331 11-13
With cross-sourcing, how many suppliers provide each component on a regular basis (i.e., excluding backup suppliers)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) equal to the total number of components E) equal to the number of countries to which the final product is sold
A) 1
Which of the following is a primary supplier selection criterion for a firm pursuing a differentiation strategy? A) product development skills B) cost C) capacity D) speed E) flexibility
A) product development skills
Warehouses sometimes perform certain other functions besides storing goods. Which of the following is NOT typically one of those functions? A) purchasing B) postponement C) break-bulk activities D) consolidation point E) cross-docking
A) purchasing
Which of the following is NOT one of the five parts of the Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) model? A) Make B) Sell C) Plan D) Source E) Return
B) Sell
ABC analysis is based upon the principle that: A) all items in inventory must be monitored very closely. B) there are usually a few critical items, and many items that are less critical. C) an item is critical if its usage is high. D) more time should be spent on class "C" items because there are many more of them. E) as with grade distributions in many MBA courses, there should be more medium-level "B" items than either "A" or "C" items.
B) there are usually a few critical items, and many items that are less critical.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a virtual company? A) speed B) total control over every aspect of the organization C) specialized management expertise D) low capital investment E) flexibility
B) total control over every aspect of the organization
For a certain item, the cost-minimizing order quantity obtained with the basic EOQ model is 200 units, and the total annual inventory (carrying and setup) cost is $600. What is the inventory carrying cost per unit per year for this item? A) $1.50 B) $2.00 C) $3.00 D) $150.00 E) not enough data to determine
C) $3.00
The Institute for Supply Management: A) establishes laws and regulations for supply management. B) is an agency of the United Nations charged with promoting ethical conduct globally. C) publishes the principles and standards for ethical supply management conduct. D) prohibits backward integration into developing economies. E) grants Ph.D. degrees in purchasing.
C) publishes the principles and standards for ethical supply management conduct
Among which of the following industries are purchasing costs the LOWEST percentage of sales? A) automobiles B) petroleum C) restaurants D) lumber E) chemicals
C) restaurants
The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model are: A) timing of orders and cost of orders. B) order quantity and cost of orders. C) timing of orders and order quantity. D) order quantity and service level. E) ordering cost and carrying cost.
C) timing of orders and order quantity.
Most inventory models attempt to minimize: A) the likelihood of a stockout. B) the number of items ordered. C) total inventory-based costs. D) the number of orders placed. E) the safety stock.
C) total inventory-based costs.
A disadvantage of the "few suppliers" sourcing strategy is: A) the risk of not being ready for technological change. B) the lack of cost savings for customers and suppliers. C) possible violations of the Sherman Antitrust Act. D) the high cost of changing partners. E) the suppliers are less likely to understand the broad objectives of the procuring firm and the end customer.
D) the high cost of changing partners.
Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories? A) to decouple various parts of the production process B) to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand C) to take advantage of quantity discounts D) to minimize holding costs E) to hedge against inflation
D) to minimize holding costs
What is the primary purpose of the basic economic order quantity model shown below? Q* = Sqrt.(2DS/H) A) to calculate the reorder point, so that replenishments take place at the proper time B) to minimize the sum of carrying cost and holding cost C) to maximize the customer service level D) to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost E) to calculate the optimum safety stock
D) to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost
When quantity discounts are allowed, the cost-minimizing order quantity: A) is always an EOQ quantity. B) minimizes the sum of holding and ordering costs. C) minimizes the unit purchase price. D) may be a quantity below that at which one qualifies for that price. E) minimizes the sum of holding, ordering, and product costs.
E) minimizes the sum of holding, ordering, and product costs.
Which category of inventory holding costs has a much higher percentage than average for rapid-change industries such as PCs and cell phones? A) housing costs B) material handling costs C) labor cost D) investment costs E) pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
E) pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
Which of the following is an advantage of the postponement technique? A) reduction in automation B) early customization of the product C) better quality of the product D) reduction in training costs E) reduction in inventory investment
E) reduction in inventory investment
Consider a firm with an annual net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the balance sheet amounts show $2 million of inventory and $500,000 of property, plant & equipment, what is the inventory turnover? A) 12.50 B) 10.00 C) 42.00 D) 4.16 E) 20.00
A) 12.50
What term describes a supply chain that is designed to optimize both forward and reverse flows? A) closed-loop supply chain B) full-journey supply chain C) circular supply chain D) network supply chain E) recycled supply chain
A) closed-loop supply chain
What type of negotiating strategy requires the supplier to open its books to the purchasers? A) cost-based price model B) market-based price model C) competitive bidding D) price-based model E) transparent negotiations
A) cost-based price model
In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will: A) increase by about 41%. B) increase by 100%. C) increase by 200%. D) increase, but more data is needed to say by how much. E) either increase or decrease.
