406 e2 hematology
Which blood cell type is matched correctly with its function? You Selected: B lymphocyte: Secretes immunoglobulin Correct response: Leukocyte: Fights infection Explanation: Various blood cell types have unique, major functions. Leukocytes fight infection, T lymphocytes are integral in cell-mediated immunity, plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin, and B lymphocytes are integral in humoral immunity. Reference:
Which blood cell type is matched correctly with its function? You Selected: B lymphocyte: Secretes immunoglobulin Correct response: Leukocyte: Fights infection Explanation: Various blood cell types have unique, major functions. Leukocytes fight infection, T lymphocytes are integral in cell-mediated immunity, plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin, and B lymphocytes are integral in humoral immunity. Reference:
A client with a history of sickle cell anemia has developed iron overload from repeated blood transfusions. What treatment does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? You Selected: Red blood cell phenotyping Correct response: Chelation therapy Explanation: Chelation therapy is prescribed to treat iron overload. Hepatitis B immunization helps immunize against hepatitis B. Red blood cell phenotyping helps decreased sensitization. A white blood cell filter protects against cytomegalovirus and some sensitization and febrile reactions.
A client with a history of sickle cell anemia has developed iron overload from repeated blood transfusions. What treatment does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? You Selected: Red blood cell phenotyping Correct response: Chelation therapy Explanation: Chelation therapy is prescribed to treat iron overload. Hepatitis B immunization helps immunize against hepatitis B. Red blood cell phenotyping helps decreased sensitization. A white blood cell filter protects against cytomegalovirus and some sensitization and febrile reactions.
Which is the major function of neutrophils? You Selected: Rejection of foreign tissue Correct response: Phagocytosis Explanation: Once a neutrophil is released from the marrow into the circulation, it stays there for only about 6 hours before it migrates into the body tissues to perform its function of phagocytosis (ingestion and digestion of bacteria and particles). Neutrophils die there within 1 to 2 days. T lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of foreign tissue and destruction of tumor cells. Plasma cells produce antibodies called immunoglobulins.
Which is the major function of neutrophils? You Selected: Rejection of foreign tissue Correct response: Phagocytosis Explanation: Once a neutrophil is released from the marrow into the circulation, it stays there for only about 6 hours before it migrates into the body tissues to perform its function of phagocytosis (ingestion and digestion of bacteria and particles). Neutrophils die there within 1 to 2 days. T lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of foreign tissue and destruction of tumor cells. Plasma cells produce antibodies called immunoglobulins.
he nurse is obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having a hematological condition. The nurse notes the client has a history of alcohol abuse. Which clinical presentation is related to alcohol consumption? You Selected: Myelodysplastic syndrome Correct response: Anemia Explanation: Individuals with a history of alcohol consumption may have anemia due to nutritional deficiencies. Myelodysplastic syndrome, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not common findings in clients who consume or abuse alcohol.
he nurse is obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having a hematological condition. The nurse notes the client has a history of alcohol abuse. Which clinical presentation is related to alcohol consumption? You Selected: Myelodysplastic syndrome Correct response: Anemia Explanation: Individuals with a history of alcohol consumption may have anemia due to nutritional deficiencies. Myelodysplastic syndrome, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not common findings in clients who consume or abuse alcohol.
A nurse is assisting a client into position prior to bone marrow aspiration. Which position will the nurse place the client prior to the procedure? You Selected: Knee-chest Correct response: Prone Explanation: Prior to the bone marrow aspiration, the nurse should place the client in either the prone position or lateral position with one leg flexed. The aspiration usually is performed on the anterior iliac crest. It would not be appropriate for the nurse to place the client in supine, knee-chest, or Trendelenburg positions.
A nurse is assisting a client into position prior to bone marrow aspiration. Which position will the nurse place the client prior to the procedure? You Selected: Knee-chest Correct response: Prone Explanation: Prior to the bone marrow aspiration, the nurse should place the client in either the prone position or lateral position with one leg flexed. The aspiration usually is performed on the anterior iliac crest. It would not be appropriate for the nurse to place the client in supine, knee-chest, or Trendelenburg positions.
