A+ Practice test 2A

You are an IT technician in an organization. You have been given a task to repair a malware-infected system. You have identified the symptoms that suggest the presence and nature of the installed malware. Which of the following should be your next step? A. Quarantine the infected system. B. Update anti-malware software. C. Update the system and schedule future scans. D. Disable System Restore.

Answer A is correct.

Which of the following are the components which are included in a safety program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Toxic waste handling and disposal B. An injury incident reporting system C. Compliance with all government regulations D. Physical and logical diagrams of the network

Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following are the components that are included in a safety program: An injury incident reporting system Toxic waste handling and disposal Compliance with all government regulations Answer D is incorrect. Physical and logical diagrams of the network are included in network documentation.

Which of the following is the legal contract between a licenser and purchaser to govern and establish the purchaser's right to use the software? A. EULA B. MMC C. MDM D. DRM

Answer A is correct. An end user license agreement (EULA) is the legal contract between a licenser and purchaser to govern and establish the purchaser's right to use the software. EULA is generally included in commercial software but free applications and software will also typically have a software license agreement to simply express the rights and responsibilities of the parties involved. Answer C is incorrect. Mobile Device Management (MDM) is software designed to centrally administer devices in order to assign device permissions, verify security compliance, apply updates, and even monitor activity. Answer D is incorrect. Digital Rights Management (DRM) is the global term for digitally enforced techniques that are used to protect copyrighted data. Answer B is incorrect. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a tool that is used to manage a Windows operating system and the computer on which it is running, as well as the network and other computers and services on the network.

What provides emergency power to a load when the input power source or mains power fails? A. UPS B. Docking station C. Honeypot D. NAS appliance

Answer A is correct. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) provides emergency power to a load when the input power source or mains power fails. Answer D is incorrect. A network-attached storage (NAS) appliance is a data storage device that can be connected to a network to provide direct data access and file sharing to multiple computing devices attached to the network. Answer B is incorrect. A docking station expands the capability of a portable computer by allowing it to connect with other devices, such as connecting a laptop computer to common peripherals. Answer C is incorrect. Honeypot is the practice of tricking an attacker into accessing an isolated network.

Andrew, a technician, is using a Windows 8 computer and wants to display the list of files and folders within a directory. Which of the following commands will he use to complete the task? A. dir B. cd C. md D. rd

Answer A is correct. Andrew will use the dir (Directory) command, which is used to display a list of files and folders within a directory. Answer B is incorrect. The cd (Change Directory) command moves the command prompt to the specified folder. Answer D is incorrect. The rd (Remove Directory) command deletes the specified folder and its contents. Answer C is incorrect. The md (Make Directory) command creates a folder with the specified name.

Which of the following has special permissions to decrypt EFS files on a domain account? A. Data recovery agent B. Administrator or privileged user C. Password reset disk D. Microsoft Diagnostics and Recovery Toolset

Answer A is correct. Data recovery agent (DRA) has special permissions to decrypt Encrypting File System (EFS) files on a domain account. EFS-encrypted data can't be accessed simply by issuing a new certificate. Instead, the domain administrator must designate a data recovery agent before the EFS certificate is created. The DRA has special permissions to decrypt EFS files. Some Windows editions designate a DRA by default, while others require administrator access. Answer D is incorrect. Microsoft Diagnostics and Recovery Toolset (DaRT) comprises of recovery CD tools that allow you to reset user passwords. Answer C is incorrect. A password reset disk is created on a removable drive and then it is used to regain access to your computer if you forget the password. Answer B is incorrect. An administrator or anyone else with appropriate privileges can reset accounts or unlock passwords from Active Directory for domain accounts.

Which of the following tools is used to filter air, remove debris, and return fresh air to a confined space? A. Enclosures B. Mechanical blowers C. Safety goggles D. Antistatic bags

Answer A is correct. Enclosures, with good ventilation, are used to filter air, remove debris, and return fresh air to a confined space. Answer B is incorrect. Mechanical blowers and compressed air are a convenient and effective way to clean accumulated debris from around and inside equipment, such as computer cases. Answer C is incorrect. Safety goggles can protect your eyes from cuts, scrapes, and burns but cannot filter or refresh the air. Answer D is incorrect. Antistatic bags are typically made from plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) and are used to store components that are sensitive to electrostatic discharge.

Which utility shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings? A. Event Viewer B. Network and Sharing Center C. System Restore D. Action Center

Answer A is correct. Event Viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It records errors, warnings, and routine events generated by Windows and its installed applications. Answer D is incorrect. Action Center provides information about any security software currently deployed on or missing from the system. It provides access to helpful resources about current security threats, including a check for the latest Windows Update. Answer C is incorrect. System Restore is a feature that automatically saves configuration settings periodically or before system changes. In case of an install failure or data corruption, System Restore can return a system to working condition without having to reinstall the operating system by using the saved configuration. Answer B is incorrect. Network and Sharing Center is an interface to manage the computer's network controllers and connections.

Which user group exists on Windows but has no special privileges and can be customized to make a general set of "privileged user" permissions? A. Power Users B. Guests C. Users D. Administrators

Answer A is correct. In modern versions, the Power Users group exists on Windows but has no special privileges and can be customized to make a general set of "privileged user" permissions. In older versions of Windows, members of this group had privileges beyond that of an ordinary user, but less than that of an administrator. Answer B is incorrect. The Guests have much more limited permissions and can't customize settings, install software, or even change their own passwords. Guest accounts aren't protected by passwords and use a temporary profile that's deleted at logoff. Windows versions that include a Guest account generally disable it by default. Answer C is incorrect. The Users can perform common tasks and run most applications. They can't share folders, install printers, or generally change any system-wide settings that can affect other users or put system security at risk. Answer D is incorrect. Administrator is a user account type that provides complete administrative access to a computer. This is the most powerful account on a computer and should be protected with a strong password. In some situations, you might also consider renaming this account.

Joe, a technician, wants to log into a user's computer to fix the user's corrupt local profile. Which of the following will allow him to connect to the user's computer without visiting him? A. Remote Desktop B. NAS C. KVM over IP D. PXE

Answer A is correct. Joe should use the Remote Desktop feature which permits people to log into the system at any time using the Remote Desktop Connection tool. This can help an administrator or other support person to troubleshoot problems with the machine from a remote location. The problem with Remote Desktop for troubleshooting an end user's computer is that it must be enabled and a user must be granted privileges to log in with network access. Answer D is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is a booting or installation technique in which a computer loads the operating system from a connected network rather than from a boot device. Answer B is incorrect. Network Attached Storage (NAS) is a device or appliance attached to a network and provides only file-based data storage services to other network devices. Answer C is incorrect. Keyboard, video, and mouse (KVM) over IP allows users to access servers located at remote locations through the Internet using the IP addresses of servers.

In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept and relay communications between two points and impersonate each party in the eyes of the other? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Spoofing C. DNS hijacking D. DDoS

Answer A is correct. Man-in-the-middle (MITM) is a form of eavesdropping where an attacker intercepts and relays communications between two points and often impersonates each party in the eyes of the other. This is much more potent than ordinary eavesdropping because the MITM can also insert or modify information in real time before it reaches its destination. Answer B is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that falsifies the origin of network communications, either to redirect responses or to trick users into thinking it comes from a trustworthy source. Answer D is incorrect. Distributed denial of service (DDoS) is a type of DoS where a single target is flooded by traffic from many individual computers, often spread across the Internet. Answer C is incorrect. DNS hijacking is an attack in which an attacker gives false replies to DNS requests sent by a host, in order to redirect traffic to a malicious or fraudulent site.

