4A0 CDC All Self Test Questions
20/000-12-3456 Secondary number
34
What provides the body its energy?
Food and oxygen
What does blood transport?
Food and oxygen to the cells; carries away carbon dioxide and other wastes
Why does the career enhancement element use the Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster?
For control, verification of eligibility status, and to research promotion status inquiries
What three basic elements describe the TOC?
Get data, process data, and display data
cephal(o)-
head
acou(i)-
hearing.
plasty
surgical reshaping or remodeling
orchi(o)-
testicle.
What by definition, can conduct military operations on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives?
the Air and Space Expeditionary force
Who assumes assignment and command authority over officers and enlisted members assigned to AMTU?
the MTF commander
What is the principal forum for discussion on national security policy issues?
the National Security Council System
Under what circumstances are new decorations computer for a particular promotion cycle?
the closeout date of decoration must be on or before the PECD, and the "prepared" date of the DECOR-6, Recommendation for Decoration Printout (RDP), is before the date AFPC makes the selections for promotions
How many FPCON categories are there?
5
What time-weighting factor is used to compute value of the 10th EPR used in determining the overall EPR point value toward promotion?
5
How long does the MAC clerk have to submit the AF Form 438 to the MCRP office?
5 days
The AEF library contains blocks of time within how many primary tempo bands that represent 100% of the AF-postured capabilities?
5 tempo bands
20/000-12-3456 Primary number
56
How many AE classification codes may be used for AE transportation?
6
What is the approximate percentage of an MTF's budget that is allocated towards personnel in the form of salaries?
60-75%
How much of the human body is made up of water?
65%
BAGs are divided into how many areas?
7
How long are routine patients capable of waiting for evacuation?
72 Hours
Legible specialty care results from the MTF and other direct care specialists are to be provided to the PCM or requesting provider within how many hours of the specialty care encounter?
72 hours.
What are ICD-9-CM codes?
A 3-5 digit numeric and alphanumeric codes
According to the DOD, what is a unit task code?
A JCS developed assigned code, consisting of 5 characters that uniquely identify a type "unit" or force package
What part of the SNIAC program ensures the safety of service members and their families?
A MOU developed between SNIAC process and key civilian agencies, which specify interagency client-focused processes that ensure the safety of service members and their families, and enhances access to community resources
If a seriously wounded, ill, or injured service member's conditions are expected to last at least 180 days, who are typically assigned to the member?
A RCC and wounded warrior advocates
What 4 individuals are in place to help service members with their way through the recovery process?
A RCC, a wounded warrior advocate, a nonmedical case manager, and a FRC
What is a GPC?
A US government credit card whereby purchases are made and charged to an authorized account established with the servicing BCO and finance office
What is DRRS?
A capabilities-based reporting system that measures an organization's ability to execute Mission Essential Tasks at the unit level
A terminal with limited computing and processing capability is called what?
A client.
What type of information does the unit commander use to assess the unit "mission ready" status?
A combination of objective and subjective data
Who performs a risks assessment when the eligibility for a patient to receive medical care at a military facility is questionable?
A competent medical authority performs a risk assessment
What are Microcomputers?
A computer with a microprocessor as its CPU. It is the type of personal computers we use at home and in the MTF.
How often should a patient that is in 'RON' status be evaluated?
Daily
What are some of the major exocrine products?
Digestive juices, mucus, sweat, and tears
Breaks food down into nutrients that can be used as fuel
Digestive system
What 3 types of expenses will the Allocation Summary reflect?
Direct Expense, Purified Expense, and step-down expense
What are the two distinct types of care?
Direct care and purchased care
Under what system do TRICARE beneficiaries receive a majority of their care?
Direct care system
What is the difference between directed and recommended convalescent leave?
Directed refers to active duty patient's still admitted to the MTF. The chief of service approves these cases. Recommended refers to active duty patients being discharged. The patient's unit commander approves these cases.
What are the 2 types of AF Publications?
Directive and non-Directive
D/C
Discontinue or discharge
Illness, sickness, or ailment
Disease
What are two tools for managing disks and volumes?
Disk space clean up and defragment
Describe "V code"
Disqualification
What is the difference between disqualification and decertification?
Disqualification is a action taken before a member is PRP, and decertification is an action taken when a member is PRP
What term means "away or farther from the point of origin"?
Distal.
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: D
Divorced.
What does the 'N' marking on a checklist mean?
Does not apply
What are examples of mandatory reporting that medical providers are required to adhere to?
Domestic abuse, and in some states, sexual assault
How can you get rid of needless "which" and "that" in your writing?
Dropping them or rewriting slightly
gtt
Drops
When is involuntary discharge mandatory?
Drug Abuse, civil court conviction, fraudulent or erroneous enlistment
Intemperate use of drugs
Drug abuse
What type of drugs require PDI notification for permanent decertification?
Drugs that could cause flashbacks
As a rule, what should you always identify to the CMA as PDI?
Drugs, alcohol, or mental health or behavioral issues regardless of whether or not it was previously adjudicated
Substances identified as controlled substances by the Attorney General of the United States.
Drugs.
TRICARE for Life is a program for what beneficiaries?
Dual TRICARE and Medicare beneficiaries
What cases are eligible for processing under MEB directives when involuntary separation or discharge under some other directive is also pending?
Dual-action cases
When can leave de disapproved?
Due to military necessity or in the best interest of the Air Force
What is the P&A and AFPC suspense for an EPR?
Due to the P&A no later than 30 days after close-out and to AFPC no later than 60 days after close-out
In what circumstances do the clothing requirements not apply?
During field maneuvers, field exercises, or other unusual circumstance
What are the determining factors when an individual is being considered for a decoration?
Duty performance, impact of the accomplishment, the level of responsibility and authority
What system is responsible for incorporating all of the captured expense, workload, and personnel utilization data into a single report?
EAS
Who is the MDG/CC's "right hand" for most financial matters?
Resource Advisor
What are some flights you would find in the medical support squadron?
Resource management, medical logistics, medical information services, personnel and administration, TOPA, readiness, pharmacy, clinical laboratory, nutritional medicine, diagnostics and therapeutics, histopathology, readiness, and diagnostic imaging.
What allows the MCS contractor, through agreements with MTF commanders, to provide personnel, equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies necessary to enhance the capability of the MTF to provide healthcare to TRICARE beneficiaries?
Resource sharing
What is an alternative to resource sharing which provides additional flexibility to MTF commanders?
Resource support
Supplies the blood with oxygen
Respiratory system
What office is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for the management of resources in the unit and who, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?
Responsibility Center
What are the 2 most common findings from the MEB?
Return To Duty or refer to PEB
What recommendations can DPANM make?
Return To Duty, direct an MED, and Continued Military Medical Observation and Care
According to the text, what are some examples of patient dispositions?
Return to duty; discharge from treatment; evacuate to US; separate or retire due to physical disability; transfer out
What must be done first before coding a patient encounter?
Review the medical documentation to determine the diagnosis and course of care provided/recommended
What is the baggage limitation for AE?
Stowed baggage may not have dimensions exceeding 72" in any one direction or 100" overall (length +width +height) and must be sufficiently durable to withstand handling during transportation. Maximum weight for checked baggage is 66 lbs
What is the lowest level of accounting within the FCC?
Sub-Account
Cushions the inner tissues against blows to the body
Subcutaneous tissues.
Innermost layer of the skin
Subcutaneous tissues.
Provides extra fuel for the body
Subcutaneous tissues.
Military patient who has been a bed occupant and has reached a point of recovery where the physician considers it more desirable for the patient to continue treatment at the MTF yet can live and eat outside the MTF. The patient is excused from duty, yet is required to meet with the physician frequently for continued care
Subsisting out
What account code is directly subordinate to the functional account?
Summary Account
What's the difference between "superior (cephalad)" and "inferior (caudal)"?
Superior is towards the head or upper part of the body and inferior is towards the feet or lower part of the body.
What are the body's two largest veins?
Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
What are publications that extend or add material to publications issued by higher HQ or agencies?
Supplements
What is the basic information CCMs need for their initial training?
Supply orientation, equipment management, MEPRS training, financial training, and manpower management
What is a voluntary, premium based program that extends TRICARE coverage to certain family members under the age of 26 who have (or will lose) their eligibility due to age?
TRICARE Young Adult
Who appoints the MTF self-inspection program manager?
The MTF/CC.
This option makes it simple for you to add, delete, cancel, freeze and release schedule time slots for specific days within any providers' schedule.
The Maintain/Cancel Schedules option
This option allows you to adjust schedule slots by changing the appointment type or number of patients per slot and by entering or editing comments.
The Modify/Add/Delete Schedules option
Who does the DOD work with to offer cancer clinical trials for eligible TRICARE beneficiaries?
The National Cancer Institute
Who is responsible for ensuring all computer users are trained in computer security awareness and local operating instructions?
The OIAO
What is software that allows the user to interface with the computer?
The OS.
Who makes referrals for tests/specialty care, and monitor adequacy and continuity of needed care?
The PCM
What is a continuous process that helps the commanders see what they have, where they need it to be, and then enables them to decide the most effective way to get there?
The Planning, programing, budgeting and execution system
Medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by which act?
The Privacy Act
What acts and amendments must medical personnel comply with?
The Privacy Act, FOIA, HIPAA, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment act, and Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse amendments
Who develops the spend plan?
The RA
What is a "One-Stop Shop" where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?
The RMC.
This option allows you to copy an existing schedule to another provider.
The Replicate Schedule option
What position requires special experience and training?
The SEI
If the SJA determines an administrative LOD is more appropriate, where will the AF Form 348 be sent?
The SJA returns the AF Form 348 with recommendations, through MPF/MSPPA, to the LOD-MFP, for further action.
What is the National Defense Authorization Act?
The Senate and House "instructions: to the DOD to change, add, or eliminate programs
What website is used when web browser interface is limited?
The TRAC2ES-Mobile Site
Establishing some form of RM allows each MTF to better position itself for successful operations under what program?
The TRICARE and MCSC
Who attends the concept briefing?
The UDM, group commander, and squadron commanders
What document reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
The UMD
What is the primary document that mangers use for manpower?
The UMD
What document is a "by name" roster?
The UPMR
In the ART report, what does the yellow rating mean?
The UTC has a missing requirement, but that missing or deficient capability does not prevent the UTC from being tasked and accomplishing its mission in a contingency and/or AEF rotation
Who is responsible for updating, maintaining, and correcting duty status conditions?
The Unit Duty status Program Manger
Who notifies the member of the IDES process and schedule the medical examinations required to adjudicate the member's disability claim?
The VA MSC
Which CHCS option is used to reserve appointment slots in existing schedules for processing Wait List requests, or to release them from the Wait List reserved status?
The Wait List Hold/Release Schedules option
What does the nervous system regulate and coordinate?
The activities of all other systems of the body.
When can an interim LOD be issued?
The appointing authority, at the request of the member's commander may issue an interim LOD determination if an LOD determination cannot be finalized within seven days of notification and it is possible that the member may be entitled to incapacitation benefits
What forms are processed by the special needs coordinator and FMRC coordinator?
The appropriate AF Form 1466, AF Form 1466D, DD Form 2792, and Addendum B
What is the hot zone?
The area where the actual incident occurred and contamination exists
Who needs to consult with the accepting physician at the destination MTF?
The attending physician
Who tells you when the annual inventory is due?
The base ECO.
Who determines if a patient encounter falls under the realm of the medical affirmative claims case?
The base legal office
Give some examples of how the skeletal system protects internal organs
The brain is shielded by the skull, the spinal cord by the spinal column, and the heart and lungs by the ribs.
What is the most incredible part of the human body? Why?
The brain. It allows us to think.
What is cost containment?
The catch phrase that applies to CCMs ensuring all of our scarce resources are spent wisely and effectively.
What is the basic unit of all living things?
The cell.
To ensure a successful MTF sponsorship program, who must appoint a primary and alternate INTO program manager?
The commander
Who approves a member's retirement request?
The commander
Who can request medical evaluations due to poor duty performance or deployment concerns stemming from a potential medication condition?
The commander
Who makes the determination if an individual should have access to sensitive areas?
The commander
Who assumes medical administrative responsibility of an active duty Air Force member admitted to a nonmilitary hospital?
The commander of the nearest Air Force MTF.
Who must review and personally endorse each decoration recommendation?
The commander or vice-commander at each headquarters designated to review recommendations must personally review and sign the forwarding endorsement for each recommendation
What is the largest organ of the body?
The skin, or integumentary system
What is pecuniary liability?
The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his/her negligence
What do ESFs provide?
The structure for coordinating installation strategic interagency support during all phases of incident management
How are cost pools easily identified within the FCC?
The third letter of the FCC code is always the letter "X"
What did the "TRI" in "TRICARE" originally refer to?
The three main benefit plan options, TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard and TRICARE Extra
What carries air toward the lungs?
The trachea
What are the five types of military treatment facilities?
The typical clinic model, hospital or medical center, medical wing, limited scope medical facility, and medical squadron.
Who initiates the AF Form 286?
The unit PRP monitor
How does the administrative process of a patient discharge begin?
The unit staff acts upon the order provided by the health care provider
What does the SORTS report indicate?
The unit's ability to undertake its full mission or particular mission
Who is responsible for managing patient movement within their respective area of responsibility?
Theater Patient Movement Requirement Center
What is the statute of limitation for a member to appeal a permanent decertification/disqualification?
There is none
What are category 1 discrepancies?
They are "mission impacting" discrepancies that result in delay or non-utilization of the Airman at the gaining unit & those that affect PCS budget expenditures.
What is the primary role of the beneficiary counseling and assistance coordinator?
They are a beneficiary advocate and problem solver, providing dedicated service to all MHS beneficiaries
What is the term referring to the total system that collects, processes, and delivers communications?
BITS
What band has a 4-month vulnerability period?
Band "A"
What band has a 6-month vulnerability period?
Band "B" through "E"
What provides support and accommodations for patients required to remain at installations while awaiting AE?
Aeromedical Staging Facility
When is assuming custodial responsibility, when should you sign the CR/LL?
After performing a complete inventory
AF Form 560: Enter "NB" for an infant born in your MTF
Age
what achievement awards are available?
Air Force Longevity Service Award, Air Force Overseas Ribbon, Air Force Training Ribbon, NCO PME Graduate Ribbon
AU
Both ears
c/o
Complains of
What are the 4 types of AE?
Forward, theater, strategic, domestic
The most secure service the USPS offers
Registered
R/O
Rule out
When editing, on what areas should you concentrate?
Technical accuracy, coverage, arrangement, and readability
y/o
Year old
All publications in the directive publications category must carry what statement in the publication header?
"COMPLIANCE WITH THIS PUBLICATION IS MANDATORY"
If there are no inconsistencies or updates, what statement should the providers put on the narrative summary?
"I have reviewed the C&P exam results and find the information within the NARSUM to be current and complete"
Whenever you release information under the guidelines of the drug and alcohol abuse acts, what statement must accompany the disclosure?
"Prohibition on Redisclosure: This information has been disclosed to you from records whose Confidentiality is protected by federal law. Federal regulations prohibit you from making any further Disclosure of this information without the specific written consent of the person to whom it pertains. A General authorization for the release of the medical or other information is not sufficient for this purpose."
What statement should be on the front cover when faxing medical information?
"THIS FAX IS INTENDED ONLY FOR THE USE OF THE PERSON OR OFFICE TO WHOM IT IS ADDRESSED, AND CONTAINS PRIVILEGED, SENSITIVE OR CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION PROTECTED BY LAW. ALL RECIPIENTS ARE HEREBY NOTIFIED THAT INADVERTENT OR UNAUTHORIZED RECEIPT DOES NOT WAIVE SUCH PRIVILEGE, AND THAT UNAUTHORIZED DISSEMINATION, DISTRIBUTION, OR COPYING OF THIS COMMUNICATION IS PROHIBITED. IF YOU HAVE RECEIVED THIS FAX IN ERROR, PLEASE DESTROY THE ATTACHED DOCUMENT(S) AND NOTIFY THE SENDER OF THE ERROR BY CALLING..."
Receipts in excess of what amount, must be uploaded to DTS?
$75
What statement should be at the beginning of an e-mail when sending medical information?
'FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY. This electronic transmission contains For Official Use Only (FOUO) information which must be protected by the Privacy Act and AFI 33-332 and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and DOD 6025.18-R. The information may be exempt from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. § 552. If you have received this message in error, please notify the sender by replying to this e-mail and delete all copies of this message.'
What is the first step the MTF takes when they receive the AF Form 286 and AF standardized PRP questionnaire?
'Flag' the record as PRP
An administrative LOD may be made under what conditions?
(1) Hostile casualties. (2) Injuries, or death of members leaving surviving family members, incurred while a passenger in a common commercial carrier or a military aircraft. (3) Diseases, injuries, or death of members leaving surviving family members if (a) the disease or death is of natural origin that does not involve misconduct, drug or alcohol abuse, (b) or the injury is a simple injury (sprain, contusion, or minor fracture) not likely to result in a permanent disability, and (c) the disease, injury, or death did not happen while the member was absent without authority and was clearly not caused by the member's own misconduct or (d) disease or injury existed prior to service.
After a schedule is created, what three statuses can it be assigned?
(1) Open for booking. (2) Hold for future booking,, (3) Reserve for processing Wait List requests
List the six requirements of the HIPPA Privacy Rule
(1) Use of information, (2) acknowledgement of notice of privacy practices, (3) disclosure or release, (4) patient rights to access,(5) accounting of disclosure, and (6) restrictions on information
List and briefly describe the three actions that can be performed from the Wait List action bar.
