AAMC FL-2

What is the dichotic listening task?

Dichotic listening task involves presenting two different auditory messages, one to each ear.

What is divergent evolution?

Divergent evolution is the process whereby groups from the same common ancestor evolve and accumulate differences, resulting in the formation of new species. Divergent evolution may occur as a response to changes in abiotic factors, such as a change in environmental conditions, or when a new niche becomes available.

What is generalized anxiety disorder?

Generalized Anxiety Disorder is a persistent worrying of various activities/responsibilies for at least 6 months. Symptoms include fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems. NO DIZZINESS.

What is role engulfment?

In labeling theory, role engulfment refers to how a person's identity becomes based on a role the person assumes, superseding other roles. A negative role such as "sick" can serve to constrict a person's self-image.

What is neuroticism?

Neuroticism is a long-term tendency to be in a negative or anxious emotional state. It is not a medical condition but a personality trait. People with neuroticism tend to have more depressed moods and suffer from feelings of guilt, envy, anger, and anxiety more frequently and more severely than other individuals.

What is perceptual maladaptation?

A trait that is more harmful than helpful

what is the breakdown of the adrenal glands?

Adrenal Medulla: - Catacholamines (Epi or Norepi) - sympathetic NS Adrenal Cortex: - Mineralcorticoids (Aldosterone) and Glucocorticoids (Cortisol)

What is an independent variable vs a dependent variable?

An independent variable is the variable that is changed or controlled in a scientific experiment to test the effects on the dependent variable. A dependent variable is the variable being tested and measured in a scientific experiment. A study finds that reading levels are affected by whether a person is born in the U.S. or in a foreign country. The IV is where the person was born and the DV is their reading level. The reading level depends on where the person was born.

What is assimilation?

Assimilation occurs when an individual rejects their old culture and embraces a new culture

If you get deprived of REM sleep one night what happens to REM sleep the following night?

Being deprived of REM sleep will result in a REM rebound the next night. Have more REM sleep than usual

The following graph plots a muscle power curve superimposed on a curve showing the relationship between the force a muscle generates against a load and the velocity at which the muscle shortens. Assuming the duration of contraction is the same, which point on the power curve corresponds to the LEAST amount of work being done by the muscle? A. Point A B. Point B C. Point C D. Point D

CORRECT - A This question is discretely easy. If know the equation W=Fd, you can see that work and force are directly proportional. So if you follow the force curve on the graph, Point A is the lowest force value, and thus the lowest work value. (Also think that since Power = Work/time, Work = Power * time and since time of contraction is the same and you're given power curve, you can just choose the point with the smallest power value)

QUESTION 32: The average osmotic pressure of ocean water is 28 atm corresponding to a concentration of 0.50 M solutes (approximated as NaCl). What is the approximate concentration of solutes (also approximated as NaCl) present in blood with an osmotic pressure of 7 atm? A. 0.12 M B. 0.25 M C. 2.0 M D. 3.5 M

CORRECT - A 28 atm/0.50M = 7 atm/x -- solve for x; to save time, could have also used relationships and ratios: pressure and concentration are directly related, they need to change in the same way i.e. if the pressure goes down, the concentration needs to go down (right there you elim 2 answers), then it's just a matter of eliminating B because you know the value by which the pressure went down was by a factor of 4, not 2

QUESTION 18: The Cgr1 and Cgr2 proteins are produced from: A. separate mRNAs transcribed from different promoter sequences upstream of each gene. B. a single mRNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence upstream of the operon. C. a single RNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence and alternately spliced to produce separate mRNAs. D. separate mRNAs translated from a single promoter upstream of the operon.

CORRECT - B cgr1 and cgr2 are on the same operon. Thus, they are transcribed together to form a polycistronic mRNA, an mRNA with multiple genes on it that will encode for multiple proteins. This is a common mechanism in prokaryotes.

Why do glycogen stores get depleted during anaerobic respiration?

Depletion of stores of glycogen occurs in order to produce more glucose that can enter lactate fermentation to ultimately make 2 moles of ATP/glucose.

Summary of all the types of brain scans:

CT Purpose: Provide images of the structure of the brain and body Pros: Cheap, very fast Cons: Radiation exposure (X-rays), relatively low detail images, no information regarding brain activity, the patient must be lying still on the table PET (a specific type of CT scan) Purpose: Provide images of the structure and activity of the brain and body Pros: Cheap Cons: Radiation exposure (X-rays + radioisotope), relatively low detail images, the patient must be lying still on the table MRI Purpose: Provide images of the structure of the brain and body Pros: High detail, safe (no radiation) Cons: Time-consuming, more expensive than CT, the patient must be lying still on the table fMRI Purpose: Provide images of the structure and activity of the brain Pros: High detail, safe Cons: Time-consuming, expensive, the patient must be lying still on the table EEG Purpose: Provide information regarding the electrical activity of the brain Pros: Safe, the patient can be moving / performing tasks, can give information over a long period of time (hours to days), it is the only technology on this list that measures electrical activity aka brain waves Cons: No imaging of brain structures... the product is a bunch of waveforms rather than pictures If the question is about imaging structures without studying activity: CT or MRI If the question is about imaging structure and activity: PET or fMRI If the question is about brainwaves / electrical activity or the subject is performing a task: EEG

Which complex is part of both the CAC and the ETC?