A) increase by about 41%.
Local optimization is a supply-chain complication best described as: A) optimizing one's local area without full knowledge of supply chain needs. B) obtaining very high production efficiency in a decentralized supply chain. C) the prerequisite of global optimization. D) the result of supply chains built on suppliers with compatible corporate cultures. E) the opposite of the bullwhip effect.
A) optimizing one's local area without full knowledge of supply chain needs.
What is the practice of keeping a product generic as long as possible before customizing? A) postponement B) keiretsu C) vendor-managed inventory D) forward integration E) backward integration
A) postponement
By which distribution system is more than 90 percent of U.S. coal shipped? A) railroads B) trucks C) waterways D) pipelines E) none of the above
A) railroads
What are the four stages of supplier selection? A) supplier evaluation, supplier development, negotiations, and contracting B) supplier evaluation, negotiations, supplier acquisition, and supplier development C) introduction, growth, maturity, and decline D) supplier evaluation, supplier development, negotiations, and centralized purchasing E) negotiations, contracting, centralized purchasing, and E-procurement
A) supplier evaluation, supplier development, negotiations, and contracting
Distribution management focuses on which of the following? A) the outbound flow of products B) incoming materials C) allocation of demand among suppliers D) setting dividend rates E) balancing an assembly line
A) the outbound flow of products
A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The EOQ model is appropriate. The cost-minimizing solution for this product will cost ________ per year in total annual inventory (holding and setup) costs. A) $400 B) $800 C) $1200 D) Zero; this is a class C item. E) Cannot be determined because the unit price is not known.
B) $800
A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The cost-minimizing solution for this product is to order: A) all 4000 units at one time. B) 200 units per order. C) every 20 days. D) 10 times per year. E) none of the above
B) 200 units per order.
A production order quantity problem has a daily demand rate = 10 and a daily production rate = 50. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately 612 units. What is the average inventory for this problem? A) 61 B) 245 C) 300 D) 306 E) 490
B) 245
An inventory decision rule states, "When the inventory level goes down to 14 gearboxes, 100 gearboxes will be ordered." Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) One hundred is the reorder point, and 14 is the order quantity. B) Fourteen is the reorder point, and 100 is the order quantity. C) The number 100 is a function of demand during lead time. D) Fourteen is the safety stock, and 100 is the reorder point. E) None of the above is true.
B) Fourteen is the reorder point, and 100 is the order quantity.
Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is TRUE? A) It applies only to items produced in the firm's own production departments. B) It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time. C) It relaxes the assumption that the demand rate is constant. D) It minimizes the total production costs. E) It minimizes inventory.
B) It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.
Which of the following statements regarding Amazon.com is FALSE? A) The company was opened by Jeff Bezos in 1995. B) The company was founded as, and still is, a "virtual" retailer with no inventory. C) The company is now a world-class leader in warehouse automation and management. D) The company uses both United Parcel Service and the U.S. Postal Service as shippers. E) Amazon obtains its competitive advantage through inventory management.
B) The company was founded as, and still is, a "virtual" retailer with no inventory.
Vertical integration appears particularly advantageous when the organization has: A) a very specialized product. B) a large market share. C) a very common, undifferentiated product. D) little experience operating an acquired vendor. E) purchases that are a relatively small percent of sales.
B) a large market share.
A furniture maker has delivered a dining set directly to the end consumer rather than to the furniture store. The furniture maker is practicing which of the following? A) postponement B) drop shipping C) channel assembly D) passing the buck E) float reduction
B) drop shipping
Cycle counting: A) is a process by which inventory records are verified once a year. B) eliminates annual inventory adjustments. C) provides a measure of inventory turnover. D) assumes that all inventory records must be verified with the same frequency. E) assumes that the most frequently used items must be counted more frequently.
B) eliminates annual inventory adjustments.
