435 Exam 2 Practice Questions

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Drainage from a fistula b. Diminished bowel sounds c. Pain at the incision site d. Nasogastric (NG) tube drainage

ANS: A Complications of a Whipple procedure include secretions that drain from a fistula and peritonitis. Absent bowel sounds, pain at the incision site, and NG tube drainage are normal postoperative findings.

The nurse is assessing a client with acute pyelonephritis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Chills c. Tachycardia d. Tachypnea e. Flank or back pain f. Fatigue

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F All of these assessment findings commonly occur in clients who have acute pyelonephritis because this health problem is a kidney infection.

The nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. What factors present risks for developing this type of cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Diabetes mellitus b. Cirrhosis c. Smoking d. Female gender e. Family history f. Older age

ANS: A, B, C, E, F All of these choices are risk factors except that pancreatic cancer occurs most frequently in men.

After teaching a patient who has a permanent ileostomy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary items chosen for dinner indicate that the client needs further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Corn b. String beans c. Carrots d. Wheat rice e. Squash

ANS: A, B, D Clients with an ileostomy should be cautious of high-fiber and high-cellulose foods including corn, string beans, and rice. Carrots and squash are low-fiber items.

What action(s) by the nurse is (are) appropriate to promote nutrition in a client who had a partial gastrectomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer vitamin B12 injections. b. Ask the primary health care provider about folic acid replacement. c. Educate the client on enteral feedings. d. Obtain consent for total parenteral nutrition. e. Provide iron supplements for the client.

ANS: A, B, E After a partial or total gastrectomy, clients are at high risk for anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency, or iron deficiency. The nurse would provide supplements for all these nutrients. The client does not need enteral feeding or total parenteral nutrition.

The nurse is preparing a client for a percutaneous kidney biopsy. Which laboratory tests results would the nurse review prior to the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Hemoglobin b. Hematocrit c. Sodium d. Potassium e. Platelet count f. Prothrombin time

ANS: A, B, E, F Kidneys are very vascular and the client is at risk for bleeding after a biopsy. Therefore, it is essential that the nurse review preprocedure laboratory test results for anemia and coagulation problems.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) b. Loss of 15 lb (6.8 kg) without dieting c. Abdominal pain in upper quadrants d. Low-pitched bowel sounds e. Serum sodium of 121 mEq/L (121 mmol/L)

ANS: A, C, E Small bowel obstructions often lead to severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is hypokalemic (normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L [3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L]) and hyponatremic (normal range is 136 to 145 mEq/L [136 to 145 mmol/L]). Abdominal pain across the upper quadrants is associated with small bowel obstruction. Dramatic weight loss without dieting followed by bowel obstruction leads to the probable development of colon cancer. High-pitched sounds may be noted with small bowel obstructions.

A client is preparing to have a laparoscopic restorative proctocolectomy with ileo pouch-anal anastomosis (RCA-IPAA). Which preoperative health teaching would the nurse include? a. "You will have to wear an appliance for your permanent ileostomy." b. "You should be able to have better bowel continence after healing occurs." c. "You will have a large abdominal incision that will require irrigation." d. "This procedure can be performed under general or regional anesthesia."

ANS: B A RCA-IPAA can improve bowel continence although leakage may still occur for some clients. The procedure is a 2-step process performed under general anesthesia using a laparoscope which does not require an abdominal incision or permanent ileostomy.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab for severe ulcerative colitis (UC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I should wash my hands after I play with my dog."

ANS: B Adalimumab is an immune modulator that is given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

The nurse is caring for a client who is planning to have a laparoscopic colon resection for colorectal cancer tomorrow. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have less pain after this surgery compared to having a large incision." b. "I will probably be in the hospital for 3 to 4 days after surgery." c. "I will be able to walk around a little on the same day as the surgery." d. "I will be able to return to work in a week or two depending on how I do."

ANS: B All of these statements are correct about having minimally invasive laparoscopic surgery except that the hospital stay will likely be only 1 or 2 days.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Your friends will be happy that you are alive." b. "Tell me more about your concerns." c. "A therapist can help you resolve your concerns." d. "With time you will accept your new body."

ANS: B Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse would encourage the client to discuss concerns by restating them in an open-ended manner. The nurse would not minimize the client's concerns or provide false reassurance.

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which question would the nurse ask the client before starting this drug? a. "Are you taking Vitamin C or B? b. "Do you have any allergy to sulfa drugs?" c. "Can you swallow pills pretty easily?" d. "Do you have insurance to cover this drug?"

ANS: B Sulfasalazine is a sulfa drug given for clients who have ulcerative colitis. However, it should not be given to those who have an allergy to sulfa and sulfa drugs to prevent a hypersensitivity reaction.

A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. What priority problem would the nurse expect the client to report? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Severe boring abdominal pain c. Jaundice and itching d. Elevated temperature

ANS: B The client who has acute pancreatitis reports severe boring abdominal pain that is often rated by clients as a 10+ on a 0-10 pain scale. Nausea, vomiting, and fever may also occur, but that is not the client's priority for care.

The nurse is admitting a client who has acute glomerulonephritis caused by beta streptococcus. What drug therapy would the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? a. Antihypertensives b. Antilipidemics c. Antidepressants d. Antibiotics

ANS: D Beta streptococcus is a bacterium that can cause acute glomerulonephritis, so antibiotic therapy is indicated.

The nurse caring for clients with gastrointestinal disorders would recall that omeprazole is a drug in which classification? a. Gastric acid inhibitor b. Histamine receptor blocker c. Mucosal barrier fortifier d. Proton pump inhibitor

ANS: D Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor.

A client has a leg wound that is in Stage II of the inflammatory response. For what sign or symptom does the nurse assess? a. Noticeable rubor b. Purulent drainage c. Swelling and pain d. Warmth at the site

b. purulent drainage During the second phase of the inflammatory response, neutrophilia occurs, producing pus. Rubor (redness), swelling, pain, and warmth are cardinal signs of the general inflammatory process.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lubiprostone for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C). What health teaching will the nurse include about taking this drug? a. "This drug will make you very dry because it will decrease your diarrhea." b. "Be sure to take this drug with food and water to help manage constipation." c. "Avoid people who have infection as this drug will suppress your immune system." d. "Include high-fiber foods in your diet to help produce more solid stools."

ANS: B Lubiprostone is an oral laxative approved for women who have IBS with constipation (IBS-C). Water and food will also help to improve constipation. The drug is not used for clients who have diarrhea and does not affect the immune system. Although high-fiber foods are important for clients who have IBS, this client does not need fiber to help make stool more solid. Instead the fiber will help prevent constipation.

The nurse is assessing a group of clients for their risk of kidney disease. Which racial/ethnic group is at the greatest risk as they age? a. Latino Americans b. African Americans c. Jewish Americans d. Asian Americans

ANS: B Older African Americans have a greater age-related decrease in glomerular filtration rate when compared to other racial-ethnic groups. In addition, blood flow decreases and sodium excretion is less effective in older hypertensive African Americans. These changes make this group most at risk for kidney disease.

After teaching a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client correctly understands the dietary teaching? a. Ham sandwich on white bread, cup of applesauce, carbonated beverage b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice c. Grilled cheese sandwich, small banana, cup of hot tea with lemon d. Baked tilapia, fresh green beans, cup of coffee with low-fat milk

ANS: B Patients with IBS are advised to eat a high-fiber diet. Chicken with brown rice, broccoli, and apple juice has the highest fiber content. Clients should avoid alcohol, caffeine, and other gastric irritants.

A nurse assesses a client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Flank pain b. Periorbital edema c. Bloody and cloudy urine d. Enlarged abdomen

ANS: B Periorbital edema would not be a finding related to PKD and would be investigated further. Flank pain and a distended or enlarged abdomen occur in PKD because the kidneys enlarge and displace other organs. Urine can be bloody or cloudy as a result of cyst rupture or infection.

The nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from an open traditional Whipple surgical procedure. What action would the nurse take? a. Clamp the nasogastric tube. b. Place the patient in semi-Fowler position. c. Assess vital signs once every shift. d. Provide oral rehydration.

ANS: B Postoperative care for a patient recovering from an open Whipple procedure would include placing the client in a semi-Fowler position to reduce tension on the suture line and anastomosis sites and promote breathing, setting the nasogastric tube to low continuous suction to remove free air buildup and pressure, assessing vital signs frequently to assess fluid and electrolyte complications, and providing intravenous fluids.

The nurse plans care for a client with Crohn disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention would be the nurse's priority action? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

ANS: B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a patient who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn disease also includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

A nurse reviews the health history of a client with an oversecretion of renin. Which disorder would the nurse correlate with this assessment finding? a. Alzheimer disease b. Hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Viral hepatitis

ANS: B Renin is secreted when special cells in the distal convoluted tubule, called the macula densa, sense changes in blood volume and pressure. When the macula densa cells sense that blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels are low, renin is secreted. Renin then converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This leads to a series of reactions that cause secretion of the hormone aldosterone. This hormone increases kidney reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium levels. Inappropriate or excessive renin secretion is a major cause of persistent hypertension. Renin has no impact on Alzheimer disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis.

The nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question would the nurse ask first? a. "Are you drinking plenty of water?" b. "What medications are you taking?" c. "Have you tried laxatives or enemas?" d. "Has this type of thing ever happened before?"

ANS: B Some types of incontinence or other health problems are treated with anticholinergic medications. Anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse needs to assess the client's medication list to determine whether the he or she is taking an anticholinergic medication. The other questions are not as helpful to understanding the current situation.

A client is preparing to have a fecal occult blood test (FOBT). What health teaching would the nurse include prior to the test? a. "This test will determine whether you have colorectal cancer." b. "You need to avoid red meat and NSAIDs for 48 hours before the test." c. "You don't need to have this test because you can have a virtual colonoscopy." d. "This test can determine your genetic risk for developing colorectal cancer."

ANS: B The FOBT is a screening test that is sometimes used to assess for microscopic lower GI bleeding. To help prevent false positive results, the client needs to avoid red meat, Vitamin C, and NSAIDs. The test is not diagnostic nor does it determine a client's genetic risk for colorectal cancer.

After teaching a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I can prevent more damage to my kidneys by managing my blood pressure." b. "If I have increased urination at night, I need to drink less fluid during the day." c. "I need to see the registered dietitian to discuss limiting my protein intake." d. "It is important that I take my antihypertensive medications as directed."

ANS: B The client should not restrict fluids during the day due to increased urination at night. Clients with renal disease may be prescribed fluid restrictions, and would be assessed thoroughly for potential dehydration. Increased nocturnal voiding can be decreased by consuming fluids earlier in the day. Blood pressure control is needed to slow the progression of renal dysfunction. When dietary protein is restricted, refer the client to the registered dietitian nutritionist as needed.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy for renal calculi. The nurse notes an ecchymotic area on the client's right lower back. What action would the nurse take? a. Administer fresh-frozen plasma. b. Apply an ice pack to the site. c. Place the client in the prone position. d. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

ANS: B The shock waves from lithotripsy can cause bleeding into the tissues through which the waves pass. Application of ice can reduce the extent and discomfort of the bruising. Although coagulation test results and fresh-frozen plasma are used to assess and treat bleeding disorders, ecchymosis after this procedure is not unusual and does not warrant a higher level of intervention. Changing the client's position will not decrease bleeding.

A client is concerned about her irregular menstrual periods since she has increased her daily workouts at the gym to 2 hours each day. What is the nurses' best response? a. "Do you want to talk about the need for that much exercise?" b. "Exercise is healthy but can decrease body fat and cause irregular periods." c. "Bingeing and purging can cause electrolyte problems in your body." d. "Anorexic behavior can result in decreased estrogen levels."

ANS: B There needs to be a certain level of body fat and weight to maintain regular menstrual cycles. The client has only indicated that she has increased her workouts. There is no indication that she has anorexic or bingeing and purging behaviors. The question about wanting to talk about needing that much exercise sounds judgmental.

