7 - AAO Exam 3 LE KIA's

Which of the following muscles is NOT biarticulate? A. Biceps femoris B. Gastrocnemius C. Sartorius D. Vastus medialis

- biarticulate = having or consisting of 2 joints D. Vastus medialis

pelvic girdle

- the structure composed of the sacrum, coccyx, and ilia - also called the pelvis

The proximal attachment of the plantarfascia is the: A. calcaneus B. cuboid bone C. navicular bone D. talus

A. calcaneus

Which of the following intrinsic knee ligaments are likely to be damaged with constant progressive over-pronation, specifically due to the excessive valgus forces? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament D. Posterior cruciate ligament

B. Medial collateral ligament

Which of the following scenarios would be appropriate to isolate the gastroc-soleus complex to assess possible muscle injury? A. Resisting knee flexion with the ankle plantarflexed isolates the soleus. B. Resisting knee flexion with the ankle dorsiflexed isolates the soleus. C. Resisting plantarflexion with the knee flexed isolates the soleus. D. Resisting plantarflexion with the knee extended isolates the soleus.

C. Resisting plantarflexion with the knee flexed isolates the soleus.

Which of the following muscles correspond to the action stated? A. Biceps femoris is a hip internal rotator. B. Vastus lateralis is a knee external rotator. C. Sartorius is a hip external rotator. D. Semimembranosus is a hip abductor.

C. Sartorius is a hip external rotator.

Performing the lowering motion of a squat with increased attention to preventing knee valgus involves the following muscle activity: A. concentric knee extensors, eccentric hip external rotation, isometric erector spinae B. concentric knee extensors, isometric hip external rotation, eccentric erector spinae C. eccentric knee extensors, concentric hip external rotation, isometric erector spinae D. eccentric knee extensors, isometric hip external rotation, concentric erector spinae

C. eccentric knee extensors, concentric hip external rotation, isometric erector spinae

The sesamoid bones of the foot serve as an anatomic pulley for the _____________. A. abduction hallucis brevis B. abductor hallucis longus C. flexor hallucis brevis D. flexor hallucis longus

C. flexor hallucis brevis

A bunion involves a structural deformity of the foot which is described as: A. hallux dorsiflexion B. hallux plantarflexion C. hallux valgus D. hallux varus

C. hallux valgus

The motion that occurs at the talocrural joint is: A. abduction/adduction B. inversion/eversion C. plantarflexion/dorsiflexion D. pronation/supination

C. plantarflexion/dorsiflexion

The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments prevent excess _____ plane motion. A. frontal B. horizontal C. sagittal

C. sagittal

The muscle group that generates the most torque at the knee is: A. gastrocnemius-soleus B. hamstrings C. vastus medialis, intermedius, lateralis

C. vastus medialis, intermedius, lateralis

Which of the following statements about the meniscofemoral ligaments is NOT correct? A. Assists the popliteus in checking lateral tibial rotation B. Is also known as the ligament of Humphrey and ligament of Wrisberg C. Is attached to the medial femoral condyle D. Is thicker than the posterior cruciate ligament E. Resists posterior translation of the tibia on the femur

D. Is thicker than the posterior cruciate ligament

An increase in Q angle will pull the patella in which direction? A. Medially B. Superiorly C. Inferiorly D. Laterally

D. Laterally Rationale: An increase in Q angle will pull the patella laterally.

All of the following are lateral ankle ligaments EXCEPT: A. anterior talofibular ligament B. bifurcated ligament C. calcaneofibular ligament D. deltoid ligament

D. deltoid ligament

The larger medial condyle of the femur results in an angle at the knee known as: A. cubital varus B. cubital valgus C. genu varus D. genu valgus

D. genu valgus

When palpating the 1st ray of the foot, the sequence of the bones one would encounter (proximal to distal) would be: A. cuboid, lateral cuneiform, metatarsal B. cuboid, navicular, metatarsal C. navicular, cuboid, metatarsal D. navicular, medial cuneiform, metatarsal

D. navicular, medial cuneiform, metatarsal

The motion of "pointing your toes" is known as: A. dorsiflexion B. eversion C. inversion D. plantarflexion

D. plantarflexion

The gastrocnemius muscle is biarticulate. Thus, it is the prime mover of ankle _____ and an assistant mover of knee ______. A. dorsiflexion; extension B. dorsiflexion; flexion C. plantarflexion; extension D. plantarflexion; flexion