A rice mill in south Louisiana purchases the trucking firm that transports packaged rice to distributors. This is an example of which of the following? A) horizontal integration B) forward integration C) backward integration D) current transformation E) keiretsu
B) forward integration
A product whose EOQ is 400 units experiences a 50% increase in demand. The new EOQ is: A) unchanged. B) increased by less than 50%. C) increased by 50%. D) increased by more than 50%. E) cannot be determined
B) increased by less than 50%
E-procurement: A) works best in long-term contract situations but is not suited for auctions. B) is the same thing as Internet purchasing. C) has many benefits but requires a lot of paperwork. D) is illegal in all states except Nevada and New Jersey. E) All of the above are true of e-procurement.
B) is the same thing as Internet purchasing.
Japanese manufacturers often pursue a strategy that is part collaboration, part purchasing from a few suppliers, and part vertical integration. What is this approach called? A) kanban B) keiretsu C) samurai D) poka-yoke E) kaizen
B) keiretsu
Which sourcing strategy is particularly common when the products being sourced are commodities? A) few suppliers B) many suppliers C) keiretsu D) vertical integration E) virtual companies
B) many suppliers
A product whose EOQ is 40 units experiences a decrease in ordering cost from $90 per order to $10 per order. The revised EOQ is: A) three times as large. B) one-third as large. C) nine times as large. D) one-ninth as large. E) cannot be determined
B) one-third as large.
In most manufacturing industries, which of the following would likely represent the largest cost to the firm? A) transportation B) purchasing C) insurance D) financing E) advertising
B) purchasing
Designing distribution networks to meet customer expectations suggests what three criteria? A) rapid response, service, and cost B) rapid response, product choice, and service C) product choice, cost, and service D) cost, process choice, and service E) rapid response, cost, and process choice
B) rapid response, product choice, and service
A restaurant runs a special promotion on lobster and plans to sell twice as many lobsters as usual. When this large order is sent to the distributor, the distributor assumes the large size is a trend, not a one-time event. The distributor therefore places an even larger order with the lobsterman. This behavior is the result of which of the following? A) double marginalization B) the bullwhip effect C) CPFR D) postponement E) vendor-managed inventory
B) the bullwhip effect
A certain type of computer costs $1,000, and the annual holding cost is 25% of the value of the item. Annual demand is 10,000 units, and the order cost is $150 per order. What is the approximate economic order quantity? A) 16 B) 70 C) 110 D) 183 E) 600
C) 110
In the basic EOQ model, if D = 6000 per year, S = $100, and holding cost = $5 per unit per month, what is the economic order quantity? A) 24 B) 100 C) 141 D) 490 E) 600
C) 141
The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is $12 per unit per year, the daily demand rate is 10 and the daily production rate is 100. What is the production order quantity for this problem? A) 139 B) 174 C) 184 D) 365 E) 548
C) 184
In what type of auction does a buyer initiate the process by submitting a description of the desired product or service? A) traditional B) buyer C) Dutch D) French E) Mexican
C) Dutch
Which of the following statements regarding control of service inventories is TRUE? A) Service inventory is a fictional concept, because services are intangible. B) Service inventory needs no safety stock, because there's no such thing as a service stockout. C) Effective control of all goods leaving the facility is one applicable technique. D) Service inventory has carrying costs but no setup costs. E) Good personnel selection, training, and discipline are easy.
C) Effective control of all goods leaving the facility is one applicable technique.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the leverage of supply chain savings? A) Supply chain leverage is about the same for all industries. B) Supply chain savings exert more leverage as the firm's purchases are a smaller percent of sales. C) Supply chain savings exert more leverage as the firm's net profit margin decreases. D) Supply chain leverage depends only upon the percent of sales spent in the supply chain. E) None of the above is true.
C) Supply chain savings exert more leverage as the firm's net profit margin decreases.