A client who has peptic ulcer disease is prescribed quadruple drug therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection. What health teaching related to bismuth would the nurse include? a. "Report stool changes to your primary health care provider immediately." b. "Do not take aspirin or aspirin products of any kind while on bismuth." c. "Take bismuth about 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime." d. "Be aware that bismuth can cause frequent vomiting and diarrhea."

ANS: B Bismuth is a salicylate drug and causes stool discoloration but not vomiting and diarrhea. It does not have to be taken at a specific time relative to meals. Clients taking bismuth should not take other salicylates, such as aspirin or aspirin-containing products

A client has a nasogastric (NG) tube as a result of an upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage. What comfort measure would the nurse remind assistive personnel (AP) to provide? a. Lavaging the tube with ice water b. Performing frequent oral care c. Re-positioning the tube every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs

ANS: B Clients with NG tubes need frequent oral care both for comfort and to prevent infection. Lavaging the tube is done by the nurse. Repositioning the tube, if needed, is also done by the nurse. The can take vital signs, but this is not a comfort measure.

A client who had a partial gastrectomy 3 days ago begins to experience vertigo, sweating, and tachycardia about 30 minutes after eating breakfast. What postoperative complication would the nurse suspect? a. Pyloric obstruction b. Dumping syndrome c. Delayed gastric emptying d. Pernicious anemia

ANS: B Dumping syndrome causes autonomic symptoms as food quickly leaves the stomach due to its decreased size after surgery.

The nurse is teaching a client who had a descending colostomy 2 days ago about the ostomy stoma. Which changes in the stoma would the nurse teach the client to report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Stool consistency is similar to paste. b. Stoma becomes dark and dull. c. Skin around the stoma becomes excoriated. d. Skin around stoma becomes protruded. e. Stoma becomes retracted into the abdomen.

ANS: B, C, D, E A colostomy placed in the descending colon would be expect to have a paste-like stool consistency. However, if the stoma becomes retracted or discolored, the client should report those changes to the primary health care provider. Skin around the stoma that becomes protruded would suggest the formation of a peristomal hernia, and skin excoriation needs appropriate management. Therefore, both of those skin changes would need to be reported to the primary health care provider.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional Whipple surgical procedure. Which assessment finding(s) alert(s) the nurse to a complication from this surgery? (Select all that apply.) a. Clay-colored stools b. Substernal chest pain c. Shortness of breath d. Lack of bowel sounds or flatus e. Urine output of 20 mL/6 hr

ANS: B, C, D, E Myocardial infarction (chest pain), pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath), adynamic ileus (lack of bowel sounds or flatus), and acute kidney injury (urine output of 20 mL/6 hr) are common complications for which the nurse must assess the client after the Whipple procedure. Clay-colored stools are associated with cholecystitis and are not a complication of a Whipple procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client with probable colorectal cancer (CRC). What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Rectal bleeding c. Anemia d. Change in stool shape e. Electrolyte imbalances f. Abdominal discomfort

ANS: B, C, D, F The client who has CRC usually experiences unintentional weight loss and rectal bleeding, either gross or occult. As a result of bleeding, the client has anemia and fatigue. Electrolyte imbalances are not common, but the client may note that the shape or consistency of stool has changed.

A nurse assesses a patient who has celiac disease. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Anorexia c. Constipation d. Anal fistula e. Abdominal pain

ANS: B, C, E Signs and symptoms of celiac disease include weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and abdominal pain. Anal fistulas are not associated with celiac disease.

The nurse working with clients who have gastrointestinal problems knows that which laboratory values are related to which organ functions or dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.) a. Alanine aminotransferase: biliary system b. Ammonia: liver c. Amylase: liver d. Lipase: pancreas e. Urine urobilinogen: stomach

ANS: B, D Alanine aminotransferase and ammonia are related to the liver. Amylase and lipase are related to the pancreas. Urobilinogen evaluates both hepatic and biliary function.

A nurse cares for a patient who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which actions would the nurse take to prevent skin excoriation? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleanse the perineum with an antibacterial soap. b. Use medicated wipes instead of toilet paper. c. Identify foods that decrease constipation. d. Apply a thin coat of aloe cream to the perineum. e. Gently pat the perineum dry after cleansing.

ANS: B, D, E To prevent skin excoriation from frequent bowel movements associated with inflammatory bowel disease, the nurse would encourage good skin care with a mild soap and water and gently patting the area dry after each bowel movement. Using medicated wipes instead of toilet paper and applying a thin coat of aloe cream are appropriate. The client should identify and avoid foods that increase diarrhea. Antibacterial soaps are harsh and should not be used.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

ANS: C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client would have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this patient than heart rate and rhythm.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy. The client states, "My pain has suddenly increased from a 3 to a 10 on a scale of 0-10." Which action would the nurse take first? a. Reposition the client on the operative side. b. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic. c. Assess the client's pulse rate and blood pressure. d. Examine the color of the client's urine.

ANS: C An increase in the intensity of pain after a percutaneous kidney biopsy is a symptom of possible internal hemorrhage. A change in vital signs (elevated pulse and decreased blood pressure) can indicate that hemorrhage is occurring.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results for a client who has possible appendicitis. Which laboratory test finding would the nurse expect? a. Decreased potassium level b. Increased sodium level c. Elevated leukocyte count d. Decreased thrombocyte count

ANS: C Appendicitis is an acute inflammatory disorder that frequently results in elevation of leukocytes (white blood cells). Serum electrolytes are not affected because the client does not usually have diarrhea. Thrombocyte (platelet) count is unrelated to this GI disorder.

A nurse assesses a client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count. The client asks, "Is my anemia related to my kidney problem?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys." b. "Your anemia and kidney problem are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density." c. "Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow." d. "Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood."

ANS: C Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency. The kidneys do not play a role in the transportation of red blood cells or any other cells in the blood.

A nurse assesses a client who has cholecystitis. Which sign or symptom indicates that this condition is chronic rather than acute? a. Temperature of 100.1° F (37.8° C) b. Positive Murphy sign c. Clay-colored stools d. Upper abdominal pain after eating

ANS: C Jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine are more commonly seen with chronic cholecystitis. The other symptoms are seen in clients with either chronic or acute cholecystitis.

After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I'll ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week." b. "I must try to include at least 25 g of fiber in my diet every day." c. "I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated." d. "I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects."

ANS: C Laxatives are not recommended for patients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

A nurse reviews the urinalysis results of a client and notes a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/kg (1200 mmol/kg). Which action would the nurse take? a. Contact the primary health care provider to recommend a low-sodium diet. b. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic. c. Encourage the client to drink more fluids. d. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions.

ANS: C Normal urine osmolality ranges from 300 to 900 mOsm/kg (300 to 900 mmol/kg). This client's urine is more concentrated, indicating dehydration. The nurse would encourage the client to drink more water. Dehydration can be associated with elevated serum sodium levels. Although a low-sodium diet may be appropriate for this client, this diet change will not have a significant impact on urine osmolality. A diuretic would increase urine output and decrease urine osmolality further. Low serum sodium levels, not elevated serum levels, place the client at risk for seizure activity. These options would further contribute to the client's dehydration or elevate the osmolality.

A nurse cares for a client with colorectal cancer who has a new colostomy. The client states, "I think it would be helpful to talk with someone who has had a similar experience." How would the nurse respond? a. "I have a good friend with a colostomy who would be willing to talk with you." b. "The ostomy nurse will be able to answer all of your questions." c. "I will make a referral to the United Ostomy Associations of America." d. "You'll find that most people with colostomies don't want to talk about them."

ANS: C Nurses need to become familiar with community-based resources to better assist clients. The local chapter of the United Ostomy Associations of America has resources for clients and their families, including ostomates (specially trained visitors who also have ostomies). The nurse would not suggest that the client speak with a personal contact of the nurse. Although the ostomy nurse is an expert in ostomy care, talking with him or her is not the same as talking with someone who actually has had a colostomy. The nurse would not brush aside the client's request by saying that most people with colostomies do not want to talk about them. Many people are willing to share their ostomy experience in the hope of helping others.

The nurse documents the vital signs of a client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis: Apical pulse = 116 beats/min Respirations = 28 breaths/min Blood pressure = 92/50 What complication of acute pancreatitis would the nurse suspect that the client might have? a. Electrolyte imbalance b. Pleural effusion c. Internal bleeding d. Pancreatic pseudocyst

ANS: C The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemia most likely due to internal bleeding or hemorrhage. Due to decreased blood volume, the blood pressure is low and the heart rate increases to compensate for hypovolemia to ensure organ perfusion. Respirations often increase to increase oxygen in the blood.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a complete small bowel obstruction. For what priority problem is this client most likely at risk? a. Abdominal distention b. Nausea c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Obstipation

ANS: C The client who has a small bowel obstruction is at the highest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances, especially dehydration and hypokalemia due to profuse vomiting. Nausea, abdominal distention, and obstipation are also usually present, but these problems are not as life threatening as the imbalances in electrolytes.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of possible strangulated inguinal hernia. For which complication would the nurse monitor? a. Paralytic ileus b. Bowel volvulus c. Sepsis d. Colitis

ANS: C The client who has a strangulated inguinal hernia would likely develop bowel necrosis which can lead to sepsis. The nurse would observe for early signs and symptoms of sepsis such as fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia. If the client's condition is not promptly managed, bowel perforation, septic shock, and death can result.

The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pyelonephritis. What assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Fever b. Flank pain c. Hypertension d. Nausea and vomiting

ANS: C The client who has chronic pyelonephritis has renal damage and therefore has hypertension. The other assessment findings commonly occur in clients with acute pyelonephritis.

A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for colorectal cancer. Which dietary recommendation would the nurse teach the client? a. "Eat low-fiber and low-residual foods." b. "White rice and bread are easier to digest." c. "Add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your diet." d. "Foods high in animal fat help to protect the intestinal mucosa."

ANS: C The client would be taught to modify his or her diet to decrease animal fat and refined carbohydrates. The client should also increase high-fiber foods and Brassica vegetables, including broccoli and cauliflower, which help to protect the intestinal mucosa from colon cancer.

After teaching a client who is prescribed pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "The capsules can be opened and the powder sprinkled on applesauce if needed." b. "I will wipe my lips carefully after I drink the enzyme preparation." c. "The best time to take the enzymes is immediately after I have a meal or a snack." d. "I will not mix the enzyme powder with food or liquids that contain protein."

ANS: C The enzymes must be taken immediately before eating meals or snacks. If the client cannot swallow the capsules whole, they can be opened up and the powder sprinkled on applesauce, mashed fruit, or rice cereal. The client should wipe his or her lips carefully after drinking the enzyme preparation because the liquid could damage the skin. Protein items will be dissolved by the enzymes if they are mixed together.

The nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Positive Murphy sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn disease. A positive Murphy sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds is not commonly found with Crohn disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn disease.

A nurse cares for a young client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I cannot go to prom with an ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "The pouch won't be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom." c. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

ANS: C The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for patients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

A nurse assessing a client with colorectal cancer auscultates high-pitched bowel sounds and notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves. Which action would the nurse take? a. Ask if the client is experiencing pain in the right shoulder. b. Perform a rectal examination and assess for polyps. c. Recommend that the client have computed tomography. d. Administer a laxative to increase bowel movement activity.

ANS: C The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or high-pitched bowel sounds, is indicative of bowel obstruction caused by the tumor. The nurse would contact the primary health care provider with these results and recommend a computed tomography scan for further diagnostic testing. This assessment finding is not associated with right shoulder pain; peritonitis and cholecystitis are associated with referred pain to the right shoulder. The nurse generalist is not qualified to complete a rectal examination for polyps, and laxatives would not help this client.

The nurse assesses a client who has possible gastritis. Which assessment finding(s) indicate(s) that the client has chronic gastritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Anorexia b. Dyspepsia c. Intolerance of fatty foods d. Pernicious anemia e. Nausea and vomiting

ANS: C, D Intolerance of fatty or spicy foods and pernicious anemia are signs of chronic gastritis. Anorexia and nausea/vomiting can be seen in both conditions. Dyspepsia is seen in acute gastritis.