Which of the following is designed to centrally administer devices in order to assign device permissions, verify security compliance, apply updates, and even monitor activity? A. MDM B. UTM C. MMC D. DRM

Answer A is correct. Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a process designed to centrally administer devices in order to assign device permissions, verify security compliance, apply updates, and even monitor activity. MDM solutions are primarily designed to configure multiple devices remotely, while others primarily manage permissions granted to different devices on the corporate network. Answer D is incorrect. Digital Rights Management (DRM) is the global term for digitally enforced techniques that are used to protect copyrighted data. Answer C is incorrect. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a tool that is used to manage a Windows operating system and the computer on which it is running, as well as the network and other computers and services on the network. Answer B is incorrect. Unified Threat Management (UTM) provides multiple security features and services in a single device that incorporates any combination of advanced firewall, intrusion detection system (IDS)/intrusion prevention system (IPS), content filtering, network address translation (NAT) or proxy server, or other components.

Which of the following Windows features provides a scripting language ability which can be used by the users for task automation? A. PowerShell B. Computer Management C. Event Viewer D. Command Prompt

Answer A is correct. PowerShell is a more advanced command prompt included with Windows 7 and later. It provides a wider variety of commands and features than the original Command Prompt, and also provides a scripting language ability that can be used by the users for task automation. Answer B is incorrect. Computer Management is a software console allowing direct access to a number of system administration tools. Answer C is incorrect. Event Viewer is a logging tool that records errors, warnings, and routine events generated by Windows and its installed applications. Answer D is incorrect. Command Prompt is a text-based interface, similar to that used on the oldest PCs. It provides an alternative route for advanced users to perform many operating system tasks.

Which of the following is an application layer protocol that enables the transmission and delivery of email over the Internet? A. SMTP B. VoIP C. SSL D. RADIUS

Answer A is correct. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is an application layer protocol that enables the transmission and delivery of email over the Internet. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption. Answer D is incorrect. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol that enables a server to provide standardized, centralized authentication for remote users. Answer B is incorrect. Voice over IP (VoIP) is a voice-over data implementation in which voice signals are transmitted over IP networks.

Which of the following tabs of the System Configuration settings is used to choose the type of startup for the next time the computer boots, to troubleshoot system startup problems? A. General B. Services C. Startup D. Tools

Answer A is correct. The General tab of the System Configuration settings is used to choose the type of startup for the next time the computer boots, to troubleshoot system startup problems. You can select Normal, with all the usual programs and services, Diagnostic, with just the basics, and Selective, with the programs and services that you choose. Answer B is incorrect. The Services tab of the system configuration settings is used to enable or disable Windows services on the computer to troubleshoot system problems. Answer C is incorrect. The Startup tab of the system configuration settings is used to enable or disable startup programs, which can help to troubleshoot a computer that's slow to start. Answer D is incorrect. The Tools tab of the system configuration settings is used to launch a variety of Windows configuration and troubleshooting tools, including Computer Management, Event Viewer, and Performance Monitor.

Which of the following environment variables is used to access the directory that contains the Windows OS? A. %TEMP% B. %CD% C. %APPDATA% D. %SystemRoot%

Answer D is correct. %SystemRoot% is the environment variable that is used to access the directory that contains the Windows operating system. It provides the absolute file path of the Windows system folder. Answer A is incorrect. %TEMP% is the environment variable that is used to access a temporary folder where programs can safely store temporary files. Answer B is incorrect. %CD% is the environment variable that is used to access the current folder. Answer C is incorrect. %APPDATA% is the environment variable that is used to access the current user's application data folder.

Which of the following is a US federal law designed to prevent fraudulent accounting practices? A. SOX B. HIPAA C. GDPR D. PCI DSS

Answer A is correct. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002 is a US federal law designed to prevent fraudulent accounting practices. It applies primarily to financial records managed by companies that do business in the United States. Answer B is incorrect. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a US law governing health insurance coverage, but from an IT perspective, it protects the privacy of patient records. Answer C is incorrect. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a newly enacted European Union regulation that protects the privacy of individual data related to EU residents. Answer D is incorrect. The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) isn't a law; instead, it's a set of shared rules developed by the world's major credit card companies and administered by the PCI Council.

Which cipher is used by the Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption standard to encrypt network traffic? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. AES D. RC4

Answer A is correct. The Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is used by the WPA encryption standard to encrypt network traffic. It supports 128-bit encryption. It uses a different and more secure initialization vector, and each data packet is sent using its own key which is protected from the worst of the WEP attacks. Answer D is incorrect. The Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) encryption cipher is used by the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption standard. It supports 40-bit encryption which is unacceptably weak. Answer C is incorrect. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption cipher is used by the WPA2 encryption standard. WPA2 supports 128-bit encryption using the strong and well-regarded AES cipher. Answer B is incorrect. The Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) encryption cipher is a replacement of TKIP and uses the AES cipher. It is used for the vulnerabilities which were created by the WEP encryption standard.

Which format is used to check for bad sectors on the physical disk before installing the file system structure? A. Full B. Dynamic C. Basic D. Quick

Answer A is correct. The full format option is used to check for bad sectors on the physical disk before installing the file system structure. It can be very slow, especially on large hard drives. Answer D is incorrect. The quick format option is used to skip the disk check and just install a new file system structure. Answers C and B are incorrect. These are not the formatting options but these are the types of partitions. The basic partition type is the original and default partitioning style used by Windows and DOS since the 1980s and the dynamic partition type uses logical volume management technology to arrange data more flexibly on the disk.

Which of the following is the central configuration database where Windows stores and retrieves startup settings, hardware and software configuration information, and information for local user accounts? A. Registry B. Control panel C. Recovery image D. System restore

Answer A is correct. The registry is the central configuration database where Windows stores and retrieves startup settings, hardware and software configuration information, and information for local user accounts. Answer B is incorrect. The Control panel allows users to view and manipulate basic system settings and controls via applets. Answer C is incorrect. The recovery image is a file used by Windows to refresh your PC. Answer D is incorrect. System restore monitors the system for changes to core system files, drivers, and the Registry, and creates restore points that are used to restore the system if a failure occurs.

What is used to examine the potential impact of the change and evaluates the possible outcomes in the change management process? A. Risk analysis B. Maintenance window C. Backout plan D. User acceptance testing

Answer A is correct. The risk analysis process is used to examine the potential impact of the change and evaluate the possible outcomes in the change request step of the change management process. Answer D is incorrect. User acceptance testing is performed by the end user and is used to pay close attention to user reports regarding the change and its results and no change is really successful unless it has passed this testing by the end of implementation. Answer C is incorrect. A backout plan is used to reverse the changes if something goes wrong. Answer B is incorrect. A maintenance window is scheduled that allows time to implement changes as well as some leeway for delays or minor problems.

You are an IT technician in your organization. When you log into your account, you press a button on your keychain and then type in the new set of numbers it displays. What digital authentication element are you using? A. OTP B. Digital certificate C. Biometric D. Smart card

Answer A is correct. You are using a one-time password (OTP) that is valid for a single session, so can't be stolen and reused. An OTP can be generated independently on both ends by a sequential or time-based algorithm, or it can be generated by the authenticator and transmitted to the user out-of-band, such as to an email address or phone number. Answer C is incorrect. Biometrics is any physical property intrinsic to an individual human body, ranging from fingerprints to DNA to scent, and usually distinguished from behavioral characteristics like signatures and typing patterns. Answer D is incorrect. A smart card is an authentication card with an integrated circuit built in it. It uses a smart card reader for authentication. Answer B is incorrect. A digital certificate is a file created and signed using special cryptographic algorithms.

Which of the following Active Directory security features allows the Active Directory network to maintain the public key infrastructure? A. Active Directory Rights Management Services B. Active Directory Certificate Services C. Active Directory Federation Services D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services

Answer B is correct. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) allows the Active Directory network to maintain the public key infrastructure. It creates, validates, and revokes digital certificates wherever they might be needed on the network to identify users or computers, encrypt files or email, or establish secure VPN connections. Answer A is incorrect. Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is an information rights management service that can encrypt and limit access to specific types of information on the domain, such as emails, Word documents, webpages, and so on. It can be used to centrally secure access to sensitive information wherever it is stored on the domain. Answer D is incorrect. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) provides directory services independent of the Windows domain model. You might find it used in networks that need authentication for distributed applications, or when it's useful to install a directory on a computer that isn't a domain controller. Answer C is incorrect. Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS) is a single sign-on system that uses the common Internet standard SAML instead of LDAP. It is intended for use over the Internet, and for integrating services with other organizations.