(1). Interactive: This action processes Wait List requests manually, notifying the patient either by telephone that an appointment is available, or by mail that an appointment has been booked, (2). Automatic Wait List: This action permits the system to process current Wait List requests for the clinic/provider, book the schedule time slot on the schedule, and automatically generate the notification mailer. (3). Quit: The Quit action is selected if the reserved Wait List slots are not to be processed at this time
20/000-12-3456 2nd part tertiary
000
What equation is used to determine the appropriate amount of full time equivalents?
1 FTE= Total hours worked/168
When is the second quarter?
1 January through 31 March
When was the Act that led to CHAMPUS signed into law?
1 Ocober 1966
What time frame constitutes the first quarter of the fiscal year?
1 Oct through 31 Dec
How many interim changes can be issued to an Air Force departmental publication?
1 to 5, after the 5th change, the publication must be rewritten
What are 5 conditions that require a permanent decertification recommendation to the CO?
1) Alcohol dependent individual that failed the required aftercare program 2) An individual who is diagnosed as a drug abuser 3) An individual who is diagnosed as drug dependent 4) Use of drugs that cause flashbacks 5) Trafficking and manufacturing
What are the minimum requirements for nomination to PSP?
1) Member must hold a US citizenship 2) Have a high degree of maturity, discretion, and trustworthiness 3) Have a unquestionable loyalty to the US 4) Satisfactory, past and present, duty performance
What requirements must a trusted agent meet?
1) No UIF 2) no recent record (within 5 yrs) of conviction by courts-martial or civilian criminal court for matter not involving dishonesty, fraud, or drug abuse 3) no record or conviction (active or closed) for misconduct involving dishonest, fraud, or drug abuse 4) No medical or mental health conditions that will prevent them from performing their assigned duties as a trusted agent
What are the 3 recommendations the CMA annotates on the AF Form 286?
1) PDI not found, recommend for PRP 2)PDI found, recommend for PRP 3) PDI found, not recommended for PRP
Name the 5 ways to identify a suspicious package
1) Return address 2) Restrictive markings 3) sealed with tape 4) misspelled words or badly typed or written 5) unknown powder or suspicious substance 6) possibly mailed from foreign country or excessive postage 7) oily stains, discolorations, crystallization or wrapper 8) strange odor 9) incorrect title or addressed to title only 10) rigid or bulky 11) lopsided or uneven 12) protruding wires
In what four areas should the RA assist the MDG/CC?
1) establishing spending priorities 2) choosing policies that will achieve desired results at an acceptable cost 3) obtaining required resources (fiscal and logistical) 4) preparing financial plans
What are some ways that separation policy promotes AF readiness?
1) promotes a way to achieve authorized force levels and grade distribution 2) provides for the orderly administrative separation of personnel in a variety of circumstance 3) is a means of clearly recognizing and preserving standards of conduct by the honorable discharge 4) ensures the Air Force is served by members who are able to meet AF standards of duty performance, conduct and discipline
The long-range plan for forecasting equipment requirements must consider what two equipment situations?
1) replacing existing equipment as it wears out through normal use 2) Programming the procurement of new equipment
What are the purposes of the AF Form 77, Letter of Evaluation Sheet?
1) substitute for a missing evaluation report 2) cover gaps in performance records 3) document duty performance with less than 120 days of supervision 4) provide a continuation sheet for referral reports 5) provide comments by commanders, AF advisors, or acquisition examiners 6) document enlisted personnel participation in the WCAP 7) perform other purposes directed by the HQUSAF 8) An LOW is also used to document periods of performance too short to require an EPR, OPR, or training report (TR) or periods of time when the rate supervised by someone other than the designated rater. LOEs can be very helpful to a rater when preparing EPRs, OPRS, or TRs
Under what circumstances can airmen request discharge when uncommon genuine dependency or undue hardship exists?
1) the dependency or hardship is not temporary 2) separation will eliminate or materially alleviate the conditions 3)the airman has made every reasonable effort to remedy the situation 4) There are no other means of alleviation readily available other than separation 5)Conditions have arisen or have been aggravated to an excessive degree since the airman entered active duty
What is an example of an inappropriate MEB recommendation?
1) transfer to special center for separation or retirement. 2) Assignment to a different geographic area or climate 3) Refer to HQ AFPC or PEB for profile 4) Refer to HQ AFPC or PEB for retraining
What questions should be addressed when a member has a downtown appointment?
1)Is there sufficient documentation? 2)Were any medications prescribed or other treatment rendered? 3) is there a concern for an underlying disease process? 4) Was any new PDI discovered during the evaluation or treatment process?
What are the 2 types of VAs and how are they used?
1)Permanent is used to explain or instruct 2) Temporary is to inform or motivate
What are the 3 priority levels for which an expense can be placed?
1)the first priority level is the highest priority. This reserved for those goods/services that you must have to perform the mission 2) the second priority level is for those goods and services that allow you to perform the mission at an improved level. However, the mission could still be accomplished without them 3) the third and final priority includes all other known requirements
What MINIMUM information should be in the body of the discrepancy message?
1. Admin qualification process is incomplete or not completed 2. PSI not submitted 3. PDI not reported to gaining commander (to include medical PDI) 4. Acceptance by gaining CO did not occur prior to member departing losing duty station 5. Medical PDI not signed/reviewed by CMA 6. Member did not hand-carry med/den records
What is the cutoff date for inpatient record retirement?
31 December of each year.
How long does the member have to concur/nonconcur with the IPEB?
10 calendar days
How many days of PTDY may a losing commander grant when members house-hunt prior to signing out of the unit?
10 days
How much additional weight could a CCATT patient/equipment add to a litter?
100 lbs
20/000-12-3456 1st part tertiary
12
How long is the DEERS eligibility information assumed valid?
120 hours
SrA Jones reported she worked 162 hours is ADAA, and SrA Thompson reported that she worked 174 hours in ADAA for the same time period. Between the two, how many FTEs do their work hours represent?
2
Within what time frame must the P&A office forward allocation notices?
2 Days
How long does the member have to report to the testing location?
2 Hours
SrA Smith was treated by a physician in the emergency room after receiving a fractured tibia sustained in an automobile accident. After the treatment, he went home but returned later in the evening due to unbearable pain. How many entries on the AF Form 1488 should be annotated in regards to SrA Smith's visits? Explain.
2. Patients are identified on the log regardless of number of visits for the same injury
20/000-12-3456 FMP
20
Within how many hours after death are remains released to mortuary personnel?
24
Typically, how long is a washout period?
24 Hours
TSgt Mary Barlow has four meritorious service medals, two Air Force Commendation Medals, and an Air Force Achievement Medal. What is her decoration point total toward promotion?
27 points
When reviewing records, there should not be a gap of how long without any medical entries?
2yrs
As a minimum, the number of medical board appointees should be large enough to provide at least how many medical officer members?
3
Within how many rings should you answer the phone?
3-5 rings.
How many days does DFAS automatically carry over if a member serves at least 120 consecutive days in a hostile-fire or imminent-danger area and receives hostile-fire or imminent-danger area pay for at least four consecutive months?
30 days
If the DAWG refers the case for adjudication, how long does the quality review have to be completed?
30 days
What takes video, still photographs, or both, digitally by recording images using an electronic image sensor?
A digital camera (or digicam).
What is an appropriation warrant?
A financial control document, issued pursuant to law (usually appropriation acts) by the Treasury Department, that established the amount of monies authorized to be withdrawn (disbursed) from the central accounts that are maintained by the Treasury Department
When a provider identifies a diagnosis that could be disqualifying for a member to continue active duty, what must the member undergo?
A fitness for duty (FFD) evaluation
Describe a Departmental Form
A form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing. It is prescribed by a departmental publication such as an AFI or manual
What are some items that a sponsor package should contain?
A map of the surrounding area, home and apartment brochures, pamphlets of things to do and see in and around the area, specifics of the base, and a little about the unit, group and wing's mission and maybe a copy of the latest base newspaper
What type of briefing ensures that all members departing PCS obtain the most up-to-date information regarding the TRICARE benefit?
A medical out-processing brief
If an active duty member needs medical records for the discharge review board, but does not have any orders, what must he or she provide before you can release the records?
A memorandum from their squadron stating that discharge/separation is pending and their records are needed for the discharge review board to review.
What are grid lines?
A network of straight parallel lines running bottom to top (vertical), then from left to right (horizontal)
What is service characterization normally based on?
A pattern of behavior rather on isolated incidents
What is a provider template?
A pattern of time slots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date. It is governed by the rules entered in the MTF's profiles. Using options in the Templates MENU, you can create a daily or weekly template.
What must be assigned to you before you can accomplish a patient look up in the CHCS?
Ampersand (&) Fileman Access code
What defines the basic rules and instructions by which the facility, division, clinic and provider will provide care?
A profile
Prior to a schedule being produced what two items must be created?
A profile and a template
What is a network provider?
A provider under contract with TRICARE regional office to provide care to beneficiaries
What is a duty limitation?
A recommendation resulting from a medical evaluation, which, if applied explicitly, limits or restricts an Airman's ability to perform primary and/or additionally assigned duties, deploy (mobility) or participate in fitness activities
Once you've assigned a specific date range to a template, what have you created?
A schedule
What does the FAD identify?
A specific amount of funds authorized for day-to-da operating costs
Purpose of DD Form 599
A tag attached to each item that cannot be placed in the AF Form 1052.
When an active duty member is transferring and a dependent's record cannot be found, what two documents must the requester fill out so the records can be forwarded to the active duty member's next base of assignment once recovered?
A tracer (a locally developed form) and a DD Form 2138
What are the two best checks you can perform to obtain evidence of a patients' eligibility for medical care in the MTF?
A valid ID card and DEERS
What is a high-end computer designed for technical applications?
A workstation.
Who usually begins the process of briefing patients on the patient valuables system?
A&D Personnel
The effective management of an MTF's patient valuables depends largely on the cooperation of what 3 parties?
A&D Staff, MSA Staff, and the custodian for patient valuables
In most MTFs, who completes the appropriate patient valuables forms?
A&D Technician
What are the minimum annexes covered in the MCRP?
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O
What is a private, non-profit organization that assists ambulatory healthcare organizations in improving the quality of care provided to patients?
AAAHC.
What rank should be entered into item 11 of the AF Form 560 for an OSI agent?
AB
Who has the highest priority for MTF care?
ADSMs and TRICARE Prime-enrolled active duty family members
What considerations did working groups use as a basis for developing a streamlined, consistent MTF organizational structure from a clinic to a medical group?
AEF.
What form is required when a member enters into AWOL, deserter, military, or confinement duty status?
AF Form 2098, duty status change
What 3 AF Forms should be filed in Part 3?
AF Form 245- Employment Locator & Processing Checklist AF Form 94- Air Baggage Claim Clerk AF Form 522- USAF Ground Weapon Training Data
What form does the CO or RO use to recommend a reinstatement or requalification for permanently decertified/disqualified individuals?
AF Form 286A
What form is used to document permanent decertification?
AF Form 286A
What form is used by a physician to transmit written orders for patient care to the nursing staff?
AF Form 3066
On what form does the health care provider annotate the decision to report a patient in SI, VSI, or III status?
AF Form 3066, Doctor's Orders
What two forms can you use to cover personnel information in printed/paper form?
AF Form 3227, Privacy Act Cover Sheet or DD Form 2923, Privacy Act Data Cover Sheet
What AF Form does the attending physician have to complete for their patients AE travel?
AF Form 3899, Aeromedical Evacuation Patient Record
What form must be completed by the MAC program manager when the MCRP office POC identifies a case that is a potential medical affirmative case?
AF Form 438, Medical Care- third Part Liability Notification
What is used as the source document for entering admission information into the CHCS?
AF Form 560
What source documents do you use to input information about a patient's discharge into the CHCS?
AF Form 560 and the inpatient record
What form is used to authorize a patient pass?
AF Form 569
On what form, does the casualty affairs liason (CAL) annotate individuals who are notified of a patient's casualty status?
AF Form 570
What form is used, by the patient, to clear the appropriate sections within the MTF?
AF Form 577.
What forms may be filed in Section 2, AF Form 2100A series health record?
AF Form 745 when applicable; AF Form 966, if used; patient signed informed consent, SF 600 interfiled with SF 558s; DD Form 2161 on top of the SF 600 to which it was ordered, AF Forms 1352, 1446, and SFs 88 and 93.
What financial form is used to request the purchase of goods or services through channels other than supply?
AF Form 9, Request for Purchase
What form is used for an EPR on a rate in the grade of AB-TSgt?
AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report
What type of documentation is filed in Section 1, AF Form 2100A series health record?
AF Forms 1480/B or DD Forms 2766/C, 2796, 2569, HEAR PCM, result from HEAR, AF Forms 1480, 3922, 3922, and copies of inpatient forms
Who has the ultimate responsibility for the AF MEPRS Program?
AF/SG
What guidance directs the use of standardized readiness folder?
AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and execution
What provides instructions on compiling cases documentation and provides a MEB checklist?
AFI 41-210, TRICARE operations and patient administration functions
What AFI specifies conditions that require evaluation for continued military service?
AFI 48-123, Medical Examinations and Standards
What directive guides medical facilities on the proper maintenance and disposition of a MTFs register of patients?
AFM 37-139.
What agency distributes funds to the individual MTFs?
AFMOA
What are two examples of a forward operating agency?
AFMOA and AFMSA.
Who receives a copy of the completed quarterly reconciliation?
AFMOA/SGAR
Who published the master listing of all FCCs used in the AF?
AFMSA/SGSR
Who is the approval authority that approves AD AMTU assignments?
AFPC/DPANM
What standard system is a medical clinic information system that generates and maintains a comprehensive, life-long, computer based patient record for beneficiaries?
AHLTA
What are some examples of a standard system?
AHLTA, CHCS, DEERS, DMHRSi, Essentris, ICDB, MEPRS-EASIV, TMIP-J, TRANSCOM TRAC2ES, and MRDSS ULTRA.
What information should be printed prior to, and included in the record review?
AHTLA Notes, PIMR deployment documents, PEPP, and AIMWTS documents not already filed in the physical record
What ALC restricts deployment and assignment to where there are specialty medical capabilities?
ALC-C3
What 3 conditions require a person to be suspended?
ARI, DRI, and any individual returned to PRP duties with a previous diagnosis of alcohol dependence who subsequently consumes alcohol
What identifies all FCCs used by an MTF?
ASD Table
How often do the ovaries of a female release an egg?
About once a month during childbearing years
Member is voluntarily away from duty without leave for more than 24 hours
Absent without authority
Establishes your identity to CHCS and authenticates your use of the system
Access and Verify Codes
How should a member's in-processing checklist be filed?
According to local procedures
If a patient is prescribed Tylenol #3 to take 1-2 tablets every 4-6 hours, the least amount of tablets he can take while following the schedule is 1 tablet every 6 hours or 4 tablets per a day. Therefore, if he is prescribed 24 tablets, this prescription could last up to 6 days. How many days should the CMA recommend suspension?
Accounting for a 24-hour washout period, a 7-day suspension should be recommended
Portion of your obligations that have been paid
Accrued expenditures paid
Who processes communication received from the P&A office?
Action Office
What checklist(s) must a MCC have?
Activation, major accident response and force protection condition
Who is not able to release themselves from the AE system against medical advice?
Active Duty Personnel
Who receives the CHCS admission notification letter?
Active duty patients' commander
What category of records is inventoried?
Active duty personnel records
Who is eligible for TRICARE Prime Overseas and TRICARE Remote Overseas?
Active duty service members and their family, and command-sponsored active duty family members
What are the four different functions the mini registration option allows users to accomplish?
Add a new patient as his/her own sponsor, Add a new patient with an existing sponsor, Add a new patient with a new sponsor, Update an existing patient registration.
AF Form 560: Enter whether or not the patient has private insurance coverage.
Administrative data.
Describe "B code"
Administratively qualified &/or pending certifications
Which CHCS report lists admissions, dispositions change of status, newborns, and interward transfers occurring in a given 24-hour period?
Admissions and dispositions report
Who completes the circled items found on the AF Form 560?
Admitting health care provider
What are some of the main endocrine glands?
Adrenal, pituitary, parathyroid, sex, and the thyroid glands
What is the function of the Air Force Surgeon General?
Advises both the SECAF and CSAF on medical matters pertaining to Air Force Operations and readiness. A small staff that includes that includes two forward operating agencies, AFMOA and AFMSA, support the SG.
Who grants the authority to set up or close down an inpatient record library?
Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA/SGOI)
Of what is the ARC composed?
Al units, organizations, and members of the ANG of the US and USAFR
The use of alcoholic beverages leading to a person's misconduct
Alcohol abuse
What conditions require a temporary decertification recommendation?
Alcohol abuse, Initial diagnoses of alcohol dependence, and suicide attempt or threat
What conditions always constitute PDI?
Alcohol/drug related incidents, alcohol/drug abuse, alcohol/drug dependency, suicide attempt or threat and subsequent use of alcohol in an individual RTD with the diagnosis of alcohol dependence. This also includes pre-service drug use and use of other substance that alter perceptions or mental faculties
A psychological or physical dependence on alcohol
Alcoholism
What is the main part of the digestive system?
Alimentary canal, or gut.
Who requires a performance evaluation?
All EAD and non-EAD officers in the grade of colonel and below. All enlisted personnel in the grade of A!C (20 months TAFMS) through CMSgt. In addition, any member released from AD to AFR or ANG who has 120 days of supervision prior to seperating
Who must complete HIPAA training?
All MTF employees, and new commanders and first sergeants
What patients should be identified on the AF Form 1488, Daily Log of Patients Treated for Injuries?
All beneficiaries who seek care at an MTF for an injury, or in some cases a disease.
Who is eligible for the TRICARE Pharmacy Program?
All eligible uniformed service members, retirees, and family members, including beneficiaries age 65 and older.
Who must have an educational clearance as part of the FMRC process?