Place the clotting cascade in the correct order. You Selected: Prothrombin activator Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen Fibrin Correct response: Prothrombin activator Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen Fibrin
Place the clotting cascade in the correct order. You Selected: Prothrombin activator Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen Fibrin Correct response: Prothrombin activator Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen Fibrin
Select all that apply. You Selected: Pelvis Tibia Correct response: Pelvis Ribs Vertebrae Sternum Explanation: Bone marrow can be found in the pelvis, ribs, vertebrae, and sternum. Additionally, bone marrow is found on the spongy end of the femur and humerus long bones. The tibia does not have bone marrow.
Select all that apply. You Selected: Pelvis Tibia Correct response: Pelvis Ribs Vertebrae Sternum Explanation: Bone marrow can be found in the pelvis, ribs, vertebrae, and sternum. Additionally, bone marrow is found on the spongy end of the femur and humerus long bones. The tibia does not have bone marrow.
Which type of leukocyte contains histamine and is an important part of hypersensitivity reactions? You Selected: Neutrophil Correct response: Basophils Explanation: Basophils contain histamine and are an integral part of hypersensitivity reactions. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. A plasma cell secretes immunoglobulins. The neutrophil functions in preventing or limiting bacterial infection via phagocytosis.
Which type of leukocyte contains histamine and is an important part of hypersensitivity reactions? You Selected: Neutrophil Correct response: Basophils Explanation: Basophils contain histamine and are an integral part of hypersensitivity reactions. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. A plasma cell secretes immunoglobulins. The neutrophil functions in preventing or limiting bacterial infection via phagocytosis.
nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of lymphocytopenia. Which assessment finding will the nurse consider most concerning when caring for this client? You Selected: Prothrombin time 12 seconds Correct response: Temperature of 37.7 degrees Celsius Explanation: Lymphocytopenia is a decrease in the number of lymphocytes. Lymphocytes help to fight foreign invaders, such as infectious organisms. A temperature of 37.7 degree Celsius is a Fahrenheit temperature of 99.9. A low-grade fewer may be indicative of an infection. The other answer choices do not suggest infection and are not the priority concern.
nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of lymphocytopenia. Which assessment finding will the nurse consider most concerning when caring for this client? You Selected: Prothrombin time 12 seconds Correct response: Temperature of 37.7 degrees Celsius Explanation: Lymphocytopenia is a decrease in the number of lymphocytes. Lymphocytes help to fight foreign invaders, such as infectious organisms. A temperature of 37.7 degree Celsius is a Fahrenheit temperature of 99.9. A low-grade fewer may be indicative of an infection. The other answer choices do not suggest infection and are not the priority concern.
A thin client is prescribed iron dextran intramuscularly. What is most important action taken by the nurse when administering this medication? You Selected: Uses a 23-gauge needle Correct response: Employs the Z-track technique Explanation: When iron medications are given intramuscularly, the nurse uses the Z-track technique to avoid local pain and staining of the skin. The gluteus maximus muscle is used. The nurse avoids rubbing the site vigorously and uses a 18- or 20-gauge needle.
A thin client is prescribed iron dextran intramuscularly. What is most important action taken by the nurse when administering this medication? You Selected: Uses a 23-gauge needle Correct response: Employs the Z-track technique Explanation: When iron medications are given intramuscularly, the nurse uses the Z-track technique to avoid local pain and staining of the skin. The gluteus maximus muscle is used. The nurse avoids rubbing the site vigorously and uses a 18- or 20-gauge needle.
A client in end-stage renal disease is prescribed epoetin alfa and oral iron supplements. Before administering the next dose of epoetin alfa and oral iron supplement, what is the priority action taken by the nurse? You Selected: Ensures the client has completed dialysis treatment Correct response: Assesses the hemoglobin level Explanation: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen]) with oral iron supplements can raise hematocrit levels in the client with end-stage renal disease. The nurse should check the hemoglobin prior to administration of erythropoietin, because too high a hemoglobin level can put the client at risk for heart failure, myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accident. Erythropoietin may be administered during dialysis treatments. The BUN will be elevated in the client with end-stage renal disease.