Which one of the following distribution systems offers speed and reliability when emergency supplies are needed overseas? A) trucking B) railroads C) airfreight D) waterways E) pipelines
C) airfreight
A fried chicken fast-food chain that acquired feed mills and poultry farms has performed which of the following? A) horizontal integration B) forward integration C) backward integration D) current transformation E) job expansion
C) backward integration
Which of the following describes using one supplier for a component and a second supplier for another component, where each supplier acts as a backup for the other? A) outsourcing B) dual-sourcing C) cross-sourcing D) backup-sourcing E) parallel-sourcing
C) cross-sourcing
What three logistics-related costs are relevant when analyzing the choice of number of facilities in a distribution network? A) inventory costs, production costs, and transportation costs B) inventory costs, production costs, and facility costs C) inventory costs, transportation costs, and facility costs D) facility costs, production costs, and transportation costs E) facility costs, inventory costs, and marketing costs
C) inventory costs, transportation costs, and facility costs
If the actual order quantity is the economic order quantity in a problem that meets the assumptions of the economic order quantity model shown below, the average amount of inventory on hand: Q* = Sqrt.(2DS/H) A) is smaller than the holding cost per unit. B) is zero. C) is one-half of the economic order quantity. D) is affected by the amount of product cost. E) goes down if the holding cost per unit goes down.
C) is one-half of the economic order quantity.
When Daimler and BMW pooled resources to develop standardized auto components, the sourcing strategy could best be described by which of the following? A) keiretsu B) virtual companies C) joint venture D) vertical integration E) few suppliers
C) joint venture
The Japanese concept of a company coalition of suppliers is: A) poka-yoke. B) kaizen. C) keiretsu. D) dim sum. E) illegal.
C) keiretsu.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the "few suppliers" sourcing strategy? A) suppliers have a learning curve that yields lower transaction and production costs B) suppliers are more likely to understand the broad objectives of the end customer C) less vulnerable trade secrets D) creation of value by allowing suppliers to have economies of scale E) suppliers' willingness to provide technological expertise
C) less vulnerable trade secrets
Drop shipping: A) is equivalent to cross-docking. B) is the opposite of a blanket order. C) means the supplier will ship directly to the end consumer, rather than to the seller. D) is the same thing as keiretsu. E) is a good reason to find a new firm to ship your products.
C) means the supplier will ship directly to the end consumer, rather than to the seller.
Which of the following best describes vertical integration? A) sell products to a supplier or a distributor B) develop the ability to produce products that complement the original product C) produce goods or services previously purchased D) develop the ability to produce the specified good more efficiently than before E) build long-term partnerships with a few suppliers
C) produce goods or services previously purchased
Which of the following statements about ABC analysis is FALSE? A) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that controlling the few most important items produces the vast majority of inventory savings. B) In ABC analysis, "A" items should have tighter physical inventory control than "B" or "C" items have. C) In ABC analysis, forecasting methods for "C" items may be less sophisticated than for "A" items. D) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that all items must be tightly controlled to produce important cost savings. E) Criteria other than annual dollar volume, such as high holding cost or delivery problems, can determine item classification in ABC analysis.
D) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that all items must be tightly controlled to produce important cost savings.
All EXCEPT which of the following statements about ABC analysis are true? A) In ABC analysis, inventory may be categorized by measures other than dollar volume. B) ABC analysis categorizes on-hand inventory into three groups based on annual dollar volume. C) ABC analysis is an application of the Pareto principle. D) ABC analysis suggests that all items require the same high degree of control. E) ABC analysis suggests that there are the critical few and the trivial many inventory items.
D) ABC analysis suggests that all items require the same high degree of control.
Which of these statements about the production order quantity model is FALSE? A) The production order quantity model is appropriate when the assumptions of the basic EOQ model are met, except that receipt is noninstantaneous. B) Because receipt is noninstantaneous, some units are used immediately and not stored in inventory. C) Average inventory is less than one-half of the production order quantity. D) All else equal, the smaller the ratio of demand rate to production rate, the larger is the production order quantity. E) None of the above is false.
D) All else equal, the smaller the ratio of demand rate to production rate, the larger is the production order quantity.
Outsourcing: A) transfers traditional internal activities to outside vendors. B) utilizes the efficiency that comes with specialization. C) allows the outsourcing firm to focus on its key success factors. D) All of the above are true of outsourcing. E) None of the above is true of outsourcing.
D) All of the above are true of outsourcing.
Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is FALSE? A) If the setup cost were to decrease, the EOQ would fall. B) If annual demand were to double, the number of orders per year would increase. C) If the ordering cost were to increase, the EOQ would rise. D) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would also double. E) All of the above statements are true.
D) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would also double.