All family member children who are eligible to attend DODDS.
Who does the lead CMA train?
All functional CMAs
Prior to acceptance into the system, what does the EAS validate?
All manual and automated inputs
The senior NCO selection folder is comprise of EPRs for what periods of service?
All performance reports closing out 10 years prior to PECD; however, only the reports covering the last 5 years (maximum of 10) are used to compute the EPR time-weighted factor score
What report reflects direct, purified, and step-down expenses?
Allocation Summary
What FPCON requires an increase of random security checks of vehicles and person entering the installations or facilities?
Alpha
How are AF Forms 1942 filed, and for how long are they maintained?
Alphabetically; 6 months
What is a notebook?
Also referred to as a laptop, it is a personal computer designed for mobile use and small enough to sit on one's lap while in use.
What statement needs to be included on every authorization?
Alternate means such as, SVTC or other web-based communication, are not sufficiently able to accomplish travel objectives
Where is the AF From 745 filed in the record?
Always on top in section 2 of the record
What are the categories the data metrics website is divided in to?
Ambulatory metrics, inpatient metric, clinical coding reports, DQ reports, WWR metrics, and Online help Documents Ambulatory Data Management
If a teleworker chooses an alternate location, which is operated by another military service, what is required?
An MOA between the squadron or higher level commander and the equivalent commander at the alternate location
What is a breach?
An acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of PII/PHI in a manner not permitted
What is CHCS?
An automated information system designed to support the administration and delivery of health care
What is a measured unit?
An established unit, stateside and overseas
Who reviews the case if an Airman requests an impartial review?
An impartial physician or other appropriate healthcare professional not involved in the airman's MEB
What is a draft?
An initial plan towards your final product
What is a back order?
An order established when there is no stock on hand or there is not enough to fill the total order
Where is documentation generated by a canceled admission filed?
Annotate the admission worksheet with the reason for cancellation and place a copy in the outpatient record. File all other paperwork generated by the admission in the inpatient record's folder
How often are outpatient records inventoried?
Annually
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19:A
Annulled.
What term means toward or near the front side of the body?
Anterior (ventral).
Name 3 individuals that must be accounted for in the medical readiness committee meeting minutes?
Any 3 of the following: Med Group Commander (Chair), MRO, MRNCO or MRM, Med Group executive committee (hospital administrator, squadron commanders, and superintendents), Bioenvironmental engineer, public health emergency officer, public health officer, medical logistics officer, medical exercise evaluation team chief, education and training officer, other individuals designated by the committee chair
Medical record tracking provides 11 important functions. Name five of these functions.
Any five of the following are correct: (1) Loan control, (2) Record transfer and retirement, (3) Data and statistics necessary for record management, (4) Create records and print labels, both automatically and manually, (5) Generate pull lists, (6) Check-in and charge-out records, (7) Track individual record statuses, locations, and pending requests, (8) Flag records that are missing or are inactivated for various reasons, (9) Generate lists of those records eligible for transfer and/or retirement, (10) Generate the reports necessary to manage department activities, (11) Generate electronic messages to notify tracking system users of information concerning specific patient records.
To whom is the personal property of an active duty deceased forwarded?
Appointed summary court officer
When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military personnel retired?
At the end of each calendar year
What are five of the disclosure categories?
Any five of the following: Information about decedents, as required by law, health oversight activities, judicial and administrative proceedings, medical facility patient directories, research purposes, victims of abuse, workman's compensation, to avert serious threats to health or safety, cadaver organ, eye, or tissue donation purposes, inmates in correctional institutions or in custody, law enforcement purposes, public health activities, specialized government functions, or neglect or domestic violence
Name four tasks that can be accomplished once a schedule is created.
Any four of the following: (1) Copy and/or transfer one schedule to another provider within the same clinic. (2) Open the schedules for immediate booking, or allow the system to open the schedule at a later date that you specify. (3) Reserve the schedule for automatic, interactive, or future Wait List processing., (4) Freeze appointment slots from further booking. (6) Cancel slots with or without booked appointments. (5) Modify slots within a schedule by changing the appointment type or number of patients allowed per slot. (7) Add or delete slots to a schedule
What does the UPMR highlight?
Any mismatches between what is authorized for each position and what the position incumbent has for assigned data
What are some examples of when a patient authorization is required?
Any of the following: patient requests a copy, patient is going downtown for care, medical records of minors, adopted infants, and release to insurance agencies, and other external recipients
What is a zero balance transaction?
Any request that asks to change manpower must not increase authorizations, skill level, grade requirement or PEC funding. A ZBY should be a 'no cost' action to the command. Failure to identify an off-setting authorization will delay processing and may results in disapproval
Who is an AF Wounded warrior?
Any seriously or very seriously wounded, ill, or injured Airman identified on a casualty report, or recommended by the medical community as having highly complex medical conditions. Also included are Airmen who have been referred to the IDES for PTSD, TBI and/or other mental health conditions
What situation would validate an emergency supply issue?
Any situation that requires an urgent, unexpected need to be met
What are two of the HIPAA's privacy officer responsibilities?
Any two of the following: (1) Develops policies and procedures for local implementation of the HIPAA Privacy regulation; (2) Ensures initial and refresher privacy training to all the MTF workforce; (3) Ensures continuous assessment, implementation, monitoring, and revision of the MTF HIPAA Privacy programs; (4) Coordinates on the review process for applicable MDG policies and procedures to ensure alignment with current HIPAA practices; (5) Establishes, recognizes and shares best practices relative to the management of the privacy of health information; (6) Ensures a mechanism is in place at the MTF for receiving, documenting, tracking, investigating, and taking action on all complaints concerning the organization's privacy policies and procedures in coordination and collaboration with other similar functions, and when necessary, legal counsel.
What is the largest artery in the body?
Aorta.
List some types of servers
Application server, database server, messaging or mail server, print server, and web server
What reports are available within the ADM module in CHCS?
Appointments with no ADM records by clinic, ADM patients with third party insurance, ADM compliance, ADM records with unresolved coding issues and interface transmission status of ADM record
A general term used specifically to identify the types of funds made available to the Air Force by congress
Appropriation
When and how does AFPC announce the WAPS instructions?
Approximately 45 days prior to the PECD for each cycle AFPC announces processing instructions through an MPSM or address indicator group (AIG) message
What department is responsible for the support of medical evacuation?
Army Medical Department
Personnel from which US uniformed service cannot receive care in an Air Force MTF under the SAF designee program?
Army.
What are the three types of blood vessels?
Arteries, veins, and capillaries
An Airman's score on the PDG is 68.375. How will this score be recorded?
As 68.37
What purpose does the stomach serve?
As a "holding tank" in which food remains for several hours
How does the Air Force credit portions of a month in excess of 15 days when computing TIS?
As a full month
How do wastes leave the body?
As bowel movements through the anus
ad lib.
As desired.
What purpose does the quarters authorization form serve?
As notification to the patient, the patient's commander, and Public Health
When does the FPEB adjudication process begin?
As soon as the member nonconcurs with the IPEB findings and recommendations and elects a formal hearing
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: M
Asian.
Supposing something without positive proof
Assumption
How many voting members are required for the IPEB?
At least 3
How many people should you have to carry a litter?
At least 4 people
How often should the medical readiness committee meet?
At least every other month
If a patient is temporarily decertified, when must a CMA make a recommendation of RTF or permanently decertify to the CO?
At the end of the 365-day period
How is TIG computed for Airmen competing for promotion to the grades of SSgt through MSgt?
At the rate of one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years, as of the first day of the last month of the promotion cycle
Who determines the appropriate classification of a patient for movement within the AE system?
Attending Physician
What are the 2 documents you may have to review in DTS?
Authorization and Voucher
What does the executive and legislative branches of the government work on during the first quarter?
Authorization and appropriation bills
What main division of the nervous system regulates automatic functions of the body, such as the beating of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive system?
Autonomic.
What are the requirements for award of an AFOUA?
Awarded to numbered units such as air forces, air divisions, wings, groups, and squadrons. Organizations must have performed meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units
Define "lateral."
Away from the midline or toward the right or left sides of the body
What does the body of the medical contingency response plan consist of?
Basic plan, supporting plans and agencies, references, unit's mission, contributing organizations, execution, threat assessment, and MCRP annexes
What must the board members be able to do in order to give their professional medical opinion and recommendation on the evaluee's qualification for military service?
Be able to relate the evaluee's medical conditions and prognoses to the military environment
Why is initial notification of selection for promotion to SMSgt or CMSgt considered tentative?
Because a 100% audit of the data used in the selection process must be accomplished, as errors may result in erroneous selection or nonselection
Why are skeletal muscles sometimes called "voluntary muscles"?
Because humans cause them to move at will
Why is supply discipline important to the mission of the Air Force?
Because it is imperative that equipment and supplies are operational and maintained in the best possible condition, in constant readiness, and in the absolute minimum quantity necessary to accomplish the assigned mission
Why is the senior NCO data verification record important to each member testing for promotion to SMSgt or CMSgt?
Because it reflects data the evaluation board will use
On administrative changes, why is there no coordination required?
Because these types of changes are non-substantive
List the two methods used to identify the number of beds available on each inpatient unit?
Bed status board, or CHCS
Under what circumstances will the MEMO take action to transfer a custodian's property or have it assigned to an authorized successor?
Before a property custodian is relieved from duty, transferred, separated from service, or absent from the account in excess of a 45-day period
What Air Force Medical Service objective encourages health behaviors through a health-based culture to enhance resilient and human performance, while reducing illness and injury?
Better health.
What is the catastrophic cap for active duty family members enrolled in TRICARE Standard and Extra?
Between $1,000 and $3,000 annually, depending on rank
AD Airman stationed overseas may qualify for PCS reassignment to an MTF if their hospitalization is expected for how long?
Beyond his or her DEROS
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: N
Black.
What agency, such as the Office of Special Investigations, is authorized to use a blanket request? Explain.
Blanket requests are not permitted by any person or agency. Requests must be specific and limited in scope. It should only request information that could reasonably accomplish the mission
Where does lymph come from?
Blood
The amount of O&M dollars which a command/base can reasonably expect to receive and carry out its mission for the forthcoming year
Bogey
How does bone tissue play a role in keeping the blood healthy?
Bone marrow produces new blood cells and releases them into the bloodstream
Provides the system for translating muscular contractions into body movements
Bones, with tendons, ligaments, and fibrous sheaths.
BM
Bowel movement
What marketing elements should marketing programs consider?
Briefings/presentations, enrollment packages, newspaper articles, public service advertising, and signage
When must time sheets be turned in to the MTF MEPRS program manager?
By COB on the 3rd duty day of the beginning of each month
How do white blood cells (leukocytes) help protect the body from disease?
By attacking bacteria, viruses, poisons, and other harmful substances
How should you calculate how much money your section will require for supplies?
By basing it on the previous year's requirements
How does an active duty member receive care in TRICARE Prime Remote?
By enrolling with no fee required
How is the pituitary gland controlled?
By hormones released by a part of the brain called the hypothalamus
How does the MPF notify HQ AFPC of erroneous data on a OPB when the promotion board is to convene within 14 days?
By message requesting that promotion information be manually posted to the OSB used by the board
How do the endocrine glands control body function?
By producing hormones
How do muscles move the body?
By pulling.
How do you ensure someone has received and read e-mail correspondence?
By requesting a delivery and read receipt
How do property custodians ensure that property in their account is charged to the account properly?
By spot checking and making periodic inventories
PES code for Career Airman declined to extend or reenlist to obtain retainability for completing a PCS
C
What is the primary aircraft used for supporting intratheater AE?
C-130 Hercules, C-17 Globemaster, C-21 and the KC-135 Stratotanker
Who is in the best position to see how funds are expended in their responsibility center?
CCM
What should be kept in the CCM guide?
CCM primary/alternate appointment letter, Quick reference phone number, agenda & meeting minutes, supply handbook, MEPRS handbook, Financial Handbook, Financial plan for your cost center, and Target/budget information
What are some examples of Auxiliary Storage?
CD/DVD-R/RW drives, and USB devices
What system produces various non-standard reports that are not necessarily run on a consistent basis?
CHCS adhoc reports
What letter does the CHCS produce each time an active duty patient is admitted as an inpatient?
CHCS admission notification letter
To whom does the DRRS provide an assessment of unit information to achieve adequate and feasible military response to crises?
CJCS and the CSAF
What is used for entering, tracking, resolving, and reporting on pay and personnel related cases within the USAF?
CMS
Who can request reinstatement of an Airman's PRP certification or requalification?
CO or RO
What listing does the MEMO provide the newly appointed property custodian when custodial responsibility is to be assumed?
CR/LL
What computer software application is used to upload financial data onto the EAS?
CRIS
Instructions issued to prepare and submit a budget estimate or estimated fund requirements for the budget year
Call for estimates
What should you do if you find a weapon on a non-authorized person?
Call security forces
What should the P&A personnel do if a newcomer does not turn in their checklist on time?
Call the member directly
Provide energy that powers all the body's activities
Carbohydrates
What are the most common chemical elements in the body?
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen
Refers to a patient who is dead on arrival to the MTF.
Carded for record only
Name the muscle that has characteristics of both the skeletal and smooth muscles
Cardiac muscle.
What type of care is authorized for the newborns of former Air Force females under the SAF designee program?
Care is authorized in conjunction with delivery to include postpartum well-baby check and related immunizations.
Under the SAF designee program, what type of care is provided to former Air Force females that were discharged under other than honorable conditions and pregnant at the time of discharge?
Care is limited to prenatal and delivery, as well as follow-up care not to exceed six weeks. Supplemental care is limited to diagnostic tests associated with maternity care. Postpartum sterilization is authorized when performed during the obstetrical admission.
What are the determinations the DAWG can make?
Case dismissal, initial RILO referral, and refer for adjudication
When would a CO or RO use reinstatement or requalification?
Cases in which the condition or reason for recertification/ineligibility no longer exists
What does the term "valuables" mean?
Cash, jewelry, and other articles of a similar nature.
What are the categories under the PSP program?
Category 1, Category 2, Category 3
What division of the nervous system functions as the control center?
Central nervous system
What are the three main divisions of the nervous system?
Central, peripheral, and autonomic nervous systems.
Provides a receipt to the sender and a record of delivery
Certified
Describe "J code"
Certified PRP transfer to non-PRP
Describe "D code"
Certified control
C-spine
Cervical spine
Change which may occur between the time of admission and disposition of a military patient
Change of status
What are some things to look for when double-checking a PDI letter?
Check the date, unit, patient, patient identification, correct PDI, send letter and remove stickies from the record
From the text, what is an example of data driven decisions?
Checking the weather in the morning to see if you need a jacket or umbrella, or going to see movies by considering the reviews and finding out what time a specific movie is playing
DEERS checks should be performed on what categories of patients?
Children under age 10 must be enrolled in DEERS, but they don't need their own ID card
Which beneficiary category doesn't need an ID card, but must be enrolled in DEERS to receive medical care?
Children under the age of 10
Provides the tubing for fuel and oxygen to travel the thousands of miles to keep muscles working
Circulatory system
What system moves blood throughout the body?
Circulatory.
Most of the coding in the MTF is done by whom?
Civilians and contractors
What class is used for recovered patient returning to home station?
Class 3B
When preparing medical records for the mission, what does 'medical records' include?
Clinical records, outpatient treatment records, X-rays, and any other pertinent patient information
What regulating services are provided by TPMRC-A?
Clinical validation, limited patient in transit visibility, and evacuation requirements planning for intratheater patient movement and intratheater patient movement for CONUS
What must happen first before writing an outline?
Collect the information you are passing on and then organize it.
How often should a new AF Form 1488 be completed?
Daily
Who has the authority to establish a PIF?
Commanders
Who rates each UTC against the unit's current ability to deploy and employs the unit task codes?
Commanders
An amount of funds you must reserve to cover a specific requirement. It represents an intent or plan to buy an item or service that will eventually become a legal obligation paid
Commitment
What are the 2 stages of accountability CCMs need to understand when performing analysis of expenses?
Commitments and Obligations
What is considered "accountable mail"?
Communications for which accountability must be maintained
When you receive an accountable mail container, what should you do?
Compare the container number listed on the container receipt to make sure you're signing for the correct package
What findings cannot be reversed by the MEB appointing authority?
Competency or Insanity
When competency is affect, what terminology is used in item 23, Diagnosis and Findings, on the AF Form 618?
Competent or Not competent
How does a patient request to restrict access to their medical information?
Complete a DD Form 2871, Request to Restrict Medical and Dental Information
CBC
Complete blood count
What are some examples of hardware?
Computer routers, switches, hubs, and network cables
What are the measures included in FPCON Charlie?
Conduct 100% identification checks of all personnel entering, recall additional required personnel, and limit access points in order to enforce entry control
What does the AF use to help control the communications while in AF channels?
Container Numbers
An emergency involving military force
Contingency
How does the heart pump blood through the circulatory system?
Contracting and relaxing rhythmically.
who are the key players involved in the fiscal year-end closeout?
Contracting, Logistics, ALO, Financial analysis office, responsibility center managers, RAs, and CCMs
From what do inhaling and exhaling result?
Contractions of the diaphragm
What type of position is one that requires security police personnel to directly secure nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critical components?
Controlled
Military patient who has been a bed occupant and has reached a point of recovery where the physician considers it more desirable for the patient to have a period of recuperation and relaxation outside the MTF. The patient does not have to return to the MTF until this leave ends. This leave is not chargeable
Convalescent leave
What patient absence is granted to active duty members and is considered part of the patient's treatment?
Convalescent leave
How often must you coordinate a review of sequestered records with the base claims officer to determine whether the records should continue to be sequestered?
Coordinate an annual review of sequestered records with the base claims officer to determine whether the records should continue to be sequestered
What will be placed in the health record in place of the AF Form 1480 or DD Form 2766A?