Which utility will you use to schedule automated tasks, partition hard drives, view logged system events, and manage Windows services and hardware devices? A. Network and Sharing Center B. Computer Management C. System Restore D. Cortana

Answer B is correct. Computer Management is a software console allowing direct access to a number of system administration tools. You can use it to schedule automated tasks, partition hard drives, view logged system events, and manage Windows services and hardware devices. Answer D is incorrect. Cortana is the virtual personal assistant that allows you to perform voice searches and arrange your schedule. Answer A is incorrect. Network and Sharing Center is an interface to manage the computer's network controllers and connections. Answer C is incorrect. System Restore is a feature that automatically saves configuration settings periodically or before system changes. When an install failure or data corruption occurs, System Restore can return a system to working condition by reverting back to the files and settings that were saved in the restore point.

Which file system allows encryption of individual drives and folders on any New Technology File System (NTFS) volume? A. ZFS B. EFS C. UFS D. VMFS

Answer B is correct. Encrypting File System (EFS) is a file system that allows encryption of individual drives and folders on any NTFS volume. Answer A is incorrect. Zettabyte File System (ZFS) combines a file system with a logical volume manager and uses virtualized volumes to create storage pools. Answer D is incorrect. Virtual Machine File System (VMFS) is the cluster file system used in VMWare virtual machine disk images. Answer C is incorrect. Unix File System (UFS) uses a block system for storage which is primarily used in Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) Unix and its derivatives.

Which of the following is a set of business practices that incorporates IT assets across all business units within an organization? A. SLA B. ITAM C. DNAT D. DLP

Answer B is correct. IT Asset Management (ITAM) is a set of business practices that incorporates IT assets across all business units within an organization. Answer D is incorrect. Data loss prevention (DLP) is used to classify and protect the organization's confidential and critical data. Answer C is incorrect. Destination network address translation (DNAT) changes the destination address of incoming packets. It works best for local servers which receive connections from outside clients. Answer A is incorrect. A service level agreement (SLA) is a legally binding service contract between a service provider and the end-user.

Joe, a technician in an organization, is asked to scan and repair a mobile device that has been affected by malware. In order to repair the device completely from malware, he has to put the device back to its fresh state. Which of the following features will Joe use to repair the mobile device in the given scenario? A. Backup and restore B. Factory reset C. Antimalware D. App scanner

Answer B is correct. Joe will use factory reset to repair the mobile device to a freshly installed state, deleting all user data, installed apps, and any kind of installed malware. Answer C is incorrect. Antimalware software is used to monitor the system or actively scan for signs of malware. Answer A is incorrect. Backup and restore is a component that allows users to create a backup of data and restore the data from backups created earlier in the event of data loss on the device. Answer D is incorrect. App scanner helps to notice unusual activities but they don't look specifically for malware.

Which of the following authentication systems is used as the authentication back end for Wi-Fi networks using WPA Enterprise security? A. LDAP B. RADIUS C. Kerberos D. 802.1X

Answer B is correct. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is used as the authentication back end for Wi-Fi networks that are using Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Enterprise security. It authenticates users when they attempt to connect to the network and is designed for dialup connections to private local area networks (LANs). Answer A is incorrect. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) manages distributed directory information services across a network. It is used by many directory service systems from multiple vendors. Answer D is incorrect. 802.1X is an Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standard that is used to authenticate connections to an Ethernet switch or wireless access point. Answer C is incorrect. Kerberos allows a client to access multiple network resources via a single sign-in. It is used by a number of network systems, including Windows domain networks.

Which of the following gpupdate tool options reapplies all policies, even those which haven't been changed? A. /logoff B. /force C. /Target: Computer D. /boot

Answer B is correct. The gpupdate tool updates Group Policy settings. Its /force option reapplies all policies, even those which haven't been changed. After completing, it asks if you want to restart the computer. Answer C is incorrect. /Target: Computer will load only Computer policies, as applicable. Answer A is incorrect. /logoff will automatically log the current user off if any changes apply only at user logon, such as a new logon script or folder redirection and if there are no such changes, the option won't do anything. Answer D is incorrect. /boot will automatically restart the computer if any changes apply at boot, such as startup scripts, or software updates.

Which of the following writes zeros to the entire drive and restores the drive to its newly installed configuration? A. Industrial shredder B. Low-level format C. Quick format D. Degausser

Answer B is correct. The low-level format is performed by some drive utilities from manufacturers or third-party vendors in which zeros are written to the entire drive and then these drives are restored to their newly installed configuration. Answer A is incorrect. Industrial shredder destroys flash drives, hard drives, or even entire computers by breaking them into small pieces. Answer C is incorrect. In Quick format, the contents of the disk are marked for deletion but can be retrieved with third-party data recovery software. Answer D is incorrect. Degausser uses a powerful electromagnet to destroy all data on magnetic media like tapes and hard drives.

You have just replaced an old battery with a new battery in your laptop. Now, you have to dispose off the old battery. What is the recommended way of doing this? A. Throw the old battery off in the trash. B. Take the old battery to an authorized recycling facility. C. Smash or puncture the old battery. D. Incinerate the old battery.

Answer B is correct. The recommended way is to take the old battery to an authorized recycling facility to get it properly recycled and make it ready for reuse. Answer D is incorrect. If the old battery is incinerated, the heavy metals inside it may cause air pollution. Answers A and C are incorrect. If the old battery is thrown off in the trash or smashed or punctured, it will end up in a landfill causing soil and groundwater pollution.

Which of the following installation types is used to install an operating system from an image using PXE? A. Multiboot B. Remote network C. Unattended D. Image deployment

Answer B is correct. The remote network installation type is used to install an operating system from an image on a network server using Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) or NetBoot. The image may be a fully functional operating system, or else an installer that can install and configure a local operating system on a new computer. Answer A is incorrect. The multiboot installation type is used to deploy multiple operating systems to the same computer. Answer D is incorrect. The image deployment installation type is used to deploy identical operating system installations to multiple computers. Answer C is incorrect. The unattended installation type is used to install an operating system without user input.

Which utility notifies you when your action will change Windows settings and gives you an option to stop? A. Local Group Policy Editor B. UAC C. Network and Sharing Center D. Windows Resource Protection

Answer B is correct. User Account Control (UAC) is a Windows utility that notifies you when your action will change Windows settings and gives you an option to stop. This applies even when you are logged on as an administrator. By default, UAC only notifies you when an application wants to change Windows settings on your behalf, but you can configure it to also notify you when your actions will change system settings. Answer D is incorrect. Windows Resource Protection is a feature that runs in the background to protect critical system files, folders, and registry keys from unplanned alterations. Answer C is incorrect. Network and Sharing Center is an interface to manage the computer's network controllers and connections. Answer A is incorrect. Local Group Policy Editor is a utility that allows you to edit group policies for the entire computer.

You are a support specialist in a company. While servicing a computer at a customer's location, you notice a file containing PII of employees at his desk. What should you do to deal appropriately with the file? A. Share the content of the file on social media. B. Keep the file confidential and secure. C. Inform your company members about the file. D. Open and examine the file.

Answer B is correct. You should do the following to deal appropriately with the confidential and private file: Do not browse or examine a private and confidential file. Do not share the contents of a private file found on the computer with anyone, neither on social media nor with your company members. Keep the file confidential and secure as it includes personally identifiable information (PII).