Complex II is the only enzyme that is part of both the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain

What is eidetic memory?

Eidetic memory is an ability to recall images from memory vividly after only a few instances of exposure, with high precision for a brief time after exposure, without using a mnemonic device.* Note: aka "photographic memory"

What is the difference b/w fundamental attribution of error, self-serving bias, actor-observer bias and locus of control?

FAE: focuses only on other people's behavior while the actor-observer bias focuses on both. To make it clear, the observer doesn't only judge the actor — they judge the actor and themselves and may make errors in judgement pertaining the actor and themselves at the same time. By definition, the actor-observer bias is our tendency to attribute our own actions to external causes (situations, excuses) while attributing others' actions to internal causes (disposition, their character). "self-serving bias" refers to our tendency to see ourselves in overly favorable light in order to protect our self-esteem, and this involves attributing our successes to our abilities and hard work while blaming external factors for our failures. Locus of control is allocation of responsibility for events in your life. Your locus of control — internal (I am in control) or external (things just happen to me) — has some serious consequences. It defines your behavior, your reactions, your motivation, and much more. Fundamental attribution error -> other people's behavior and outcomes Self-serving bias -> our own behavior and outcomes Actor-observer bias -> both

What are fast twitch muscle fibers?

Fast twitch muscle fibres (also known as type II muscle fibres) are able to contract quickly but they also tire quickly. They are specialised for this purpose in a number of ways: They use mainly anaerobic respiration. While this allows ATP to be generated rapidly (anaerobic respiration is far quicker than aerobic respiration), it is an inefficient process yielding only 2 ATP per glucose and causes muscles to fatigue quickly due to build up of lactic acid . They have low capillary density. Fast twitch muscle is less reliant on aerobic respiration and is therefore also less reliant on the oxygen provided by the blood supply. They have low myoglobin concentrations. This means fast twitch muscle fibres have a reduced oxygen storing capacity. However this is not an issue as they rely primarily on anaerobic respiration. Low myoglobin concentrations make fast twitch fibres appear paler (e.g. chicken breast). They have a lower density of mitochondria. They do not require as many mitochondria per cell as they are less reliant on anaerobic respiration. Instead they express higher levels of cytoplasmic glycolytic enzymes to allow fast glycolysis in anaerobic respiration. They have large glycogen stores. Glycogen can be broken down to quickly generate glucose for glycolysis. Function: seen in higher proportion in muscles which do fast, high precision movements (e.g. eye movements). Fast-Twtich Characteristics: anaerobic respiration, low capillary density, low myglobin concentration, lower density of mitochondria, and larger glycogen stores

Where does lactic acid fermentation take place?

Fermentation is an acidic process that takes place in the cytosol.

How do you determine which isomer is more stable in a mixture of isomers?

For a thermodynamic mixture of isomeric products, the relative mole ratio of products is directly related to the relative stability of these products. The isomer that is made more, at a higher percentage.

What is the fundamental attribution error?

Fundamental attribution error occurs when a person's explanation of someone else's behavior emphasizes personality or dispositional traits, minimizing the possible influence of situational contingencies.*

what is the function of histone-acetyltransferases and histone-deacetylases?

Histones are highly alkaline and are positively charged at physiological pH, which facilitates their interaction with the highly-negative charged phosphate groups on the backbone of DNA. Histone acetylation thus reduces histones positive charge, decreasing the charge repulsion between acetyl groups, increasing transcription. Histone acetyltransferases MASK the positive charge on the histones which in turn will make them LESS attracted to the negatively charged DNA. Therefore the overall effect is LOOSENING of the chromatin to increase transcription. (DEacetylases will basically do the opposite) Deacetylases will inhibition histone acetylation - thus DNA will be tightly condenses around histones and will inhibit transcription. - Increases DNA coiling

QUESTION 14: Based on Figure 1, the best conclusion is that: A. all therapies are equally effective 6 months after treatment. B. CT has the most promising immediate effects. C. both BT and CT are as effective individually as CBT. D. CT is effective only at the 6-month follow-up.