Copy of the AF Form 1480 or DD Form 2766A
What detailed MEPRS report contains total expenses and cost performance factor amounts at the detailed FCC level?
Cost Table Report
What 4 benefits can leaders within the AFMS reap with properly reported MEPRS data?
Cost awareness, cost effectiveness, cost comparisons, and manpower or personnel utilization
What is one of the most import aspects of in-processing that is often overlooked during in-processing?
Creating a suspense file
When activated for an incident, what team devotes full-time attention to how to the crisis affects mission execution?
Crisis action team
What types of position is one that would permit the launch of a nuclear weapon or employment of a nuclear weapon-loaded delivery vehicle?
Critical
What types of categories fall under the PRP program?
Critical & controlled
cc
Cubic centimeter
How long should the MRO keep meeting minutes for inspection and historical purposes?
Current year plus 2 previous years
What provides the USAF with the ability to perform operational planning and execution at an increased level of detail that complements joint planning?
DCAPES
What form eliminates the need for a separate privacy act statement for each medical or dental document?
DD Form 2005.
What type of documentation must be received by the sending MTF before medical records are mailed to another medical facility?
DD Form 2138; DD Form 877; or other legal request
What form is used to record a formal determination?
DD Form 261.
What form is required for each piece of baggage that is checked and stowed?
DD Form 600, Patient Baggage Tag
What form serves as the patient's only chart during AE?
DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag
What external computer system does CHCS communicate with to process patient eligibility inquiries?
DEERS
Where is the TRICARE overseas regional office headquartered?
DHA
Who is responsible for the procurement of hardware, testing, upgrading and maintaining the software necessary to accomplish MEPRS?
DHSS
What system does the DOD use for standard certification and accreditation?
DIACAP
What type of case should be entered in item 8 of the AF Form 560 for a female patient being admitted for pregnancy?
DIS
The mission for which a measured unit has been equipped, organized, or designed
DOC
What entitles certain members to receive BAS?
DOD and Air Force Policy
Where does equipment go when it is finally disposed?
DRMO or other agency, as instructed
What is another term used for a patient who is CRO?
Dead on arrival.
What payments contribute to the catastrophic cap?
Deductibles, cost-shares, prescription co-payments and Prime enrollment fees
Who owns the inpatient records of a family member of a retired Air Force CMSgt?
Department of Defense
Once the IPEB determines which condition(s) make a member unfit for service, where is the package sent?
Department of veterans affairs rating board
What types of voluntary separation options are available for officers?
Depending on individual circumstances, officers desiring separation tender a resignation, apply for discharge, or request release from extended active duty
What serves as the patient movement decision authority in a specific JTF commanders' AOR?
Deployable Joint Patient Movement Requirement Center
The relocation of forces to a desired area of operation
Deployment
What are some common places that reviewers miss PDI?
Deployment related documentation, PHAs and AF Web-based Health Assessment, Mental Health Records, and documentation from civilian providers
Helps keep the temperature of the body within its normal range
Dermis
Middle layer of the skin.
Dermis
Nerve endings in this layer respond to cold, heat, pain, pressure, and touch
Dermis
Serves as an important sense organ
Dermis
When MTF personnel remove a patient from the AE system before the patient arrives at the destination hospital, who are they responsible to immediately notify?
Destination hospital, referring provider, and TPMRC/JPMRC
What happens to Airmen who have unfulfilled MSOs?
Determination reflecting a member's military behavior and duty performance during a specific period of service
What is the first step in developing our correspondence?
Determine the purpose of the correspondence
What is one of the major goals of a marketing program?
Develop communication products that meet the customer needs
What do V-codes usually identify?
Diagnoses other than disease
What forms may be filed in Section 4, AF Form 2100A series health record?
Diagnostic test reports such as lab forms, SFs 519B, OFs 520, other diagnostic test reports, and advanced directives (self-determined acts or living wills).
What 3-to 5-digit number indicates the type of cost incurred within a work center?
EEIC code
The financial incentive for the MTF is to retain what type of care within the MTF as capability and capacity will allow?
Each MTF will need to carefully analyze their enrollment capacity, and primary and specialty care capabilities to perform well under T-Nex and its "at risk" financing rules of engagement. The more these functions stay in-house, the better off financially the MTF will be.
Once the board has completed the proceedings, who signs the AF Form 618 and initials all copies?
Each member of the medical board
What suggested back up item(s) fall under reportable statistics?
Each report applicable to the unit
When is the CAL produced?
Each time Medical Logistics processes a change action affecting a custodian's account
When is the MPF required to conduct the OPB review program?
Early enough to allow all necessary updates to be entered into the MilPDS no later than 14 days before the board convening date
What is the first half of plotting that represents the label as read from left to right called?
Easting
Patient is alive upon arriving at the MTF, but dies before being admitted.
Emergency room death.
What are the five basic principles of the Air Force's organizational structure?
Emphasis on wartime task, functional grouping, lean organizational structures, skip-echelon structure, and standard levels.
Includes common user assets, such as global mobility forces, special recovery forces, space forces, and other uniquely categorized forces that provide support to the DOD
Enabler-Force
What does a VPN enable?
Enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet
Controls bodily activities
Endocrine and nervous systems
How much IV medication should the physician order for an intratheater flight?
Enough for a 3 day supply
What is the purpose of the installation deployment function?
Ensure command and control by pulling units together to accomplish the mission and deploy UTCs
Explain the policy of releasing information to medical personnel.
Ensure that their access to those records is authorized and necessary in the performance of their duties
What type of events should be put on the events log?
Enter anything that occurs during your tour of duty that is of importance now or could be at some time in the future
SrA Rose is having trouble performing a patient look-up on CHCS. What input can he enter at any menu, prompt or field to learn how to get additional help?
Entering ? accesses a message that tells you how to get additional help
Consists of tough, dead cells
Epidermis
Forms the outermost layer of the skin
Epidermis
Prevents the loss of water from the tissues
Epidermis
Protects the body's inner tissues from the harsh rays of the sun
Epidermis
Serves as a barrier between the outside world and the inner tissues of the body
Epidermis
Name the three layers of skin.
Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissues
What are the four main kinds of tissues in the body?
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous
How often should you back up your data?
Every 30 days at a minimum
When does the MilPDS send information and updated DMHRSi?
Every Thursday
q.2h
Every two hours
What Microsoft tool do you use to capture the data from CHCS?
Excel
What are the criteria for nomination for Legion of Merit?
Exceptionally meritorious conduct in the performance of outstanding service to the United States
To whom are the personal effects of civilians forwarded?
Executor or administration, or, if none is appointed, to the nearest NOK
Condition that existed prior to member's entry into military service.
Existed prior to service
What was TRICARE designed to do?
Expand access to care, assure high-quality care, control healthcare costs, and improve medical readiness
What category do the civilian agencies not recognize as a peacetime triage category?
Expectant
What allows the AF to deploy capabilities from small teams that can provide highly skilled medical care for a limited number of casualties?
Expeditionary Medical Support
What concept is the Air Force mission configured to meet?
Expeditionary Military Force
Fastest service offered by USPS
Express
What are some examples of external customers? What are examples of internal customers?
External customers include patients, couriers, and insurance company. Internal customers include coworkers, supervisors, and others in your squadron such as doctors or nurses.
What's the difference between "external" and "peripheral"?
External is towards the outside (surface) of the body or body part while peripheral refers to something outward from the center of the body or closer to the body surface.
Medical Logistics uses 2 primary methods to support customers' routine supply requests. What are they?
FL and CAIM
Who develops a Federal Individualized Recovery Plan with input from the service member, the member's family or caregiver, and the member's healthcare team?
FRCs
What are the 3 categories under the umbrella of unauthorized absences?
Failure to go, AWOL, deserter
What is the process in which a sperm unites with an egg?
Fertilization
Where are APV records filed?
File original documentation on a patient seen during an APV episode in the EAR folder
To whom may approval for emergency leave be delegated?
First Sergeants
Mail sealed against inspections
First-Class
What kind of fitness exemptions are required to meet the DAWG?
Fitness assessment exemptions with AC exemptions (including pregnancy) and fitness assessment exemptions for 365 days
F/u
Follow-up
when should an AF Form 422, Notification of Air Force Member's Qualification Status be used?
For initial qualification, qualification for retirement or separation, military retraining, PCS, PME, and similar functions
When is a Report of Survey required?
For lost, damaged, or destroyed items over $500, or if evidence of abuse, gross negligence, willful misconduct, deliberate unauthorized use, fraud, or theft is found regardless of cost
Under what circumstances is each military branch allowed to pay for the travel of a patient's NOK?
For military VSI and SI active duty military patients
When is a narrative summary prepared?
For patients who die after admission; who are received by transfer for further treatment; and who remained in the hospital as a bed occupant for 8 days or more
When may a final progress note substitute for a narrative summary?
For patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hour stay, normal newborn infants or uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries
What are the responsibilities of an MTF's medical record review function committee?
For reviewing records to ensure quality, clinical pertinence and the timely completion of records and compliance with AF directives and JCAHO standards
How far back can patients request an accounting for every disclosure?
For the previous six years
How long is temporary decertification?
For up to 270 days but can also be extended in 30 increments to a maximum of 365 days
How do you process requests for reconsideration?
Forward requests for reconsideration of disapproved or downgraded recommendations through the same official channels as the original recommendation. The justification for reconsideration must be in memorandum format not to exceed on page. there must be a copy of the original recommendation with all endorsements and new citation. Submit requests into official channels within one year from the date of the awarding authority's decision. a one-time reconsideration by the award authority is final
In what quarter does higher headquarters seek the MTFs financial plans for the upcoming fiscal year?
Fourth Quarter
What are some items listed on optometry notes that patients are often asked which could constitute PDI?
Frequent or recurrent headaches
How is the certification process different between initial and interim certification?
From a MTF perspective, the certification process for both controlled and critical position certifications are identical
What is an airman's inability to perform actions based on an assessment of an airman's injury or illness by a medical professional?
Functional (or physical) limitation
Who should the BCAC work with to provide enrollment, benefit, and claims processing?
Functional experts.
What are some factors that may affect implementation dates?
Funding, public reviews/comments, contract awards, and additional policy
PES code for Airman on the control roster
G
GI
Gastrointestinal
What system is the brain that updates and maintains accounting records for accounts receivable and payable?
General Accounting and Finance System
What devices can you use to back up data?
Government issued USB drive, CD, and network drives.
Under what conditions is an airman promoted to the grade of A1C on the day of graduation from basic military training?
Grade ceilings do not limit promotions Amn, A1C, and SrA. As a results , Airmen promote to these grades when they satisfy the minimum eligibility requirements
gm
Gram
What map color shows vegetation, such as forests and orchards?
Green
Once the deployment availability working group reviews the case, whom is it sent to?
HQ AFPC/DPANM
Who can waiver restrictions for MTFs to conduct a medical board on their own MTF staff officers?
HQ AFPC/DPANM
Drugs that can lead to either physical or psychological dependence
Habit forming drugs
What are some reasons a member could be medically separated or retired?
Having a disqualifying medical diagnosis, condition (physical or mental) prohibits or limits the individual from completing his/her duties, condition routinely interferes with their ability to deploy, condition restricts worldwide duty reassignment, imposes unreasonable requirements on the military to either maintain or protect the member
Who authorizes patient absences from the hospital?
Health care provider
Who is responsible for all health record entries regarding diagnoses and procedures?
Health care providers
What type of duties can you expect to perform while assigned to an inpatient unit?
Health services management duties
Of what does the circulatory system consist?
Heart, blood vessels, blood, and the lymphatic system
What type of discharge must be a member receive in order to receive the Montgomery GI Bill?
Honorable
When thinking about your receivers, what questions do you ask?
How much does my receiver know about the subject I am presenting? What response do I want from my receiver after reading the correspondence? What tone should I use to get my point across?
What are some conditions that require a reliability assessment?
Hypnosis, and medical conditions detrimental to reliable performance of duties to include individuals affected by personal trauma who are seeking medical care
What standard system is designed to provide a single window of patient centric information at the Point of Care, also, a single, open architecture standard for healthcare informatics?
ICDB.
Who normally trains the active-duty organization where he/she works?
IMA
What is the first thing you should do when you answer the phone and call someone?
Identify yourself.
When would an Airman's promotion be withheld for failure to compete professional military education?
If a SrA has not completed ALS; or if a TSgt has not completed to command NCO academy; or if a SMSgt has not completed the SNCO Academy (or equivalent) in residence
Normally, when is a full registration accomplished?
If a patient is being admitted to the hospital; however each MTF will have guidelines established to dictate when full registration is appropriate
What information should be in the 'RATE CC/HR' block?
If an IV additive or feeding is required, then describe the IV type. If more than one IV is required, list the IVs in sequence Enter frequency and soage of ordered IVs
Under what circumstances will a SrA BTZ promotion board evaluate eligible based solely on their records?
If an individual is unable to physically appear before the board due to PCS, TDY, hospitalization, or emergency leave, then the board will consider all eligibles based solely on their personnel records
When should old PDI be included in a new PDI letter?
If the "new" and "old" PDI when pieced together start to take the shape of a larger puzzle and form a clearer picture of what's behind the blind spot than the "new" PDI alone, then it needs to be re-adressed
Who signs the AF Form 286?
If the CMA confirms that no PDI exists, the reviwer can complete and sign section 3 of the PRP questionnaire, and the medically qualifying CMA's name will be entered on the AF Form 286 with the date of the CMA review. If the CMA decides that PDI exists, the CMA must annotate their findings and sign section 3 of the PRP questionnaire and AF Form 286
Where is the AF Form 348 sent if the SJA does not agree with the unit commander's findings on an "LOD" determination?
If the SJA does not concur, he or she sends the AF Form 348 to the appointing authority for action
When may a member be permanently retired?
If the degree of permanent impairment caused by the disabling condition is determined to be stable
Under which circumstance may losing commanders grant maximum accrued leave as leave en route with any PCS move?
If the delay does not interfere with the reporting date to either a port or a new assignment
In which instance can a military member carry leave in excess of 60 days into the next fiscal year?
If they are eligible for special leave accrual
What is health informatics?
It is the study of resources and methods for managing health information
Under what circumstances may a promotion order be revoked after the promotion effective date?
If, before the promotion effective date, the commander notifies the Airman in writing or verbally not to assume the higher grade
What are the typical three main priorities assigned to IT work orders/trouble tickets?
Immediate, Elevated, and Normal
When should a recommendation to remove a member from PRP status be made?
Immediately
When did the Air Force Medical Service align the structure to mirror the line of the Air Force and what was the organizational structure name changed to?
In 1993, it was changed to Objective Medical Group.
Where does Microsoft office suite store data from all its programs unless a different location is specified?
In My Documents.
Where should all correspondence (request) be placed once the request has been filled?
In Section III of the health record
Where does the MSA officer maintain all excess controlled forms?
In a locked cabinet inaccessible to the custodian or other individuals
For most of the forces, how is the AEF battle rhythm spent?
In normal training during which forces concentrate on unit missions and basic proficiency events
Where should the UDM appointment letter be maintained?
In the UDM continuity binder
Where does the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen occur?
In the alveoli.
Where does digestion begin?
In the mouth
Supports critical home station operations
In-place support
What provides new personnel with a list of offices and activities they must visit in order to become a functioning member of their new unit of assignment?
In-processing checklist
A patient's injuries resulted in serious disfigurement
Incapacitating illness or injury.
What option in BLDSM is used to request basic information on members?
Individual Form
Who must certify the "selectee data verification list" to the effect that the data has been verified against source documents in the UPRG?
Individual verifying the data and the NCOIC, career enhancement, or other official designated by the MPs commander must certify this listing to the effect that the data has been verified against source documents in UPRG
What type of determination is normally made by the member's unit commander?
Informal LOD.
What are the two acts of breathing?
Inhaling and exhaling
What type of certification is referred to as a "formal certification"?
Initial certification
Fractures, wounds, concussions, and conditions resulting from extremes of temperature or prolonged exposure
Injury
Individual, other than a transient patient, who is admitted to a bed in the MTF. Also referred to as bed occupant
Inpatient
What are some capabilities of TMIP-J?
Inpatient care, outpatient care, blood status medical surveillance, tracking medical supplies, occupational and environmental health and tracking patients through the aerovac system
Where is a copy of the death certificate filed?
Inpatient record
What topics can the ward nursing report be broken down into?
Inpatient ward. Beds in ward. Patients in ward. Blocked beds in ward. Preadmits in ward. Beds available in ward.
Who is the approval authority for a postmortem examination?
Installation commander
What are special mail services limited to?
Instances when required by law, by DOD, AF Policy, or when mission essential
I&O
Intake and Output
An act done on purpose
Intentional conduct.
Movement of an inpatient from one unit (ward) to another
Inter service transfer.
Movement of an inpatient from one clinic service to another
Inter-unit (ward) transfer.
What are the 2 types of changes?
Interim and Administrative
What type of certification is used when it becomes necessary for the CO to consider an individual for a PRP position and the required security investigation has not been completed?
Interim certification
Describe "E code"
Interim certified critical
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: I
Interlocutory.
What three parts is the correspondence broken down to?
Introduction, body, conclusion
Consists of those forces assigned to organizations responsible to carry Air Force level functions
Intuitional Force
What are your concerns when editing for technical accuracy and coverage?
Is enough information included? Are details correct? Are irrelevant or too many details included-is the point made?
What information is contained in the using activity issue/turn-in summary report?
Issues, reversal, and turn-ins for your using activity
What effect do changes to the promotion data during the pre-selection phase cause?
It can cause promotions records to be reconsidered, reactivated, deactivated, and ineligible
What is the position number?