You are a technician in an organization. You are working on a computer system. Suddenly, you felt an electric shock while operating it. You don't have an electrostatic discharge (ESD) device to protect your system. Which of the following will you use in this situation? A. Antistatic bag B. Self-grounding C. Electrically grounded mat D. Wrist strap

Answer B is correct. You will use self-grounding in this situation. Self-grounding is where you touch a grounded metal object prior to working on sensitive components and the grounded metal object must be unpainted with a clear ground path. Also, grounding is important for operating equipment as well, in order to prevent electrical shock during operation. Some specialized equipment may have grounding requirements in its setup instructions, but more commonly it is provided through the ground wire of a three-prong electrical outlet. Answer C is incorrect. An electrically grounded mat is a specially designed electrostatic discharge (ESD) mat to place computer equipment while working on it. Answer D is incorrect. A wrist strap is a specially designed ESD strap in which any build-up of electrical charges on the user's body is channeled through the strap on the user's wrist to the computer's metal chassis, protecting any internal components the user touches from static discharge. Answer A is incorrect. An antistatic bag is a bag typically made from plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) that is used to store components that are sensitive to electrostatic discharge.

You are a technician in your organization. You are asked to create a specialized embedded security camera. Which of the following Windows versions will be the best to accomplish the task in the given scenario? A. Windows 7 Enterprise B. Windows IoT C. Windows Mobile D. Windows Server

Answer B is correct. You will use the Windows Internet of things (IoT) version while creating a specialized embedded security camera. It is mainly used for specialized devices that don't perform general computing tasks. These include smart appliances, lighting, or heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) controls, security cameras, door locks, medical equipment, and any other sort of home or industrial automation system. Answer C is incorrect. The Windows Mobile version is used for smartphones running on Advanced RISC Machines (ARM) processors. It is no longer being developed, but still is supported with security fixes. Answer D is incorrect. The Windows Server version is designed for network servers and can even support additional hardware such as multiple processors and more RAM than a typical desktop can use. Answer A is incorrect. The Windows 7 Enterprise version is used for the enterprise segment of the market and was sold through volume licensing to companies which have a Software Assurance contract with Microsoft.

You are a security administrator in your organization. You have secured the server room by establishing a badge reader on the entrance which allows only the authenticated persons to enter but then also an unauthenticated person entered the server room and caused some harm. The management asks you to secure the server room with a physical property that is intrinsic to an individual human body. What control should you use to secure the server room in the given scenario? A. Mantrap B. Digital certificate C. Biometric D. Entry control roster

Answer C is correct. A badge reader is used in organizations as an access card to allow only authorized persons to enter the premises. Establishing a badge reader didn't secure the server room because the major drawback of a badge reader is that it can be forgotten, lost, or compromised. That's why the unauthenticated person could easily enter the server room. In order to secure the server room with a physical property that is intrinsic to an individual human body, you should use a biometric system. With a biometric security system, there is no possibility of "credentials" being compromised because a biometric is a computer-generated binary code that is created from the unique physical characteristics of an individual, ranging from fingerprints to DNA to scent, and will not allow any unauthenticated person to gain access. Answer D is incorrect. An entry control roster is a type of register that maintains the record of the persons who are allowed into high-security areas. Answer A is incorrect. A mantrap consists of paired doors that allow only one person to pass at a time and is a way to prevent tailgating in high-security environments. Answer B is incorrect. A digital certificate is a file created and signed using special cryptographic algorithms. The holder has both a public certificate that can be shared freely, and a secret encryption key that is never shared. These certificates are assigned to each secure website in order to prove its identity to visiting browsers.

Which of the following types of malware silently tracks and records all user input to gather information about the user and sends it to other parties? A. Adware B. Ransomware C. Keylogger D. Botnet

Answer C is correct. A keylogger is a form of spyware that silently records all user input. It tracks the keystrokes to intercept passwords and other sensitive information typed in through the keyboard. Answer D is incorrect. A botnet can be used to perform distributed denial-of-service attacks, steal data, send spam, and allows the attacker to access the device and its connection. Answer B is incorrect. Ransomware is a type of malware that prevents users from accessing their system or personal files and demands a ransom payment in order to regain access. Answer A is incorrect. Adware delivers advertisements to the systems, either as pop-ups, within a browser, or other application windows. Most of these are perfectly safe and legitimate, but some might contain malware and infect your system.

Which of the following is not the sign and symptom of spyware in a mobile device? A. Unexpected activation of cameras or microphones without using them B. Unintended Bluetooth pairings C. Automatic application updates D. Unexpected permissions to the applications

Answer C is correct. Automatic application updates is not the sign and symptom of spyware in a mobile device. Automatic updates must be enabled where possible to keep applications secure and up to date. Answers D, A, and B are incorrect. The sign and symptom of spyware in a mobile device are as follows: Unexpected activation of cameras or microphones without using them that reduces the security of the devices Unexpected permissions to the applications Unintended Bluetooth pairings Unauthorized account access Exceeded data limits

Which of the following is a system utility that is specifically used to troubleshoot issues that can arise during system startup? A. UAC B. Action Center C. MSConfig D. Event Viewer

Answer C is correct. MSConfig is a system utility that is specifically used to troubleshoot issues that can arise during system startup. You can use it to view and manage which files or programs are processed on startup, including temporarily disabling and re-enabling software, programs, device drivers, or services that run automatically upon startup. Answer D is incorrect. Event Viewer keeps a log of all recorded system and application events. This includes sign-on attempts, shutdown signals, system crashes, device driver errors, and many more scenarios that can help identify where problems exist. Answer B is incorrect. Action Center is a central location for dealing with problems, security, and maintenance. It can be accessed through the Control Panel, or if there are items that currently need attention, the Action Center flag (Windows 7) will appear in the notification area on the taskbar. Answer A is incorrect. User Account Control (UAC) is an enhanced security feature of Windows that prevents unauthorized changes to the computer, either by prompting for permission or requiring the administrator password.

Which of the following is a particularly intrusive sort of malware that attempts to extort money from the victim in order to undo or prevent further damage? A. Spyware B. Adware C. Ransomware D. Rootkit

Answer C is correct. Ransomware is a particularly intrusive sort of malware that attempts to extort money from the victim in order to undo or prevent further damage. Answer A is incorrect. Spyware is a malware that is specifically designed to gather information about user and computer activities to send to other parties, often through a backdoor. Answer B is incorrect. Adware delivers advertisements to the systems, either as pop-ups, within a browser, or other application windows. Most of these are perfectly safe and legitimate, but some might contain malware and infect your system. Answer D is incorrect. A rootkit is a malware that compromises boot systems and core operating system functions in order to hide from most detection methods.

In which of the following attacks does the attacker send unsolicited emails or other electronic messages with undesired or malicious content? A. Spoofing B. Shoulder surfing C. Spam D. Tailgating

Answer C is correct. Spam is an attack in which the attacker sends unsolicited emails or other electronic messages with undesired or malicious content. Answer B is incorrect. Shoulder surfing is an attack that is used to obtain information, such as personal identification numbers, passwords, and other confidential data by looking over the victim's shoulder. Answer A is incorrect. Spoofing is a human-based or software-based attack where the goal is to pretend to be someone else for the purpose of identity concealment. Answer D is incorrect. Tailgating is a physical security breach in which an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual to enter a secured premise.

Which of the following administrative tools is used to configure object sharing between applications? A. Services B. Computer Management C. Component Services D. Task Scheduler

Answer C is correct. The Component Services administrative tool is used to configure object sharing between applications. Object sharing enables programmers to create applications that share resources, such as databases, on multiple computers across a network, which allows the applications to scale or grow very easily. Answer A is incorrect. The Services administrative tool is used to display information about all the Windows services that are installed on the computer. Windows services control all aspects of the operating system's interaction with the computer and the network. Answer B is incorrect. The Computer Management administrative tool is used to access a variety of management and troubleshooting tools in one place. Answer D is incorrect. The Task Scheduler administrative tool is used to schedule administrative tasks using an executable program.