A client in end-stage renal disease is prescribed epoetin alfa and oral iron supplements. Before administering the next dose of epoetin alfa and oral iron supplement, what is the priority action taken by the nurse? You Selected: Ensures the client has completed dialysis treatment Correct response: Assesses the hemoglobin level Explanation: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen]) with oral iron supplements can raise hematocrit levels in the client with end-stage renal disease. The nurse should check the hemoglobin prior to administration of erythropoietin, because too high a hemoglobin level can put the client at risk for heart failure, myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accident. Erythropoietin may be administered during dialysis treatments. The BUN will be elevated in the client with end-stage renal disease.
A client is receiving platelets. In order to decrease the risk of circulatory overload in this client, what action should the nurse take? You Selected: Monitor vital signs closely before transfusion and once per shift. Correct response: Infuse each unit over 30-60 minutes per client tolerance. Explanation: Infuse each unit of FFP over 30-60 minutes per client tolerance. Platelet clumping will occur if administered too slowly. Vital signs should be monitored before and throughout the transfusion, not just once per shift. A liter of saline is too large an amount to flush the intravenous line and would contribute to fluid overload.
A client is receiving platelets. In order to decrease the risk of circulatory overload in this client, what action should the nurse take? You Selected: Monitor vital signs closely before transfusion and once per shift. Correct response: Infuse each unit over 30-60 minutes per client tolerance. Explanation: Infuse each unit of FFP over 30-60 minutes per client tolerance. Platelet clumping will occur if administered too slowly. Vital signs should be monitored before and throughout the transfusion, not just once per shift. A liter of saline is too large an amount to flush the intravenous line and would contribute to fluid overload.
A client receiving a blood transfusion reports shortness of breath, appears anxious, and has a pulse of 125 beats/minute. What is the best action for the nurse to take after stopping the transfusion and awaiting further instruction from the health care provider? You Selected: Remove the intravenous line. Correct response: Ensure there is an oxygen delivery device at the bedside. Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of circulatory overload. After stopping the transfusion and notifying the healthcare provider, the nurse should place the client in a more upright position with the legs dependent to decrease workload on the heart. The IV line is kept patent in case emergency medications are needed. Oxygen and morphine may be needed to treat severe dyspnea. Administering an anti-anxiety agent is not a priority action over ensuring oxygen is available.
A client receiving a blood transfusion reports shortness of breath, appears anxious, and has a pulse of 125 beats/minute. What is the best action for the nurse to take after stopping the transfusion and awaiting further instruction from the health care provider? You Selected: Remove the intravenous line. Correct response: Ensure there is an oxygen delivery device at the bedside. Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of circulatory overload. After stopping the transfusion and notifying the healthcare provider, the nurse should place the client in a more upright position with the legs dependent to decrease workload on the heart. The IV line is kept patent in case emergency medications are needed. Oxygen and morphine may be needed to treat severe dyspnea. Administering an anti-anxiety agent is not a priority action over ensuring oxygen is available.
A client reports feeling faint after donating blood. What is the nurse's best action? You Selected: Assist the client into high-Fowler's position. Correct response: Keep client in recumbent position to rest. Explanation: After blood donation, the donor should remain recumbent until he or she feels able to sit up. Donors who experience weakness or faintness should rest for a longer period. High-Fowler's position would not promote blood flow to the brain, and could cause the client to feel light-headed or faint. Ambulating a client who feels faint is not safe due to the high risk of falling. Trendelenburg position is not recommended after blood donation.
A client reports feeling faint after donating blood. What is the nurse's best action? You Selected: Assist the client into high-Fowler's position. Correct response: Keep client in recumbent position to rest. Explanation: After blood donation, the donor should remain recumbent until he or she feels able to sit up. Donors who experience weakness or faintness should rest for a longer period. High-Fowler's position would not promote blood flow to the brain, and could cause the client to feel light-headed or faint. Ambulating a client who feels faint is not safe due to the high risk of falling. Trendelenburg position is not recommended after blood donation.