It identifies a manpower requirement, which is a statement of manpower needed to accomplish a specific job, workload, mission, or program
What are the functions of AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet?
It introduces, summarizes, coordinates, or obtains approval or signatures on correspondence. It's a brief summary (preferably one page) stating the purpose, pertinent background information, rationale, and discussion necessary to justify the action desired.
What is a trigger event?
It is a condition or occurrence which may indicate a member has a health condition that is inconsistent with retention standards or deployability
What is the primary crash alarm circuit?
It is a direct-line telephone net designed to save lives and prevent the destruction of property through rapid relay of emergency, disaster, and crash information to specific base agencies
What is a topographical map?
It is a graphic representation of the earth's surface to include manmade features as well as natural features through the use of symbols, lines, colors, and forms
What is the hard disk?
It is a large-capacity permanent storage that is used to hold information such as programs and documents.
What is the Medical Control Center?
It is a predetermined area designed as a central point where the MTF commander and key personnel coordinate, control, and direct medical response actions during crises or contingencies
Define "prefix."
It is a syllable or group of syllables joined to the beginning of another word to alter its meaning or to create another word
What is Theater Medical Information Program-Joint?
It is a system that records the patient's medical evaluations while down range
What is the purpose of the patient suspense file?
It is a working file for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting the patient during their hospitalization. It serves as a file for inpatient records while patients are absent from the MTF as part of their treatment, on leave, etc., and as a follow-up file to ensure administrative actions are carried out promptly when required.
What is a PRP notification>
It is an action taken by the MTF to "notify" the CO of a recommendation to change a member's PRP status or access
What is the CAL?
It is an interim listing used to update the CRLL
What is the maximum time for suspension?
It is initially for up to 30 days however, the MTF may recommend extension of the suspension peiod up to 120 days in 20-day increments
Is personal appearance of the evaluee required?
It is not required, but may be helpful to the board
When all required disposition procedures have been completed on the inpatient unit, where is the patient's inpatient record sent?
It is sent to the disposition office or inpatient records section (as determined by local policy).
What functions does the VA's Military Service Coordinator perform?
It is the VA's nonclinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the IDES. The MSC provides counseling and guidance about VA benefits and policies to the member an/or family. Additionally, the MSC assists the member an/or family in the preparation and tracking of VA claims
Define a "root word."
It is the main part, or portion of a word, from which other words may be formed by the addition of a prefix and/or suffix.
What is the SORTS report?
It is the single automated reporting system within the DOD functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces
When is permanent disqualification/decertification used?
It is used when the CO has determined an indicidual no longer meets the reliability standards
What is an erroneous certification?
It is when a patient PCA'd with a new CO and RO, but the gaining unit did not process the proper certification procedures with a new AF Form 286
Why should immediate family members who are citizens of another country be identified for appropriate evaluation?
It mist be determined that family members are not subject to physical, mental, or other forms of duress by a foreign power and who do not advocate or practice acts of force or violence to prevent others from exercising their rights under the constitution or laws of the US or nay state or subdivision thereof
What must a FOIA request contain?
It must be in writing and must reasonably describe the record(s) the individual is looking for and it must indicate a willingness to pay fees associated with processing
What does the DHP appropriation provide?
It provides for worldwide medical and dental services to activate forces and other eligible beneficiaries, veterinary services, medical command headquarters, specialized services for the training of medical personnel, and occupational and industrial health care
Why is the pituitary gland called the master gland?
It releases a number of hormones, which regulate other endocrine glands
What is the patient control file?
It serves as an inventory of patients covering a 24-hour period (0001 through 2400) and indicates which patients are bed occupants, subsisting out, on leave, AWOL, nonmilitary hospital patients etc.
Relative to the release of medical information, what is the purpose of the DD Form 2005?
It serves as evidence that, as prescribed by the privacy act, the individual was informed of the purpose and uses of the information collected and was advised of his/her rights and obligations when providing their data.
Relative to the release of medical information, what is the purpose of the DD Form 2005?
It serves as evidence that, as prescribed by the privacy act, the individual was informed of the purpose and uses of the information collected and was advised of his/her rights and obligations with respect to supplying the data
What is the purpose of the DOC statement?
It summarizes the unit's mission
What are some of the negative effects of the P&A office not tracking personnel who in-process?
It would make accountability almost impossible
What is an HMO?
It's a health plan in which a member pays for medical care, and it usually includes primary and preventive care.
Describe the contents of the master index of patients.
It's an index card file containing an active and inactive section. The active section contains cards for all hospital patients currently under treatment; the inactive section contains cards on patients that are no longer under treatment in the MTF (discharged).
When should you NOT release information?
It's known to be revoked, is an incomplete request, if the information provided is false, expired, is a compound authorization, and a conditional authorization
For what purpose is an RC/CC code used?
It's used by the accounting system to monitor and report purchases by a work center
When completing an AF Form 560, in which item would you document all diagnoses and procedures of a patient's case?
Item 38, Diagnosis-Procedures
In which item of AF Form 560 is the nature of a patient's disposition recorded?
Item 41, Disposition
Medical Investment Equipment
Item with a unit cost of $250,000 or more; 5-year life expectancy; maintains identity during use
Medical Expense Equipment
Item with a unit cost of at least $3,300 but not more than $250,000; 5-year life expectancy, maintains identity during use
Medical Supply Item
Item with a unit cost of less then $2,500 and does not require any form of maintenance
When screening the log back order report, for what information should you be looking?
Items requiring cancellation, follow-up status, quanitity error, item error, etc.
PEs code for Denied or not selected for re-enlistment
J
When was the final rule for adoption of ICD-10-CM put into use?
January 16, 2009
What community-based, not-for-profit healthcare systems participate in Uniformed Service Family Health Plan?
Johns Hopkins Medicine, Martin's Point Healthcare, Brighton Marine Health Center, CHRISTUS Health, Pacific Medical Centers, and Saint Vincent Catholic Medical Centers of New York
What are the main organs of the urinary system?
Kidneys
What are some examples of health information technology application?
Kx, MHS Learn, MESD, Micromedx, Military Health System, TRICARE, TRICARE Online, and WebMD.
What is the proper way to insert a patient's name in CHCS?
LAST NAME,FIRST NAME MI (No space between last and first name; one space between first name and MI; and no period after MI).
What is the difference between a large and small unit in terms of how BTZ promotion quotas are allocated?
Larger units (7 or more eligible) receive quotas and promote at unit level. Small units (six or less eligible) are combined into one pool of eligible to form the CBB
What is the categorical break down for individual awards?
Leadership and job performance in primary duty, significant self-improvement, and base or community innvolvement
LLQ
Left lower quadrant
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: L
Legally separated.
What is the maximum allowable weight for infants if an incubator is required?
Less than 8 lbs
For a case to qualify as a debt collection case, what must be presented to the DCAO?
Letter from a Collection Agency indicating that the beneficiary has been sent to collection for non-payment partial payment or denial of claim for services of a TRICARE-associated claim, and/or a negative credit report secondary to the above
What holds movable joints together?
Ligaments.
How are corrections to inpatient records made?
Line through incorrect data, do not erase or scratch out. If space permits enter correct data next to erroneous data, if not draw a line through erroneous data, initial and place the correct date next to the entry. Make a note that refers the reader to the correct entry. Go to the location on the inpatient form where the next entry can be made and enter the information using the current date
Some store extra fuel; others serve as building materials for the cells that make up the body
Lipids.
What steps should you take when dealing with difficult situations?
Listen to your customer attentively, show empathy, solve the problem, and take them to the patient advocate or supervisor.
What is the most important customer service skill?
Listening.
When assisting beneficiaries with choosing the right TRICARE program for their family, what should you consider first?
Location
What listing contains all of the supplies due out(owed) to an activity?
Log back order report
Who is included in the CCTs?
Logistic readiness squadron, maintenance, munitions, medical and civil engineers
Whose responsibility is it to complete the local transfer of equipment form?
Losing custodian
What does separation before completion of the obligated period of service result in?
Loss of investment the AF made in recruiting, training, and equipping which leads to a need for more accession
Who does the UDM work with to conduct analysis to determine the wartime readiness of functional areas?
MAJCOM FAMS
A predetermined area in the MTF
MCC
The area where the MTF commander coordinates actions in support of the assigned mission
MCC
Consolidates a facility's peacetime and wartime capabilities and plans
MCRP
With whom do MTF commanders establish resource-sharing agreements?
MCS contractor
Any individual who discovers a missing patient valuable must report the loss to whom?
MDG/CC
Who appoints the individual to serve as the custodian for patient valuables?
MDG/CC
Who has the responsibility for accepting patient valuables?
MDG/CC.
What does the IPEB base recommendations on?
MEB report, medical NARSUM, VA C&P exams, clinical records, information in the PDS, commander's letter, LOD determination, etc.
What concrete evidence does the AF/SG use to understand that areas need 'fine tuning'?
MEPRS information
What is used to score all applicable elements of HSI, AAAHC, and applicable national patient safety goals?
MITC
From where is the UMD retrieved?
MPES
If a patient fails a DEERS check and wants to use a DD Form 1172 to verify eligibility, who certifies the DD Form 1172 to verify the patient is eligible to receive medical care at a military facility?
MPF.
Who must notify Headquarters AFPC by message within 72 hours after an Airman is selected for promotion?
MPS or promotion authority
What is the single source of readiness training data for medical personnel and UTC appointment?
MRDSS-ULTRA
Who is responsible for the proper care of the controlled forms used for securing patient valuables?
MSA officer
Who works with the data quality assurance team and presents the results of the completed monthly DQMC review list to the executive committee?
MTF DQ Manager
Maintain TOL sustainment plan, oversee the activities of MTF TOL Team, and establish business practices to incorporate into newcomers briefings are whose responsibilities?
MTF TOL Project officer
Who approves an attending physician's recommendation for the presence of the NOK when it would be beneficial to the patient's recovery?
MTF commander
Who has disapproval authority for request for designee status?
MTF commander and MAJCOM surgeon general for requests not meeting the criteria in AFI 41-115
Who assumes administrative responsibility for an active duty Air Force patient admitted to a non-military facility?
MTF commander at the nearest Air Force MTF
Who has review and approval authority over medical board reports?
MTF commander or designee; this authority may be delegated to a senior AD medical corps officer in his/her staff
Who appoints medical boards?
MTF commander or their designee
Who makes a good faith effort to work with the contractor to execute sound resource sharing agreements?
MTF commanders
Where is bile made and stored? How does it aid digestion?
Made in the liver and stored in the gall bladder. Breaks up large molecules of fatty foods
What are the responsibilities of the patient valuables custodian?
Maintains the necessary records and protects the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping
When is a condition relating to alcohol abuse considered to be a disease or injury for the purpose of requiring an LOD and a misconduct determination?
Make an LOD determination when alcohol abuse causes the death of a member leaving surviving family members, or an injury that results in a member's inability to perform duty for more than 24 hours, or results in the likelihood of a permanent disability. The ultimate determination is whether the member's misconduct is the proximate cause of the disease, injury, or death.
How is PSP identified on the front cover of the record jacket?
Make the notation "Assigned to presidential support duties", in pencil, in one of the blank spaces printed on the front of AF Form 2100 or 2100A series, Health Record-Medical/Dental
What is the final step when the patient is at the destination MTF and no longer being tracked?
Mark the record as complete in TRAC2ES
What is a foundation for building a business strategy?
Marketing
What are 3 aspects of the BAS program?
Meal cards for those individuals not authorized the BAS; the allowance itself, authorized to those who meet certain eligibility requirements
What are the FPCON checklist lines referred to?
Measures
Who is the OPR for the cost center lists and backorder lists?
Medical Logistic Flight Personnel
What organization is responsible for inventorying, balancing, and delivering routine supply requirements?
Medical Logistics
Who is responsible for completing the front side of the AF Form 348?
Medical officer
Who makes the determination concerning an administrative LOD?
Medical officer
What squadrons are allowed in an MTF?
Medical operations squadron, dental squadron, aerospace operations squadron, inpatient operations squadron, surgical operations squadron, diagnostics, and therapeutics squadron
What acts and amendments must medical personnel comply with?
Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment act, and Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse amendments
What should be secured if you have a patient that will remain overnight?
Medical records and narcotics
What should you avoid when drafting the PDI letter?
Medical terminology or acronyms
Who is responsible for identifying cases which require LOD misconduct determinations?
Medical treatment facility
What does a CPT code describe?
Medical, surgical, and diagnostic services
When are members eligible for retirement?
Members are eligible to retire on the first of the month after completing 20 years of total active federal military service (TAFMS), 10 years of TAFCS (in order to retire in officer status), and must have fulfilled all ADSCs
For whom are LOD and misconduct determinations made?
Members of the Air Force (regular or reserve) who incur or aggravate an injury, illness, or disease, or who die leaving family member beneficiaries while on active duty or traveling to or from such duty need an LOD determination.
Presumption that all members are mentally responsible for their acts.
Mental responsibility
What organization is responsible for establishing suspenses and ensuring the responsible officials complete actions associated with informal LOD and misconduct determinations?
Military Personnel Flight
What are the most valuable assets that medical board members possess?
Military medical experience and exposure to a broad spectrum of military operational and support activities.
mg; mgm
Milligram
What are the 4 triage categories?
Minimal, immediate, delayed, and expectant
Intentional conduct that is wrongful or improper
Misconduct
What information does the mission document provide?
Mission legs, flight times, manifest, special equipment, etc.
What type of facility is generally located near active flight lines?
Mobile aeromedical staging facility
A quality or capability of military force which permits movement from place to place while retaining the ability to fulfill the primary mission
Mobility
What purpose does saliva serve?
Moistens the food, making it easier to swallow and its digestive enzymes break food down into chemicals the body can use.
Specify at least 3 resource management responsibilities during the fiscal year-end closeout?
Monitor the base organization closeout instructions to ensure timely coordination of required actions by the personnel involved in the funding; assist in obtaining documentation to ensure all commitment documents are fully obligated or de-committed prior to 30 Sep; validate all due-outs with logistics. Confirm all memo due-outs and cancel any requisitions no longer required; monitor TDY travel and assist the Accounting Liasion Office in liquidating all travel obligations; notify the financial Analysis Office immediately if a surplus or deficit in funds develops; complete any other closeout instructions or orders given by the financial analysis office
How often is this product (the UMD) available?
Monthly
How often should the SORTS report be completed and submitted?
Monthly, and NLT the 15th of each month; when there are changes to the category levels; within 24 hours of a change
How often is an inspection of patient valuables conducted?
Monthly.
What information should you back up?
Most commonly office documents such as Word, Excel spreadsheets, PowerPoint, Access database and government forms. Also back-up local e-mail (outlook), .pst, and internet favorites if utilized.
What are the two basic kinds of joints?
Movable and fixed joints
What are the main tasks of the muscles?
Move limbs, push food through the gut, make the heart beat, and control blood flow around the body.
What does a numbered expeditionary Air Force consist of?
Multiple AEWs, with subordinate AEGs, and AESs
Are the engines of the body
Muscles
What grade must the rater's rater be if the rate is in the grade of AB-TSgt?
Must be in a grade equal or higher than the rater and must be at least a MSgt or civilian in the grade of GS-7 or above
What is done with undelivered mail containing the endorsement "DO NOT FORWARD" at the end of the workday?
Must be stored in a classified storage container
MI
Myocardial infarction (heart attack).
What criteria does the MDG/CC use to appoint an individual to perform an inspection of patient valuables?
NCO in the grade of E-5 or above, a civilian with comparable grade, or an officer
What can happen if the physical records sent to NPRC do not match the records retirement index?
NPRC can return the shipment at MTF expense
What information may be release with the patients' consent?
Name and rank, component occupation or job title, and present medical assessment of condition (stating condition stable, good, fair, serious, or critical).
Who is eligible for TRICARE Reserve Select?
National Guard, Reserve members, and their family members
What are the microscopic filtering units in the kidneys called?
Nephrons
Keeps us aware of our surroundings
Nervous system
What providers are prohibited from balance billing?
Network and participating providers
Of what is the nervous system made?
Neurons.
When are prefixes used alone to define a word or system?
Never, they are always used in conjunction with a root word or root word and suffix
Is a new AF Form 286 rescreen required if the transfer does not involve a change in the reviewing official?
No
What service characterization is appropriate for Airmen in an entry-level status?
No characterization is appropriate unless a service characterization of under other than honorable conditions is authorized under the reason for discharge and is warranted by the circumstances of the case, or the SAF determines that characterization as honorable is clearly warranted by unusual circumstances of personal conduct and performance of military duty
What are the benefits of DTS?
No fee for trip cancellation or changes, access to last minute seat availability, and quicker reimbursement times
How long can a member stay on the TDRL?
No more than 5 years
What makes a person ineligible for a service award?
No service award will be presented or awarded to any person whose entire service for the period covered by the award was not honorable, or to a person whose service for the period covered by the award was terminated under other than honorable conditions
When is the soonest you should notify the members of the selection for drug testing?
No sooner than one hour prior to the available testing period
Are new orders required for each convening of the board?
No, there must be only one order current at each MTF
What does the MHS use to explain how the patient PHI may be used and disclosed?
NoPP labels.
What type of provider furnishes care to beneficiaries but does not sign agreements with regional contractors?
Non-Network provider
What is the second half of plotting that represents the label as read from the bottom to top called?
Northing
NPO
Nothing by mouth
What does P&A staff do when they receive a completed PAC worksheet?
Notify the MPS
Who will notify the rater when an LOW is mandatory because of PCS or PCA action?
Notify the rater during reporting period
Carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform its particular jobs
Nucleic acids.
How are surgical procedures entered on AF Form 560?
Numbered with the principal procedure listed first, and then those that are associated procedures
Who requires a standard integrated system to provide accurate medical manpower, utilization, and expense information to assist the medical leadership in providing efficient, quality health care services to beneficiaries?