Which of the following partition table formats can be used with disks of any size and allows an almost unlimited number of partitions? A. Logical B. Extended C. GPT D. MBR

Answer C is correct. The GUID Partition Table (GPT) is a new standard supported by modern operating systems. It can be used with disks of any size and allows an almost unlimited number of partitions (128 in Microsoft's implementation). Answer D is incorrect. Master Boot Record (MBR) partition tables are an older standard compatible with nearly all operating systems that store partition info on a boot sector at the beginning of the disk. They support up to four defined partitions, and the entire drive must be 2 TB or smaller. Answer B is incorrect. The extended partition is a special partition on an MBR disk that serves as a container for any number of logical partitions. Answer A is incorrect. The logical partition is a partition defined within the extended partition of an MBR disk.

Which protocol is used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an IP network? A. DHCP B. EAP C. LDAP D. SSH

Answer C is correct. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an open, vendor-neutral, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network. Answer A is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a protocol that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information. Answer D is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer B is incorrect. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a protocol that enables systems to use hardware-based identifiers, such as fingerprint scanners or smart card readers, for authentication.

Which of the following NTFS permissions gives the read and write permissions to a user and allows the user to delete the folder? A. Read & Execute B. List Folder Contents C. Modify D. Write

Answer C is correct. The Modify permission gives the read and write permissions to a user and also allows the user to delete the folder. Answer A is incorrect. The Read & Execute permission gives the read permission, plus the user can run a file if it is executable. Answer B is incorrect. The List Folder Contents permission permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files. Answer D is incorrect. The Write permission gives the read permission, plus the user can add files and create new subfolders.

Which of the following services provides remote display and input capabilities over network connections for Windows-based applications running on a server? A. DHCP B. VPN C. RDP D. DNS

Answer C is correct. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft that provides remote display and input capabilities over network connections for Windows-based applications running on a server. It uses port 3389 as the default port. Answer B is incorrect. The Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. Answer A is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information. Answer D is incorrect. The Domain Name System (DNS) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet and private IP networks.

Jenny, a system administrator in an organization, is working on a computer system. Suddenly, a voltage drop in the power supply occurs that lasts for around 45 minutes. This problem causes the computer system to behave unpredictably. Which of the following power supply problems has occurred in this scenario? A. Power surge B. Blackout C. Brownout D. Sag

Answer C is correct. The brownout power supply problem has occurred in the given scenario as it is a drop in voltage, lasting minutes or hours, which may cause electronic devices to fail or behave unpredictably. Answer B is incorrect. Blackout is a complete interruption of the power supply, lasting any duration. Electrical devices without alternate power will fail. Answer A is incorrect. The power surge is an increase in voltage that can last several seconds and damage the equipment. Answer D is incorrect. Sag or dip is a short-term voltage drop. It is similar to brownout but lasts for a smaller time, usually from few seconds to one minute.

Which of the following Linux commands helps the users to find files with specific words or phrases? A. ps B. pwd C. grep D. vi

Answer C is correct. The grep command is used to search for a pattern of text in files and display the results. This command helps the users to find files with specific words or phrases. Answer B is incorrect. The pwd command is used to show the working directory that the user is currently in. Answer A is incorrect. The ps command is used to display the running system processes. Answer D is incorrect. The vi command is used to edit text files.

Which of the following is the main reason for the 64-bit operating system being more effective and popular than the 32-bit operating system? A. Performs general computing capabilities B. Provides services for other computers over the network C. Handles large amounts of RAM D. Faster than 32-bit

Answer C is correct. The main reason for the 64-bit operating system being more effective and popular than the 32-bit operating system is that the 64-bit operating system can handle larger amounts of random access memory (RAM). The 32-bit computer systems cannot address more than 4 GB of system RAM. Answer D is incorrect. 32-bit Windows operating system is not inherently faster or slower than the 64-bit flavor of the same version of Windows. The algorithms and data structures chosen in an application will have a much greater impact on performance than any differences between 32-bit and 64-bit environments. Answers A and B are incorrect. Both 32-bit and 64-bit operating systems perform general computing capabilities and provide services for other computers over the network.

Which of the following is the result of a security response to failed logon attempts in a mobile device? A. Short battery life B. Overheating C. System lockout D. Frozen system

Answer C is correct. The system lockout is the result of a security response to failed logon attempts in a mobile device. Answer D is incorrect. The frozen system is the result of lack of sufficient storage, too many apps running at one time, or low battery. Answer B is incorrect. Overheating is the result of improper ventilation, excessive processor use, or too many applications and services running at one time. Answer A is incorrect. The short battery life of a mobile device is the result of setting brightness level too high, or too many applications and services running at one time.

You are a support specialist in an organization. As some problems persisted, you are performing the change management process. You are in the last step of the process in which you have to finalize the changes. You have tested the results of the change and enabled the necessary services. Which of the following will be your next step in this process? A. Develop a timetable and operational plan for the change B. Purchase or prepare any resources needed. C. Notify users and administrators. D. Examine the potential impact of the change.

Answer C is correct. Your next step in the process will be to notify users and administrators when the services are restored and also include the relevant results of the change. Answers D and A are incorrect. Examining the potential impact of the change through a risk analysis process and developing a timetable and operational plan for the change are the steps involved while preparing a change request. Answer B is incorrect. Purchasing or preparing any resources which are needed for the change is the first step while preparing for the changes.

Joe, a user, is working on a Windows 8 computer. He is unable to access some files on the hard disk. However, he is able to successfully log on and access other files. What should you do to resolve the issue in the given scenario? A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again. B. Enable the user account on the computer. C. Check the permissions on the hard disk drive. D. Check the hard disk drive using the ScanDisk utility.

Answer C is correct. To resolve the issue in the given scenario, you should check the file permissions for the user on the hard disk drive. According to the question, the user is able to access other files on the hard disk. Hence, the most likely cause of the issue is that the user does not have sufficient privileges on those files. Answer A is incorrect. Logging off and then logging on will not help to resolve the issue in the given scenario. Answer D is incorrect. Checking the hard disk drive using the ScanDisk utility will not help, as the issue is related to permissions. ScanDisk is a Windows utility that is used to check the hard disk for errors and correct problems that are found. Answer B is incorrect. According to the question, the user is able to successfully log on to the computer. This indicates that his user account is already enabled. Hence, there is no need to enable it.

Which of the following Windows versions uses a "rolling release" schedule with regular free feature updates that add new features but don't change the version number? A. Windows 8 B. Windows 7 C. Windows 10 D. Windows 8.1

Answer C is correct. Windows 10 uses a "rolling release" schedule with regular free feature updates that add new features but don't change the version number. Answer A is incorrect. Windows 8 is responsible for the major changes in interface and online functionality. It is the first version to support Windows Store apps. Answer D is incorrect. Windows 8.1 is a free upgrade to Windows 8 intended to refine shortcomings and unpopular features. Answer B is incorrect. Windows 7 is a refinement of Windows Vista, which quickly replaced earlier versions. It is still very common, especially in enterprise environments.

You are working in an organization. You want to configure a security setting on your computer so that it automatically gets locked if it is left idle for five minutes. Which of the following can you use? A. Microsoft Defender B. BitLocker C. Screen Saver D. Firewall

Answer C is correct. You can configure Screen Saver from Control Panel to automatically lock your computer and display moving images or patterns on the screen if it is left idle for five minutes. While configuring Screen Saver, you need to select a time value after which the screen saver will appear and then check the On resume, display logon screen checkbox. This will ask the user for the password on resuming or whenever any activity, such as a mouse movement or keyboard button press is detected. Answer B is incorrect. BitLocker is full-disk encryption software that encrypts entire New Technology File System (NTFS) volumes, including the system drive. Answer A is incorrect. Windows Defender is Microsoft's anti-spyware tool that helps to detect and respond to security threats. Answer D is incorrect. A firewall is a physical device or a software program that examines data packets on a network to determine whether to forward them to their destination or block them.