A nurse cares for several mothers and babies in the postpartum unit. Which mother does the nurse recognize as being most at risk for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction? You Selected: Rh-positive mother; Rh-negative child Correct response: Rh-negative mother; Rh-positive child Explanation: A mother who is Rh negative and gives birth to an Rh positive child is at greatest risk for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction because exposure to an Rh-positive fetus raises antibody levels in the Rh negative mother. An Rh-negative mother can carry an Rh-negative child without being at greatest risk for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction; however, these mothers are often treated prophylactically. An Rh-positive mother may carry either an Rh-positive or Rh-negative child without increased risk.
A nurse cares for several mothers and babies in the postpartum unit. Which mother does the nurse recognize as being most at risk for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction? You Selected: Rh-positive mother; Rh-negative child Correct response: Rh-negative mother; Rh-positive child Explanation: A mother who is Rh negative and gives birth to an Rh positive child is at greatest risk for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction because exposure to an Rh-positive fetus raises antibody levels in the Rh negative mother. An Rh-negative mother can carry an Rh-negative child without being at greatest risk for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction; however, these mothers are often treated prophylactically. An Rh-positive mother may carry either an Rh-positive or Rh-negative child without increased risk.
A nurse is performing an initial assessment and notes the client's skin is a gray-tan color, especially on the scars of the client's arms. Which hematological condition does the nurse suspect? You Selected: Vitamin B12 deficiency Correct response: Hemochromatosis Explanation: Hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease of excessive iron absorption. This results in bronze or gray-tan skin, especially over scars. The other answer choices are hematological conditions; however, these do not cause the skin to turn a gray-tan color.
A nurse is performing an initial assessment and notes the client's skin is a gray-tan color, especially on the scars of the client's arms. Which hematological condition does the nurse suspect? You Selected: Vitamin B12 deficiency Correct response: Hemochromatosis Explanation: Hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disease of excessive iron absorption. This results in bronze or gray-tan skin, especially over scars. The other answer choices are hematological conditions; however, these do not cause the skin to turn a gray-tan color.
A nurse working in hematology reviews the characteristics of stem cells and their role in disease. Which statements does the nurse understand is true regarding stem cells? Select all that apply. You Selected: Lymphoid stem cells produce lymphocytes. Correct response: There is a continuous supply throughout the life cycle. Lymphoid stem cells produce lymphocytes. Myeloid stem cells produce erythrocytes. They have the ability to self-replicate. Explanation: The primitive cells of the bone marrow are called stem cells. Stem cells have the ability to self-replicate, ensuring a continuous supply throughout the life cycle. Stem cells have the ability to differentiate—becoming either lymphoid stem cells (which produce lymphocytes) or myeloid stem cells (which produce erythrocytes).
A nurse working in hematology reviews the characteristics of stem cells and their role in disease. Which statements does the nurse understand is true regarding stem cells? Select all that apply. You Selected: Lymphoid stem cells produce lymphocytes. Correct response: There is a continuous supply throughout the life cycle. Lymphoid stem cells produce lymphocytes. Myeloid stem cells produce erythrocytes. They have the ability to self-replicate. Explanation: The primitive cells of the bone marrow are called stem cells. Stem cells have the ability to self-replicate, ensuring a continuous supply throughout the life cycle. Stem cells have the ability to differentiate—becoming either lymphoid stem cells (which produce lymphocytes) or myeloid stem cells (which produce erythrocytes).
A nursing instructor in a BSN program is preparing for a lecture on disorders of the hematopoietic system. Included in the lecture are conditions caused by reduced levels or absence of blood-clotting proteins. Which of the following is the instructor most likely referring to? You Selected: Coagulopathy Correct response: Coagulopathy Explanation: The term coagulopathy refers to conditions in which a component that is necessary to control bleeding is missing or inadequate.
A nursing instructor in a BSN program is preparing for a lecture on disorders of the hematopoietic system. Included in the lecture are conditions caused by reduced levels or absence of blood-clotting proteins. Which of the following is the instructor most likely referring to? You Selected: Coagulopathy Correct response: Coagulopathy Explanation: The term coagulopathy refers to conditions in which a component that is necessary to control bleeding is missing or inadequate.