OASD-HA
What is intended to mitigate the effects on deployments on healthcare access, quality, and scope?
OCO Funds
What document provides open accounts payable and accounts receivable, purchase request, and contract status information?
ODL
Fund authorization provided by one AFO to another AFO or base activity for a specific purpose, for stated amount and purpose and to be used within a specified time
Obligation Authority
Which stage of accountability includes undelivered orders outstanding, accrued expenditures unpaid, and accrued expenditures paid?
Obligations Stage
What are examples of nonmedical material?
Office and janitorial supplies, and equipment
During the fiscal year-end closeout, where is the focus of the carious command elements? The MTFs?
On effectively using available funds on prioritized operational needs; on the need to ensure all valid obligations are recorded before the end of the fiscal year is closed out
On what basis are WAPS factors assigned a point value? Provide an example.
On the basis of relative importance to promotion. For example, the SKT and PDG account for 200 of the 460 points, constituting 44 percent of the total point value
when are airmen entitled to separation from active duty?
On their expiration term of service unless there is a specific authority for their retention
What kind of process is digestion?
One of chemical reactions sped up by enzymes
What is a non-network, non-participating provider?
One who provides care, but does not have an agreement with TRICARE and they do not accept the allowable charge as payment
How long are perspective designees under the abused family members criteria entitled to medical care?
One year after sponsor's discharge
Who has the authority to remove ALC-C?
Only HQ AFPC/DPANM
Who can withhold the promotion of an Airman serving in the grade of SMSgt or CMSgt for periods longer than one year?
Only MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU
When can EPR/OPR feedback be conducted over the telephone or electronically?
Only in situations where face-to-face feedback is not feasible
Who may have access to the comprehensive assessment?
Only persons within the agency who have proper need to know
If a physician feels that the release of medical information to the patient will have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health of the patient, what procedures should you follow in answering a request for medical information?
Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.
How much information should be provided when answering a request for medical information?
Only the information requested
How many controlled forms should the MSA officer issue to the custodian?
Only the quantity of forms needed to meet the expected requirements for a reasonable period
When should you fax medical documentation?
Only when the original record or mail-delivered copies will not meet requirements for immediate patient care.
Official funding document issued to or by operating agencies. It reflects the OBA for actual expenses and reimbursements.
Operating Budget Authority Document
Four-position alphanumeric control code identifying fund accounts to which operation and maintenance and military funds are authorized
Operating budget account number
A code that is authorized and assigned by the Director of Budget, HQ USAF and generally equates to a MAJCOM
Operating budget code
What AF discipline does DCAPES prove real-time command, control, planning, and execution information for the AF functional users?
Operations, logistics, manpower, and personnel
What are the two types of e-mail?
Organizational and individual.
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: X
Other.
OOB
Out of bed.
Individual receiving medical or dental care who do not require admission to an MTF
Outpatient
What basis is a quarters patient treated on?
Outpatient
What are some examples of workload data that CHCS reports?
Outpatient visits, occupied bed days, dispositions, admissions, laboratory workload, radiology workload, and pharmacy workload
What should a CCM never do?
Over obligate the government
PES code for Failed to appear (no-show) for scheduled WAPS testing without a valid reason
P
What CHCS subsystem supports admissions, dispositions, and transfers?
PAD
What are some of the actions that a single personnel action change worksheet can communicate to the P&A?
PCA, PCS, CRO, and PAS code, among other things
After members' records are in-processed through the MTF, to whom does the 4A0 charge them out for review?
PCM
Under a CSS in-processing system, to what type of medical team are active duty members and their family members assigned?
PCO team
What are 5-digit-number identifiers depicting the specific program in which moneys are expended?
PEC
What is PII the acronym for and what is it?
PII is Personally Indefinable Information, which if lost, compromised or disclosed without authorization, could result in substantial harm, embarrassment, inconvenience, or unfairness to an individual
What are the two tubes called that enter each lung?
Primary bronchi.
What part of the personnel readiness folder is the commander letter of selection for a deployment position filed?
Part 1, table of contents
What paperwork is filed in Part 5 and Part 6?
Part 5, the paperwork requirements are specific to the applicable level of authority and are provided by the respective authority. Part 6, the paperwork requirements are specific to the deployment location
A provider that accepts TRICARE and agrees to the TRICARE allowable charge for their service is classified as what type of provider?
Participating provider
What are the 3 important purposes of service awards?
Participation in specific or significant military operations, honorable active military service during periods of war or national emergency, and specific types of service by personnel serving on active duty or as a member of reserve forces
What are C-Codes commonly referred to?
Pass through codes
What information is required if a patient wants their medical information released?
Patient signature and date, description of the information to be released, be written in plain language, name/organization authorized to make the request, purpose of the request, name/organization where the information is going, an expiration date for the authorization, an individual's right to revoke the authorization in writing, and name/organization authorized to release the information
Who normally performs the actual duties associated with patient valuables?
Patient valuables custodian (primary and/or alternate).
What is the minimum patient identification information found on a medical record tracking record label?
Patient's name, FMP, Sponsor's SSN, Record type, Volume Number (used when a patient has more than one record volume), Record Number, Current Location, Home Location, and Status
What minimum identification is placed on each document filed in the outpatient record?
Patient's name, family member prefix, sponsor's SSN, facility name, and name of MTF maintaining the records
What minimum patient identification information is required when filling out inpatient forms?
Patient's name, register number, FMP, sponsor's social security number, and name of treating MTF
What minimum information is required on each form in the inpatient record?
Patient's name, register number, name of MTF providing treatment, name of MTF maintaining records if different than admitting MTF, family member prefix and SSN
What should you be cautious of when disclosing the records of minors to their legal guardians?
Pay special attention to sensitive issues (birth control, abortion, STD treatment) and consult MLC and/or SJA before releasing the information
What report reflects projected evaluation close-out dates less than or equal to current date plus 30 days?
Pending and Projected Evaluations
What is convalescent leave?
Period of authorized absence granted to members who are under medical or dental care as part of the treatment prescribed for recuperation and convalescence
Describe "R code"
Permanently decertified/disqualified control
Describe "P code"
Permanently decertified/disqualified critical
What does the use of TDRL prevent the government from doing?
Permanently retiring a member who may partially or fully recover at a later date or may worsen in the near future
What items cannot be accepted for storage during a patient's hospital stay?
Personal firearms, knives with blades above the length permitted by law and any other items that could be considered a menace to safety or health
When combined together, what 3 types of expenses make-up the DES?
Personnel Utilization Expense (salary), OBL, and non-OBL expenses
What is the recognition program reserved for?
Personnel that clearly go above and beyond the rest of their peers
What 3 types of MTF data does the MEPRS accounting system capture?
Personnel utilization, workload, and expense
What can the MCS contractor provide through resource sharing?
Personnel, equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies
What makes up the unit task codes?
Personnel, equipment, or personnel and equipment
What are the 5 phases of the DIACAP?
Phase I: Initiate and plan IA C&A; Phase II: Implement and validate assigned IA controls; Phase III: Make certification determination and accreditation decision; Phase IV: Maintain authorization to operate and conduct reviews; and Phase V: Decommission
What are the two areas your MTF has addressed to protect integrity, confidentiality and availability of PII and PHI?
Physical and electronic security
Who is responsible for verifying deaths that occur in an MTF and on Air Force installations?
Physician
Who is responsible for the completion of the death certificate?
Physician.
What steps should you take when sequestering medical records?
Place a cover sheet on the original medical record stating the record has been sequestered. Maintain a separate file on why the record has been sequestered, and the date (or occurrence of an event) when the record should be reviewed to determine the need for continued sequestering. Place a charge out in appropriate records room with a statement that the record has been sequestered. If a "Clinic Copy" is made, ensure that original documentation is forwarded to the sequestered file and a copy is placed in the "Clinic Copy."
The scheme or proposed method for accomplishing a mission or reaching an objective
Plan
Define the medical evacuation ground and air ambulance platform
Platforms especially for the medical evacuation mission with allocated medical equipment specifically designed for the purpose of en route care and by trained medical personnel
What are some directive publications?
Policy Directives, Policy Memorandums, Mission Directives, Instructions, Guidance Memorandums, Manuals, Interservice publications, Supplements, Installation publications, and instruction checklists and addenda
What does the custodian's signature on the list indicate?
Possession of equipment taken by custodian or possession of property transferred
What term means toward or near the backside of the body?
Posterior (dorsal).
On the 31st day of unauthorized absence, what action does the commander take?
Prepares a status report, retrieves the dependent ID cards, and completes another AF Form 2098 to change member's status from AWOL to deserter
Greater weight of credible evidence
Preponderance of the evidence.
During which promotion phase are Airmen/SNCOs ineligible for promotion lists produced?
Preselect
This is the user's starting point once logged on to CHCS
Primary Menu
What procurement sources are civilian companies contracted by the DLA and usually deliver supplies within 24 hours?
Prime Vendors
Prior to what day will the MTF MEPRS program manager create the MEPRS financial data via CRIS?
Prior to the 7th day following the end of each month
Which precedence should be utilized for a patient who need AE movement within 24 hours?
Priority
What is the medical evacuation priority if a patient needs to be moved within 4 hours?
Priority 2- Priority
What is the medical evacuation priority if a patient needs to be moved within 24 hours?
Priority 3- Routine
Medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by which act?
Privacy Act
Since medical information is being sent, what should be included on all correspondence?
Privacy Act Statement
In addition to written instructions outlining the process used to determine patient eligibility for medical care at an MTF, what other procedures should be established in the MTF verification procedures?
Procedures should be established to verify the eligibility of all beneficiaries who have prescriptions from non-federal providers, and to allow adult family members or friends to pick up prescriptions from the pharmacy for an eligible beneficiary.
What is "local purchase" and when is it used?
Procurement by Medical Logistics through the base contracting office. It is used to procure items not stocked by the DLA, GSA, or prime vendors
What is the purpose of lymph nodes?
Produce many white blood cells, which filter harmful substances out of the lymph
What qualities should a sponsor posses?
Professional, have a strong work ethic and integrity. Is ready, willing, and able to reflect favorabl on the unit and the section. Furthermore, the sponsor must have the skills and motivation necessary to help kick start the newcomers assignment by assisting them with in-processing, showing them around the base and the surrounding area, helping them to get settled in billeting, the dorms or even assisting them with locating a home or apartment
Who prepares the AF Form 601 to transfer equipment between property custodians?
Property Custodian Losing Equipment
Some serve as building blocks for cells; others speed up the chemical reactions within the body
Proteins
What is the intent of the manning assist program?
Provide short term manpower to AF units or AF positions within joint units (with additional TDY resources) in the performance of its home base mission
What are the two main jobs of the respiratory system?
Provides the body with oxygen and rids the body of carbon dioxide
What term means "toward or closer to the point of origin"?
Proximal.
Primary moving cause or predominating cause
Proximate cause.
What is the classification 1B?
Psychiatric litter patients of intermediate severity; patients requiring tranquilizing medication or sedation, not normally requiring the use of restraining apparatus; restraining apparatus must be sent with the patient for potential use
What is classification 5c?
Psychiatric outpatient, going for treatment of evaluation
What automated on-line tool is used to develop a chronological log?
Q-base
How often must the medical facility conduct a review to reconcile the status of all ongoing medical affirmative claims cases?
Quarterly
PES code for Airman that has a referral or overall rating of "2" on the top EPR
R
Who is responsible for training the CCMs?
RA
What type of memory is temporary electrical storage space that holds program instructions and program data?
RAM.
What office is primarily responsible for managing the MEPRS program within the MTF?
RMO
What do you look for on radiology reports?
Radiology reports can give you clues to head injuries, altercations
Describe "K code"
Re-evaluate for TDY
Primary pool from which the Air Force fulfills requirements
Readily Available Force
What Air Force Medical Service objective supports optimal medical readiness for all Airmen and ensures Air Force medics are current, trained, and equipped to deliver "Trusted Care, Anywhere" in?
Readiness.
What does the MHS use to assist with day-to-day activities?
Real time, or near real time, operational systems
What key strategy is used to maximize the MTF's specialty care capability while simultaneously recapturing specialty care being done in the private sector, for care which could be done in the MTF or Direct Care system?
Recapturing patient care from the private sector
What are some things that should be passed on to the gaining MTF?
Recent identification and/or clinical management efforts to control chronic disease condition, poorly controlled chronic disease conditions requiring regular, uninterrupted follow-up, current pregnancy or medical diagnoses requiring obstetrics follow-up, newborns with follow-up requirements, pending radiographic, laboratory, and pathologic specimens, and pending/incomplete referrals or referrals where a result has not been obtained
What CHCS option is used if a medical record needs to be transferred from one clinic to another before it makes its way back to the records section?
Recharge Records
What documents are the MPF required to provide to both the eligible officers and raters in order to complete the promotion process?
Records of performance, officer pre-selection brief, information obtained from PRISM, and promotion recommendation forms
What is used as a pull list to retrieve medical records eligible for retirement?
Records retirement index
The blood consists of plasma and what three kinds of formed elements?
Red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets
2.5/E.4 is an example of what type of grid coordinate?
Refined grid coordinate
AF Form 560: Leave this item blank until provided an appropriate entry by the CHCS.
Register number
What is the best choice for ensuring accountable mail containers remain in a controlled environment?
Registered Mail
What are the 5 types of special mail services?
Registered mail, certified mail, certificate of mailing, signature confirmation, and insured mail
Whose social security numbers needs to be removed from copies of medical records?
Remove all providers' and sponsors' SSNs
What should you do when releasing adopted infant's medical records?
Remove all reference to the child's natural parents
What are 2 steps you may see on the out-processing checklist?
Remove the member from MRDSS and give the member their mobility folder to take to their new readiness office
How do you de-flag a record?
Remove the tape, cover the PRP status, erase the PSP status from the front cover, & remove the AF Form 745
What is an "AD HOC" report?
Reports tailored to meet a specific purpose
What type of personnel transactions is P&A able to request?
Request report on an individual personnel, request change of status and report duty status change in BLDSM
An interim LOD applies to what category of individuals?
Reserve members
Which MTF personnel are required to complete a monthly timesheet?
Reservists/ANG, Volunteers, Students, Personnel "borrowed" from another MTF, Foreign national employees, Federal civilian employees, Military personnel
7/D is an example of what type of grid coordinate?
Rough grid coordinate
Who approves all AFPMs?
SECAF
What SF Form(s) does the attending physician have to complete for their patients' AE travel?
SF 502, Narrative summary; SF 513, Consultation Summary
Who is required to be part of the DAWG?
SGP, SGH, SPO, all available officers, MSME, PEBLO, a PCM representative and EP
Questionable cases regarding the release of medical information are referred to what office?
SJA
When airmen show likelihood for early separation, with whom should the commander consult when choosing a course of action?
SJA and MPF
Patients whose valuables are lost, mistakenly released, or stolen while in the custodian's possession may file claims for compensation from whom?
SJA or JAG
What grades can commanders STEP-promote eligible members to?
SSgt through MSgt
If the MCC is activated. what do they need to do?
Schedule MCC team members to ensure manning of the MCC for the duration of the contingency. Activate deployment recall roster when directed by the MTF commander. Prepare and transmit reports as required
Who has final disposition on each disability case?
Secretary of the Air Force Personnel Council, acting on behalf of the Secretary of the Air Force
Before starting to review the records, what should you first review?
Section 1 of the PRP questionnaire
From the training page, what button do you want to select to update an individual record?
Select the 'Find Individual Training Record' button
When updating training, you go to MRDSS ULTRA home screen and then what do you do next?
Select the unit from the drop down box, then click the 'Training' button in the header
What tool is used for leadership to evaluate programs and processes that impact the delivery of safe, quality healthcare in their area of responsibility?
Self-inspection
What additional step is taken when extending an existing suspension?
Send a PDI letter updating the CO of the condition
If your MTF receives a DD Form 877 from another MTF and the records have been transferred to another base, what procedure should you follow?
Send the request to the activity to which the records were transferred and tell the requester of your action
What are the P&A responsibilities in reference to administering the performance report program?
Sending performance report notices to the rater and, when applicable, attaching LOEs for the reporting period to the notices; performing an administrative review of all evaluation reports and if necessary, returning them for correction/completion before sending them out of the unit
Who serves as president of the MEB?
Senior ranking AD member present
What two types of neurons are included in the nerves that connect the central nervous system with every part of the body?
Sensory and motor neurons
A patient with an illness that is severe, but there is no imminent danger to the patient's life.
Seriously ill
What are the 3 types of awards members can earn?
Service awards, unit awards, and achievement awards
How many functional accounts are there?
Seven
How long does the CMA have to respond to a rebuttal?
Seven calendar days
Confirmation of delivery including date, time, and location, and you can request to have letter mailed to you with a copy of the recipient's signature
Signature
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: S
Single, never married.
How many category level are there, and what are they?
Six; C-1, C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5, Overall C-Level
Provides a strong framework
Skeletal system
What are the three main types of muscles?
Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
Contains all the interlocking systems
Skin
What are some reasons there may be an altitude restriction?
Some patients cannot fly over a certain altitude due to medical reasons. occasionally, patients diagnosed with certain problems related to the ear may be candidates for altitude restrictions. i.e. these patients may not be able to effectively clear the ears, causing too much pressure as the altitude increases
What is a property custodian?
Someone who has been designated the authority to order, receive, and sign for material
Name the two components of the SNIAC program.
Special needs coordinator and the FMRC process
When does a special pass start and stop?
Special passes start after normal working hours on a given day. They stop at the beginning of normal working hours on either the 4th day for a 3-day special pass or the 5th day for a 4-day special pass
What are receptors? What role do receptors play in the nervous system?