After teaching a client who is recovering from a colon resection to treat early-stage colorectal cancer (CRC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements by the client indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I must change the ostomy appliance daily and as needed." b. "I will use warm water and a soft washcloth to clean around the stoma." c. "I might start bicycling and swimming again once my incision has healed." d. "I will make sure that I make lifestyle changes to prevent constipation." e. "I will be sure to have the recommended colonoscopies."

ANS: C, D, E The client has had a colon resection for early CRC and there is no indication that the client also had a colostomy. Follow up with recommended colonoscopies are essential to monitor for CRC recurrence. Avoiding constipation will help improve intestinal motility which helps to decrease the risk for CRC recurrence. Exercise and other activities do not need to be restricted after the client has healed.

The nurse teaches a client about how to prevent transmission of gastroenteritis. Which statement by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I won't let anyone use my dishes or glasses." b. "I'll wash my hands with antibacterial soap." c. "I'll keep my bathroom extra clean." d. "I'll cook all the meals for my family."

ANS: D All of these statements are correct except for that the client should not prepare meals for others to help prevent transmission of gastroenteritis.

A client is scheduled for a hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan. What would the nurse include in client teaching about this diagnostic test? a. "You'll have to drink a contrast medium right before the test." b. "You'll need to do a bowel prep the nursing before the test." c. "You'll be able to drink liquids up until the test begins." d. "You'll have a large camera close to you during the test."

ANS: D Clients having a HIDA scan are NPO and receive an injectable nuclear medicine contrast. No bowel preparation is required. A large camera is close to the client for most of the test which can be a problem for clients who are claustrophobic.

After teaching a patient with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

ANS: D Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup [240 mL] of bean soup) would be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

After teaching a client who has a history of cholelithiasis, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client understands the dietary teaching? a. Lasagna, tossed salad with Italian dressing, and low-fat milk b. Grilled cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and coffee with cream c. Cream of potato soup, Caesar salad with chicken, and a diet cola d. Roasted chicken breast, baked potato with chives, and orange juice

ANS: D Clients with cholelithiasis should avoid foods high in fat and cholesterol, such as whole milk, butter, and fried foods. Lasagna, low-fat milk, grilled cheese, cream, and cream of potato soup all have high levels of fat. The meal with the least amount of fat is the chicken breast dinner.

A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for developing colorectal cancer? a. A 37-year-old who drinks eight cups of coffee daily. b. A 44-year-old with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). c. A 60-year-old lawyer who works 65 hours per week. d. A 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently.

ANS: D Colon cancer is rare before the age of 40, but its incidence increases rapidly with advancing age. Fast food tends to be high in fat and low in fiber, increasing the risk for colon cancer. Coffee intake, IBS, and a heavy workload do not increase the risk for colon cancer.

A client had an open traditional Whipple procedure this morning. For what priority complication would the nurse assess? a. Urinary tract infection b. Chronic kidney disease c. Heart failure d. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

ANS: D Due to the length and complexity of this type of surgery, the client is at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The nurse would assess for signs and symptoms of these imbalances so they can be managed early to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

A client is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia and seems sad and irritable. After assessing the client's behavior, which statement by the nurse would be the most appropriate? a. "The urine incontinence should not prevent you from socializing." b. "You seem depressed and should seek more pleasant things to do." c. "It is common for men at your age to have changes in mood." d. "Nocturia could cause interruption of your sleep and cause changes in mood."

ANS: D Frequent visits to the bathroom during the night could cause sleep interruptions and affect the client's mood and mental status. Telling the client his symptoms should not lead to less socialization is patronizing. Instructing the client to seek more pleasant things to do also is patronizing. Neither statement has any information the client could find useful. The statement about age has no validity and again does not offer useful information.

A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. What action would the nurse take? a. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. b. Contact the primary health care provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test. c. Review the client's recent dietary selections over 3 days. d. Perform a finger stick blood glucose assessment.

ANS: D Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L), which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L) will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a blood glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor are not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client's dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

The nurse is caring for a client with a large bowel obstruction due to fecal impaction. What position would be appropriate for the client while in bed? a. Prone b. Supine c. Recumbent d. Semi-Fowler

ANS: D Having the client in a semi-sitting position helps to decrease the pressure caused by abdominal distention and promotes thoracic expansion to facilitate breathing.

A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action would the nurse take? a. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity. b. Place the client on restricted fluids. c. Assess the client's creatinine level. d. Increase the client's fluid intake.

ANS: D Normal specific gravity for urine is 1.005 to 1.030. A high specific gravity can occur with dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow (often because of dehydration), and presence of antidiuretic hormone. Increasing the client's fluid intake would be a beneficial intervention. Assessing the creatinine or obtaining a urine culture would not provide data necessary for the nurse to make a clinical decision.

The nurse assesses a client with gastroenteritis. What risk factor would the nurse consider as the most likely cause of this disorder? a. Consuming too much fruit b. Consuming fried or pickled foods c. Consuming dairy products d. Consuming raw seafood

ANS: D Raw seafood is often contaminated and unless cooked can would most likely cause gastroenteritis. Any of the other food can also become contaminated if not stored properly or contaminated by workers/cooks who contaminate these foods.

The mother of an 18-year-old girl asks the nurse which screening her daughter would receive now based on evidence-based recommendations. Which suggestion by the nurse is best? a. Papanicolaou test b. Human papilloma virus (HPV) test c. Mammogram d. No screenings at this time

ANS: D Since the daughter is only 18, it is not recommended that she receive any of these screenings. Pap screenings are recommended to start at age 21. The HPV test is not recommended for screening but can be used for women who had an abnormal Pap test result. A mammogram is recommended for women aged 40 or older since cancers are more able to be distinguished from normal glandular tissue at that age.

The nurse teaches a client who has stress incontinence methods to regain more urinary continence. Which health teaching is the most important for the nurse to include for this client? a. What type of incontinence pads to use? b. What types of liquids to drink and when? c. Need to perform intermittent catheterizations. d. How to do Kegel exercises to strengthen muscles?

ANS: D The client who has stress incontinence needs to strengthen the muscles of the pelvic floor using Kegel exercises. Catheterizations would not help with incontinence. Incontinence pads may need to be used by this client but that is not the most important thing to teach, and it does not help the client regain more control over his or her bladder.

The nurse is teaching a client how to avoid the formation of hemorrhoids. What lifestyle change would the nurse include? a. Avoiding alcohol b. Quitting smoking c. Decreasing fluid intake d. Increasing dietary fiber

ANS: D The major cause of hemorrhoid formation is constipation. Therefore, the nurse teaches the client ways to prevent constipation, which include increasing dietary fiber, increasing exercise and fluid intake, and avoiding straining when have a stool.

A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of colorectal cancer. The client states, "My father and my brother had colon cancer. What is the chance that I will get cancer?" How would the nurse respond? a. "If you eat a low-fat and low-fiber diet, your chances decrease significantly." b. "You are safe. This is an autosomal dominant disorder that skips generations." c. "Preemptive surgery and chemotherapy will remove cancer cells and prevent cancer." d. "You should have a colonoscopy more frequently to identify abnormal polyps early."

ANS: D The nurse would encourage the patient to have frequent colonoscopies to identify abnormal polyps and cancerous cells early. The abnormal gene associated with colon cancer is an autosomal dominant gene mutation that does not skip a generation and places the client at high risk for cancer. Changing the client's diet to more high-fiber (not low-fiber) and preemptive chemotherapy may decrease the client's risk of colon cancer but will not prevent it.

A 67-year-old male client had serum laboratory tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 680 ng/dL (23.6 nmol/L); prostate-specific antigen: 10 ng/mL (10 mcg/L); prolactin: 5 ng/mL (217.4 pmol). What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge. b. Note the possibility of a testicular tumor. c. Communicate that results were normal. d. Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing.

ANS: D The prostate-specific antigen is increased from the normal of 0 to 2.5, which could indicate benign prostatic hyperplasia or prostate cancer. Further testing would have to be done. The other values are within the normal range for males.

A nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client who has Crohn disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L (2.6 mmol/L) b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 (8.2 109 /L) d. Client's weight decreased by 3 lb (1.4 kg)

ANS: A Fistulas place the patient with Crohn disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and would cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron. Which assessment question would the nurse ask this client before starting the drug? a. "Have you been experiencing any constipation?" b. "Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "What vitamins and supplements are you taking?"

ANS: A Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse would assess the client for constipation because it places the client at risk for this complication. The other questions do not identify the risk for complications related to alosetron.

A nurse contacts the primary health care provider after reviewing a client's laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL (12.5 mmol/L) and a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L). What collaborative care measure would the nurse recommend? a. Intravenous fluids b. Hemodialysis c. Fluid restriction d. Urine culture and sensitivity

ANS: A Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L). Normal creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53.0 to 106.1 mcmol/L) (males) or 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44.2 to 97.2 mcmol/L) (females). Creatinine is more specific for kidney function than BUN, because BUN can be affected by several factors (dehydration, high-protein diet, and catabolism). This client's creatinine is normal, which suggests a nonrenal cause for the elevated BUN. A common cause of increased BUN is dehydration, so the nurse would recommend giving the client more fluids, not placing the client on fluid restrictions. Hemodialysis is not an appropriate treatment for dehydration. The lab results do not indicate an infection; therefore, a urine culture and sensitivity are not appropriate.

The nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

ANS: A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.

The nurse delegates completing a bladder scan to assistive personnel (AP). Which action by the AP indicates that the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task? a. Selecting the female icon for all female patients and male icon for all male patients b. Telling the client, "This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder." c. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and removing it when finished d. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to place the scanning head

ANS: A The AP should use the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy. This allows the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the AP should choose the male icon. The AP should explain the procedure to the client, apply gel to the scanning head and clean it after use, and take at least two readings.

A nurse cares for a client with end-stage pancreatic cancer. The client asks, "Why is this happening to me?" How would the nurse respond? a. "I don't know. I wish I had an answer for you, but I don't." b. "It's important to keep a positive attitude for your family right now." c. "Scientists have not determined why cancer develops in certain people." d. "I think that this is a trial so you can become a better person because of it."

ANS: A The client is not asking the nurse to actually explain why the cancer has occurred. The client may be expressing his or her feelings of confusion, frustration, distress, and grief related to this diagnosis. Reminding the client to keep a positive attitude for his or her family does not address the client's emotions or current concerns. The nurse would validate that there is no easy or straightforward answer as to why the client has cancer. Telling a client that cancer is a trial is untrue and may negatively impact the client-nurse relationship.

The nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction would the nurse include in the health teaching? a. "Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration." b. "You should only drink 1 L of fluids daily." c. "Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk." d. "Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea."

ANS: A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

The nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-tinged output

ANS: A The nurse would assess the stoma for color and contact the primary health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark because these changes indicate possible lack of perfusion. The nurse would expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse cares for a client who states, "My husband is repulsed by my colostomy and refuses to be intimate with me." How would the nurse respond? a. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this." b. "You could try to wear longer lingerie that will better hide the ostomy appliance." c. "You should empty the pouch first so it will be less noticeable for your husband." d. "If you are not careful, you can hurt the stoma if you engage in sexual activity."

ANS: A The nurse would collaborate with the ostomy nurse to help the client and her husband work through intimacy issues. The nurse would not minimize the client's concern about her husband with ways to hide the ostomy. The client will not hurt the stoma by engaging in sexual activity.

A nurse cares for a client who has a new colostomy. Which action would the nurse take? a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. b. Change the ostomy pouch and barrier every morning. c. Allow the pouch to completely fill with stool prior to emptying it. d. Use surgical tape to secure the pouch and prevent leakage.