You want to configure sound settings for your microphone. You migrate to Control Panel > Hardware and Sound > Sound. Which tab of the Sound dialog box will you select to accomplish the task in the given scenario? A. Communications B. Playback C. Recording D. Sounds

Answer C is correct. You should select the Recording tab of the Sound dialog box to accomplish the task in the given scenario. The Recording tab has settings for audio input devices, including standalone microphones and microphones built into headsets. Answer B is incorrect. The Playback tab has settings for audio output devices, including speakers and headphones. Answer D is incorrect. The Sounds tab has settings for sounds Windows plays during specific events, such as errors or connected and disconnected devices. Answer A is incorrect. The Communications tab has settings for muting or reducing other sounds while you're using your computer to place or receive phone calls.

You are a technician in uCertify Inc. Jacob, a software developer in your organization, asks you to install Windows on his Mac system by repartitioning the hard drive. Which of the following Mac OS features will you use in this situation? A. Mission Control B. Dock C. Boot Camp D. Remote Disc

Answer C is correct. You will use the Boot Camp feature of Mac OS to install Windows on Jacob's Mac system by repartitioning the hard drive. After the installation, you can switch between Mac OS X and Windows which makes this a convenient feature for those who need to work with both Mac and Windows operating systems and applications. Answer D is incorrect. The Remote Disc feature is used to access files on a CD or DVD on another computer. Answer B is incorrect. Dock is a bar along the bottom or side of the screen that contains icons for apps that come with the Mac. Answer A is incorrect. The Mission Control feature is used to get a look at all the open windows, and create or switch between multiple desktops.

You are a PC technician in an organization. You are working on a Windows computer and got to know that some necessary DLL files are missing. Which of the following will you do to troubleshoot the missing DLL files? A. Use msconfig . B. Check Event Viewer. C. Use regsvr32. D. Use ipconfig.

Answer C is correct. You will use the regsvr32 command-line utility to register the Dynamic Link Library (DLL) files and recover the necessary files which are missing. This is also sometimes required before the file will run on the system so as to register a new file. Answer D is incorrect. The ipconfig command displays all current Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Answer A is incorrect. The msconfig command-line tool opens the System Configuration Utility dialog box, which can be used to troubleshoot and resolve startup errors, resolve unwanted prompts by third party users, find and resolve problems with running services, and resolve the errors regarding boot paths configured on multi-boot computers. It can also be used to view and manage files or programs processed on startup, including temporarily disabling and re-enabling software, programs, device drivers, or services that run automatically upon startup. Answer B is incorrect. Event Viewer is a component of Microsoft's Windows operating system that lets administrators and users view the event logs on a local or remote machine.

Which of the following passwords is valid for a single session, so can't be reused? A. Default password B. BIOS/UEFI password C. Screensaver password D. OTP

Answer D is correct. A one-time password (OTP) is a type of password that is valid for only one use. It is a secure way to provide access to an application or perform a transaction only one time. Answer C is incorrect. Password-protected screensavers should be used to automatically lock the workstation whenever the user is away. Answer B is incorrect. Basic input/output system (BIOS)/Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) password is used to restrict access of unauthorized people to the computer setup and to secure the booting process. Answer A is incorrect. A default password is a standard pre-configured password for a device.

Joe, an IT technician in an organization, is allowed to use his personal laptop and mobile phone freely for work as the organization feels this saves money and increases the morale of the employees. What kind of policy is being followed by the organization? A. Offboarding B. Acceptable Use C. MDM D. BYOD

Answer D is correct. Bring your own device (BYOD) policy is being followed by the organization in which organizations today actively encourage the idea of letting the employees use their personal devices freely for work which both saves money and increases the morale. Answer B is incorrect. Acceptable use policy (AUP) targets end users, who may be employees or customers using hosted services. An AUP includes procedures and guidelines for use of resources written in terms appropriate to the user's access level and technological knowledge. Answer A is incorrect. Offboarding policy governs the removal of sensitive data and credentials when a user device is no longer used for an organization's business. Answer C is incorrect. Mobile device management (MDM) is a process used to centrally administer devices in order to assign device permissions, verify security compliance, apply updates, or even monitor activity.

In which of the following Mac OS X versions was dark mode introduced to reduce eye strain? A. 10.13 High Sierra B. 10.12 Sierra C. 10.11 El Capitan D. 10.14 Mojave

Answer D is correct. In the 10.14 Mojave Mac OS X version, dark mode was introduced to reduce eye strain. Answer C is incorrect. The San Francisco system typeface was introduced in the 10.11 El Capitan Mac OS X version. Answer B is incorrect. The Siri digital assistant was introduced in the 10.12 Sierra Mac OS X version. Answer A is incorrect. The Apple File System (APFS) file system was introduced in the 10.13 High Sierra Mac OS X version.

What is primarily used to segregate network traffic, optimize network speed, and to permanently assign a network path for a specific protocol or network service? A. NAT B. DMZ C. NIDS D. Port forwarding

Answer D is correct. Port forwarding is primarily used to segregate network traffic, optimize network speed, and to permanently assign a network path for a specific protocol or network service. Answer A is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is an Internet standard that enables a local-area network (LAN) to use one set of IP addresses for internal traffic and a second set of addresses for external traffic. Answer B is incorrect. The demilitarized zone (DMZ) enables external clients to access data on private systems, such as web servers, without compromising the security of the internal network. Answer C is incorrect. A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is a system that uses passive hardware sensors to monitor traffic on a specific segment of the network.

Which of the following includes safety and health information about chemical products, including health risks and storage, disposal recommendations, and procedures for containing a leak or a spill? A. Knowledge base B. Incident documentation C. Network diagram D. Safety Data Sheet

Answer D is correct. Safety Data Sheet (SDS), previously referred to as Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), includes safety and health information about chemical products, including health risks and storage, disposal recommendations, and procedures for containing a leak or a spill. In the US, Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires that the product manufacturer create and provide these sheets for any chemical product that has the potential to impact or harm people or the environment. Each SDS is in the same user-friendly, 16-section format. Answer A is incorrect. The knowledge base is a collection of articles that serves as the first line of customer support, helping them to educate themselves about the products and services, and ideally solve their own problems before calling the help desk. Answer B is incorrect. The incident documentation complies with the incident response process as well as any organizational policies or regulatory requirements. Answer C is incorrect. A network diagram is used to visually represent important components and connections when the user needs to clearly understand network layouts or share them with other people. Network diagrams also can focus either on the network's physical or logical topology.

Which of the following port numbers is used by the Telnet protocol? A. 22 B. 25 C. 110 D. 23

Answer D is correct. Telnet is an application protocol used on the Internet or local area network to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. It uses port 23 as the default port. Answer A is incorrect. The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a network protocol that provides file access, file transfer, and file management over any reliable data stream. It uses port 22 as the default port. Answer B is incorrect. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is an application-layer protocol that enables the transmission and delivery of email messages over the Internet. It uses port 25 as the default port. Answer C is incorrect. The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server. It uses port 110 as the default port.

Why do the commercially distributed software and media make use of DRM? A. To govern the ownership rights B. To download a software C. To install the newer version of a software D. To enforce copyright restrictions

Answer D is correct. The commercially distributed software and media makes use of digital rights management (DRM) to enforce copyright restrictions. DRM may be any variety of digitally enforced techniques such as copy protection, online registration and activation, or hardware dongles needed to run an application. Answer A is incorrect. Commercial software generally includes an end user license agreement (EULA) which governs ownership rights and what the purchaser (the end user) may do with the software. Answer B is incorrect. App Store is a way to download software that is either included with the operating system or is a third-party application on its own. Common app stores include the Apple App Store for macOS and iOS, Google Play Store for Android, and Microsoft Store for Windows. Answer C is incorrect. An in-place upgrade is a method that installs the newer version of software while preserving the existing user files, such as documents and photos, and most of the current system settings, including applications, networking settings, hard disk configuration, and device settings.