A patient who has long-term packed RBC (PRBC) transfusions has developed symptoms of iron toxicity that affect liver function. What immediate treatment should the nurse anticipate preparing the patient for that can help prevent organ damage? You Selected: Anticoagulation therapy Correct response: Iron chelation therapy Explanation: Iron overload is a complication unique to people who have had long-term PRBC transfusions. One unit of PRBCs contains 250 mg of iron. Patients with chronic transfusion requirements can quickly acquire more iron than they can use, leading to iron overload. Over time, the excess iron deposits in body tissues and can cause organ damage, particularly in the liver, heart, testes, and pancreas. Promptly initiating a program of iron chelation therapy can prevent end-organ damage from iron toxicity.
A patient who has long-term packed RBC (PRBC) transfusions has developed symptoms of iron toxicity that affect liver function. What immediate treatment should the nurse anticipate preparing the patient for that can help prevent organ damage? You Selected: Anticoagulation therapy Correct response: Iron chelation therapy Explanation: Iron overload is a complication unique to people who have had long-term PRBC transfusions. One unit of PRBCs contains 250 mg of iron. Patients with chronic transfusion requirements can quickly acquire more iron than they can use, leading to iron overload. Over time, the excess iron deposits in body tissues and can cause organ damage, particularly in the liver, heart, testes, and pancreas. Promptly initiating a program of iron chelation therapy can prevent end-organ damage from iron toxicity.
During a blood transfusion with packed red blood cells (RBCs), a client reports chills, low back pain, and nausea. What priority action should the nurse take? You Selected: Discontinue the infusion immediately and notify the physician Correct response: Discontinue the infusion immediately and maintain the IV line with normal saline solution using new IV tubing Explanation: The following steps are taken to determine the type and severity of the reaction: Stop the transfusion. Maintain the IV line with normal saline solution through new IV tubing, administered at a slow rate. Assess the client carefully. Notify the physician. Continue to monitor the client's vital signs and respiratory, cardiovascular, and renal status. Notify the blood bank that a suspected transfusion reaction has occurred. Send the blood container and tubing to the blood bank for repeat typing and culture.
During a blood transfusion with packed red blood cells (RBCs), a client reports chills, low back pain, and nausea. What priority action should the nurse take? You Selected: Discontinue the infusion immediately and notify the physician Correct response: Discontinue the infusion immediately and maintain the IV line with normal saline solution using new IV tubing Explanation: The following steps are taken to determine the type and severity of the reaction: Stop the transfusion. Maintain the IV line with normal saline solution through new IV tubing, administered at a slow rate. Assess the client carefully. Notify the physician. Continue to monitor the client's vital signs and respiratory, cardiovascular, and renal status. Notify the blood bank that a suspected transfusion reaction has occurred. Send the blood container and tubing to the blood bank for repeat typing and culture.
The body responds to infection by increasing the production of white blood cells (WBCs). The nurse should evaluate the differential count for what type of WBCs, which are the first WBCs to respond to an inflammatory event? You Selected: Neutrophils Correct response: Neutrophils Explanation: Neutrophils, the most abundant type of white blood cell, are the first of the WBCs to respond to infection or inflammation. The normal value is 3,000 to 7,000/cmm (males) and 1,800 to 7,700/cmm (females). Reference:
The body responds to infection by increasing the production of white blood cells (WBCs). The nurse should evaluate the differential count for what type of WBCs, which are the first WBCs to respond to an inflammatory event? You Selected: Neutrophils Correct response: Neutrophils Explanation: Neutrophils, the most abundant type of white blood cell, are the first of the WBCs to respond to infection or inflammation. The normal value is 3,000 to 7,000/cmm (males) and 1,800 to 7,700/cmm (females). Reference:
The client is planned to have a splenectomy. The nurse should prepare which medication to administer to this client? You Selected: Factor VIII Correct response: Pneumococcal vaccine Explanation: Without a spleen, the client's risk of infection is greatly increased. The pneumococcal vaccine should be administered, preferable before splenectomy. Aspirin should not be administered due to the increased risk of bleeding. IgG is administered to client with increased chance of bacterial infections but is not routinely given to client undergoing splenectomy, as is the pneumococcal vaccine. Factor VII is given to treat bleeding disorders.