Special sensory neurons. They translate information about the internal or external environment into nerve impulses.
What award is given in recognition of an act of bravery, an outstanding achievement, or period of meritorious service?
Special trophies or awards
What do the disease specific annexes in the disease containment plan identify?
Specific requirements base on disease characteristics, such as contagiousness and infectivity
What must you know to be a successful leave monitor?
Specific unit responsibilities, procedures concerning leave, administrative leave policies, and special conditions affecting leave
Under what condition is a member promoted more than once during any 12-month period?
SrA is the exception. A SrA may be promoted to SSGt with a minimum of 6 months' TIG
How is PRP identified on the front cover of the record jacket?
Stamp "PRP" in 2in block letters on the left hand side of the front of the folder & add the red tape or a red mark to cover the last digit of the SSN on the top & side of the record jacket.
What type of mail class cannot be used to send personal correspondence?
Standard Mail
What reactions happen during digestion?
Starches and complex sugars break down into simple sugars, fats become fatty acids and glycerol, and proteins break down into amino acids
In what order do you complete a checklist?
Start at the top of the checklist, and complete each item in order
What is a status board?
Status boards are displays, charts, slides, maps, or computer shows that present important unit information
What is used when the individual's reliability is not in question, and when the problem is expected to be of short duration?
Suspension from PRP duties
Notes your actions each time you use your access and verify codes
System Audit Mechanism.
TIG and TIS are computed as of what significant dates?
TIG is computer as of the first day of the last month of the promotion cycle. TIS is computed as of the last day of the last month of the promotion cycle
What form is required to request a piece of equipment?
TIGERS (request), Equipment Action Request
What site allows beneficiaries to access their appointments, prescriptions, and personal health information from a secure website?
TOL
What PMRC is located at Ramstein AB, Germany?
TPMRC- Europe
What PMRS is located in Joint Base Hickam Pearl Harbor?
TPMRC- Pacific
What system is responsible for combining transportation, logistics and clinical decision support elements into a seamless patient movement information management system, which is capable of visualizing, assessing and prioritizing patient movement requirements?
TRAC2ES
What standard system supports patient movement in peacetime, contingency/wartime, and natural disasters?
TRAC2ES.
What plan offers the lowest out of pocket cost for beneficiaries, and is only available in the US Service Area?
TRICARE Prime
What are the eleven different program options?
TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Prime Remote, TRICARE Prime Overseas, TRICARE Prime Remote Overseas, TRICARE Reserve Select, TRICARE Standard and Extra, TRICARE Standard Overseas, TRICARE for Life, TRICARE Young Adult, TRICARE Reserve and US Family Health Plan.
What website has all the information beneficiaries need to choose the right program for them?
TRICARE.mil
What are the four geographic health service regions?
TRO-North, TRO-South, TRO-West, and TOP
What color is the ID card for family members of active and retired members? What is the name and form number of this card?
Tan; DD Form 1173, US Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card
What are the most often used forms of communication?
Telephones, radios, and DCO
What should you tell medical research or scientific organizations when releasing medical information?
Tell the requester that the information must be held in confidence and that any published reports resulting from the study must not identify, in any way, those whose health records were examined
What are the types of disqualification?
Temporary and Permanent
What system is used to file outpatient records?
Terminal digit filing system
Although a member may have left the base, what should the P&A staff never do?
Terminate a record through DMHRSi
In the male, what glands produce sperm?
Testicles
What does the evaluee acknowledge by completing parts A, and B of item 29 on the AF Form 618?
That the member has been informed of the findings and recommendations of the MEB
What does the phrase YANKEE WHITE identify?
That the member will be working closely to the president or vice-president
What is the commander's vehicle for making changes to the UMD?
The ACR
What form do you complete when equipment is on loan for 90 days or less?
The AF Form 1297
What items in the admission package may accompany the patient to the inpatient unit?
The AF Form 560; pertinent information from clinic services, one index card, AF Form 577, the patient's outpatient record, embossed card, other pertinent information as requested, inpatient records from the previous MTF when the patient is admitted by transfer and a patient ID bracelet
What is the official equipment inventory management system for the Air Force?
The AIM of AFEMS
What report answers "how many appointments were left unbooked?"
The Access to Care Appointment Utilization Report
Who does the MEPRS program manger contact if any hours need to be charged to a project once it has been closed?
The Air Force MEPRS Program Office
What website can most Air Force, Standard, and Optional Forms be obtained from?
The Air Force e-Publishing website at: http://www.e-publishing.af.mil
What is a tool that allows commanders and their delegates the capability to retrieve queries and perform actions on personnel within their unit, group, or wing?
The BLDSM
How are register numbers assigned to each inpatient case?
The CHCS assigns the numbers automatically. When manual methods are used, the admissions technician assigns the numbers in numeric sequence on the DD Form 739.
Who actually suspends, decertifies, or returns a member to duty?
The CO
Who is responsible for the nuclear operations of his or her unit & must continuously evaluate the performance & reliability of all subordinate PRP personnel?
The CO (Certifying Official)
This option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of a provider or other agency at an MTF.
The Cancellation by Facility option
What is completed when requesting from another DOD agency?
The DD Form 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request or MIPR
What form are the histopathological results also included on when the patient enters the AE system?
The DD Form 6002
Who requires that all active duty personnel attend in- and out-processing programs and that these programs include information on TRICARE benefits?
The DOD
What is required for the commander to complete their DQ statement?
The DQMC Review List
Using this option, slots will not be displayed during appointment searches (except in Browse mode) or on the Provider Schedule Summary Report.
The Freeze/Release Schedules option
What module in DMHRSi does the P&A office use to in-and out-process members?
The Human Resource (HR) module
What is the objective of the IGESP?
The IGESP identifies resources and capabilities of an installation by functional area, and is the focus of the ESSP
What plan outlines local deployment processes, procedures, planning and execution guidance used to deploy whole units or a single Airman?
The Installation Deployment Plan
Who ensures checklists are developed, maintained, and reviewed?
The MCC Chief
Who designates an individual to be a property custodian?
The MDG/CC
Who's responsibility is it to obtain signatures from the board members and the approval authority on the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?
The MEB Clerk
Who implements performance metrics to track the quality of service provided by the MTF?
The MHIT flight commander or equivalent
What activity is responsible for storing and safeguarding patient valuables, and for providing adequate facilities for storing patient valuables?
The MSA office
Who establishes or tasks an existing structure to monitor financial and clinical workload data quality assurance and management controls?
The MTF Commander
When required, who activates the MCC?
The MTF commander
Who appoints the PRP/PSP monitor?
The MTF commander
Who chairs the medical readiness committee and approves the minutes?
The MTF commander
Who ensures there is an effective alert notification and recall system for the unit?
The MTF commander
Who assumes assignment and command authority over officers and enlisted members assigned to the patient squadron?
The MTF commander or appointee is responsible for the patient, but the UCMJ authority remains with the member's home station commander
Who accomplishes family member clearance screenings for sponsors that are on unaccompanied assignments?
The MTF in closest proximity to the family
What should happen if 2 CMAs disagree, or there is a doubt concerning PDI?
The commander should have sufficient information to make the final PRP determination
What is the only difference in package requirement between an annual RILO and an initial RILO?
The commander's letter is not required unless directed by DPANM
What is the most commonly used method for controlling electronic access?
The common access card.
What plan identifies procedures to prevent, protect against, respond to, recover from, and how to mitigate the effects of major accidents, natural disasters, attacks, and terrorist use of CBRNE?
The comprehensive emergency management plan
Who must approve assignment to the AMTU if a member is pending judicial or adverse administrative action?
The court martial convening authority or discharge authority
What constitutes a decoration submission based on heroism?
The decoration must clearly state that the quality of one or more acts was characterized by courage, gallantry, or intrepidity. In the case of coluntary risk of life, the facts must clearly show that the individual would not have been censured had he/she not voluntarily accomplished the actions
When an active duty member is retiring and has a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138 for the dependent?
The dependent over the age of 18
Who has commander designee, by virtue of their position, and does not require an appointment letter?
The deputy/vice commander and first sergeant
What is used to verify eligibility and benefits for a SAF designee?
The designee letter to verify eligibility and benefits
What is the final point of clearance listed on the patient clearance record?
The disposition office
What laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
The drug and alcohol laws
When completing an application for SAF designee status, if the justification for designee status is under the best interest of the government criteria, what information should be addressed?
The effects of denying designee status (for example, litigation cost, negative press coverage).
Who has the capability to determine the nature of the incident, mitigate its effects, assess damages, and support recovery operations?
The emergency operations center
Who are some of the incident command system members you will communicate with while working in the MCC?
The emergency operations center, crisis action team, incident commander, first responders, contamination control teams, emergency responders and emergency support functions
Why should a member not be placed on leave or TDY outside of the local area?
The evaluee needs to be available for medical testing, to sign documents and respond promptly to recommended disposition by the MEB and AFPC
At what lever are DQMC review lists maintained?
The facility level
What letters within a FCC represent the summary account?
The first 2 letters
What is the promotion effective date for an Airman whose promotion was deferred once the commander authorizes promotion?
The first day of the month after the date the deferral period ends
What letter of every FCC represents the FAC?
The first letter
Who appoints the CCM in writing?
The flight commander
What is the accounting classification structure of which financial managers should have a solid understanding?
The fund citation or fund cite
In PSP, who is responsible for determining if assigned personnel are reliable or not?
The head of the organization where the member is assigned
What do military symbols show?
The identity, size, and location or movement of personnel, military activities and installations
Who enters the authorization in DTS?
The individual going TDY
Who must sign the MORD stating funds are available?
The individual preparing it and the certifying officer
When an active duty patient is to be hospitalized over 90 days, what organization should be notified?
The individual's MPF.
What begins the execution stage of the financial process?
The initial distribution
How long is an interim LOD valid?
The interim LOD is valid for no more than ninety days
What identifies the symbols used to show how the map presents the terrain's natural and manmade features?
The map legend
What document should the medical readiness office have the member review during in-processing?
The medical contingency response plan
Who provides an overview of the SORTS and ART status?
The medical readiness office
How can airmen request to leave the active service of the Air Force prior to expiration term of service?
The member must ask for separation in writing
In DMHRSi, how is the demographic information updated?
The member will need to update it through MilPDS or through the MPS
Who must be notified whenever a military patient is admitted to the hospital? How is this notification made?
The member's unit commander; contacting the member's squadron by telephone or priority electrical message or by sending the CHCS generated notification letter.
Who must have access to a PIF?
The members, commanders, raters, senior raters, first sergeants, OSI, and SJA personnel
Disclosure with PHI should be released in accordance with what rule?
The minimum necessary rule
What is the mission of the SNIAC program?
The mission of the SNIAC process is to (1) identify active duty service members with family members who have special medical and/or educational needs, (2) help those families to obtain information on required services, and (3) ensure they have access to necessary services if reassigned. The process also assists the MPF in updating the Assignment Limitation "Code Q" that is assigned to the sponsor for the purpose of ensuring service availability upon PCS.
Who would assist the wounded warrior with things such as lodging and housing adaptation, respite care, and TBI and PTSD support services?
The nonmedical case managers
What is the action office?
The office that uses or responds to a communication. Basically, it's the person receiving a piece of mail.
For what purpose is a register number used?
To identify a patient's case from beginning to end.
If you become aware of an actual or possible breach, whom should you report the circumstances of the event to?
The organization's Breach Response Coordinator
What is a 4-letter code that represents the flight line where the patient is to be transported from?
The origination ICAO
Once the attending physician hands the patient movement technician the AF Form 3899, what form do they start working on?
The patient movement request
What information is needed when an active duty member is admitted to a nonmilitary hospital?
The patient's full name, grade, SSN, unit, duty station, and exact location; the name and telephone number of the attending physician; date and time of admission; status (leave, pass, etc.); circumstances surrounding the admission; diagnosis, present condition, and prognosis; the earliest date that the patient may be transferred to a military MTF.
Who is responsible for the reverse side of the AF Form 348?
The patient's immediate commander
What is the overriding factor in determining a patient's precedence for medical evacuation?
The patient's medical condition
Define a "joint."
The place where bones meet.
How does the developing baby obtain food and oxygen?
The placenta enables the baby to obtain food and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream
What are the consequences of a commander's failure to notify an Airman of a promotion deferral action before the promotion effective date?
The promotion is valid and cannot be retroactively deferred
What is the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?
The purpose of the act is to improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, improve access to long term care services and coverage, and to simplify the administration of healthcare.
What action is taken if the rate refuses to sign the report?
The rater selects "member declined to sign" from the drop down menu in the rate's acknowledgement block. rater will sign the block
When making a PRP notification, what information should you document in the patients record?
The receivers name and phone number, your name and time of notification
What information does CHCS record when using the check-in record option?
The record being returned, as well as the date and time of return
On preadmission cases, which blocks are left blank when completing part 1 of AF Form 560?
The register number, time, and date of admission.
Define disposition or discharge
The removal of a patient from inpatient treatment
What is custodial responsibility?
The responsibility an individual has who has acquired possession of government property to keep it safe and ensure it is used properly
What rights and privileges is the permanently retired member entitled to?
The same as any other retiree, which includes a military retired ID card, medical care, BX, Commissary privileges, SBP election, etc.
Is the signature of the patient mandatory on the DD Form 2005? Explain
The signature of the patient on the DD Form 2005 is not mandatory. The individual requesting the patient's signature should in no way coerce or even imply that the signature is necessary before treatment is given. If a patient refuses to sign, the requesting individual should note such a refusal on the DD Form 2005 and sign it.
What training elements are displayed?
They are based on requirements generated by the AFSC, officer or enlisted, UTC, Disaster Team, and appointed positions to which an individual is assigned
What happens when an active duty member leaves the hospital without proper authorization?
They are considered AWOL
Why should the commander consult with supervisors and training NCOs before authorizing the promotion of an Airman?
They are in the best position to observe an airman, particularly the Airman's duty performance and training progress
What are the reasons performance evaluations are prepared and how are they used?
They are prepared to access personnel performance, conduct, and potential. They are used in making personnel management and promotion decisions
What is characterization of service?
They are transferred to a reserve component when released from active duty
Some useful substances are absorbed by special cells that line the walls of the small intestine. Some are carried directly to cells throughout the body. What happens to the rest?
They are transported to the liver where they are released as the body requires
The individual's chain of command may make recommendations; however, what are they not allowed to do?
They cannot terminate the process
How do platelets help prevent bleeding from damaged blood vessels?
They collect where an injured blood vessel leaks and along with various proteins in the plasma, seal broken blood vessels by forming a clot
How are red blood cells (erythrocytes) able to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues?
They contain hemoglobin, which picks up oxygen molecules from the lungs
Why are smooth muscles sometimes called "involuntary muscles"?
They contract and relax automatically; they are not consciously controlled.
How do smooth muscles differ in appearance from skeletal muscles?
They do not have striations like skeletal muscles
Why are "whole-person concept" factors not weighted?
They do not lend themselves to predetermined values
What must all AF units do in reference to forms and publications?
They ensure publications and forms are complete, accurate, current, and accessible to Air Force users
What do the emergency responders carry out?
They expand C2 and perform support functions
Define exocrine glands
They make chemicals that perform specific functions in the area where they are released
How is a person selected to work closely to the president?
They must be nominated to the position
What is the purpose of first responders?
They provide initial C2 to save lives, and suppress and control hazards
What is the objective of the MCRP?
They review the log and determine if the Air Force Legal office can pursue a claim for Air Force members. If a member from another service has a potential claim, forward the information to the parent service. The legal office and MCRP, for each service, works those claims depending on the service affiliation with the patient
Air Force personnel use nondirective publications in what manner?
They use these publications as reference aids and "how-to" guides
What do Airmen do if they are not tasked to deploy?
They will remain in an on-call status to reinforce forward-deployed forces or provide additional capability
What is a mother board?
This is the main circuit board to which all of the other internal components connect
What does derivative classification mean?
This means it incorporates, paraphrases, restates, and/or generates in a new form, information that is already classified, and marking the newly developed material consistent with the classification markings that apply on the source information
What is the function of the MTF TOL Systems Administrator?
This position is responsible for the technical aspect; interprets guidance, and understands the basic TOL features
What is the administration qualification process?
This process is a screening process used to ensure active duty military personnel meet the standards before they depart for training or assignment to PRP or PSP duties
What should your topic sentence do?
This sentence, which is usually the first sentence, is the subject and main idea of the paragraph
What is the definition of standard systems?
Those systems that are standardized across more than one command or a major system requiring centralized oversight in its planning, implementing, or maintaining.
When are applications for SAF designee status not forwarded to HQ USAF/SGMA?
Those that the MTF commander or MAJCOM disapproves
Through what does the air force establish a predictable, standardized battle rhythm ensuring rotational forces are properly organized, trained, equipped, and ready to sustain capabilities while rabidly responding to emerging crises?
Through the Air and Space Expeditionary Force
What support tier are problems resolved by helpdesk personnel using the telephone or remote management assistance?
Tier 1.
What tier are problems that need to be escalated to resources outside the MTF, such as the Network Control Center?
Tier 3.
How is TIS credited toward promotion to the grades of SMSgt and CMSgt?
Time in service is credited on one-twelfth point for each month of total active federal military service, up to 25 years, computed as of the last day of the cycle
What is a schedule composed of?
Timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types, durations and a maximum number of patients per slot.
What lines the nasal passages and for what purpose?
Tiny hair-like structures and mucus to filter dust and dirt from the air; warm and moisten cold air as it moves through the nasal passages
In the NDAA, what Title addresses health concerns?
Title VII, Healthcare Provision
What is the purpose of the "Cancel ADT transactions" option?
To cancel admissions to, and transfers or dispositions from, inpatient units.
What are coding manuals primarily used for?