INCORRECT - A chose B Look for statisticaly significant differences in the referred figure There is no asterisk between any of the therapies at the 6-months mark, indicating that the 3 treatments had statistically similar outcomes 6-months after follow up B. CT actually appears to be the least promising immediately after treatment because those in CT started with lower insomnia severity than the other two groups and ended with relatively higher insomnia severity (compared to other groups)

QUESTION 40: Which statement best accounts for the hereditary transmission of SDH-linked paraganglioma in a parent specific manner? SDH is: A. an imprinted gene. B. a Y-linked gene. C. an X-linked gene. D. a tumor suppressor gene.

INCORRECT - A chose B passage states: Genetically, this mutation is transmitted in the germ line and segregates with a benign form of neuroendocrine tumor known as paraganglioma, but only after paternal, not maternal, transmission of the mutated allele. The estimated frequency of the mutated allele in the human population is 10%. Imprinted genes are genes whose expression is determined by the parent that contributed it. In the passage, both parents have the mutant allele. so even though the mom does pass it down, it is not expressed; whereas, when the father passes down the mutant alllele it does get expressed. This is the definition of an imprinted gene b/c the allele is parent-specific and does not follow Mendel's Laws of Inheritance. It can't be Y-linked because the passage states that the allele is present in BOTH genders.

QUESTION 20: If certain stressors lead to an emotional response of anger and hostility, which consequence is more likely for individuals from lower socioeconomic positions? A. Increased incidence of heart disease B. Stronger reliance upon coping mechanisms C. Reduced external locus of control D. Fewer depressive symptoms

INCORRECT - A chose B Also debated Did not notice this from passage: "Such disproportionate exposure, especially when combined with weak stress mediators, can explain persistent mental and physical health disparities." Certain stressors such as anger and hostility have been found to be associated with increased risk of heart disease --> physical health disparities are also mentioned in the last paragraph

QUESTION 19: "Regardless of the relative effect of race, research has established that people in lower socioeconomic positions face disproportionate exposure to certain stressors. Such disproportionate exposure, especially when combined with weak stress mediators, can explain persistent mental and physical health disparities." Based on the information presented in the passage, which correlation coefficient provides the best estimate of the association between SES and level of exposure to stress? A. -0.20 B. -0.05 C. +0.15 D. +0.50

INCORRECT - A chose B Negative correlation between low SES and stressors, and the passage describes the correlation as "disproportionate," so the number should probs be high While this is negative, the magnitude is smaller compared to A, so it's not the BEST answer

QUESTION 32: Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity (paragraph 3)? A. PET B. EEG C. MRI D. CT

INCORRECT - A chose B The answer to this question comes in reading mostly. The key word is "imaging". Although the trigger word "neural activity" screams EEG, it is not really an imaging test, as it only gives waves of brain activity. The best possible answer is fMRI and PET, as they show structure and activity in one "image". - PET uses a radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog. More glucose use = more activity. - fMRI uses magentic resonance to detect changes in blood oxygenation. More oxygen demands = more activity. fMRI > PET for this, but fMRI is not an answer choice. If the question is about imaging structures without studying activity: CT or MRI If the question is about imaging structure and activity: PET or fMRI If the question is about brainwaves / electrical activity or the subject is performing a task: EEG

QUESTION 11: Assume that a certain species with sex chromosomes R and S exists such that RRindividuals develop as males and RS individuals develop as females. Which of the following mechanisms would most likely compensate for the potential imbalance of sex-chromosome gene products between males and females of this species? A. Inactivation of one R chromosome in males B. Doubling transcription from the S chromosome in females C. Inactivation of the R chromosome in females D. Doubling transcription from the R chromosomes in males

INCORRECT - A chose B The inactivation of one of the R chromosomes will correct the potential imbalance of the sex chromosome's gene products. This is analogus to X inactivation of the X chromosome on XX. X chromosome carries more genetic material than the Y anytime there is an imbalance Q just turn off one of the X chromosomes!!!!

QUESTION 9: The finding from Study 3 regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism? Increasing emotional arousal: A. causes a restriction of the focus of attention. B. improves memory, but only up to an optimal level of arousal. C. impairs the encoding of peripheral details. D. enhances the retrieval of encoded central details.

INCORRECT - A chose C From the reddit post linked on the right: the Q-stem asks about "... effects of emotional arousal on memory for central AND peripheral details ..." This is viable because focusing attention means that the objects the person is paying attention to will be easier to remember than the things that were on the periphery. The answer choice must account for both peripheral AND central details (refer to the wording of the STEM)

QUESTION 45: Certain viruses contain RNA as their genetic material. One of the ways these RNA viruses replicate themselves is to: A. code for or carry a transcriptase that copies viral RNA. B. infect microorganisms possessing RNA as their genetic material. C. alter the host cell's polymerase in order to synthesize progeny viral RNA from the viral RNA template. D. stimulate the transcription of specific sequences of the host's DNA, which, in turn, direct the assembly of viral particles.