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the economic order quantity model shown below? Q* = Sqrt.(2DS/H) A) Demand is known, constant, and independent. B) Lead time is known and constant. C) Quantity discounts are not possible. D) Production and use can occur simultaneously. E) The only variable costs are setup cost and holding (or carrying) cost.
D) Production and use can occur simultaneously.
Which of the following is NOT true about reverse logistics as compared to forward logistics? A) Inventory management is not consistent. B) Distribution costs are less directly visible. C) Pricing is dependent upon many factors. D) Speed is often very important. E) Forecasting is more uncertain.
D) Speed is often very important.
Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is FALSE? A) The cost-minimizing solution may or may not be where annual holding costs equal annual ordering costs. B) In inventory management, item cost becomes relevant to order quantity decisions when a quantity discount is available. C) If carrying costs are expressed as a percentage of value, EOQ is larger at each lower price in the discount schedule. D) The larger the annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be. E) The smaller the ordering cost, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
D) The larger the annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
As the number of facilities increases, total logistics costs tend to follow a curve that first declines, then rises. Why? A) Transportation and inventory costs first decline steeply, then rise, while facility costs always rise. B) Transportation costs always decline, but eventually the rise in facility and inventory costs outweigh the declining transportation costs. C) Facility costs first decline steeply, then rise, while transportation and inventory costs always rise. D) Transportation costs first decline steeply, then rise, while facility and inventory costs always rise. E) Inventory costs first decline steeply, then rise, while transportation and facility costs always rise.
D) Transportation costs first decline steeply, then rise, while facility and inventory costs always rise
Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it: A) makes the annual physical inventory more acceptable to management. B) does not require the detailed records necessary when annual physical inventory is used. C) does not require highly trained people. D) allows more rapid identification of errors and consequent remedial action than is possible with annual physical inventory. E) does not need to be performed for less expensive items.
D) allows more rapid identification of errors and consequent remedial action than is possible with annual physical inventory.
What are the three classic types of negotiation strategies? A) supplier evaluation, supplier development, and supplier selection B) Theory X, Theory Y, and Theory Z C) many suppliers, few suppliers, and keiretsu D) cost-based price model, market-based price model, and competitive bidding E) traditional auctions, reverse auctions, and online exchanges
D) cost-based price model, market-based price model, and competitive bidding
A carpet manufacturer has delivered carpet directly to the end consumer rather than to the carpet dealer. The carpet manufacturer is practicing which of the following? A) postponement B) cross-docking C) channel assembly D) drop shipping E) float reduction
D) drop shipping
Which of the following is NOT an opportunity for effective management in the supply chain? A) accurate "pull" data B) vendor-managed inventory C) postponement D) local optimization E) CPFR
D) local optimization
The transfer of some of what are traditional internal activities and resources of a firm to outside vendors is: A) a standard use of the make-or-buy decision. B) not allowed by the ethics code of the Supply Management Institute. C) offshoring. D) outsourcing. E) keiretsu.
D) outsourcing
Hewlett-Packard withholds customization of its laser printers as long as possible. This is an example of which of the following? A) vendor-managed inventory B) standardization C) backward integration D) postponement E) timely customization
D) postponement
Which of the following is NOT a typical benefit of centralized purchasing? A) leverage purchase volume for better pricing B) develop specialized staff expertise C) reduce the duplication of tasks D) reduce lead times E) promote standardization
D) reduce lead times
Which of the following characteristics is NOT common to all four of Darden Restaurants' supply channels? A) supplier qualification B) product tracking C) independent audits D) refrigeration E) just-in-time delivery
D) refrigeration
Which of the following is NOT one of the risk mitigation tactics for the supply chain risk category of suppliers failing to deliver? A) use multiple suppliers B) effective contracts with penalties C) subcontractors on retainer D) require overnight delivery E) pre-planning
D) require overnight delivery
Which of the following is NOT one of the four main types of inventory? A) raw material inventory B) work-in-process inventory C) maintenance/repair/operating supply inventory D) safety stock inventory E) finished-goods inventory
D) safety stock inventory
Which one of the following is NOT one of the six sourcing strategies? A) negotiation with many suppliers B) vertical integration C) keiretsu D) short-term relationships with few suppliers E) virtual companies
D) short-term relationships with few suppliers
Which of the following is NOT a condition that favors the success of vertical integration? A) availability of capital B) availability of managerial talent C) sufficiently high demand D) small market share E) All of the above favor the success of vertical integration.