To classify a wide variety of disease that can cause injury or disease.
Why is supply discipline required?
To conserve and protect AF supplies and equipment for operational requirements
What does the out-processing checklist allow agencies to do?
To delete the losing members' pertinent data in order to ensure they are no longer tracking the losing members
When would you use an AF Form 469, duty limiting condition report?
To describe physical limitations and recommend duty restrictions to the commander when there is a potential risk to an airman's health, safety, and wellbeing; the safety of the mission, or the ability of the airman to effectively accomplish the mission. Additionally, the AF Form 469 is used to convey limitations related to the AF FP. In general, the AF 469 will describe what an Airman is unable to do
How does the Office of Personnel Management use LOD findings?
To determine eligibility for civil service preference
How does the Department of Veterans Administration use LOD findings?
To determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospitalization benefits
How does the Department of Labor use LOD findings?
To determine eligibility of an AFROTC cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training
What is the primary purpose of the DCAO?
To determine the validity of collection agent claims and negative credit reports received for debts incurred because of medical and dental care under the TRICARE program
What is the overall goal of FL?
To develop a proactive logistics function that is responsive to customer needs
What is the purpose of a letter explaining what to do when filing laboratory reports?
To direct
What are the three general purposes of all Air Force writing?
To direct, inform (or question) or persuade
What is the purpose of the CHCS Record Tracking System?
To electronically track patient records, medical or dental, their location and availability to be charged out. The system is specifically designed to track the location of a record and its availability to be charged out
What are the AFMS objectives?
To enhance our ability to deliver better care, better health, and the best value while staying true to our core mission.
Why does the TRO perform periodic reviews of MTF and VA facility resource sharing agreements?
To ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers
Why does the AF have the 2-step evaluation process?
To ensure proper referral to the IDES
What is the purpose of PRP?
To ensure that each person selected & retained for performing duties associated with nuclear weapons or nuclear command & control systems & equipment is emotionally stable, physically capable, & has demonstrated reliability & professional competence
Why does the central evaluation board perform a trial run before beginning its evaluation?
To familiarize members with the evaluation process, content of records, and the scoring method
Why was the Integrated Disability Evaluation System created?
To help the AF, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps determine whether wounded, ill, or injured service members are able to continue to serve
When is temporary decertification used?
To immeadiatley remove an individual from PRP duties when reliability is in question. It can also be used when a condition is expected to affect the job performance for an extended period of time
What is the purpose of HIPAA?
To improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, improve access to long-term care services and coverage, and simplify the administration of healthcare.
What is the purpose of CR/LL?
To indicate each specific item for which the custodian is responsible
What is the purpose if you are explaining how to report to the commander?
To inform (or overlapping of informative and directive)
What is the purpose of the disengagement statement on AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement?
To inform the patient that his or her admission is subject to the availability of space and capabilities of the staff.
For what purpose is the AF Form 1403, used?
To list patients on casualty status
What is the primary goal of the ODL review?
To locate and clear discrepancies between the resource advisor's record and the official accounting records
How do commanders and functional managers use duty status information?
To make informed force management decisions by providing quick and accurate determination of members available for mission taskings by name, number, and type of personnel
What is the purpose of PSP?
To make sure that those assigned these duties be of excellent character & stability with high degree of maturity, discretion, trustworthiness, professional competence, & unquestioned loyalty to the US
What is the purpose of a memorandum explaining why physical fitness is important?
To persuade
What is the intent of the AMTU?
To place airmen in MTFs best suited to address their medical needs
Why must recommendations for decorations be restricted to the recognition of meritorious service, outstanding achievement, or acts or heroism that clearly place individuals above their piers?
To preserve the integrity of decorations
Why are inpatient records safeguarded?
To protect against loss, defacement, tampering, or use by unauthorized individuals.
What is the intent of the ALC Code?
To protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition, and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations
What is the intention of an outstanding achievement decoration?
To recognize a single specific act or achievement that is separate and distinct from regularly assigned duties
What is the purpose of the unit awards?
To recognize acts or services that place the unit's performance significantly above that of other units of similar composition and mission responsibility
What is the MCC primary focus?
To relay information to and from unit personnel, provide expertise to the base emergency response, and leverage unit resources to respond to and mitigate the incident
What is the purpose of the PDI letter?
To serve as a tool for the MTF to communicate PDI to the commander in a timely and effective manner so that he/she can make a sound judgement on a individual's reliability and/or ability to perform sensitive duties
Why does the PEBLO sign opposite the footnote below item 29 on the AF Form 618?
To show that the PEBLO has briefed the evaluee thoroughly on the findings, recommendation, and options
What is the purpose of the city map?
To show the details of streets and street names, important building and other elements of urban landscape important to navigation
What does it mean to sequester medical records?
To store and secure a health record separate from other health records for added security or for legal purposes
Purpose of AF Form 1052
To store small valuables such as jewelry, or cash etc. that will fit into it and a record of all valuables being deposited.
Why were Air Force separation policies developed?
To strengthen the concept of military service as a distinct calling different from any civilian occupation
When the PEBLO receives the C&P results back from the MSC, where should the results go?
To the PCM , referring provider, or to a reviewing provider who has been assigned by the DAWG
When you answer a request for information on injury cases that appear to involve medical affirmative claims actions, where should you send a copy of the paperwork?
To the Staff Judge Advocate
Where do you report health-related administrative qualification discrepancies?
To the losing MTF commander with informational addresses to the MAJCOM SGP
What factors should you consider when verbally communicating with a customer?
Tone of voice, enunciation, word choice, keep your customers informed, and build rapport
What are the types of maps you could work with in the MCC?
Topographical map, city map, and highway maps
Define "medial."
Toward or near the midline of the body
What is the meaning of "internal"?
Toward the inside of the body or a body part
When a response is not received on a receipt for classified information, with what time frame is a tracer action done?
Tracer action is initiated 30 days for material sent within CONUS or 45 days for material sent OCONUS
What should you document in MRDSS when members are in-processing?
Training
What are the 3 major areas that medical units are required to report their C-levels?
Training, equipment and supplies, and personnel
What does the number "8" represent in the PEC?
Training, medical, and other general purpose actives
Patients being evacuated from overseas or from one MTF to another.
Transient patient
What establishes the conditions for official travel and transportation at government expense and provides the basis for the traveler's reimbursement?
Travel Order
What are some DTS functions?
Travel reservation system; audits travel documents for compliance with regulations, interfaces with various DOD accounting systems, pays travel related expenses, and archive documents to comply with IRS requirements
Classifying and Reclassifying the sick and injured according to urgency of treatment required
Triage
b.i.d.
Twice a day
What are the two types of network cables you will typically find?
Twisted pair and fiber optics
This documents shows positions over a period of how many years?
Two
What is the maximum authorized level of consumable supplies you should have in your work center?
Two Weeks
What is the maximum amount of time an SAF designee letter can remain in effect?
Two years
What is the AEF life cycle schedule?
Two, 12 month life cycles
How many pumps does the heart have?
Two, one to carry that receives blood from the lungs to the cells and another that picks up carbon dioxide and other wastes from the cells
What are the 2 types of reviews performed?
Two-year reviews and special reviews
AF Form 560: The term "DIS" (Disease) is used in this item
Type of case
PES code for Absent without Leave
U
What are the most commonly used rotary-wing aircraft for patient movement in battle zones?
UH-60 Blackhawk, UH-60A Blackhawk, UH-1H/V Iroquois, and the CH-47 Chinook
What roster contains the funded and unfunded positions and personnel assigned?
UPMR
Who owns all of the military health records?
US Government
What are two types of ports?
USB and display ports.
What does the AEF reporting tool allow units the ability to report?
UTC level readiness data
What does the unit deployment manager brief during the meeting?
UTC personnel assigned, highlights any shortages, vacancies, and hard to fill positions
What information is provided in the Medical Resource Letter?
UTCs currently appointed to the unit, UTCs the unit is projected to gain or lose over the next 5 years, whether assigned UTCs are manpower or equipment, AEF assignments for each UTC, UTC availability codes and additional information for equipment UTCs
In which category of patients will each member possess a blue ID card? What is the name and form number of this card?
Uniformed services retirees; DD Form 2RET
Who matches personnel to the UTC position and ensures those personnel are trained and equipped appropriately to accomplish the mission of their respective UTC team?
Unit Deployment Manager
What information may be released without the patients' consent?
Unit assignment for personnel not assigned to routinely deployable or sensitive units and office the member is assigned to
Whose responsibility is it too ensure that the dates listed on the leave form are correct?
Unit leave monitor
Whom is the UDM primary liaison to?
Unit training manager, flight and squadron leadership and wing training functions regarding deployment related issues
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19:Z
Unknown.
What cases are not qualified for disability processing?
Unsuiting
How much can the sponsoring agency authorize for lodging?
Up to 125% of the local lodging per diem rates for conferences
How many days can a member sell back upon voluntary retirement, reenlistment, separation, or discharge?
Up to 60 days
UE
Upper extremity
What carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder?
Ureters
Where does urine leave the body?
Urethra
What are the 3 AE movement procedures?
Urgent, priority, and routine
Rids the body of processed wastes
Urinary system
What is formed when water, urea, sodium chloride, and certain other wastes are filtered through a nephron?
Urine
What single form eliminates the need for a separate privacy act statement for each medical or dental document?
Use a DD Form 2005
What should you do if you receive a request for copies from an insurance company, but prepayment was not sent?
Use a locally developed form to identify the fees. Prepare the form in three copies; send the original to the requester, file the second copy in part three of the health record with the patient's signed authorization for release of information, and forward the third copy to the Resource Management Office.
How do you request a response via e-mail?
Use the 'Use Voting Buttons" option under 'Tracking'.
Purpose of AF Form 1053
Used as a log of each patient who has deposited valuables
How are medical records-progress notes used?
Used by the physician, dentist, and/or certified nurse midwife to chronologically document the patient's progress while admitted to the hospital
Let's the system know who you are and how you can use the system
User Record
What rating system do the panels use to score the records?
Using a 6 to 10 rating scale with one-half-point increments
When should you use regular 'Snail Mail"?
Utilize regular mail or messenger service for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys, or other legitimate users
What are the two ways you communicate with your customers when you are face-to-face?
Verbally and nonverbally.
A condition so severe that there is imminent danger to the patient's life.
Very seriously ill
What is a joint application that supports the effective management and tracking of Veteran and service member throughout the process, from the initial arrival of members into the VA health system and monitoring of benefits applications and administrative details?
Veterans Tracking Application
What does the medical contingency response plan establish procedures for?
Wartime, humanitarian assistance, homeland security/defense, and disaster responsive contingencies
What are the 3 ways a CMA can recommend someone?
Washout, appropriate time for prescribed medication, and RTD evaluation
What is the most common molecule in the human body?
Water.
What are health information technology applications?
Web-based information is available to everyone that has access to the internet
wt
Weight.
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: R
Western Hemisphere Indian
When is an LOD and misconduct determination needed?
When a member, whether hospitalized or not, has a disease or injury that results in the inability to do military duties for more than 24 hours, the likelihood of a permanent disability, death, when there are surviving family members and medical treatment for reserve members regardless of the ability to perform military duties
When are eligible Airmen required to take a new or revised SKT for their career field?
When a new or revised SKT is published
What is an accrued expenditures unpaid?
When an item has been received by the customer, but the invoice from the vendor (i.e., the bill for your purchase) has not been received
When is a PIF Required?
When an officers receives an LOA or LOC that is not filed in a UIF
poly-
many, much
What situation would result in a supply pre-issue?
When issue transactions cannot be processed through the DMLSS system (e.g., when the computer is down)
When is a formal LOD determination required?
When neither an administrative nor an informal determination can be made
What must a special agent provide to be granted access to health records?
When proper identification is provided and written approval by SJA
When should abbreviations and symbols not be used in a patient's medical record?
When recording the final diagnosis
When does the equal selection opportunity for all Air Force specialties not apply?
When the AFSC is a chronic critical shortage specialty
When can an Airman whose promotion has been withheld assume a higher grade?
When the condition that caused the promotion to be withheld has expire, the Airman is recommended by the promotion authority, and the Airman is otherqise eligible
When should a new health record be created for a patient?
When the existing folder no longer protects the contents of the record
CMAs cannot use their discretion when prescribing what types of medications?
When the need for treatment with narcotics, sedatives, tranquilizers, or other drugs could impair perception or performance
Within the AE system, when does the attending physician's responsibility to the patient end?
When the patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF
When may the MTF sequester the original medical record or a certified copy of the medical record?
When the situation warrants
When does the PEBLO refer an Airman to the AFRC for pre-separation counseling?
When their case if referred to the IPEB
When are cost pools used?
When two or more work centers share physical space, personnel and/or supplies
When should you submit a request for purchase of a piece of equipment?
When you wish to replace old equipment or buy new equipment, submit an AF Form 601
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: C
White.
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: W
Widowed
An act that evidences a reckless or wanton disregard for their attendant consequences
Willful neglect.
What is typically connected back to a switch and is required to link network devices?
Wireless access point
How long does the gaining commander have to report all administrative qualification discrepancies?
With in 60 days of the member's report no later than date
What does processing by exception mean?
With the exception of eligibility, orders, and immunizations, all other stations are as needed
When should a routine request for copies of medical records be filled?
Within 20 days of receiving the request
How long (days) after receiving medical care is the patient given to provide evidence of eligibility before they are billed?
Within 30 days
Once identified, how long does a Review in Lieu of MEB have to meet the DAWG?
Within 45 days
How soon should the Airman hear back concerning an impartial review?
Within 5 duty days
Where should you file the Identification (Dog) Tags?
Within a plastic bag in part 3, deployment information
WNL
Within normal limits
When is e-mailing PHI permissible?
Within the '.mil' domain
When hospitals were first established, who typically worked as nurses in the hospitals?
Wives or widows of military personnel
What are the five basic uses for a microcomputer?
Word processing is used to prepare documents such as letters and forms, spreadsheets are helpful when working with numbers and mathematical formulas, databases assist with tracking large amounts of data for reports, email messaging enhances communication, and presentations allow slide show briefings
What does the Wounded Warrior Program do?
Works with the service member and medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan that addresses specific recovery, rehabilitation, and reintegration goals
A competency for pay and records determination is made in conjunction with what other determination?
World wide duty qualification
If you are suspicious of a mailing and you are unable to verify the contents with the addressee or sender what should you do?
You should protect yourself and your office by doing the following: 1) Stop. Do not open or handle the article 2) Isolate the article and evacuate the immediate area 3) do not put the article in water or a confined space 4) If possible, open windows in the immediate area to assist in venting potentially explosive gases 5) Do not take any chances or worry about possible embarrassment if the item turns out to be innocent. If there is any reason to believe a letter or parcel is dangerous, contact your supervisor immeadiatley
Who can assist you with the requirements for requesting new software?
Your Health Information Technology Flight
How is the psychiatrist identified on the AF Form 618 in cases of insanity or competency?
a check mark is placed after the psychiatrist's signature
ism
a condition
gram.
a tracing or mark
laparo-
abdomen, loin, or flank
hyper-
above, excessive, over
post-
after
Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
any person, other than the person being recommended, having first hand knowledge of the act, achievement, or service believed to warrant awarding a decoration might recommend an award
pre-
before
hypo-
below, less
melano-
black
emia.
blood
encephal(o)
brain.
chondr(o)-
cartilage
cyt(o)-
cell.
cyte.
cell.
What assignment availability code cannot exceed 12 months?
code 31
What assignment availability code is used for members pending a MEB?
code 37
iasis
condition of.
asis.
condition, usually abnormal
cele.
cyst, hernia, sac
pneum(o)-
lung or air
glyc(o)-
sugar
glyco-
sugar
dys-
difficult, painful
pseudo-
false
tachy-
fast
rrhea
flow, discharge
thermo
heat
tomy
incision or cutting into.
itis
inflammation.
arthr(o)-
joint
nephr(o)-
kidney
bio-
life
mening(o)-
membrane
rhin(o)-
nose.
Who can be voting member on a MEB?
only physicians
oophor(o)-
ovary
What is it called when you are determining an exact location on a map?
plotting a position
ectomy.
removal of.
logy
science or study of.
latero-
side
gastr(o)-
stomach
Who does the MEB clerk forward the completed MEB package to once the evaluee or NOK signs the AF Form 618?
the disposition authority
What should you check when editing the report (EPR)?
the formatting, rate identification data, type, font, nicknames, and acronyms
What does 'MAX STOPS' mean?
the maximum number of stops that a patient can safely tolerate during the AE
What does a '4' on a profile indicate?
the member is disqualified from worldwide service
When referring to leave, what is defined as "local area"?
the place where members live and from which they commute to the duty station
What system takes this clinical information and other data and makes it available to other health professional worldwide?
theater medical data store
How are medical evacuation requests often sent?
they are often sent from the point of injury, through intermediaries, such as higher HQ, who then transmit the request up to the nearest medical evacuation unit
What does the ALC-C limit in the PDS?
this code restricts assignment and deployment availability to only CONUS, Alaska (Elmendorf), and Hawaii assignments. It also prevents the reassignment anywhere else without prior approval by the designated approval authorities
lysis
to break apart.
What is the purpose of the deployment availability working group?
to review patients with medical records with a DLC that impacts mobility, retention, or long-term physical fitness of an Airman
iatry
treatment of a disease
salping(o)-.
tube.
di-
two
vesico-
urinary bladder
phleb(o)-
vein.
spondyl(o)-
vertebrae, spine
angi(o)-
vessel (usually blood vessel).
hydro-
water
When is an A1C considered fully qualified for promotion to SrA?
when they are recommended by the commander in writing and they have 28 months TIG or 36 months TIS and 20 months TIG, whichever occurs first