You have created a script file that runs in the Windows Command Prompt environment (CMD.EXE) or in its DOS-based predecessors. What is the extension of this script file? A. .vbs B. .ps1 C. .sh D. .bat

Answer D is correct. The extension of the script file that runs in the Windows Command Prompt environment (CMD.EXE) or in its DOS-based predecessors is .bat (batch file). It can automate any number of actions that would normally be performed from the command prompt into a file that can run with a single click. Answer B is incorrect. .ps1 is a script designed to run in the Windows PowerShell environment. Answer C is incorrect. .sh is a shell script that is designed to run in the Linux-based operating system. Answer A is incorrect. .vbs is a script written for the Visual Basic Scripting environment that's included with Windows.

Which of the following net commands is used to set login and password requirements for users? A. net user B. net session C. net computer D. net accounts

Answer D is correct. The net accounts command is used to set login and password requirements for users. Answer B is incorrect. The net session command is used to list or end communication sessions with network computers. Answer A is incorrect. The net user command is used to add, remove, and otherwise manages user accounts on the computer. Answer C is incorrect. The net computer command is used to add or remove a computer from a domain.

Which of the following commands can be used to manage network shares, network print jobs, and network users? A. ping B. tracert C. netstat D. net

Answer D is correct. The net command can be used to manage almost any aspect of a network and its settings, including network shares, network print jobs, and network users. Answer A is incorrect. The ping command is used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol network. Answer B is incorrect. The tracert command determines the route that data takes to get to a particular destination. Answer C is incorrect. The netstat command displays diagnostic information for NetBIOS over Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

Which of the following can hold digital certificates, store temporary data, or even perform cryptographic processing functions to keep its data secure? A. Biometrics B. SSO C. SLA D. Smart card

Answer D is correct. The smart card can hold digital certificates, store temporary data, or even perform cryptographic processing functions to keep its data secure. Answer A is incorrect. Biometrics is any physical property intrinsic to an individual human body, ranging from fingerprints to DNA to scent, which is used for user authentication. Answer B is incorrect. Single sign-on (SSO) is a mechanism that allows one set of user credentials to give access to a large number of services. Answer C is incorrect. A service level agreement (SLA) is a legally binding service contract between a service provider and the end-user.

Which of the following is a complete application installer that requires a network connection to download applications but once downloaded, the user has all the files that are needed? A. Physical media B. Source code C. Online D. Standalone

Answer D is correct. The standalone installers are complete application installers that require a network connection to download the applications but once downloaded, the user has all the files that are needed. They can be installed offline after the download is complete. Answer C is incorrect. The online installers are small files that connect to the Internet and download the application when you install it. They can make sure to install the latest software version, but they won't work if you don't have a network connection during installation. Answer B is incorrect. Source code doesn't use an installer. It is a program code that you must turn into an executable format using a compiler application. Source code distribution is most common for Linux applications, but there are compilers for other operating systems also. Answer A is incorrect. Physical media does not require a network connection to download applications. It is used when the application is on a printed CD or USB drive to run its installer. If it's a portable application you don't even need to install, you can run its executable directly.

Which of the following Mac OS tools creates an incremental backup of files that can be restored at a later date? A. Boot Camp B. Mission Control C. Keychain D. Time Machine

Answer D is correct. Time Machine is a Mac OS tool that creates an incremental backup of files that can be restored at a later date. It is a backup software application developed by Apple that backs up files and folders to an external hard drive, Apple's Time Capsule storage unit, or a hard drive connected to an AirPort Extreme base station. Answer A is incorrect. Boot Camp allows a user to install Windows on the Mac by repartitioning the hard drive. Answer B is incorrect. Mission Control is a feature that allows users to use multiple spaces that can be thought of as multiple desktops. Answer C is incorrect. Keychain allows a user to store and manage passwords for applications, websites, and network shares.

Which of the following are the features which were once popular but have been deprecated and not included in Windows 10? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Gadgets B. Windows Media Center C. Tablet mode D. Microsoft Store

Answers A and B are correct. The following are features that were once popular but have been deprecated and not included in Windows 10: Gadgets featured in Windows Vista and Windows 7 proved to be a security risk and were disabled by Windows 7 updates. They are not available in later versions. Windows Media Center and DVD video playback are no longer included in Windows 8 and later. Answers C and D are incorrect. Tablet mode and Microsoft Store are included in Windows 10. Tablet mode makes Windows 10 more touch-friendly when you use your device as a tablet. The Microsoft Store is an app on Windows 10 that allows you to install apps and games, purchase digital media, and Microsoft devices.

Which of the following are the common system requirements to install and run an application on a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. CPU B. Drive space C. Operating system D. App Store

Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following are the common system requirements to install and run an application on a computer: Operating system, Drive space, CPU, RAM, Network, Graphics, Other hardware, such as speakers, microphone, or camera Services Answer D is incorrect. App Store is not a requirement, it is an app that is used to find and install applications on a computer.

You work as a support technician in an organization. You have been called to troubleshoot an issue in the customer's computer system at his place. What guidelines should you follow for providing good professional service to your customer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Address people appropriately. B. Act like you know what you're doing, even if you might have a doubt. C. Avoid using technical jargon, acronyms, and slang. D. Post your experiences with the customer on social media sites.

Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following are the guidelines for providing good professional service to your customer: Avoid using technical jargon, acronyms, and slang. Never disclose your experiences with the customer on social media sites. Address people appropriately. Act like you know what you're doing, even if you might have a doubt.

Henry, a customer, calls you to explain an issue with his computer and expressed anger about the service provided by your company. What guidelines should you follow while dealing with the customer? A. Avoid being judgemental. B. Ask open-ended questions. C. Do not argue or become defensive. D. Dismiss irrelevant problems.

Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following are the guidelines that should be followed while dealing with the customer: Ask open-ended questions to clarify the customer's statements and narrow the scope of the problem. Avoid dismissing customer problems, while the problem seems irrelevant. Avoid being judgemental. Do not argue with a customer or become defensive.

You are a network administrator of an organization. You have been given a task to maintain the right and healthy environment for the electronic equipment in the server room. What environmental guidelines should you follow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Temperatures should not fluctuate much between 65 to 85 degrees. B. A well-ventilated HVAC system should be used to dissipate heat. C. Humidity should be below 20% in the server room. D. Good ventilation and proper airflow should be maintained.

Answers A, B, and D are correct. The following are the environmental guidelines for maintaining the right and healthy environment for the electronic equipment in the server room: Electronic equipment must be kept in a typical office environment, where temperatures don't fluctuate much between 65 to 85 degrees. A well-ventilated heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) system should be used to dissipate heat. Humidity must be between 20% and 60%. Humidity above 50% to 60% can cause condensation, which can destroy electronic equipment. On the other hand, low humidity breeds static electricity, which can fry delicate computer components. A good airflow can prevent overheating of both the components and the surrounding environment. Good ventilation can also reduce humidity to proper levels.

What are the signs of hijacked email when malware attacks a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Reports from email contacts of unusual messages B. Unfamiliar messages in sent mail folders C. Receiving excessive spam D. Automated responses to messages the user never sent

Answers A, B, and D are correct. The following are the signs of hijacked email when malware attacks a computer system: Unfamiliar messages in sent mail folders Reports from email contacts of unusual messages Automated responses to messages the user never sent Answer C is incorrect. Receiving excessive spam is not a sign of malware, but it can increase the risk of contracting it. Client protection and spam filtering should be done if this is a problem.

Which of the following troubleshooting steps can be performed to correct problems with a slow Windows startup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Disable unnecessary startup applications and services. B. Update drivers. C. Examine group policy settings. D. Reset the computer.