INCORRECT - A chose C The answer to this question is A because RNA viruses require a type of transcriptase (reverse transcriptase) to replicate themselves. C. this option is saying it will go into an organism with RNA as their geneic material, which is not the case . RNA -> Reverse transcriptase -> vDNA -> Integrase -> Integrates into host cell -> Transcription -> mRNA -> ETC... D. This option is supposed to make you think it is talking about + sense RNA viruses. This is a trick option because + sense RNA viruses rely on host ribosomes, they do not rely on host polymerase. + sense viruses basically deliver mRNA into the cell. This is out of scope but it might help you understand: These viruses have a large genome and one of the first proteins they code for is their own RNA replicase (RNA dependent polymerase) to replicate their genome.

QUESTION 21: Cgr2 expression in E. lenta DSM2243 cells exposed to digoxin is shown. (Note: L indicates low, and H indicates high.) Dihydrodigoxin levels in the culture medium of E. lenta cells would most likely be highest in which data set? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

INCORRECT - A chose D Dihydrodigoxin levels will be the highest when Digoxin levels are low. P1 states digoxin is inactivated and excreted as dihydrodigoxin. Now based on other information in the passage, it is evident that Cgr expression is related to inactivation/reduced effect of digoxin. The answer will represent a situation where digoxin is inactivated/ineffective due to increased expression of Cgr and therefore increased levels of dihydrodigoxin.

QUESTION 26: If HDAC inhibition by βOHB is a physiological response in living animals, the information in the passage indicates it is likely to occur when: A. there is sustained fatty acid oxidation. B. the pentose phosphate shunt is activated. C. there is increased gluconeogenesis. D. the Cori cycle is occurring.

INCORRECT - A chose D Sustained fatty acid oxidation and ketogenesis are the major source of energy during starvation. And since the passage defines BHOB is a "major source of energy" during prolonged exercise and starvation, Choice A is the best answer.

QUESTION 17: Based on the passage, the overexpression of which protein is most likely associated with GM6112 cells becoming cancerous? A. cFLIP B. Caspase-8 C. FADD D. Fas

INCORRECT - A chose D The answer to this question is A because the overexpression of cFLIP would prevent the activation of caspase-8, which would lessen the apoptotic response. Inhibition of apoptosis is a characteristic of cancer cells. cFLIP inhibits apoptosis bc blocks caspase 8. So if a cancerous cell is not undergoing apoptosis, that means that it will continue to replicate and divide without ever dying. This will lead to cancer.

QUESTION 41: Which statement is supported by the data in Table 2? A. Young adults report attending religious services less often than older adults. B. Age is the most significant factor in determining if one will attend religious services. C. Half of all Americans attend religious services weekly. D. There is a significant positive correlation between age and religious attendance.

INCORRECT - A chose D Dumb mistake, don't know why I didn't read choices properly or looked too much into it. If it weren't for signicant part, D would be good answer. but is A D. The reason this answer is wrong because of the key word -> "significant"

QUESTION 28: Which statement is best supported by the data using the anti-AcTubK40 antibody? A. HDACs acetylate many types of target protein besides histones. B. βOHB is not a general deacetylase inhibitor. C. βOHB is present in the nucleus but not the cytoplasm. D. βOHB inhibits different deacetylases compared to butyrate.

INCORRECT - B chose C According to Figure 1, BHOB does not change AcTubk40 acetylation level, but it does change the other two, showing that BHOB is specific to the other two, thus it is not a general deactylase inhibitor.

QUESTION 23: Which statement is LEAST supported by the experimental data? A. A high cgr ratio correlates with increased excretion of reduced digoxin. B. The cgr operon is functionally more active in the FAA 1-3-56 strain than in the DSM2243 strain of E. lenta. C. A low cgr ratio correlates with reduced digoxin inactivation. D. The abundance of the cgr operon in gut flora may predict the bioavailability of digoxin in individual patients.

INCORRECT - B chose C Both table 1 and figure 1 show that FAA-1-3-56 has a decreased effect on reduction of digoxin. Since the expression of the operon is related to increased reduction as shown in table 1, FAA-1-3-56 must have less active cgr operon. The fact that it is "more active" is thus LEAST supported by the data.

QUESTION 25: HDACs change chromatin by: A. decreasing its coiling and promoting DNA replication. B. Increasing its condensation and inhibiting transcription. C. decreasing charge repulsion between acetyl groups, which increases transcription. D. loosening the attachment of DNA to nucleosome core particles.

INCORRECT - B chose C The answer to this question is B because the passage states that HDACs counter the effects of histone acetyltransferases (HATs). As histone acetylation typically promotes transcription by modifying chromatin structure, HDACs would inhibit transcription by condensing chromatin structure.