ANS: A The nurse would empty the new ostomy pouch frequently because of excess gas collection, and empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full of stool. The ostomy pouch does not need to be changed every morning. Ostomy barriers would be used to secure and seal the ostomy appliance; surgical tape would not be used.

A nurse cares for a client who had a colostomy placed in the ascending colon 2 weeks ago. The client states, "The stool in my pouch is still liquid." How would the nurse respond? a. "The stool will always be liquid with this type of colostomy." b. "Eating additional fiber will bulk up your stool and decrease diarrhea." c. "Your stool will become firmer over the next couple of weeks." d. "This is abnormal. I will contact your primary health care provider."

ANS: A The stool from an ascending colostomy can be expected to remain liquid because little large bowel is available to reabsorb the liquid from the stool. This finding is not abnormal. Liquid stool from an ascending colostomy will not become firmer with the addition of fiber to the client's diet or with the passage of time.

A nurse assesses a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which questions would the nurse include in this client's assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. "Which food types cause an exacerbation of symptoms?" b. "Where is your pain or discomfort and what does it feel like?" c. "Have you lost a significant amount of weight lately?" d. "Are your stools soft, watery, and black?" e. "Do you often experience nausea and vomiting"

ANS: A, B The nurse would ask the client about factors that may cause exacerbations of symptoms, including food, stress, and anxiety. The nurse would also assess the location, intensity, and quality of the patient's pain or discomfort. Clients who have IBS do not usually lose weight, have nausea and vomiting, or have stools that are black.

A nurse teaches a client about self-management after experiencing a urinary calculus treated by lithotripsy. Which statements would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better." b. "Drink at least 3 L of fluid each day." c. "The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve." d. "Report any blood present in your urine." e. "It is normal to experience pain and difficulty urinating."

ANS: A, B, C The client should be taught to finish the prescribed antibiotic to ensure that he or she does not get a urinary tract infection. The client should drink at least 3 L of fluid daily to dilute potential stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. After lithotripsy, the client should expect bruising that may take several weeks to resolve. The client should also experience blood in the urine for several days. The client should report any pain, fever, chills, or difficulty with urination to the primary health care provider as these may signal the beginning of an infection or the formation of another stone.

The nurse is caring for a client who has possible acute pancreatitis. What serum laboratory findings would the nurse expect for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated amylase b. Elevated lipase c. Elevated glucose d. Decreased calcium e. Elevated bilirubin f. Elevated leukocyte count

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F All of these choices are correct. Amylase and lipase are pancreatic enzymes that are released during pancreatic inflammation and injury. Leukocytes also increased due to his inflammatory response. Pancreatic injury affects the ability of insulin to be released causing increased glucose levels. Bilirubin is also typically increased due to hepatobiliary obstruction. Calcium and magnesium levels decrease because fatty acids bind free calcium and magnesium causing a lowered serum level; these changes occur in the presence of fat necrosis.

The nurse is caring for a client who just had a minimally invasive inguinal hernia repair. Which nursing actions would the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply ice to the surgical area for the first 24 hours after surgery. b. Encourage ambulation with assistance within the first few hours after surgery. c. Encourage deep breathing after surgery but teach the client to avoid coughing. d. Assess vital signs frequently for the first few hours after surgery. e. Teach the client to rest for several days after surgery when at home. f. Teach the client not to lift more than 10 lb (4.5 kg) until allowed by the surgeon.

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F All of these nursing actions are appropriate for the client having MIS for inguinal hernia repair.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who is newly diagnosed with a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which questions would the nurse ask in preparation for discharge? (Select all that apply.) a. Does your gym provide yoga classes? b. When should you contact your provider? c. What do you plan to eat for dinner? d. Do you have a scale for daily weights? e. How many bathrooms are in your home?

ANS: A, B, C, E A home assessment for a client who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease would include identifying adequacy and availability of bathroom facilities, opportunities for rest and relaxation, and the client's knowledge of dietary therapy, and when to contact the primary health care provider. The client does not need to perform daily weights.

Which of the following is (are) (a) risk factor(s) for gastric cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Achlorhydria b. Chronic atrophic gastritis c. H. pylori infection d. Iron deficiency anemia e. Pernicious anemia

ANS: A, B, C, E Achlorhydria, chronic atrophic gastritis, H. pylori infection, and pernicious anemia are all risk factors for developing gastric cancer. Iron deficiency anemia is not a risk factor.

The nurse assists the wound care/ostomy nurse assess a client prior to ostomy surgery. Which assessments would the nurse complete before marking the placement for the ostomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Contour of the abdomen when standing b. Location of the client's belt line c. Contour of the abdomen when lying d. Location of abdominal muscles e. Contour of the abdomen when sitting

ANS: A, B, C, E Before marking the placement for the ostomy, the nurse would consider the contour of the abdomen in lying, sitting, and standing positions, the location of the belt line and possible location in the rectus muscle. The location of abdominal muscles is not considered.

The nurse is preparing a client who has chronic pancreatitis about how to prevent exacerbations of the disease. Which health teaching will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "Avoid alcohol ingestion." b. "Be sure and balance rest with activity." c. "Avoid caffeinated beverages." d. "Avoid green, leafy vegetables." e. "Eat small meals and high-calorie snacks."

ANS: A, B, C, E Clients who have chronic pancreatitis need to avoid GI stimulants, including alcohol, caffeine, and nicotine. Food and snacks need to be high-calorie to prevent additional weight loss. Green vegetables can be consumed if tolerated by the client.

A nurse cares for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital with complications of diverticulitis. Which actions would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medications as prescribed. b. Palpate the abdomen for distention. c. Assess for sudden changes in mental status. d. Provide the client with a high-fiber diet. e. Evaluate stools for occult blood.

ANS: A, B, C, E When caring for an older adult who has diverticulitis, the nurse would administer analgesics as prescribed, palpate the abdomen for distention and tenderness, assess for confusion and sudden changes in mental status, and check stools for occult or frank bleeding. A low-fiber/residue diet would be provided when symptoms are present and a high-fiber diet when inflammation resolves.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with urinary tract infection (UTI). What common urinary signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysuria b. Frequency c. Burning d. Fever e. Chills f. Hematuria

ANS: A, B, C, F Fever and chills may occur in clients who have a UTI if the infection has expanded beyond the bladder into the kidneys. However, these symptoms are not urinary signs and symptoms.

The nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding—erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation—localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon—transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction—paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula—dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

ANS: A, B, D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

A nurse assesses a client with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Proteinuria b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Dehydration d. Lipiduria e. Dysuria f. Costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness

ANS: A, B, D Nephrotic syndrome is caused by glomerular damage and is characterized by proteinuria (protein level higher than 3.5 g/24 hr), hypoalbuminemia, edema, and lipiduria. Fluid overload leading to edema and hypertension is common with nephrotic syndrome; dehydration does not occur. Dysuria is present with cystitis. CVA tenderness is present with inflammatory changes in the kidney.

A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their description? (Select all that apply.) a. Stress incontinence—urine loss with physical exertion b. Urge incontinence—loss of urine upon feeling the need to void c. Functional incontinence—urine loss results from abnormal detrusor contractions d. Overflow incontinence—constant dribbling of urine e. Reflex incontinence—leakage of urine without lower urinary tract disorder

ANS: A, B, D Stress incontinence is a loss of urine with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with an abrupt and strong urge to void and usually has a large amount of urine released with each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs with bladder distention and results in a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence is the leakage of urine caused by factors other than a disorder of the lower urinary tract. Reflex incontinence results from abnormal detrusor contractions from a neurologic abnormality.

A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis would the nurse identify as normal? (Select all that apply.) a. pH: 6 b. Specific gravity: 1.015 c. Protein: 1.2 mg/dL d. Glucose: negative e. Nitrate: small f. Leukocyte esterase: positive

ANS: A, B, D The pH, specific gravity, and glucose are all within normal ranges. The other values are abnormal.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with celiac disease and preparing to start natalizumab. Which health teaching would the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Need to have drug administered by a primary health care provider. b. Need to avoid crowds and individuals who have infection. c. Need to report injection reactions such as redness and swelling. d. Awareness of a rare but potentially fatal drug complication. e. Need to report any signs and symptoms of infection immediately.

ANS: A, B, D, E All of these choices are correct except that the drug is given intravenously. Therefore, there is no need to teach the client to report injection reactions because the client does not self-administer the medication subcutaneously. Natalizumab can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), but it is a very rare disorder causing cognitive, sensory, and/or motor changes.

A nurse prepares a client for a percutaneous kidney biopsy. What actions should the nurse take prior to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours. b. Review coagulation study results. c. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position. d. Assess for blood in the client's urine. e. Administer client's antihypertensive medications.

ANS: A, B, E Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the patient should be NPO for 4 to 6 hours. Coagulation studies should be completed to prevent bleeding after the biopsy. Blood pressure medications should be administered to prevent hypertension before and after the procedure. There is no need to keep the patient on bedrest or assess for blood in the client's urine prior to the procedure; these interventions should be implemented after a percutaneous kidney biopsy.

A nurse is preparing to administer pantoprazole intravenously to prevent stress ulcers during surgery. What action(s) by the nurse is (are) most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer the drug through a separate IV line. b. Infuse pantoprazole using an IV pump. c. Keep the drug in its original brown container. d. Take vital signs frequently during infusion. e. Use an in-line IV filter when infusing.

ANS: A, B, E When infusing pantoprazole, use a separate IV line, a pump, and an in-line filter. A brown wrapper and frequent vital signs are not needed.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a colonoscopy. Which actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Obtain vital signs every 15 to 30 minutes until alert. b. Assess the client for rectal bleeding and severe pain. c. Administer prescribed pain medications as needed. d. Monitor the client's serum and urine glucose levels. e. Confirm the client has a ride home and plans to rest

ANS: A, B, E During the recovery phase after a colonoscopy, the nurse would obtain vital signs every 15 to 30 minutes until the client is alert, assess for rectal bleeding or severe pain, and confirm the client has arranged for another person to drive home to get rest. Pain medications are not necessary after the procedure, and neither is glucose monitoring

A nurse plans care for an older adult patient. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.) a. Ensure adequate fluid intake. b. Leave the bathroom light on at night. c. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours. d. Delegate bladder training instructions to the assistive personnel (AP). e. Provide thorough perineal care after each voiding. f. Assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infection.

ANS: A, B, E, F The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate fluid intake and has adequate lighting to ambulate safely to the bathroom at night, encourage the client to use the toilet every 2 hours, provide thorough perineal care after each voiding, and assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infections. The nurse would not delegate any teaching to the AP, including bladder training instructions. The AP may participate in bladder training activities, including encouraging and assisting the client to the bathroom at specific times.

A client asks the nurse why she has urinary incontinence. What risk factors would the nurse recall in preparing to respond to the client's question? (Select all that apply.) a. Diuretic therapy b. Anorexia nervosa c. Stroke d. Dementia e. Arthritis f. Parkinson disease

ANS: A, C, D, E, F Drugs, such as diuretics, cause frequent voiding, often in large amounts. Diseases or disorders that limit mobility, such as stroke, arthritis, and Parkinson disease, can prevent an individual from getting to the bathroom in a timely manner. Mental/behavioral problems, such as dementia, impair cognition and the ability to recognize when he or she needs to void.

The nurse is caring for a client with peritonitis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea and vomiting b. Distended rigid abdomen c. Abdominal pain d. Bradycardia e. Decreased urinary output f. Fever

ANS: A, C, D, E, F Peritonitis is an acute inflammatory disorder. Therefore, the client would likely have all of these signs and symptoms but would have tachycardia rather than bradycardia due to dehydration from fever.

The nurse assesses a client who has chronic pancreatitis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Ascites b. Weight gain c. Steatorrhea d. Jaundice e. Polydipsia f. Polyuria

ANS: A, C, D, E, F The client who has chronic pancreatitis has all of these signs and symptoms except he or she loses weight. Ascites and jaundice result from biliary obstruction; ascites is associated with portal hypertension. Steatorrhea is fatty stool that occurs because lipase is not available in the duodenum; because it is released by the disease pancreas into the bloodstream. Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia result from diabetes mellitus, a common problem seen in clients whose pancreas is unable to release adequate amounts of insulin.