The client is planned to have a splenectomy. The nurse should prepare which medication to administer to this client? You Selected: Factor VIII Correct response: Pneumococcal vaccine Explanation: Without a spleen, the client's risk of infection is greatly increased. The pneumococcal vaccine should be administered, preferable before splenectomy. Aspirin should not be administered due to the increased risk of bleeding. IgG is administered to client with increased chance of bacterial infections but is not routinely given to client undergoing splenectomy, as is the pneumococcal vaccine. Factor VII is given to treat bleeding disorders.
The nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client over 4 hours. After 2 hours, the client reports chills and has a fever of 101°F, an increase from a previous temperature of 99.2°F. What does the nurse recognize is occurring with this client? You Selected: The client is having an allergic reaction to the blood. Correct response: The client is having a febrile nonhemolytic reaction. Explanation: The signs and symptoms of a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction are chills (minimal to severe) followed by fever (more than 1°C elevation). The fever typically begins within 2 hours after the transfusion is begun. Although the reaction is not life threatening, the fever, and particularly the chills and muscle stiffness, can be frightening to the client
The nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client over 4 hours. After 2 hours, the client reports chills and has a fever of 101°F, an increase from a previous temperature of 99.2°F. What does the nurse recognize is occurring with this client? You Selected: The client is having an allergic reaction to the blood. Correct response: The client is having a febrile nonhemolytic reaction. Explanation: The signs and symptoms of a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction are chills (minimal to severe) followed by fever (more than 1°C elevation). The fever typically begins within 2 hours after the transfusion is begun. Although the reaction is not life threatening, the fever, and particularly the chills and muscle stiffness, can be frightening to the client
The nurse is caring for a client with hypoxia. What does the nurse understand is true regarding the client's oxygen level and the production of red blood cells? You Selected: The kidneys sense low oxygen levels in the blood and stimulate hemoglobin, stimulating the marrow to produce more red blood cells. Correct response: The kidneys sense low oxygen levels in the blood and stimulate erythropoietin, stimulating the marrow to produce more red blood cells. Explanation: If the kidney detects low levels of oxygen, as occurs when fewer red cells are available to bind oxygen (as with anemia), erythropoietin levels increase, stimulating the marrow to produce more erythrocytes (red blood cells).
The nurse is caring for a client with hypoxia. What does the nurse understand is true regarding the client's oxygen level and the production of red blood cells? You Selected: The kidneys sense low oxygen levels in the blood and stimulate hemoglobin, stimulating the marrow to produce more red blood cells. Correct response: The kidneys sense low oxygen levels in the blood and stimulate erythropoietin, stimulating the marrow to produce more red blood cells. Explanation: If the kidney detects low levels of oxygen, as occurs when fewer red cells are available to bind oxygen (as with anemia), erythropoietin levels increase, stimulating the marrow to produce more erythrocytes (red blood cells).
The nurse is obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having a hematological condition. The nurse notes the client has a history of alcohol abuse. Which clinical presentation is related to alcohol consumption? You Selected: Myelodysplastic syndrome Correct response: Anemia Explanation: Individuals with a history of alcohol consumption may have anemia due to nutritional deficiencies. Myelodysplastic syndrome, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not common findings in clients who consume or abuse alcohol.
The nurse is obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having a hematological condition. The nurse notes the client has a history of alcohol abuse. Which clinical presentation is related to alcohol consumption? You Selected: Myelodysplastic syndrome Correct response: Anemia Explanation: Individuals with a history of alcohol consumption may have anemia due to nutritional deficiencies. Myelodysplastic syndrome, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not common findings in clients who consume or abuse alcohol.