D) small market share
While freight rates are often based on very complicated pricing systems, in general, the primary freight price factor is based on which of the following attributes? A) damage record B) on-time delivery C) door-to-door service D) speed of shipment E) consolidation capabilities
D) speed of shipment
Consider a firm with an annual net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the balance sheet amounts show $2 million of inventory and $500,000 of property, plant & equipment, how many weeks of supply does the firm hold? A) 12.50 B) 5.20 C) 2.60 D) 0.08 E) 4.16
E) 4.16
Which of the following is an element of inventory holding costs? A) housing costs B) material handling costs C) investment costs D) pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence E) All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.
E) All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.
Which of the following is a function of inventory? A) to decouple various parts of the production process B) to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand C) to take advantage of quantity discounts D) to hedge against inflation E) All of the above are functions of inventory.
E) All of the above are functions of inventory.
In supply chain management, ethical issues: A) are particularly important because of the enormous opportunities for abuse. B) may be guided by company rules and codes of conduct. C) become more complex the more global is the supply chain. D) may be guided by the principles and standards of the Institute for Supply Management. E) All of the above are true.
E) All of the above are true.
The bullwhip effect: A) occurs as orders are relayed from retailers to distributors to wholesalers to manufacturers. B) results in increasing fluctuations at each step of the sequence. C) increases the costs associated with inventory in the supply chain. D) occurs because of distortions in information in the supply chain. E) All of the above are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Which of the following statements regarding the reorder point is TRUE? A) The reorder point is that quantity that triggers an action to restock an item. B) There is a reorder point even if lead time and demand during lead time are constant. C) The reorder point is larger than d × L if safety stock is present. D) A shorter lead time implies a smaller reorder point. E) All of the above are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Which of the following would NOT be subject to negotiation between a buyer and supplier? A) price B) credit and delivery terms C) quality standards D) cooperative advertising agreements E) All of the above could be negotiated.
E) All of the above could be negotiated
Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is TRUE? A) If the ordering cost were to double, the EOQ would rise. B) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would increase. C) If the carrying cost were to increase, the EOQ would fall. D) If annual demand were to double, the number of orders per year would increase. E) All of the above statements are true.
E) All of the above statements are true.
If the standard deviation of demand is six per week, demand is 50 per week, and the desired service level is 95%, approximately what is the statistical safety stock? A) 8 units B) 10 units C) 16 units D) 64 units E) Cannot be determined without lead time data.
E) Cannot be determined without lead time data.
Which of the following devices represents an opportunity for technology to improve security of container shipments? A) devices that identify truck and container location B) devices that sense motion C) devices that measure radiation or temperature D) devices that can communicate the breaking of a container lock or seal E) all of the above
E) all of the above
ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, generally based upon which of the following? A) item quality B) unit price C) the number of units on hand D) annual demand E) annual dollar volume
E) annual dollar volume
Which of the following would NOT typically be considered as part of a manufacturing firm's supply chain? A) suppliers B) distributors C) wholesalers D) retailers E) landscaping contractors
E) landscaping contractors
All EXCEPT which of the following are "opportunities" in managing the integrated supply chain? A) postponement B) drop shipping C) blanket orders D) standardization E) line balancing
E) line balancing
For which corporate strategy(ies) should supply chain inventory be minimized? A) low cost B) response C) differentiation D) low cost and response E) low cost and differentiation
E) low cost and differentiation
Which of the following statements does NOT accurately explain what occurs when the number of facilities in a distribution network increases? A) response time decreases B) profit first increases, then decreases C) total logistics costs first decrease, then increase D) inventory costs increase E) response time first decreases, then increases
E) response time first decreases, then increases
TAL Apparel's management of its supply chain for Stafford shirts sold in JCPenney in an example of which of the following? A) blanket orders B) standardization C) postponement D) lot size reduction E) single-stage control of replenishment
E) single-stage control of replenishment
What term is used to describe the outsourcing of logistics? A) e-logistics B) shipper-managed inventory (SMI) C) hollow logistics D) sub-logistics E) third-party logistics (3PL)
E) third-party logistics (3PL)
Which of the following best describes Vizio's sourcing strategy? A) few suppliers B) keiretsu C) joint venture D) vertical integration E) virtual company
E) virtual company