The nurse plans care for a client who has acute pancreatitis and is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). With which health care team members would the nurse collaborate to provide appropriate nutrition to this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Registered dietitian nutritionist b. Nursing assistant c. Clinical pharmacist d. Certified herbalist e. Primary health care provider

ANS: A, C, E Clients who are prescribed NPO while experiencing an acute pancreatitis episode may need enteral or parenteral nutrition. The nurse would collaborate with the registered dietitian nutritionist, clinical pharmacist, and primary health care provider to plan and implement the more appropriate nutritional interventions. The nursing assistant and certified herbalist would not assist with this clinical decision.

The nurse is caring for a client who has perineal surgical wound. Which actions would the nurse take to promote comfort and wound healing? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the client into a side-lying position. b. Use a rubber donut device when sitting up. c. Apply warm compresses three to four times a day. d. Instruct the client to wear boxer shorts. e. Place an absorbent dressing over the wound.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse would place an absorbent pad over the wound and apply warm compresses to the wound area. The nurse would also instruct the male client to wear jockey-type shorts for support rather than boxers, assume a side-lying position in bed, avoid sitting for long periods, and use foam pads or soft pillows whenever in a sitting position. The patient should avoid the use of air rings or rubber donut devices.

A client has dumping syndrome. What menu selections indicate the client understands the correct diet to manage this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Apricots b. Coffee cake c. Milk shake d. Potato soup e. Steamed broccoli

ANS: A, D Canned apricots and potato soup are appropriate selections as they are part of a high-protein, high-fat, and low- to moderate-carbohydrate diet. Coffee cake and other sweets must be avoided. Milk products and sweet drinks such as shakes must be avoided. Gas-forming foods such as broccoli must also be avoided.

A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cystoscopy. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in urine output b. Tolerating oral fluids c. Prescription for metformin d. Blood clots present in the urine e. Burning sensation when urinating

ANS: A, D The nurse would monitor urine output and contact the primary health care provider if urine output decreases or becomes absent. The nurse would also assess for blood in the client's urine. The urine may be pink-tinged, but gross bleeding or blood clots should not be present. If bleeding is present, the nurse would urgently contact the primary health care provider. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive outcome and does not need intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the patient received dye; no dye is used in a cystoscopy procedure. The client may experience a burning sensation when urinating after this procedure; this would not require a call to the primary health care provider.

The nurse is planning health teaching for a client starting mirabegron for urinary incontinence. What health teaching would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "Monitor blood tests carefully if you are prescribed warfarin." b. "Avoid crowds and individuals with infection." c. "Report any fever to your primary health care provider." d. "Take your blood pressure frequently at home." e. "Report palpitations or chest soreness that may occur."

ANS: A, D This drug can cause increase blood pressure and, therefore, the client's blood pressure should be monitored. Mirabegron can increase the effect of warfarin causing bleeding or bruising. The client will need additional coagulation studies to ensure that the INR is within a therapeutic range.

The nurse teaches a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements would the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands after any contact with animals." b. "It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer." c. "Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea." d. "Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables." e. "Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs."

ANS: A, D Washing hands after contact with animals and using separate cutting boards for meat and other foods will help prevent E. coli infection. The other statements are not related to preventing E. coli infection.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube (NGT). Which actions would the nurse take for client care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for proper placement of the tube every 4 hours or per agency policy. b. Flush the tube with water every hour to ensure patency. c. Secure the NG tube to the client's chin. d. Disconnect suction when auscultating bowel peristalsis. e. Monitor the client's skin around the tube site for irritation.

ANS: A, D, E The nurse would frequently assess for NGT placement, patency, and output (drainage) every 4 hours or per agency policy. The nurse would also monitor the skin around the tube for irritation and secure the tube to the client's nose. When auscultating bowel sounds for peristalsis, the nurse would disconnect suction. NGT irrigation may or may not be prescribed. If it is prescribed, hourly irrigation is not appropriate.

After treating several young women for urinary tract infections (UTIs), the college nurse plans an educational offering on reducing the risk of getting a UTI. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Void before and after each act of intercourse. b. Consider changing to spermicide from birth control pills. c. Do not douche or use scented feminine products. d. Wear loose-fitting nylon panties. e. Wipe or clean the perineum from front to back.

ANS: A, D, E Woman can reduce their risk of contracting UTIs by voiding before and after intercourse, not douching or using scented feminine products, and wiping from front to back. If spermicides are currently used, the woman should consider another form of birth control. Loose-fitting cotton underwear is best.

After teaching a client who has chronic pancreatitis and will be discharged with enzyme replacement therapy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will take the enzymes between meals." b. "The enteric-coated preparations cannot be crushed." c. "Swallowing the tables without chewing is best." d. "I will wipe my lips after taking the enzymes." e. "Enzymes should be taken with high-protein foods."

ANS: A, E Client teaching related to self-management of enzyme replacement therapy would include taking the enzymes with meals and snacks but not mixing enzyme preparations with protein-containing foods. Clients would not crush enteric-coated preparations and should swallow tablets without chewing to minimize oral irritation and allow the drug to be released slowly. Wiping lips after taking enzymes also minimizes skin irritation.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a postoperative paralytic ileus following abdominal surgery. What drug is appropriate to manage this nonmechanical bowel obstruction? a. Alosetron b. Alvimopan c. Amitiptyline d. Amlodipine

ANS: B Alvimopan is the appropriate drug to promote peristalsis for clients who have a paralytic ileus. The other drugs do not affect intestinal activity.

A client has an external percutaneous transhepatic biliary catheter inserted for a biliary obstruction. What health teaching about catheter care would the nurse provide for the client? a. "Cap the catheter drain at night to prevent leakage and skin damage." b. "Position the drainage bag lower than the catheter insertion site." c. "Irrigate the catheter with an ounce of saline every night." d. "Pierce a hole in the top of the drainage bag to get rid of odors."

ANS: B An external temporary or permanent catheter drains bile by gravity into a bag that collects bile. Therefore, the drainage bag should be lower that the catheter insertion site. The catheter should not be capped or irrigated, and no holes should be made in the bag to prevent bile from having contact with the skin.

A client with metastatic prostate cancer has been prescribed leuprolide, a bisphosphonate, and flutamide. Which statement by the client warrants further investigation by the nurse? a. "I go for a short walk each day, even when I am very tired." b. "My wife has noticed my eyes looking a little yellow." c. "I ordered some looser shirts to hide my enlarging breasts." d. "Now I understand my wife's hot flashes with menopause."

ANS: B Flutamide is an antiandrogen drug that can cause liver toxicity. The nurse would follow up on the statement that the client's eyes may be looking a little yellow which could indicate the onset of this adverse effect. Leuprolide can cause osteoporosis, hot flashes, and gynecomastia. The statements regarding weight-bearing exercise, enlarging breasts, and hot flashes are not cause for concern.

After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the diet therapy for this condition? a. "I must decrease my intake of fat." b. "I will increase my intake of protein." c. "A decreased intake of carbohydrates will be required." d. "An increased intake of vitamin C is necessary."

ANS: B In nephrotic syndrome, the renal loss of protein is significant, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss would be matched by increased intake of protein. The client would not need to adjust fat, carbohydrates, or vitamins based on this disorder.

A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis would the nurse recognize as abnormal? a. pH of 5.6 b. Ketone bodies present c. Specific gravity of 1.020 d. Clear and yellow color

ANS: B Ketone bodies are by-products of incomplete metabolism of fatty acids. Normally, no ketones are present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when fat sources are used instead of glucose to provide cellular energy. A pH between 4.6 and 8, specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow urine are normal findings in a urinalysis.

What does the nurse learn about the function of colony-stimulating factor? a. Triggers the bone marrow to shorten the time needed to produce mature WBCs. b. Causes capillary leak in acute inflammation. c. Responsible for creating exudate (pus) at infectious sites. d. Dilates blood vessels at the site of inflammation leading to hyperemia.

a. triggers the bone marrow to shorten the time needed to produce mature WBCs. Colony-stimulating factor triggers the bone marrow to shorten the time needed to produce mature WBCs from about 14 days to hours. Increased blood flow to the local area of inflammation produces hyperemia, or redness. Exudate is formed by neutrophils and consists of dead WBCs, necrotic tissue, and fluids that escape from damaged cells. Histamine, serotonin, and kinins dilate arterioles leading to redness and warmth

The nurse is teaching a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What statement indicates the client needs further information? a. "There should be no problem with drinking wine with dinner each night." b. "I am so glad that I weaned myself off of coffee about a year ago." c. "I need to inform my allergist that I cannot take my normal antihistamine." d. "My routine of drinking a quart (liter) of water first thing in the morning needs to change."

ANS: A Caffeine and alcohol have diuretic effects and so the nurse would teach about avoiding or limiting their intake. The statement about drinking wine indicates a need for further instruction. Antihistamines can cause urinary retention. Clients are taught to avoid drinking large quantities of fluid at one time.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. What action would the nurse take? a. Position the client to lay on the surgical incision. b. Measure the specific gravity of the client's urine. c. Administer intravenous pain medications. d. Assess the rate and quality of the client's pulse.

ANS: D The nurse would first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the primary health care provider. The extensive nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Repositioning the patient, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

A nurse is assessing a client reporting right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain. What technique would the nurse use to assess this client's abdomen? a. Auscultate after palpating. b. Avoid any type of palpation. c. Lightly palpate the RUQ first. d. Lightly palpate the RUQ last

ANS: D If pain is present in a certain area of the abdomen, that area would be palpated last to keep the client from tensing which could possibly affect the rest of the examination. Auscultation of the abdomen occurs prior to palpation.

A client is having a hysterosalpingogram. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assist the client in sitting up after the procedure. b. Provide the client with a pad to avoid dye stains on the clothes. c. Teach her to take all antibiotics prescribed until finished. d. Inform the client that the procedure may cause shoulder pain.

ANS: A During the procedure, the client may experience light-headedness, so the nurse would assist her with sitting up afterwards for safety. The nurse does provide a pad to prevent any staining from the dye and does inform the client of the possibility of shoulder pain, but an action to prevent injury is more important. Antibiotics are not prescribed afterward.

An older adult has had an instance of drug toxicity and asks why this happens, since the client has been on this medication for years at the same dose. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Changes in your liver cause drugs to be metabolized differently." b. "Perhaps you don't need as high a dose of the drug as before." c. "Stomach muscles atrophy with age and you digest more slowly." d. "Your body probably can't tolerate as much medication anymore."

ANS: A Decreased liver enzyme activity depresses drug metabolism, which leads to accumulation of drugs—possibly to toxic levels. The other options do not accurately explain this age-related change.

After teaching a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should drink at least 3 L of fluid every day." b. "I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet." c. "Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones." d. "The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone."

ANS: A Dehydration contributes to the precipitation of minerals to form a stone. Although increased intake of calcium causes hypercalcemia and leads to excessive calcium filtered into the urine, if the client is well hydrated, the calcium will be excreted without issues. Dehydration increases the risk for supersaturation of calcium in the urine, which contributes to stone formation. The nurse would encourage the client to drink more fluids, not decrease calcium intake. Ingestion of aspirin or aspirin-containing products does not cause a stone. Antibiotics neither prevent nor treat a stone.

A nurse evaluates a client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN). Which assessment finding would the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment? a. The client lost 11 lb (5 kg) in the past 10 days. b. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.048. c. No blood is observed in the client's urine. d. The client's blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

ANS: A Fluid retention is a major feature of acute GN. This weight loss represents fluid loss, indicating that the glomeruli are performing the function of filtration. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high. Blood is not usually seen in GN, so this finding would be expected. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is too high; this may indicate kidney damage or fluid overload.