D. plantarflexion; flexion

retroversion

a bony deformity of the femur in which the angle of torsion is decreased resulting in a position of external rotation of the leg

the rectus femoris muscle contributes to: a. hip abduction and knee extension b. hip adduction and knee flexion c. hip extension and knee flexion d. hip flexion and knee extension

d. hip flexion and knee extension

angle of inclination

the angle between the shaft and the neck of the femur in the frontal plane; normally 125 degrees.

angle of torsion

the angle between the shaft and the neck of the femur in the transverse plane; normally between 15 and 25 degrees

plantar fascia

A band of connective tissue that supports the longitudinal arches of the foot

pronation

A combined movement or position of the ankle and foot that includes eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion

supination

A combined movement or position of the ankle and foot that includes inversion, adduction and plantarflexion

footdrop

A gait deviation in which the dorsiflexors are unable to hold the foot up during swing phase

genu recurvatum

A position of knee hyperextension in the sagittal plane

pes planus

A position of the foot where there is a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch height

pes cavus

A position of the foot where there is an increase in the medial longitudinal arch height

hallux valgus

A position of the great toe in which the distal phalanx is lateral to the proximal phalanx

genu valgum

A position of the knees in the frontal plane in which the distal tibia lies lateral to the proximal tibia

genu varum

A position of the knees in the frontal plane in which the distal tibia lies medial to the proximal tibia

calcaneal valgus

A position of the rearfoot in which the distal calcaneus is lateral to the proximal calcaneus

calcaneal varus

A position of the rearfoot in which the distal calcaneus is medial to the proximal calcaneus

Lateral ligaments of the ankle resist inversion forces. Adding plantarflexion to the inversion stress can isolate which of the following ligaments? A. Anterior talofibular ligament B. Calcaneofibular ligament C. Deltoid D. Posterior talofibular ligament

A. Anterior talofibular ligament

Knee menisci are important for shock absorption.The medial meniscus is _____ and the lateral meniscus is _____. A. C-shaped; O-shaped B. O-shaped; C-shaped

A. C-shaped; O-shaped

An individual has difficulty achieving terminal knee extension. To facilitate this motion, one should glide the tibia _______ with slight _______ rotation. A. anterior; external B. anterior; internal C. posterior; external D. posterior; internal

A. anterior; external

In weight-bearing (CKC), the coupled motions of pronation are: A. calcaneal eversion, abduction (medial rotation), and dorsiflexion B. calcaneal eversion, adduction (medial rotation), and plantarflexion C. calcaneal inversion, abduction (medial rotation), and plantarflexion D. calcaneal inversion, adduction (medial rotation), and dorsiflexion

A. calcaneal eversion, abduction (medial rotation), and dorsiflexion

The bursa found between the tibial tuberosity and the patellar tendon is: A. deep infrapatellar B. gastrocnemius C. prepatellar D. subpopliteal E. suprapatellar

A. deep infrapatellar

The sesamoid bones of the foot are found under the: A. first metatarsal B. second metatarsal C. third metatarsal D. fifth metatarsal

A. first metatarsal

The iliotibial band attaches to the lateral border of the _______, contributes to knee _______ when the knee is flexed less than 30°, and contributes to knee _______ when the knee is flexed more than 30°. A. patella; extension; flexion B. patella; flexion; extension C. tibia; extension; flexion D. tibia; flexion; extension

A. patella; extension; flexion

If an individual is training for a marathon, running upward of 50 to 75 miles per week with untreated over-pronation, what potential muscular compensations might be present? A. Quadriceps hypertrophy in an effort to stabilize the knee. B. A muscular imbalance between the medial and lateral hamstrings develops in an effort to stabilize the knee and overcome the excessive rotational forces. C. Hamstring atrophy occurs due to lack of use despite an effort to stabilize the knee and overcome the excessive rotational forces. D. Gastrocnemius atrophy occurs due to lack of use despite an effort to stabilize the knee and overcome the excessive rotational forces.

B. A muscular imbalance between the medial and lateral hamstrings develops in an effort to stabilize the knee and overcome the excessive rotational forces.

The "ankle joint" is known as the "talocrural joint." Identify the bones that make up this joint. A. Calcaneus, talus, and fibula B. Talus, tibia, and fibula C. Tibia, fibula, and calcaneus

B. Talus, tibia, and fibula

What is causing the pain to persist despite the therapist's intervention? A. The patient is moving the left knee into genu recurvatum. B. The patient is increasing the Q angle. C. The patient is decreasing the Q angle. D. The patient is moving the knee into genu varum

B. The patient is increasing the Q angle.

Which factor may contribute to knee hyperextension? A. Weak hamstrings B. Tight plantarflexors C. Tight dorsiflexors D. Weak plantarflexors

B. Tight plantarflexors

What muscle imbalance can contribute to the lateral pull of the patella? A. Quadriceps and hamstrings B. Vastus medialis and vastus lateralis C. Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior D. Vastus intermedius and vastus lateralis

B. Vastus medialis and vastus lateralis Rationale: Vastusmedialis and vastuslateralis imbalances contribute to the lateral pull of the patella.