QUESTION 38: Which component of the electron transport chain is defective in cells from an SDH-linked paraganglioma tumor? A. Complex I B. Complex II C. Complex III D. Complex IV

INCORRECT - B chose D Succinate feeds into Complex II of the ETC directly. A dysfunction of the SDH enzyme will directly affect Complex II. Note: Complex II is the only enzyme that is part of both the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain

QUESTION 11: Monkeys were raised on a diet of either high- or low-quality protein, and then were given free access to high- and low-quality protein diets. The diet preference for both groups of monkeys is shown. (Note: Both groups of monkeys consumed the same amount of food.) The data indicate that: A. the feeding behavior of monkeys was not affected by either prior diet type. B. prior protein insufficiency was a stronger predictor of future feeding behavior than prior protein sufficiency. C. prior feeding history influenced future feeding behavior in monkeys raised on a high-quality protein diet only. D. the feeding behavior was solely determined by both prior diet types.

INCORRECT - C chose A Significance when it comes to bar graphs is indicated in two ways. They'll sometimes tell you that the difference is significant by indiciating with an asterisk or giving you a p-value. Other times, in this case for example, they'll give you a graph in which the error bars do not overlap. Any time you're given a bar graph with error bars that don't overlap, you can assume statistical significance. That's why C is the correct answer in this case and not A.

QUESTION 56: If the researchers wanted to study the impact of emotions on cardiac mortality during the holidays, which concept are they LEAST likely to address? A. Learned helplessness B. Locus of control C. Fundamental attribution error D. Self-efficacy

INCORRECT - C chose B FAE: focuses only on other people's behavior, doesn't have anything to do with emotions I guess??? Honestly super tricky and the only way i can rationalize this answer is that fundamental att error would impact the person who died's perspective on OTHER people which has nothing to do with how their (the dead person's) emotions

QUESTION 7: Which statement is the most reasonable explanation for the observation of intrusion errors in Study 2? A. False information was encoded. B. Memory is prospective. C. Memory is reconstructive. D. Repressed information was retrieved.

INCORRECT - C chose D Intrusion errors occur when information that is related to the theme of a certain memory, but was not actually a part of the original episode, become associated with the event. *Because memory is reconstructive, which can lead to false memories, we can have intrusion errors. D. repressed memory is unconscious that requires some sort of therapy to bring it out; no reason to believe this memory was repressed this is just a distractor

QUESTION 1: Individual M has longer limbs and muscles than Individual N. Both individuals lift the same amount of weight from the ground to their shoulders an equal number of times. If all repetitions were completed in synchrony, which statement about the amount of work completed by the individuals is true? At the end of the workout: A. both individuals will have done the same amount of work because the force was applied for the same duration of time. B. Individual M will have done less work because the object was moved a greater distance. C. Individual N will have done less work because the object was moved a shorter distance. D. Individual M will have done more work because the muscle contracted faster to achieve synchrony with Individual N.

INCORRECT - C chose D passage stated that: The passage states that the length of a muscle fiber does not contribute to the force it generates but that length is important in determining how much work the muscle can do. This question is asking about the work. W=Fd Individual N has shorter limbs and muscles and they are doing less work than individual M. Work= (Force)(Distance) so if theres less work, then less force is applied and the object is moved at a shorter distance. D. Individual M has done more work but work is not dependent on speed and it doesn't matter if the muscle contracted faster.

QUESTION 42: Which of the following graphs shows the radioactivity of the antibody-Protein X precipitate in the extracellular growth medium if Hypothesis 2 is correct? (image on flipside) A. B. C. D.

INCORRECT - D chose A Since the protein is modified first, it will have to undergo a process before secretion. This means there will be a delay in the secretion and the presence of the protein. The figure given in the passage measures Protein X concentration INSIDE of the cell. The question stem is asking for the Protein X concentration after the protein is secreted by the cell into EXTRACELLULAR enviornment. Choice D is the only graph that shows an increase in protein X concentration after 1200 seconds.

QUESTION 28: Public health campaigns often target behaviors that are formed in adolescence. For example, alcohol, tobacco, and drug use interventions are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors because patterns established in adolescence are associated with disorders in adulthood. This example is best described as using which approach to health? A. The biopsychosocial model of health risks B. A macrosociological perspective on health risks C. The social construction of health behavior D. A life course perspective on health behavior

INCORRECT - D chose A Key for this is how behaviors in ADOLESCENCE affect disorders in ADULTHOOD. The reason this is life course is because they are targeting behaviors in adolescence in order to prevent behaviors in adulthood. In order to do so, one must prescribe to the perspective that behaviors in adolescence and those in adult are linked and part of a factor in analyzing behaviors, hence life course.

