)?
2048 Intracranial hemorrhage Explanation: Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, and aneurysm are contraindications for t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, age 18 years or older, and a systolic blood pressure less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse recognizes that which intervention is most important?
2048 Maintaining a patent airway Explanation: Maintaining the airway is the most important nursing intervention. Immediate complications of a hemorrhagic stroke include cerebral hypoxia, decreased cerebral blood flow, and extension of the area of injury. Providing adequate oxygenation of blood to the brain minimizes cerebral hypoxia. Brain function depends on delivery of oxygen to the tissues. Administering supplemental oxygen and maintaining hemoglobin and hematocrit at acceptable levels will assist in maintaining tissue oxygenation. All other interventions are appropriate, but the airway takes priority. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 degrees, monitoring the client because of the risk for seizures, and stool softeners are recommended to prevent constipation and straining, but these are not the most important interventions.
A patient is exhibiting classic signs of a Hemorrhagic stroke. What complaint from the patient would be an indicator of this type of stroke?
2049 Severe headache Explanation: The patient with a hemorrhagic stroke can present with a wide variety of neurologic deficits, similar to the patient with ischemic stroke. The conscious patient most commonly reports a severe headache.
The geriatric advanced practice nurse (APN) is doing client teaching with a client who has had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and the client's family. One concern the APN addresses is a potential for falls related to the CVA and resulting muscle weakness. What would be most important for the APN to include in teaching related to this concern?
Remove throw rugs and electrical cords from home environment. Explanation: Client and family teaching is essential and focuses on the following points: Remove throw rugs, clutter, and electrical cords from the client's home environment to reduce the potential for falls. Although the other interventions may be appropriate, they are not as directly related to reducing fall risk.
After the patient has received tPA, the nurse knows to check vital signs every 30 minutes for 6 hours. Which of the following readings would require calling the provider?
p. 2037 Diastolic pressure of 110 mm Hg A diastolic pressure reading of over 105 mm Hg warrants notifying the health care provider. The other choices are within normal range.