The osteology of the knee involves movement of the _____ tibia and the _____ femur. A. concave; concave B. concave; convex C. convex; concave D. convex; convex

B. concave; convex

The distal tarsal bones include the cuneiforms and: A. calcaneus B. cuboid bone C. navicular bone D. talus

B. cuboid bone

The tibialis anterior muscle contributes to: A. dorsiflexion and eversion B. dorsiflexion and inversion C. plantarflexion and eversion D. plantarflexion and inversion

B. dorsiflexion and inversion

Isolated contraction of the anterior tibialis produces ___________. Isolated contraction of the posterior tibialis produces ___________. Co-contraction of the anterior and posterior tibialis produces ___________. A. dorsiflexion; plantarflexion; eversion B. dorsiflexion; plantarflexion; inversion C. plantarflexion; dorsiflexion; eversion D. plantarflexion; dorsiflexion; inversion

B. dorsiflexion; plantarflexion; inversion

All of the following structures attach to the patella EXCEPT: A. iliotibial band B. lateral collateral ligament C. patellar ligament D. quadriceps tendon

B. lateral collateral ligament

The "mortise" of the ankle is the space between the: A. medial malleolus and talus B. lateral malleolus and medial malleolus C. talus and calcaneus D. talus and lateral malleolus

B. lateral malleolus and medial malleolus

The "Q-angle" of the knee is the angle formed by the quadriceps tendon and the: A. medial collateral ligament B. patellar ligament C. tibial plateau

B. patellar ligament

As over-pronation occurs, it increases the amount of tibial internal rotation, thus resulting in genu valgus and other possible impairments such as meniscal injury, patellofemoral tracking issues, and iliotibial band syndrome. Which of the following intrinsic knee ligaments are likely to be damaged with constant progressive overpronation, specifically due to the excessive internal tibial rotation? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament D. Posterior cruciate ligament

C. Anterior cruciate ligament

Which of the following statement is true about the location of the "hamstring" muscles? A. Biceps femoris is anterior and the semimembranosus/tendinosis is posterior. B. Biceps femoris is medial and the semimembranosus/tendinosis is lateral. C. Biceps femoris is lateral and the semimembranosus/tendinosis is medial. D. Biceps femoris is posterior and the semimembranosus/tendinosis is anterior.

C. Biceps femoris is lateral and the semimembranosus/tendinosis is medial.

The concept of a supination twist to overcome substantial hindfoot pronation in weight bearing includes which of the following motions? A. Abduction of the 1st & 2nd rays with adduction of the 4th & 5th rays B. Adduction of the 1st & 2nd rays with abduction of the 4th & 5th rays C. Dorsiflexion of the 1st & 2nd rays with plantarflexion of the 4th & 5th rays D. Plantarflexion of the 1st & 2nd rays with dorsiflexion of the 4th & 5th rays

C. Dorsiflexion of the 1st & 2nd rays with plantarflexion of the 4th & 5th rays

Which muscle is a plantarflexor? A. Tibialis anterior B. Hamstrings C. Gastrocnemius D. Extensor hallicus longus

C. Gastrocnemius Rationale: The tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the foot. The hamstrings flex the knee, extend the hip, and contribute to tibia rotation. The extensor hallicus longus extends the first toe and contributes to dorsiflexion.

A left hyperextended knee is called: A. Genu valgum B. Genu varum C. Genu recurvatum D. Pes cavus

C. Genu recurvatum Rationale: Genu recurvatum is the correct terminology. A genu vaglum is when the medial tibiofemoral angle is greater than 185 degrees, whereas a genu varum is a when the medial tibiofemoral angle is less than 175 degrees. A pes cavus is a deformity of the foot involving a high-arched foot.

The peroneal (fibularis) longus and brevis contribute to: A. dorsiflexion and eversion B. dorsiflexion and inversion C. plantar flexion and eversion D. plantar flexion and inversion

C. plantar flexion and eversion

pes anserinus

Consists of the common insertion of the three tendons of the semitendinosus, sartorius, and gracilis muscles; resembles the shape of a goose's foot

Which of the following is NOT correct about the knee meniscus? A. By age 50, only the periphery is vascularized. B. Central portion of the meniscus relies on weight-bearing for diffusion of synovial fluid. C. The entire meniscal body is vascular at birth. D. The meniscus is not innervated.