QUESTION 52: SSRIs most likely relieve depression by increasing the: A. amount of serotonin that is absorbed by the postsynaptic neuron. B. release of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. C. rate of serotonin synthesis in the presynaptic neuron. D. amount of time that serotonin is present in the synaptic space.

INCORRECT - D chose A The SSRIs mechanism is by decreasing serotonin reuptake by the pre-synpatic neuron and thus increasing its time in the synapse so that it can bind to post-synpatic receptors. A. This is tempting! But serotonin is not what gets absorbed, it only binds to the receptor on the post-synapstic receptor and triggers downstream action potential.

QUESTION 49: The regulation of which neurotransmitter is implicated in the specific finding reported with Study 1? A. Acetylcholine B. GABA C. Endorphins D. Serotonin

INCORRECT - D chose B Serotonin modulates mood (specifically aggression), sleep, appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements) and dreaming A. Acetylcholine is used by the somatic nervous system to move muslces. It is also used by the PNS and CNS B. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. They act as brain stabilizers C. Endorphins are natural pain killers

QUESTION 1: A researcher attempts to replicate studies 1 and 2 with a group of 5-year-olds by using simplified versions of the games. Which cognitive limitation is most likely to inhibit the participants' performance on the dependent variables? A. Lack of object permanence B. Limited understanding of conservation C. Centration D. Egocentrism

INCORRECT - D chose B did not notice that the problem asked for replicating studies 1 and 2. The important part of this question that should be taken into consideration is the cognitive limitations as it relates to the dependent variables. Study 1 and Study 2 focus on perspective-taking and empathy, respectively. So the question is basically asking what limits their ability to take the perspective of others and to be empathetic. Egocentrism is viewing the world in their own perspective. Egocentrism is found in kids during Piaget's preoperational stage which occurs from 2 years to 7. B. Understanding of conservation is believing that the amount of a liquid doesn't change when the container it is placed in changes (ages 7-11). Even though the 5-year-olds do lack an understanding of conservation, it has nothing to do with the dependent variables of the study, perspective-taking and empathy.

QUESTION 15: Which type of catalytic activity is most likely missing from cFLIP? A. Oxidoreductase activity B. Lyase activity C. Isomerase activity D. Hydrolase activity

INCORRECT - D chose B Break a peptide bond using water(hydrolysis) make a peptide bond by losing a water(condensation) Passage states that cFLIP is a "homolog of caspase-8 that lacks catalytic activity". Proteases (such as caspase-8 in the passage) breakdown proteins - they break peptide bonds. Peptide bond breakage happens via hydrolysis, so proteases are a type of hydrolase enzymes.

QUESTION 47: The rate of a typical enzymatic reaction is increased by which of the following changes? A. Decrease in a substrate concentration B. Increase in pH from 6.8 to 7.4 C. Increase in the energy of activation D. Increase in temperature from 20°C to 37°C

INCORRECT - D chose B Increasing temperature increases rate of a reaction because more molecules possess enough energy to overcome the energetic barrier of a reaction (activation energy) at a higher temperature. B. For the sake of kinetics, unless explicitly stated in the passage, the only two things that can effect the rate of the reaction are temperature and enzymes. You have no idea if increasing the pH will denature the enzyme or not.

QUESTION 52: At the end of Study 2, the researchers' recommendation suggests that parents in food-insecure households are subject to which role dynamic? A.Role engulfment B.Role confusion C.Role conflict D.Role strain

INCORRECT - D chose C debated bw these two choices Role strain refers to difficulty managing just one role. Since there is only one role to manage (i.e. the parental role) this is the correct answer C. Role Conflict involves difficulty managing multiple roles. There is only one role (i.e. the parental role) involved in this Q STEM -- therefore this answer is incorrect B. Role confusion is apart of the 5th stage of Erikson's Psychosocial development model. This occurs when children exploring their surroundings do not end up successfully forming their own identity.

QUESTION 37: Which type(s) of restriction enzyme(s) can recognize the HIF binding sequence? A restriction enzyme that has: a four-base recognition sequence a six-base recognition sequence an eight-base recognition sequence A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only

INCORRECT - D chose C passage states: HIF is a nuclear factor that specifically binds to a CCCCGGGC target sequence. Restriction enzymes recognize palindrome sequences. In the given nucleotide sequence there are 2 identifiable palindromes. I & II. Is correct b/c CCGG and CCCGGG is a palindrome sequence that is found within the given nucleotide sequence. Both I and II can be used as a recogntition sequence for the restriction enzyme. III. This is incorrect b/c there is no palindrome sequence of 8 nucleotide length found in the sequence given.