The nurse is conducting a history on a male client to determine the severity of symptoms associated with prostate enlargement. Which finding is cause for prompt action by the nurse? a. Hematuria b. Urinary hesitancy c. Postvoid dribbling d. Weak urinary stream

ANS: A Hematuria, especially at the start or end of the urine stream, could indicate infection due to possible urine retention and would cause the nurse to act promptly. Common symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are urinary hesitancy, postvoid dribbling, and a weak urinary stream due to the enlarged prostate causing bladder outlet obstruction.

After teaching a client who has stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will limit my total intake of fluids." b. "I must avoid drinking alcoholic beverages." c. "I must avoid drinking caffeinated beverages." d. "I shall try to lose about 10% of my body weight."

ANS: A Limiting fluids concentrates urine and can irritate tissues, leading to increased incontinence or cystitis. Many people try to manage incontinence by limiting fluids. Alcoholic and caffeinated beverages are bladder stimulants. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing incontinence.

A nurse obtains the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which question would the nurse ask when determining this client's risk factors? a. "Do you smoke cigarettes?" b. "Do you use any alcohol?" c. "Do you use recreational drugs?" d. "Do you take any prescription drugs?"

ANS: A Smoking is known to be a factor that greatly increases the risk of bladder cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and prescription drug use (except medications that contain phenacetin) are not known to markedly increase the risk of developing bladder cancer.

A nurse teaches a young female client who is prescribed cephalexin for a urinary tract infection. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use a second form of birth control while on this medication." b. "You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this drug." c. "You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this drug." d. "Watch for blood in your urine while taking this medication."

ANS: A The client should use a second form of birth control because antibiotic therapy reduces the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives. She should not experience increased menstrual bleeding, an irregular heartbeat, or blood in her urine while taking the drug.

The nurse is teaching an uncircumcised 65-year-old client about self-management of a urinary catheter in preparation for discharge to his home. What statement indicates the client needs more information? a. "I have to wash the outside of the catheter once a day with soap and water. b. "I should take extra time to clean the catheter site by pushing the foreskin back." c. "The drainage bag needs to be changed at least once a week and as needed." d. "I should pour a solution of vinegar and water through the tubing and bag."

ANS: A The first few inches (centimeters) of the catheter must be washed daily starting at the penis and washing outward with soap and water. The other options are correct for self-management of a urinary catheter in the home setting.

A nurse assesses a client who presents with renal calculi. Which question would the nurse ask? a. "Do any of your family members have this problem?" b. "Do you drink any cranberry juice?" c. "Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?" d. "Do you experience burning with urination?"

ANS: A There is a strong association between family history and stone formation and recurrence. Nephrolithiasis is associated with many genetic variations; therefore, the nurse should ask whether other family members have also had renal stones. The other questions do not refer to renal calculi but instead are questions that should be asked of a patient with a urinary tract infection.

A client comes to the clinic with concerns about an enlarged left testicle and heaviness in his lower abdomen. Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered? a. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) c. Serum acid phosphatase (PAP) d. C-reactive protein (CRP)

ANS: A These are symptoms of possible testicular cancer. AFP is a tumor marker that is elevated in testicular cancer. PSA and PAP testing is used in testing for prostate cancer and its metastasis. CRP is diagnostic for inflammatory conditions.

To promote comfort and the passage of flatus after a colonoscopy, in what position does the nurse place the client? a. Left lateral b. Prone c. Right lateral d. Supine

ANS: A After colonoscopy, clients have less discomfort and quicker passage of flatus when placed in the left lateral position.

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and the nurse has provided instructions on the bowel cleansing regimen. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It's a good thing I love orange and cherry gelatin." b. "My spouse will be here to drive me home." c. "I'll avoid ibuprofen for several days before the test." d. "I'll buy a case of clear Gatorade before the prep."

ANS: A The client would be advised to avoid beverages and gelatin that are red, orange, or purple in color as their residue can appear to be blood. The other statements show an understanding of the preparation for the procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client who has frequent gastric pain and dyspepsia. Which procedure would the nurse expect for the client to make an accurate diagnosis? a. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) b. Abdominal arteriogram c. Nuclear medicine scan d. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

ANS: A The gold standard for diagnosing disorders of the stomach is an EGD which allows direct visualization by the endoscopist into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. What is the priority action for the client's care? a. Maintain airway, breathing, and circulation. b. Monitor vital signs, including orthostatic blood pressures. c. Draw blood for hemoglobin and hematocrit immediately. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to intermittent suction

ANS: A The priority action for any client experiencing deterioration or an emergent situation is monitor and maintain airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). Taking orthostatic blood pressures would not be appropriate, but the nurse would monitor vital signs carefully and draw blood for hemoglobin and hematocrit. An NG tube would also need to be inserted and connected to gastric suction to rest the GI tract. However, none of these actions take priority over maintaining ABCs.

A nurse teaches a client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which statements would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Take your blood pressure every morning." b. "Weigh yourself at the same time each day." c. "Adjust your diet to prevent diarrhea." d. "Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances." e. "Assess your urine for renal stones."

ANS: A, B, D A client who has PKD would measure and record his or her blood pressure and weight daily, limit salt intake, and adjust dietary selections to prevent constipation. The client should notify the primary health care provider if urine smells foul or has blood in it, as these are signs of a urinary tract infection or glomerular injury. The client should also notify the provider if visual disturbances are experienced, as this is a sign of a possible berry aneurysm, which is a complication of PKD. Diarrhea and renal stones are not manifestations or complications of PKD; therefore, teaching related to these concepts would be inappropriate.

A client came to the clinic with erectile dysfunction. What are some possible causes of this condition that the nurse could discuss with the client during history taking? (Select all that apply.) a. Recent prostatectomy b. Long-term hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hour-long exercise sessions e. Consumption of beer each night f. Taking long hot baths

ANS: A, B, C, E Organic erectile dysfunction can be caused by surgical procedures, vascular diseases such as hypertension and its treatment, diabetes mellitus, and alcohol consumption. There is no evidence that exercise or hot baths are related to this problem.

The nurse recalls that the risk factors for acute gastritis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Corticosteroids d. Fruit juice e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

ANS: A, B, C, E Risk factors for acute gastritis include alcohol, caffeine, corticosteroids, and chronic NSAID use. Fruit juice is not a risk factor, although in some people it does cause distress.

. The nurse working with older clients understands age-related changes in the gastrointestinal system. Which changes does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased hydrochloric acid production b. Diminished sensation that can lead to constipation c. Fat not digested as well in older adults d. Increased peristalsis in the large intestine e. Pancreatic vessels become calcified

ANS: A, B, C, E Several age-related changes occur in the gastrointestinal system. These include decreased hydrochloric acid production, diminished nerve function that leads to decreased sensation of the need to pass stool, decreased fat digestion, decreased peristalsis in the large intestine, and calcification of pancreatic vessels.

A client had an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The nurse teaches the client and family about the signs of potential complications which include what problems? (Select all that apply.) a. Cholangitis b. Pancreatitis c. Perforation d. Renal lithiasis e. Sepsis

ANS: A, B, C, E Possible complications after an ERCP include cholangitis, pancreatitis, perforation, sepsis, and bleeding. Kidney stones are not a complication of ERCP.

The nurse has provided postvasectomy discharge instructions to the client. What statement by the client demonstrates good understanding? a. "We can have unprotected intercourse as soon as I have healed." b. "An ice pack to my scrotum will help with the swelling." c. "I need to report signs of infection, swelling, or bruising right away." d. "The stitches can be removed here in the office in 7 to 10 days."

ANS: B After vasectomy, clients are instructed to use birth control until the 3-month semen analysis shows that the procedure has worked, to use an ice pack intermittently for 24 to 48 hours, that swelling and bruising are normal, and the bandage can be removed in 48 hours. There are no sutures to be removed.

A nurse assesses a client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months. Which question(s) would the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.) a. "How much water do you drink every day?" b. "Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?" c. "Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?" d. "Are you on steroids or other immune-suppressing drugs?" e. "Do you drink grapefruit juice or orange juice daily?"

ANS: A, B, D Fluid intake, estrogen levels, and immune suppression all can increase the chance of recurrent cystitis. Family history is usually insignificant, and cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to increase the acidic pH and reduce the risk for bacterial cystitis.

The nurse is assessing a client for reproductive health problems. What assessments are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Bleeding b. Pain c. Sexual orientation d. Masses e. Discharge

ANS: A, B, D, E Bleeding, pain, masses, and discharge are common health problems that bring a client to a primary health care provider. Sexual orientation is not considered a health problem. Sexual activity would be assessed as part of the client's history.

The nurse is teaching an elderly client the risks of infection for older adults. Which of the following factors would the nurse include in the education? (Select all that apply.) a. Higher risk for respiratory tract and genitourinary infections. b. May not have a fever with severe infection. c. Show expected changes in white blood cell counts. d. Should receive influenza, pneumococcal, and shingles vaccinations. e. Skin tests for tuberculosis may be falsely negative. f. Booster vaccinations are not likely needed as one ages

ANS: A, B, D, E Immunity changes during an adult's life and older adults have decreased immune function. The number and function of neutrophils and macrophages are reduced leading to reduced response to infection and injury, such as temperature elevation. The usual response of an increased white blood cell count is delayed or absent. Older adults are less able to make new antibodies in response to the presence of new antigens requiring repeat vaccinations and immunizations. Skin tests for tuberculosis may be falsely negative and there is an increased risk for bacterial and fungal infections due to the decreased number of circulating T-lymphocytes

The nurse is reviewing the results of a client's urinalysis. The client has a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which urine findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Presence of protein b. Presence of red blood cells c. Presence of white blood cells d. Acidic urine e. Dilute urine

ANS: A, C, D The nurse would expect all of these findings except that the urine is usually concentrated with a high specific gravity.

A nurse is studying the functions of specific leukocytes. Which leukocytes are matched correctly with their function? (Select all that apply.) a. Monocyte: matures into a macrophage. b. Basophil: releases vasoactive amines during an allergic reaction. c. Plasma cell: secretes immunoglobulins in response to the presence of a specific antigen. d. Cytotoxic T-cells: attacks and destroys ingested poisons and toxins. e. Natural killer cell: nonselectively attacks non-self cells. f. Regulator T-cells: become sensitized for self-recognition in the bone marrow.

ANS: A, C, E Monocytes mature into macrophages, plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin in the presence of specific antigens, and natural killer cells nonselectively attack non-self cells. Basophils release histamines, kinins, and heparin in areas of tissue damage. Cytotoxic T-cells selectively attack and destroy non-self cells, including virally infected cells, grafts, and transplanted organs. Regulator T-cells become sensitized for self-recognition in the thymus.

The nurse is aware of the most recent American Cancer Society Screening Guidelines for colon cancer, which include which accepted testing modalities for people over the age of 50? (Select all that apply.) a. Colonoscopy every 10 years b. Endoscopy every 5 years c. Computed tomography (CT) colonography every 5 years d. Double-contrast barium enema every 10 years e. Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years

ANS: A, C, E The options for colon cancer screening for people over the age of 50 include colonoscopy every 10 years and CT colonography, double-contrast barium enema, or flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years.

The nurse assesses clients for the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which signs/symptoms does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Pulselessness c. Pallor d. Redness e. Warmth f. Decreased function

ANS: A, D, E, The five cardinal signs of inflammation include redness, warmth, pain, swelling, and decreased function.

The nurse caring for clients assesses their daily laboratory profiles. Which lab results are considered to be in the normal range? (Select all that apply.) a. Segmented neutrophils: 68% b. Bands: 19% c. Monocytes: 12% d. Lymphocytes: 38% e. Eosinophils: 2% f. Basophils: 1%

ANS: A, D, E, F The normal range for segmented neutrophils is 55% to 70%. The normal range for bands is 5%. The normal range for monocytes is 2% to 8%. The normal range for lymphocytes is 20% to 40%. The normal range for eosinophils is 1% to 4%. The normal range for basophils is 0.5% to 1%.