The nurse is providing health education to an older adult client who has low red blood cell levels. To promote red blood cell production, the nurse should encourage intake of what foods? Select all that apply. You Selected: Animal fats Lean meats Correct response: Leafy green vegetables Lean meats Nuts and seeds Explanation: A healthy diet that includes lean meats, nuts, seeds and green vegetables can promote red cell production. Animal fats are not known to promote red cell production. Organic foods are not necessarily more likely to promote red cell synthesis. Reference:
The nurse is providing health education to an older adult client who has low red blood cell levels. To promote red blood cell production, the nurse should encourage intake of what foods? Select all that apply. You Selected: Animal fats Lean meats Correct response: Leafy green vegetables Lean meats Nuts and seeds Explanation: A healthy diet that includes lean meats, nuts, seeds and green vegetables can promote red cell production. Animal fats are not known to promote red cell production. Organic foods are not necessarily more likely to promote red cell synthesis. Reference:
The nurse is screening donors for blood donation. Which client is an acceptable donor for blood? You Selected: Had a dental extraction 2 days ago for caries in a tooth Correct response: Reports having a cold 1 month ago that resolved quickly Explanation: Donors must meet certain requirements to be able to donate blood. A client should be in good health, such as the client who had a cold more than 1 month ago that resolved quickly. Those excluded from donating blood have a history of viral hepatitis, report a blood transfusion within 12 months, and had a dental extraction within 72 hours. The reason for exclusion is that they are at increased risk of transmitting an infectious disease.
The nurse is screening donors for blood donation. Which client is an acceptable donor for blood? You Selected: Had a dental extraction 2 days ago for caries in a tooth Correct response: Reports having a cold 1 month ago that resolved quickly Explanation: Donors must meet certain requirements to be able to donate blood. A client should be in good health, such as the client who had a cold more than 1 month ago that resolved quickly. Those excluded from donating blood have a history of viral hepatitis, report a blood transfusion within 12 months, and had a dental extraction within 72 hours. The reason for exclusion is that they are at increased risk of transmitting an infectious disease.
The nurse obtains a unit of blood for the client, Donald D. Smith. The name on the label on the unit of blood reads Donald A. Smith. All the other identifiers are correct. What action should the nurse take? You Selected: Check with the blood bank first and then administer the blood with their permission Correct response: Refuse to administer the blood Explanation: To ensure a safe transfusion, all components of the identification must be correct. The nurse should refuse to administer the blood and notify the blood bank about the discrepancy. The blood bank should then take the necessary steps to correct the name on the label on the unit of blood.
The nurse obtains a unit of blood for the client, Donald D. Smith. The name on the label on the unit of blood reads Donald A. Smith. All the other identifiers are correct. What action should the nurse take? You Selected: Check with the blood bank first and then administer the blood with their permission Correct response: Refuse to administer the blood Explanation: To ensure a safe transfusion, all components of the identification must be correct. The nurse should refuse to administer the blood and notify the blood bank about the discrepancy. The blood bank should then take the necessary steps to correct the name on the label on the unit of blood.
Which term refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? You Selected: Lymphocyte Correct response: Lymphocyte Explanation: Mature lymphocytes are the principal cells of the immune system, producing antibodies and identifying other cells and organisms as "foreign." Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. A thrombocyte is a platelet.
Which term refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? You Selected: Lymphocyte Correct response: Lymphocyte Explanation: Mature lymphocytes are the principal cells of the immune system, producing antibodies and identifying other cells and organisms as "foreign." Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. A thrombocyte is a platelet.
Which type of lymphocyte is responsible for cellular immunity? You Selected: B lymphocyte Correct response: T lymphocyte Explanation: T lymphocytes are responsible for delayed allergic reactions, rejection of foreign tissue (e.g., transplanted organs), and destruction of tumor cells. This process is known as cellular immunity. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. A plasma cell secretes immunoglobulin. A basophil contains histamine and is an integral part of hypersensitivity reactions.
Which type of lymphocyte is responsible for cellular immunity? You Selected: B lymphocyte Correct response: T lymphocyte Explanation: T lymphocytes are responsible for delayed allergic reactions, rejection of foreign tissue (e.g., transplanted organs), and destruction of tumor cells. This process is known as cellular immunity. B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity. A plasma cell secretes immunoglobulin. A basophil contains histamine and is an integral part of hypersensitivity reactions.