D. The meniscus is not innervated.

Which of the following statements is correct about the structure and the motion it prevents? A. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents anterior translation of the femur on the tibia. B. The iliotibial band prevents flexion of the tibia on the femur. C. The medial collateral ligament prevents varus stress of the tibia on the femur. D. The posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur.

D. The posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur.

In closed kinetic chain, the anterior cruciate ligament prevents _______ translation of the femur on the tibia. A. anterior B. lateral C. medial D. posterior

D. posterior

As a person goes into a deep squat, the line of gravity moves ______ to the knee and the flexion moment of the knee ______. A. anterior; decreases B. anterior; increases C. posterior; decreases D. posterior; increases

D. posterior; increases

The _______________ muscle has a dynamic role in the functioning of the medial longitudinal arch. A. peroneus (fibularis) longus B. peroneus (fibularis) tertius C. tibialis anterior D. tibialis posterior

D. tibialis posterior

Which of the following is a function of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee? A. Shock absorption B. Deepen the concavity of the tibia C. Increase congruency between femur and tibia D. Serve as attachment for knee ligaments E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Q angle

The line of pull of the quadriceps muscle as formed by the intersection of a line passing directly through the patella and a line drawn from the anterior superior iliac spine to the patella

screw-home mechanism

The slight transverse plane motion that occurs in the tibiofemoral (knee) joint during the last few degrees of active knee extension; assists in locking the knee joint into extension

extensor lag

Weakness of the quadriceps causing inability to control the last 15 to 20 degrees of knee extension contraction

coxa valga

a bony deformity in which the head of the femur is angled away from the shaft of the femur; also called an increased angle of inclination

coxa vara

a bony deformity in which the head of the femur is angled toward the shaft of the femur; also called a decreased angle of inclination

anteversion

a bony deformity of the femur in which the angle of torsion is increased resulting in a position of internal rotation of the leg

lateral tilt

a deviation of the pelvis in the frontal plane in which one ilium is higher than the other

Trendelenburg sign

a gait deviation indicating clinical hip abductor weakness

pelvic rotation

a position of the pelvis in the transverse plane in which one side is forward of the other

anterior tilt

a position of the pelvis in which he anterior superior iliac spine lies anterior to the pubic symphysis

posterior tilt

a position of the pelvis in which the anterior superior iliac spine lies posterior to the pubic symphysis

nutation

a position of the sacrum in which the sacral base is tilted anteriorly

counternutation

a position of the sacrum in which the sacral base is tilted posteriorly

acetabular labrum

a ring of fibrocartilage that lines the acetabulum and provides support to the femoral head

which of the following is NOT considered part of the innominate? a. acetabulum b. ilium c. ischium d. pubis

a. acetabulum

when performing a seated knee extension exercise with a very heavy weight, one might attempt to extend the hip to avoid __________ insufficiency of the __________. a. active; rectus femoris b. active; sartorius c. passive; rectus femoris d. passive; sartorius

a. active; rectus femoris

if a person is standing erect and flexes the trunk on the hip, the center of mass will move __________ and the line of gravity moves __________ within the base of support a. anterior; anterior b. anterior; posterior c. posterior; anterior d. posterior; posterior

a. anterior; anterior

a newborn has approximately 30° to 40° of femoral neck ____________. This ____________ about 1.5° per year until skeletal maturity. a. anteversion; decreases b. anteversion; increases c. retroversion; decreases d. retroversion; increases

a. anteversion; decreases

using a cane on the ____________ side of a hip injury helps to reduce weight-bearing on the involved hip by 15%. It is also instrumental in activating the ____________ on the cane side to assist the ____________ muscles on the involved side to overcome gravitational torque. a. contralateral; latissimus dorsi; abductor b. contralateral; piriformis; adductor c. ipsilateral; latissimus dorsi; adductor d. ipsilateral; piriformis; abductor

a. contralateral; latissimus dorsi; abductor

hip abduction occurs in the: a. frontal plane b. horizontal plane c. sagittal plane

a. frontal plane

the greater trochanter is the attachment for the: a. gluteus medius and piriformis b. iliopsoas and vastus medialis c. piriformis and adductor longus d. semimembranosus and gluteus minimus

a. gluteus medius and piriformis

which of the following hip ligaments is known as the "Y" ligament? a. iliofemoral ligament b. ischiofemoral ligament c. pubofemoral ligament

a. iliofemoral ligament

in order to stop the left pelvic drop, where should the patient hold the cane? a. in the left hand b. in the right hand c. does not matter which hand the patient holds it in

a. in the left hand Rationale: Even though holding the cane on the right would help off-load some of the weight to the right hip, it does not compare to the weight that is off-loaded from the head, arms, and trunk when the cane is in the left hand. By placing the cane in the patient's left hand, the latissimus dorsi is allowed to work as a counter-torque to the pelvis dropping force.