QUESTION 4: Which of the following hypothetical findings would best support the researchers' hypothesis? A. Participants who have thicker cortexes show improved performance in both studies. B. Participants who have impairments in recognizing faces perform poorly in Study 2, but not in Study 1. C. Participants with damage to the language centers of the brain have difficulty understanding the rules for the war game in Study 1, but they perform similarly to unimpaired participants in Study 2. D. Participants with damage to a specific region of the cortex have difficulty inferring others' feelings in Study 2, but they perform similarly to unimpaired participants in Study 1.

INCORRECT - D chose C was debating between these two choices If the participants could not experience empathy but are still able to perform well on perspective-taking, that would mean that empathy and perspective-taking are managed by different regions of the brain, indicating that they are different skills which supports the hypothesis of the researcher. C. Not being able to understand the rules is not the same as not being able to understand the perspective of others or not having empathy. In other words, damage to one part of the brain does not mean there is damage to another.

What is illness anxiety disorder?

Illness anxiety disorder is hypochondrism. It is being overly anxious that one is getting sick, to the point where normal body functions are interpreted as signs of illness.

What is convergent evolution?

In evolutionary biology, convergent evolution is the process whereby organisms not closely related (not monophyletic), independently evolve similar traits as a result of having to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches Dolphins are mammals whereas sharks are not - so they obviously come from different ancestors. However, they have similar functionalities that allow them to survive in the same location.

What is incentive theory vs drive reduction theory?

Incentive theory explains that ppl are motivated by the desire to pursue external rewards and avoid punishments. When a need is satisfied, drive is reduced and the organism returns to a state of homeostasis and relaxation>>> when thinking of drive theory think about physiological needs and in particular how they affect us in a nagging way which "drives" us to reduce that feeling. If you are say very thirsty you will have "drive" to rid yourself of this thirst.

What is social facilitation?

It refers to being observed by others. When you perform an easy task, you perform better at it (facilitation). When you perform a difficult task, you perform worse at it (impairment). Social facilitation is defined as improvement in individual performance when working in front of other people rather than alone.

Osteoblasts vs Osteoclasts

Key words: Osteoblast: Build bones (absorbs calcium) Osteoclast: chews up/consumes bones (release calcium to the blood stream)

The Krebs cycle produces what?

Krebs cycle produces: - 4 net NADH - 1 net FADH2 - 1 net GTP - 3 net CO2

Why is lactate fermentation triggered in response to anaerobic conditions?

Lactate fermentation is triggered in response to anaerobic conditions to regenerate NAD+

What is the function of Ligase, Primase, Helicase and Topoisomerase?

Ligase joins DNA fragments together usually in okazaki fragments Primase synthesized RNA primers needed to begin replication Helicase unzips the DNA Topoisomerase prevents supercoiling

What is the self-determination theory?

Macro theory of human motivation and personality. SDT basically says that you're only intrinsically motivated to do something if it promotes your basic needs, which are the feeling for competence, relatedness, and autonomy. This means that behaviors which satisfy these needs feel good in it of themselves. For example, on average we desire to spend time with friends and family and when we do so, it feels good. We don't get any external reward for doing so (eg, our parents don't pay us to hang out with them). According to SDT, this is because of the satisfaction of relatedness. For behaviors that do not map into these needs, we may be more extrinsically motivated. For example, working in retail does not feel good on its own, but getting a paycheck does. Because we are rewarded by an external factor (eg, a paycheck) and not from the behavior itself, we are extrinsically motivated.

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?

Medulla oblangata is for autonomic system like heart rate and breathing

What is methylation of DNA?

Methyl group (---CH3) is added to one of the two bases Bacteria - Adenine Eukaryote - Cytosine DNA methylation is a biological process by which methyl groups are added to the DNA molecule. Methylation can change the activity of a DNA segment without changing the sequence. When located in a gene promoter, DNA methylation typically acts to repress gene transcription

What are NMDA receptors?

NDMA receptors are a subtype of glutamate receptors

What is panic disorder?

Panic disorders present with sympathetic symptoms, Symptoms include a pounding heart, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and feeling dizzy. Side note: Panic disorder is often accompanied by agoraphobia, which is a fear of being in public settings where escape may be difficult like an elevator

What is the function of pons?

Pons is part of the brainstem that connects the medulla oblongata to the thalamus. It is for sleep.

Do prokaryotes modify RNA post-transcription?

Prokaryotes do not modify RNA post-transcription.

What is prospective memory?

Prospective memory is a form of memory that involves remembering to perform a planned action or recall a planned intention at some future point in time.* This is one type of memory that declines with age. Prospective memory is "remembering to remember". Something like man I've got to remember to buy milk at the grocery store later or maybe even something more serious like I need to remember to tell my grandmother with alzheimers to take her blood pressure medicine.