Answers A, B, and D are correct. The following are the troubleshooting steps that can be performed to correct problems with a slow Windows startup: Use MSCONFIG to disable unnecessary startup applications and services. Update drivers. Perform a refresh or factory reset of your computer, after backing up data. Answer C is incorrect. You need to examine group policy settings when Windows user profiles prevent you from logging in.

Andy, a technician in an organization, has to protect and secure the network hosts of his computer system as the risk of attack on the network is quite high. What guidelines should Andy follow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Configure network applications to be as secure as possible without interfering with normal functions. B. Install all types of software from the Internet. C. Ensure that the system has a firewall installed and configured. D. Close unnecessary network services and ports.

Answers A, C, and D are correct. Andy should follow the following guidelines to protect and secure the network hosts of his computer system: Ensure that the system has a firewall installed and configured. Close unnecessary network services and ports. Configure network applications to be as secure as possible without interfering with normal functions. Don't install software from the Internet unless it's known and verified to be safe.

Which of the following are drawbacks of the cloud backup type? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Regulatory requirements might limit cloud storage of some data. B. It backups automatically after setup. C. A system failure or cyberattack could compromise it. D. It consumes Internet bandwidth.

Answers A, C, and D are correct. The following are the drawbacks of the cloud backup type: It consumes Internet bandwidth. It can be more costly than local storage. Regulatory requirements might limit cloud storage of some data. A system failure or cyberattack could compromise it. Answer B is incorrect. An advantage of cloud backup type is as long as you have a stable Internet connection, it's easy to set up cloud backups that happen automatically with no real work on your part.

Which steps should you take to troubleshoot software crashes or compatibility errors in a Windows computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Apply application updates. B. Check the level of fragmentation for magnetic hard drives, and defragment if necessary. C. Change the operating mode of the application. D. Perform a repair install of the application from the Control Panel or Settings.

Answers A, C, and D are correct. To troubleshoot software/application crashes or compatibility errors in a Windows computer, you should take the following steps: Apply application updates. Perform a repair install of the application from the Control Panel or Settings. Change the operating mode of the application on the Compatibility tab of the application's Properties dialog box. Answer B is incorrect. To troubleshoot slow system performance, you should check the level of fragmentation for magnetic hard drives, and defragment if necessary.

You work as a PC technician in an organization. You are working on your Windows computer. Suddenly, the screen of the computer crashes and a blue screen appears on it. Which of the following approaches should you try to troubleshoot this error? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Reboot the computer to see if the problem is resolved. B. Change the orientation of the monitors. C. Check Event Viewer to try to find the problem. D. Note the error and research in Microsoft's Knowledge Base.

Answers A, C, and D are correct. You should try the following approaches to troubleshoot the blue screen of death (BSOD): Check Event Viewer to try to find the problem. Reboot the computer to see if the problem is resolved. Note the error and research in Microsoft's Knowledge Base. Answer B is incorrect. The orientation of the monitors is changed to or from landscape or portrait in troubleshooting the misaligned monitors or incorrect monitor orientation.

Which of the following are the causes of vertical lines on the page in the laser printing process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Fuser unit failure B. Toner on the main corona or transfer corona wire C. The print resolution setting is too low D. Low-resolution image

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following are the causes of vertical lines on the page in the laser printing process: Toner on the main corona or transfer corona wire The print resolution setting is too low Low-resolution image Answer A is incorrect. Fuser unit failure is the cause of ghost images on a printed output in the laser printing process.

Which of the following are the common symptoms of malware present on a personal computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Boots normally B. Frequent security alerts C. Installation of unfamiliar programs D. Changes in file permissions

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following are the common symptoms of malware present on a personal computer: Changes in file permissions Installation of unfamiliar programs Frequent security alerts. Answer A is incorrect because when the system is infected with malware, it does not boot normally, instead, it boots to safe mode.

Which of the following guidelines should be followed for account management in a Windows 7 computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Passwords should be hard to remember for everyone. B. Accounts should be protected by strong passwords or other authentication methods. C. Each user on a workstation should have a separate account. D. Each account should have appropriate user permissions.

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following are the guidelines that should be followed for account management in a Windows 7 computer system: Accounts should be protected by strong passwords or other authentication methods. Each account should have appropriate user permissions. Each user on a workstation should have a separate account. Passwords should be easy for the user to remember, but hard for anyone else to guess or learn.

Smith, a system administrator in an organization, is working on computer equipment and peripheral devices, and he needs to keep himself safe from any kind of injury. What personal safety guidelines should Smith follow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Use surge suppressor. B. Secure loose cables out of the way. C. Use proper lifting techniques when moving heavy equipment. D. Disconnect the power before repairing a computer or other device.

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following are the personal safety guidelines that should be followed by Smith: Disconnect the power before repairing a computer or other device. Remove loose items such as jewelry, scarves, or ties that could get caught on components. Use proper lifting techniques when moving heavy equipment. Be prepared for electrical fires and have a Class C fire extinguisher handy. Secure loose cables out of the way. Answer A is incorrect. A surge suppressor prevents power surges or spikes from reaching sensitive equipment. It is used to protect against problems with the power supply.

Which of the following statements are true about the homegroup sharing model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Each computer on a homegroup has its own list of user accounts, called local accounts. B. Homegroups are created by one user and can be joined by anyone with a shared password. C. Computers in domains can join homegroups, but not create them. D. Home and business editions of Windows can join homegroups.

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following statements are true about the homegroup sharing model: Homegroups are created by one user and can be joined by anyone with a shared password. Computers already in workgroups can create or join homegroups. Computers in domains can join homegroups, but not create them. Home and business editions of Windows can join homegroups, but Windows Server editions might not be able to. Computers on a homegroup continue to use their local or domain accounts. Each user on the homegroup can choose whether to share any of a list of commonly shared items. Unlike workgroups and domains, homegroups don't have unique names. Answer A is incorrect. On a workgroup, each computer has its own list of user accounts, called local accounts. To log onto that computer, you need to have credentials for one of its accounts.

Which of the following are the probable causes of the occurrence of the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) error in a Windows computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Heavily fragmented hard drive B. Device drivers C. Memory D. Malware infection

Answers B, C, and D are correct. While operating a Windows computer, the probable causes of the occurrence of the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) error are: Device drivers Memory Malware infection Answer A is incorrect. The heavily fragmented hard drive is the probable cause of the slow system performance.

You are a technician in an organization. You have been asked to perform in-place upgrades on every user's laptop. Which of the following are the valid paths which you can use during the upgrades? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Windows 8 to Windows 10 B. Windows 8 to Windows 8.1 C. Windows 7 to Windows 10 D. Windows 7 to Windows 8.1

Answers B, C, and D are correct. You can use the following valid paths during the in-place upgrades of the laptops: Windows 7 to Windows 8.1 Windows 7 to Windows 10 Windows 8 to Windows 8.1 Windows 8.1 to Windows 10 Keep in mind that just because Microsoft supports an upgrade from one Windows version to another, the specific version you're using of each is very important. You might not be able to upgrade from Windows 7 Home to Windows 10 Pro, or switch from a 32-bit Windows edition to a 64-bit edition. Answer A is incorrect. You can't move directly from Windows 8 to Windows 10 without installing 8.1 first.

You are a technician in your organization. You have been provided with a mobile device that has many issues such as slow performance, signal and Wi-Fi connectivity issues, some applications are stuck, and some features are not functioning. Which of the following troubleshooting steps will you take to restore the mobile device to a good condition, without affecting the data stored, in the given scenario? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Perform a factory reset. B. Reset network settings. C. Reset settings. D. Power down and restart the device again.

Answers B, C, and D are correct. You will do the following to restore the mobile device to a good condition: Power down and restart the device again. Reset network settings. The Reset network settings option can fix network connectivity issues. Reset settings. The Reset settings option in the settings menu can return the operating system settings to their defaults. Answer A is incorrect. Performing a factory reset can restore the mobile device to a good condition but it will erase all the data on the mobile device.