A client is interested in learning about the risk factors for prostate cancer. Which factors does the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. First-degree relative with prostate cancer b. Smoking c. Obesity d. Advanced age e. Eating too much red meat f. Race

ANS: A, D, F Risk factors for prostate cancer include having a first-degree relative with the disease, advanced age, and African-American race. Smoking, obesity, and eating too much red meat are not considered risk factors. Research is exploring the relationship with diet.

A new nurse care for several client after radical prostatectomies for prostate cancer. What action by the nurse indicates a need to review care measures for this type of client? a. Delegates emptying and recording contents of the drainage devices. b. Administers a suppository to the client who reports constipation. c. Removes the sequential compression stockings on ambulatory clients. d. Discusses long-term complications such as erectile dysfunction.

ANS: B After a radical prostatectomy, the nurse would not provide a rectal suppository for constipation. All rectal treatments are contraindicated. The nurse would delegate emptying and recording drainage, remove the sequential pressure devices when clients begin ambulating, and discuss long-term complications of the operation.

A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection (bacterial cystitis). The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in the client's white blood cell count. What action would the nurse take? a. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells. b. Notify the primary health care provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics. c. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to strain the client's urine for renal calculi. d. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

ANS: B An increase in band cells creates a "shift to the left." A left shift most commonly occurs with urosepsis and is seen rarely with uncomplicated urinary tract infections. The nurse will be administering antibiotics, most likely via IV, so he or she would notify the primary health care provider and prepare to give the antibiotics. The shift to the left is part of a differential white blood cell count. The nurse would not need to strain urine for stones. Allergic reactions are associated with elevated eosinophil cells, not band cells.

A 72-year-old woman is being assessed by the nurse for an annual physical. Which finding is of concern to the nurse? a. Thinning of pubic hair b. Increased size of the uterus c. Decreased size of the clitoris d. Loss of tone of the pelvic ligaments

ANS: B An increased size of the uterus is an abnormal finding and would be assessed further. Normal changes in the reproductive system related to aging include the graying and thinning of pubic hair, decreased size of the labia majora and clitoris, and loss of tone and elasticity of the pelvic ligaments and connective tissue. The uterus would normally be decreased, not increased, in size due to changes in hormonal levels and atrophy.

A client has returned from a transurethral resection of the prostate with a continuous bladder irrigation. Five hours after the operation, the nurse notes the drainage is bright red with clots. What action should the nurse take first? a. Review the most recent hemoglobin and hematocrit. b. Take vital signs and begin immediate irrigation with sterile water. c. Notify the primary health care provider immediately. d. Remind the client not to pull on the catheter.

ANS: B Bright red urinary drainage with clots may indicate arterial bleeding. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider immediately and begin irritating the catheter with sterile normal saline (not sterile water). The nurse can delegate the vital signs. The nurse would review hemoglobin and hematocrit and would remind the client not to pull on the catheter for all clients with bladder irrigation. But for this client who may be bleeding the nurse would take further action to address the problem.

The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has just experienced an endometrial biopsy. Which finding would be reported to the primary health care provider immediately? a. Mild cramping b. Slight chills and fever c. Spotting of blood d. Fatigue after anesthesia

ANS: B Chills and fever could indicate an infection and would be reported immediately to the primary health care provider . Mild cramping, spotting, and fatigue are normal findings after an endometrial biopsy; however, anesthesia may or may not be used.

After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will take a laxative every night before going to bed." b. "I must increase my intake of dietary fiber and fluids." c. "I shall only use salt when I am cooking my own food." d. "I'll eat white bread to minimize gastrointestinal gas."

ANS: B Clients with PKD often have constipation, which can be managed with increased fiber, exercise, and drinking plenty of water. Laxatives would be used cautiously. Clients with PKD would be on a restricted salt diet, which includes not cooking with salt. White bread has a low-fiber count and would not be included in a high-fiber diet.

After delegating care to assistive personnel (AP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the AP's understanding. Which action indicates that the AP needs additional teaching? a. Toileting the client after breakfast b. Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet c. Encouraging the client to drink fluids d. Recording the client's incontinence episodes

ANS: B Habit training is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should reeducate the AP on the technique of habit training. The AP should continue to toilet the client after meals, encourage the client to drink fluids, and record incontinent episodes.

A nurse cares for a postmenopausal client who has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months. The client asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Your immune system becomes less effective as you age." b. "Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection." c. "You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area." d. "It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease."

ANS: B Low estrogen levels decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area and cause other tissue changes, predisposing it to the development of infection. Urethritis is most common in postmenopausal women for this reason. Although immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases are a known cause of urethritis, the most likely reason in this patient is low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene usually does not contribute to this disease process.

The primary health care provider documents that a client has a bruit over the abdominal aorta. What teaching will the nurse provide for assistive personnel (AP) based on this assessment finding? a. "Use warm compresses on the client's abdomen continuously." b. "Avoid washing the client's abdomen too aggressively." c. "Apply ice to the client's abdomen every 4 hours." d. "Massage the client's abdomen to help reduce pain."

ANS: B A bruit heard over the abdominal aorta possible indicates stenosis or an aneurysm which should not be palpated or percussed. Therefore, the AP should wash the client's abdomen very gently

A client is recovering from an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and requests something to drink. What action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Allow the client cool liquids only. b. Assess the client's gag reflex. c. Remind the client to remain NPO. d. Tell the client to wait 4 hours.

ANS: B The local anesthetic used during this procedure depresses the client's gag reflex. After the procedure, the nurse would ensure that the gag reflex is intact before offering food or fluids. The client does not need to be restricted to cool beverages only and is not required to wait 4 hours before oral intake is allowed. Telling the client to remain NPO does not inform the client of when he or she can have fluids, nor does it reflect the client's readiness for them.

The nurse is reviewing discharge plans with a client who is recovering from a cervical biopsy. Which statements indicate good understanding by the client? (Select all that apply.) a. "I can return to work this afternoon." b. "I cannot carry my toddler for 2 weeks." c. "I cannot douche until the biopsy site is healed." d. "I need to wait for about 2 weeks to have intercourse." e. "I can use a regular tampon this evening for bleeding." f. "I cannot wash my perineum for 24 hours."

ANS: B, C, D The client would not douche, have intercourse, or use tampons until the biopsy site is healed. The client would rest for 24 hours after the procedure and would not lift heavy objects. The client would be taught to keep the perineum clean and dry by using antiseptic rinses and changes pads frequently.

A nurse is learning about the types of different cells involved in the inflammatory response. Which principles does the nurse learn? (Select all that apply.) a. Basophils are only involved in the general inflammatory process. b. Eosinophils increase during allergic reactions and parasitic invasion. c. Macrophages can participate in many episodes of phagocytosis. d. Monocytes turn into macrophages after they enter body tissues. e. Neutrophils can only take part in one episode of phagocytosis.

ANS: B, C, D, E Eosinophils do increase during allergic and parasitic invasion. Macrophages participate in many episodes of phagocytosis. Monocytes turn into macrophages after they enter body tissues. Neutrophils only take part in one episode of phagocytosis. Basophils are involved in both the general inflammatory response and allergic or hypersensitivity responses.

The nurse is teaching a client about side effects and adverse reactions of a PDE5 inhibitor. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Refrain from eating citrus fruit within 24 hours of taking the medication. b. Stop using this drug if your primary health care provider prescribes a nitrate. c. Do not drink alcohol before having sexual intercourse. d. Muscle cramps, nausea, and vomiting are possible if you take more than 1 pill a day. e. Take this medication within 30 to 60 minutes of having sexual intercourse. f. Change positions slowly especially if you also take an anti-hypertensive drug.

ANS: B, C, D, F A PDE5 inhibitor is used to treat erectile dysfunction. The client should avoid grapefruit or grapefruit juice while taking these drugs. Taking a PDE5 inhibitor along with a nitrate can cause a profound drop in blood pressure. Alcohol may interfere with the ability to have an erection. Muscle cramps, nausea, and vomiting are possible side effects if more than 1 pill a day are taken. Each medication has its own directions for how soon to take it before intercourse, from 15 minutes to 2 hours. Any PDE5 drug can lower blood pressure so the nurse alerts the client of safety precautions.

A nurse assesses a client who has a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Nocturia b. Flank pain c. Increased abdominal girth d. Dysuria e. Hematuria f. Diarrhea

ANS: B, C, E Clients with PKD experience abdominal distention that manifests as flank pain and increased abdominal girth. Bloody urine is also present with tissue damage secondary to PKD. Clients with PKD often experience constipation, but would not report nocturia or dysuria.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a nephrostomy. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Clear drainage b. Bloody drainage at site c. Patient reports headache d. Foul-smelling drainage e. Urine draining from site

ANS: B, D, E After a nephrostomy, the nurse would assess the client for complications and urgently notify the primary health care provider if drainage decreases or stops, drainage is cloudy or foul smelling, the nephrostomy site leaks blood or urine, or the client has back pain. Clear drainage is normal. A headache would be an unrelated finding.

. The nurse is caring for a client with a long history of peptic ulcer disease. What assessment findings would the nurse anticipate if the client experiences upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased heart rate b. Decreased blood pressure c. Bounding radial pulse d. Dizziness e. Hematemesis f. Decreased urinary output

ANS: B, D, E, F The client who has upper GI bleeding would likely have vomiting that contains blood (hematemesis), and would have signs and symptoms of dehydration such as a decreased blood pressure, dizziness, and/or decreased urinary output. The heart rate increases rather than decreases and the pulse is weak rather than bounding in clients who are dehydrated.

The nurse is caring for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, "I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child's bladder." How would the nurse respond? a. "I understand how you feel. I would be mortified." b. "Incontinence pads will minimize leaks in public." c. "I can teach you strategies to help control your incontinence." d. "More people experience incontinence than you might think."

ANS: C The nurse would accept and acknowledge the client's concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse would not diminish the client's concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

A nurse is providing education to a new 55-year-old African-American client about screening for prostate cancer. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Inform the client that recommendations vary, so screening is a personal choice. b. Let the client know that as an African American, he should be screened annually. c. Teach the client that he is in a high risk group and should discuss screening. d. Give the client written information that discourages screening until age 70.

ANS: C Clients in certain high risk groups should discuss screening for prostate cancer with their primary health care providers at age 45. High risk groups include African Americans and men with a first-degree relative who was diagnosed with prostate cancer before the age of 65. This new client will be encouraged to discuss screening even though he is past the age of initial discussion. Recommendations do vary somewhat, but he is in a recognized high risk group. The nurse would not say that he "should" be screened annually. Screening is not recommended for men over the age of 70.

A nurse cares for a client who has pyelonephritis. The client states, "I am embarrassed to talk about my symptoms." How would the nurse respond? a. "I am a professional. Your symptoms will be kept in confidence." b. "I understand. Elimination is a private topic and shouldn't be discussed." c. "Take your time. It is okay to use words that are familiar to you." d. "You seem anxious. Would you like a nurse of the same gender to care for you?"

ANS: C Clients may be uncomfortable discussing issues related to elimination and the genitourinary area. The nurse would encourage the client to use language that is familiar to the client. The nurse must assess the client and cannot take the time to stop the discussion or find another nurse to complete the assessment.

A client with pneumonia and dementia is admitted with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. During interprofessional rounds the following day, which question would the nurse ask the primary health care provider? a. "Do you want daily weights on this client?" b. "Will the client be able to return home?" c. "May we discontinue the indwelling catheter?" d. "Should we get another chest x-ray today?"

ANS: C An indwelling urinary catheter dramatically increases the risks of urinary tract infection and urosepsis. Nursing staff should ensure that catheters are left in place only as long as they are medically needed. The nurse would inquire about removing the catheter. All other questions might be appropriate, but because of client safety, this question takes priority.

A nurse cares for a middle-age female client with diabetes mellitus who is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, "What can I do to help prevent these infections?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Test your urine daily for the presence of ketone bodies and proteins." b. "Use tampons rather than sanitary napkins during your menstrual period." c. "Drink more water and empty your bladder more frequently during the day." d. "Keep your hemoglobin A1C under 9% by keeping your blood sugar controlled."