What is reproductive memory?

Reproductive memory is the accurate retrieval of information from memory without significant alteration.* It is also important to note that human's memories are fallible -- thus our memory is reconstructive rather than reproductive (i.e. perfect).

What sequences do restriction enzymes recognize?

Restriction enzymes recognize palindrome sequences.

What is self-verification?

Self-Verification refers to the tendency to seek out evidence and agree with information that is consistent with one's self concept.

What is self-efficacy?

Self-efficacy is one's belief that they have the ability and skills required to achieve something

What are slow twitch muscle fibers?

Slow twitch muscle fibres (also known as type I muscle fibres) contract more slowly but tire less easily. They are also specialised in the following ways: They use mainly aerobic respiration. This allows large amounts of ATP to be generated (36-38ATP per glucose) but more slowly. Contraction is slower but the muscle is less likely to fatigue. They have high capillary density. This provides a large and continuous supply of oxygen and glucose. They have high concentrations of myoglobin within the muscle fibres. This gives the muscle fibres a high oxygen storage capacity which is important in maintaining a continuous oxygen supply for aerobic respiration. High concentrations of myoglobin make muscle fibres appear more red (e.g. chicken leg). They have a higher density of mitchondria within cells as they rely on aerobic respiration. They have smaller glycogen stores. The high capillary density brings in a steady supply of both glucose and oxygen which means that glycogenolysis is not required. Function: seen in muscle groups where sustained contraction is required such as those involved in posture (e.g. back muscles).

Does social capital determine SES?

Social capital does not determine SES, and lower SES groups often have greater social capital (ex: immigrant groups having tighter communities and therefore better health outcomes).

What is social solidarity?

Social solidarity emphasizes the interdependence between individuals in a society, which allows individuals to feel that they can enhance the lives of others. It is a core principle of collective action and is founded on shared values and beliefs among different groups in society

What is Somatic symptom disorder?

Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by an extreme focus on physical symptoms — such as pain or fatigue — that causes major emotional distress and problems functioning. Ex: someone cutting themself while cooking and then worrying so much about it that they call 911 and are unable to perform normal tasks).

What is the expectancy-value theory?

The amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of BOTH the individual's expectation of success in reaching the goal, and the degree to which he or she values succeeding at the goal.

What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?

The relationship between performance and emotional arousal is a U-shaped correlation: People will perform best when they are moderately aroused

What is self-serving bias?

The self-serving bias refers to the tendency to attribute internal factors for success and external factors for failure, particularly when someone is explaining their own behavior.

What are the 3 main components to SES?

The three main components of SES are income, status, and education.

What is motion parallax?

Things farther moves slower, things closer move faster

Why is tubulin used as a control?

Tubulin is a stable cytoskeletal protein and is often used as a control to compare the size of another protein during experiments.

What is labeling theory?

a behavior is deviant if society has judged it to be deviant and labeled it as such

What is learned helplessness?

a condition in which a person suffers from a sense of powerlessness, arising from a traumatic event or persistent failure to succeed. It is thought to be one of the underlying causes of depression.

What is the psychodynamic theory?

a view that explains personality in terms of conscious and unconscious forces, such as unconscious desires and beliefs (for example, wishes and fears of which we're not fully aware), and contends that childhood experiences are crucial in shaping adult personality.

What are the enzymes associated with the complexes in the ETC?

complex I - NADH Reductase complex II - Succinate complex III - Cytochrome Reductase complex IV - Cytochrome Oxidase

Which amino acid is capable of forming disulfide bonds?

cysteine

What is anomie?

disconnect from society due to a breakdown of norms

Which type of tissue can secrete mucous?

epithelial tissue is the only one with goblet cells that release mucous

What is centration?

focusing attention on one characteristic to the exclusion of all others.

What are heterochromatin and euchromatin?

heterochromatin (similar to methylation) - very compact DNA bound tightly - genes in this region aren't usually expressed euchromatin (similar to acetylation) - less compact, more accessible to transcription factors

What is the diff between intragenerational and intergenerational mobility?

intra - movement of social class within one's own lifetime inter - movement of social class between generations

in cognitive dissonance you change your _______________ to match your ________________?

thoughts to match your behavior

What is the 5 factor model of personality?

openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, neuroticism (ocean)

Which AA is being substituted for what in this sentence? One of these mutations is a single base pair change in exon 16 of MET, which substitutes an arginine residue for a histidine residue at position 1112.

the MET mutation causes a histidine residue to be replaced with an arginine residue at position 1112.

What is the Cori Cycle?

the metabolic pathway in which lactate produced by anaerobic glycolysis in the muscles moves to the liver and is converted to glucose, which then returns to the muscles and is metabolized back to lactate another name for lactic acid formation