which of the following statements is NOT correct about the iliofemoral ligament of the hip? a. it attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine. b. it is known as the "Y" ligament. c. it limits hip internal rotation in hip extension. d. it limits hip external rotation in hip flexion.

a. it attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine.

based on the study by Delp et al., the piriformis muscle was determined to be a: a. lateral rotator in hip extension and a medial rotator in 90° of hip flexion b. lateral rotator throughout all hip motions c. medial rotator in hip extension and a lateral rotator in 90° of hip flexion d. medial rotator throughout all hip motions

a. lateral rotator in hip extension and a medial rotator in 90° of hip flexion

what can this patient do to compensate for a left pelvis drop? a. laterally lean the trunk to the right b. laterally lean the trunk to the left c. flex the trunk forward d. extend the trunk backward

a. laterally lean the trunk to the right

what motion is necessary at the pelvis in order to achieve an optimal step length on the right during single-limb stance? a. left pelvis forward rotation b. left pelvis backward rotation c. right pelvis forward rotation d. right pelvis backward rotation

a. left pelvis forward rotation

an individual is lying prone and the hip is taken to end range abduction. The range is limited to 30° with the knee in extension. When the knee is flexed, the leg can be abducted further. Thus, the limiting structure is most likely the ___________. a. biceps femoris b. gracilis c. iliotibial band d. vastus medialis

b. gracilis

the lesser trochanter is the attachment for the: a. abductor longus b. iliopsoas c. rectus femoris d. sartorius

b. iliopsoas

if a person is standing erect and rotates the trunk to the right, the right hip is in: a. external rotation b. internal rotation

b. internal rotation

what motion at the hip must occur in order to allow for left forward pelvic motion during single-limb stance? a. left hip external rotation b. left hip internal rotation c. right hip external rotation d. right hip internal rotation

b. left hip internal rotation Rationale: Left pelvic motion occurs due to motion from the opposite right weight-bearing hip. In order for left forward rotation to occur, the right hip must internally rotate.

the two innominate bones articulate anteriorly via the: a. ischial tuberosity b. pubic symphysis c. sacroiliac

b. pubic symphysis

a person is standing with both of his legs equally weight-bearing. The person then rotates the entire body to the left. What is occurring at the pelvis? a. left pelvis backward rotation b. right pelvis backward rotation c. options 1 and 2 d. none of the above

b. right pelvis backward rotation Rationale: Pelvis motion occurs from the opposite weight-bearing hip. In this example, both legs are weight-bearing. Therefore, in order to allow the person to rotate the whole body to the left, motion must occur on both hips, so the left and right pelvis are involved in the motion.

when the angle of inclination of the hip increases, this is called coxa ____________. The change in alignment (shorter distance between femoral head and greater trochanter) results in a ____________ in muscular demand to overcome gravitational adduction moments to maintain hip abduction. a. valgus; decrease b. valgus; increase c. varus; decrease d. varus; increase

b. valgus; increase

the head of the femur is _____ and the acetabulum is _____ a. concave; concave b. concave; convex c. convex; concave d. convex; convex

c. convex; concave

if an individual has an increased anterior pelvic tilt, stretching the __________ or strengthening__________, may help reduce the tilt. a. hamstrings; hip flexors b. hamstrings; quadriceps c. hip flexors; hamstrings d. hip flexors; quadriceps

c. hip flexors; hamstrings

during ambulation, poor force development of the left hip abductors may result in: a. pelvic drop on the left with compensatory hip hiking left b. pelvic drop on the left with compensatory hip hiking right c. pelvic drop on the right with compensatory hip hiking left d. pelvic drop on the right with compensatory hip hiking right

d. pelvic drop on the right with compensatory hip hiking right

what muscle or muscles are responsible for preventing a left pelvic drop as seen at the beginning of this scenario? a. right quadratus lumborum b. left hip adductors c. left hip abductors d. right hip abductors

d. right hip abductors

hip flexion occurs in the _____ plane. In open kinetic chain hip flexion, the femur rolls _____ and glides _____. a. frontal; anterior; posterior b. frontal; posterior; anterior c. horizontal; posterior; anterior d. sagittal; anterior; anterior e. sagittal; anterior; posterior

e. sagittal; anterior; posterior