ANS: C Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis for many reasons. Chronically elevated blood glucose levels spill glucose into the urine, changing the pH, and providing a favorable climate for bacterial growth. The neuropathy associated with diabetes reduces bladder tone and reduces the client's sensation of bladder fullness. Thus, even with large amounts of urine, the client voids less frequently, allowing stasis and overgrowth of microorganisms. Increasing fluid intake (specifically water) and voiding frequently prevent stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Testing urine and using tampons will not help prevent pyelonephritis. A hemoglobin A1C of 9% is too high.

A client is having an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and has been given midazolam hydrochloride. The client's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min. What action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Administer naloxone. b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide physical stimulation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask.

ANS: C For an EGD, clients are given mild sedation but would still be able to follow commands. For shallow or slow respirations after the sedation is given, the nurse's most appropriate action is to provide a physical stimulation such as a sternal rub and directions to breathe deeply. Naloxone is not the antidote for midazolam HCl. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client does not need manual ventilation.

A client returned from a transurethral resection of the prostate 8 hours ago with a continuous bladder irrigation. The client reports headache and dizziness. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Consider starting a blood transfusion. b. Slow the bladder irrigation down. c. Report the findings to the surgeon immediately. d. Take the vital signs every 15 minutes.

ANS: C Headache, dizziness, and shortness of breath are symptoms of possible TURP syndrome in which the irrigation fluid is absorbed, putting strain on the client's heart. The nurse notifies the primary health care provider immediately as the client may need intensive care monitoring. There is no data indicating the client needs a blood transfusion, plus that would add even more fluid in the system. The irrigant may need to be slowed but that is not the first action the nurse would take. Vital signs do need to be taken frequently in this situation, but the nurse notifies the primary health care provider first.

The nurse is providing preoperative education to a client prior to having an orchiectomy for testicular cancer. What statement by the client indicates the need to review the information? a. "I can still function sexually without one of my testes." b. "I will investigate sperm banking before the operation." c. "There should be no effect on my ability to reproduce." d. "Testicular self-exam will be important on the remaining testis."

ANS: C Oligospermia and azoospermia are common in clients with testicular function and can affect reproduction. The statement that there will be no effect on reproduction requires the nurse to review the information with the client. Sperm banking is an option prior to treatment to store sperm for future use. Normal sexual function is possible with one testis. Self-examination of the remaining testis is important for early detection of another tumor.

After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will not take this drug with food or milk." b. "I will have my partners tested for STIs." c. "An orange color in my urine should not alarm me." d. "I will drink two glasses of cranberry juice daily."

ANS: C Phenazopyridine discolors urine, most commonly to a deep reddish orange. Many clients think that they have blood in their urine when they see this. In addition, the urine can permanently stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or needs while taking this medication.

The nurse assesses a client who has possible bladder cancer. What common assessment finding associated with this type of cancer would the nurse expect? a. Urinary retention b. Urinary incontinence c. Painless hematuria d. Difficulty urinating

ANS: C The classic and most common finding in clients who have bladder cancer is painless and intermittent hematuria that can be with gross or microscopic. Dysuria, frequency, and urgency occur in clients who have bladder infection or obstruction.

A nurse teaches a client who is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals." b. "Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours." c. "Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time." d. "The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week."

ANS: C The client should try to hold urine consciously until the next scheduled toileting time. Toileting should occur at specific intervals during the training. The interval can be increased once the client becomes comfortable with the interval.

A client presents to the emergency department reporting vomiting, severe lower abdominal pain, and a tender mass above one testis. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Have the client rate pain using the 0-10 scale. b. Prepare to administer an IV opioid analgesic. c. Determine when he last ate or drank anything. d. Assess risk factors for testicular cancer.

ANS: C This client has signs and symptoms of testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. For client safety, the nurse assesses last oral intake. Rating the pain is an important intervention too but is not related to safety. The client cannot have opioids prior to signing a surgical consent. The client does not have signs and symptoms of testicular cancer.

The nurse is assessing the reproductive history of a 68-year-old postmenopausal woman. Which finding is cause for immediate action by the nurse? a. Vaginal dryness b. No Papanicolaou test for 3 years c. Bleeding from the vagina d. Leakage of urine

ANS: C Vaginal bleeding is not normal for the postmenopausal woman. Vaginal dryness and leakage of urine are common findings in adults of this age range. Pap tests may not be needed for women over 65 who have had regular cervical cancer testing with normal results.

A client had a colonoscopy and biopsy yesterday and calls the gastrointestinal clinic to report a spot of bright red blood on the toilet paper today. What response by the nurse is appropriate? a. Ask the client to call back if this happens again today. b. Instruct the client to go to the emergency department. c. Remind the client that a small amount of bleeding is possible. d. Tell the client to come to the clinic this afternoon.

ANS: C After a colonoscopy with biopsy, a small amount of bleeding is normal. The nurse would remind the client of this and instruct him or her to go to the emergency department for large amounts of bleeding, severe pain, or dizziness.

During an interview, the client tells the nurse that the client has a duodenal ulcer. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Hematemesis b. Pain when eating c. Melena d. Weight loss

ANS: C All of the other assessment findings are more commonly seen in clients who have gastric ulcers rather than duodenal ulcers.

The assistive personnel note that a client had a dark stool. What stool test would the nurse obtain for this client? a. Culture and sensitivity b. Parasites and ova c. Occult blood test d. Total fat content

ANS: C Dark stools are typical in clients who have lower GI bleeding. Therefore, an fecal occult blood test would be the most appropriate test as a follow-up.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. For which complication would the nurse monitor? a. Large bowel obstruction b. Dyspepsia c. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding d. Gastric cancer

ANS: C Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) can cause gastric mucosal damage or perforation, which causes upper GI bleeding. Dyspepsia is a symptom of PUD, gastritis, and gastric cancer. PUD affects the stomach and/or duodenum, not the colon.

A client with peptic ulcer disease is in the emergency department and reports gastric pain that has gotten much worse over the last 24 hours. The client's blood pressure when lying down is 112/68 mm Hg and when standing is 98/52 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Start a large-bore IV with normal saline. d. Tell the patient to remain lying down.

ANS: C This client has orthostatic changes to the blood pressure, indicating fluid volume loss. The nurse would start a large-bore IV with isotonic solution. PPIs are not a treatment for an ulcer. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client should be put on safety precautions, which includes staying in bed, but this is not the most appropriate action at this time.

A nurse teaches a client with functional urinary incontinence. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "You must clean around your catheter daily with soap and water." b. "You will need to be on your drug therapy for life." c. "Operations to repair your bladder are available, and you can consider these." d. "You might want to get pants with elastic waistbands."

ANS: D Functional urinary incontinence occurs as the result of problems not related to the client's bladder, such as trouble ambulating or difficulty accessing the toilet. One desired outcome is that the client will be able to manage his or her clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down and back up can help the client get on the toilet in time to void. The other instructions do not relate to functional urinary incontinence.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who is scheduled for her first Papanicolaou test. What instruction by the nurse is the most accurate? a. "The timing of the Pap smear does not matter." b. "Sexual intercourse will not interfere with the results." c. "Results can be interpreted immediately in the office." d. "Results are best if you do not douche 24 hours before the test."

ANS: D In order to prevent false interpretation, the client must not douche, use vaginal medications or deodorants, or have sexual intercourse for at least 24 hours before the Pap smear. Timing is important, with the test scheduled between the client's menstrual periods so that the menstrual flow does not interfere with laboratory analysis. The specimens are placed on a glass slide and sent to the laboratory for examination and cannot be interpreted immediately.

A nurse plans care for a client with overflow incontinence. Which intervention does the nurse include in this client's plan of care to assist with elimination? a. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh. b. Use intermittent catheterization. c. Provide digital anal stimulation. d. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

ANS: D In patients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is not intact. Mechanical pressure, such as that achieved through the Valsalva maneuver (holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate), can initiate voiding. Stroking the medial aspect of the thigh or providing digital anal stimulation requires the reflex arc to be intact to initiate elimination. Due to the high risk for infection, intermittent catheterization should only be implemented when other interventions are not successful.

A nurse cares for a client who has kidney stones from gout ricemia. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? a. Phenazopyridine b. Doxycyline c. Tolterodine d. Allopurinol

ANS: D Stones caused by hyperuricmia caused by gout or other reason respond to allopurinol. Phenazopyridine is given to clients with urinary tract infections. Doxycycline is an antibiotic. Tolterodine is an anticholinergic with smooth muscle-relaxant properties.

A client is scheduled for a laparoscopy to remove endometriosis tissue. Which response by the client alerts the nurse of the need for further teaching? a. "The surgeon told me that carbon dioxide would be infused into my pelvic cavity." b. "There will be one or more small incisions in order to visualize all of the organs." c. "There will be some shoulder pain after the procedure that may last 48 hours." d. "I can return to jogging my 3-mile (5 km) routine in a few days."

ANS: D The client is taught that she should not participate in strenuous activity for a week after the procedure. Carbon dioxide is infused into the pelvic cavity to visualize the organs. There are only one or more small incisions with this procedure. The referred shoulder pain that will occur only lasts 48 hours.

The nurse is interviewing a client who reports having abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhea after drinking milk or ingesting other dairy products. What health problem does the client most likely have? a. Steatorrhea b. Ulcerative colitis c. Crohn disease d. Lactose intolerance

ANS: D The client is demonstrating signs and symptoms of lactose intolerance because they occur after the client eats or drinks dairy products which contain lactose.

The nurse is teaching a client who has been treated for acute gastritis. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I need to cut down on drinking martinis every might." b. "I should decrease my intake of caffeinated drinks, especially coffee." c. "I will only take ibuprofen once in a while when I really need it." d. "I can continue smoking cigarettes which is better than chewing tobacco."

ANS: D To prevent another episode of acute gastritis, alcohol, caffeinated drinks, and NSAIDs should be avoided or kept at a minimum. Smoking and all forms of tobacco should also be avoided.

A clinic nurse is working with an older client. What action is most important for preventing infections in this client? a. Assessing vaccination records for booster shot needs b. Encouraging the client to eat a nutritious diet c. Instructing the client to wash minor wounds carefully d. Teaching hand hygiene to prevent the spread of microbes

a. assessing vaccination records for booster shot needs Older adults may have insufficient antibodies that have already been produced against microbes to which they have been exposed. Therefore, older adults need booster shots for many vaccinations they received as younger people. A nutritious diet, proper wound care, and hand hygiene are relevant for all populations.

The older client's adult child questions the nurse as to why the client is at higher risk for infection when the client's white cell count is within the normal range. What response by the nurse is best? a. "The white cell count does not tell us everything about immunity." b. "White blood cells are less active in older people so they are not as efficient." c. "Older people typically have poor nutrition which makes them prone to infection." d. "As one ages, immunoglobulins cease to be produced in response to illness."

b. "White blood cells are less active in older people so they are not as efficient." An age-related change in immunity is that neutrophils in the older adult are less active and therefore less effective in immunity. The white blood cell count is not the only thing that can inform about immunity, but this response is too vague to be useful. Many older adults do have poor nutrition that does affect immunity, but this is not true for everyone and the stem does not contain information stating that is problematic for this older adult. Immunoglobulins do not cease to be produced with age.

The nurse learns that the most important function of inflammation and immunity is which purpose? a. Destroying bacteria before damage occurs b. Preventing any entry of foreign material c. Providing maximum protection against infection d. Regulating the process of self-tolerance

c. providing maximum protection against infection Immunity and Inflammation working together are critical to maintaining health, preventing disease, and repairing tissue damage. When all the different parts and functions of immunity are working well, the adult is immunocompetent and has maximum protection against infection. Working together, their function is not limited to destroying bacteria before damage occurs. They do not prevent the entry of all foreign materials and immunity alone regulates the process of self-tolerance.